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total review 8
199
Anatomy
Professional
12/11/2012
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Term
1.     2 types of non-inflammatory arthritides.
 Definition
1) DISH, 2) DJD
Term
2.     5 different types of inflammatory arthritides.
 Definition
1) REITERS, 2) RA, 3) PSORIATIC, 4) AS, 5) ENTEROPATHIC
Term
3.     If a patient has a thin disc without osteophytic changes, the doctor should be thinking the patient has _____.
 Definition
DJD
Term
4.     The posterior translation of a vertebra seen when one has DJD is called _____.
 Definition
RETROLISTHESIS
Term
5.     What is the most common site of DJD?
 Definition
THE SUPERIOR LATERAL HIP
Term
6.     _____ are the DIP’s affected by DJD.
 Definition
HERBERDEN’S NODES
Term
7.     _____ are the PIP’s affected by DJD.
 Definition
BOUCHARD’S NODES
Term
8.     DISH stands for _____.
 Definition
DIFFUSE IDIOPATHIC SKELETAL HYPEROSTOSIS
Term
9.     Which arthritide is known as causing “flowing candle wax.”
 Definition
DISH
Term
10.  _____ is an arthritide that causes a sharp claw-like osteophyte in the pubic symphysis joint space.
 Definition
DISH
Term
11.  When one has diabetes, neurotrophic arthropathies will affect these 3 places.
 Definition
1) HIPS, 2) KNEES, 3) FEET
Term
12.  When one has neurotrophic arthropathies in the shoulders, the doc should think the patient has _____.
 Definition
SPINAL TUMORS (SYRINGOMYELIA)
Term
13.  3 causes of neurotrophic arthropathies.
 Definition
1) CONGENITAL 2) IATROGENIC, 3) ACQUIRED
Term
14.  3 red flags associated with neurotrophic arthropathy.
 Definition
1) ALTERED GAIT PATTERNS, 2) LOSS OF DEEP TENDON REFLEXES, 3) PAIN INSENSITIVITY
Term
15.  What type of neurotrophic arthropathy is most common?
 Definition
HYPERTROPHIC
Term
16.  These are the 6 D’s of hypertrophic neurotrophic arthropathy.
 Definition
1) DISTENDED JOINT, 2) DENSITY INCREASED, 3) DEBRIS PRODUCTION, 4) DISLOCATION, 5) DISORGANIZATION, 6) DESTRUCTION
Term
17.  Which arthritide is associated with the licked candy-stick appearance?
 Definition
ATROPHIC NEUROTROPHIC ARTHRITIS
Term
18.  SCM arthritis stands for _____.
 Definition
SYNOVIOCHONDROMETAPLASIA
Term
19.  The most common site of SCM is in the _____.
 Definition
KNEE
Term
20.  _____ is an arthritide condition that cause pannus formation that destroys bone and cartilage. A patient will complain of swelling of at least one other joint within 3 months.
 Definition
RA
Term
21.  Does DJD or RA get better with activity?
 Definition
RA
Term
22.  This lab is important in diagnosing RA.
 Definition
RHEUMATOID FACTOR
Term
23.  _____ are the bony growths at the MCP’s in patients with RA.
 Definition
HAYGARTH’S NODES
Term
24.  _____ is the extension of the joints of the hands seen in RA.
 Definition
BOUTONNIERE’S DEFORMITY
Term
25.  _____ is the flexion of the joints of the hands seen in RA.
 Definition
SWANN-NECK DEFORMITY
Term
26.  _____ is the most common cause of bilateral protrusion acetabuli in the hips.
 Definition
RA
Term
27.  When one has RA, there will be an increase in the _____ of the pelvis.
 Definition
TEARDROP DISTANCE
Term
28.  When one sees a spotty carpal sign in a wrist x-ray, the doctor should be thinking of these 2 conditions.
 Definition
RA AND GOUT
Term
29.  One must worry about _____ when a patient has RA of the cervical spine.
 Definition
UPPER CERVICAL INSTABILITY
Term
30.  What are the 2 most common locations of RA?
 Definition
1) MCP’S, 2) CERVICAL SPINE
Term
31.  RA generally tends to erode the MTP’s medially except on the _____ where it will be both medially and laterally.
 Definition
5TH DIGIT OF THE FOOT
Term
32.  These are the 4 sero-negative arthritides.
 Definition
PSORIATIC, ENTEROPATHIC, AS, REITERS SYNDROME
Term
33.  What is the age of onset for AS?
 Definition
15-35 years
Term
34.  AS initially begins in the _____ joints.
 Definition
SI JOINTS
Term
35.  When one has AS, you must DDX with _____ except for the cervical spine.
 Definition
ENTEROPATHIC ARTHRITIS
Term
36.  _____ is the pseudoarthrosis following a carrot stick fracture when one has AS.
 Definition
ANDERSON’S LESIONS
Term
37.  3 stages of the SI joints in AS.
 Definition
1) PSEUDO-WIDENING, 2) EROSION AND SCLEROSIS, 3) ANKYLOSIS
Term
38.  Which arthritide is associated with the trolley and dagger signs?
 Definition
AS
Term
39.  These 2 arthritides will cause bilateral SI joint fusion.
 Definition
AS AND ENTEROPATHIC ARTHRITIS
Term
40.  This arthritide is associated with the pencil in cup and mouse ear deformities.
 Definition
PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS
Term
41.  When a patient has _____, they will present with silvery scaly patches on the extensor surfaces of the forearms, knees, and back.
 Definition
PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS
Term
42.  _____ is an arthritide that causes sausage digits.
 Definition
PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS
Term
43.  This arthritide will cause opera glass hand deformity.
 Definition
PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS
Term
44.  Psoriatic arthritis will give a _____ when all the joints in the fingers are affected.
 Definition
RAY APPEARANCE
Term
45.  _____ is an arthritis associated with urethritis, conjunctivitis and polyarthritis.
 Definition
REITER’S SYNDROME
Term
46.  _____ are skin manifestations seen on the soles of feet, palms of hands, and mucocutaneous lesions when one has reiter’s syndrome.
 Definition
PUSTULAR PSORIASIS
Term
47.  What is another name for reiter’s syndrome?
 Definition
REACTIVE ARTHRITIS
Term
48.  This is the main lab used to diagnose reiter’s syndrome.
 Definition
HLA-B27
Term
49.  When one has arthritis in the SI joint unilaterally, the doctor should think of these 3 conditions.
 Definition
1) RA, 2) PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS, 3) REITER’S SYNDROME
Term
50.  _____ is a chronic connective tissue disorder that causes red and swollen nail beds, pericarditis in the heart, and pleurititis in lungs.
 Definition
SLE
Term
51.  The most characteristic radiographic findings of SLE occur in the _____.
 Definition
HANDS
Term
52.  _____ is a generalized systemic inflammatory connective tissue disease that causes build up of collagen in the skin and other organs.
 Definition
SCLERODERMA
Term
53.  This is the CREST of symptoms associated with scleroderma.
 Definition
CALCIUM DEPOSITS, RAYNAUD’S PHENOMENON, ESOPHAGEAL DYSFUNCTION, SCLERODACTYLY, TELANGELCTASIS
Term
54.  _____ is the dilation of small vessels and capillaries that cause flat red marks to appear on the skin in scleroderma patients.
 Definition
TELANGELCTASIS
Term
55.  What is another name for Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease?
 Definition
PSEUDO-GOUT
Term
56.  _____ is a condition that causes bilateral opaque areas on the ileum side of the SI joints.
 Definition
OSTEITIS CONDENSANS ILLI
Term
57.  What is the age of onset of OCI?
 Definition
20-40 YEARS
Term
58.  This is the triad that occurs when one has hypertrophic arthropathy.
 Definition
1) PERIPHERAL ARTHRITIS, 2) DIGITAL CLUBBING, 3) LONG BONE PERIOSTITIS
Term
59.  What is the most common cause of hypertrophic atrophy?
 Definition
BROCHOGENIC CARCINOMA
Term
60.  _____ is a common arthritide known as the disease of kings.
 Definition
GOUT
Term
61.  _____is gout of the big toe.
 Definition
PODAGRA
Term
62.  Gout causes arthritis induced by deposits of _____.
 Definition
SODIUM MONOURATE
Term
63.  _____ are aggregations of sodium monourate crystals in gout.
 Definition
TOPHI
Term
64.  4 stages of gout.
 Definition
1) ASYMPTOMATIC, 2) ACUTE, 3) POLYARTICULAR, 4) CHRONIC
Term
65.  _____ is a condition that affects males aged 40-70 that causes calcific tendonitis.
 Definition
HYDROXYAPATITE DEPOSITION DISEASE (HADD)
Term
66.  What is the most common site affected by HADD?
 Definition
THE SUPRASPINATUS TENDON OF THE SHOULDER
Term
67.  _____ is when HADD affects the medial collateral ligament of the knee.
 Definition
PELLIGRINI-STEIDA
Term
68.  _____ is a benign tumor that causes a projection of bone with a cartilaginous cap.
 Definition
OSTEOCHONDROMA SUPRACONDYLAR PROCESS
Term
69.  This type of osteochondroma consists of a long, narrow base with cartilaginous cap. It points away from the joint, and the cortex and trabeculae are continuous with the host bone.
 Definition
PEDUNCULATED OSTEOCHONDROMA
Term
70.  _____ resembles a pedunculated osteochondroma, but it points toward the joint.
 Definition
SUPRACONDYLAR PROCESS
Term
71.  _____ is a type of osteochondroma that is a broad based projection from the metaphyses, and the cortex is continuous with host bone.
 Definition
SESSILE OSTEOCHONDROMA
Term
72.  _____ is a type of osteochondroma that consists of a dense, amorphous, localized area of spotty calcification, and it is usually found in flat bones.
 Definition
CALCIFIC OSTEOCHONDROMA
Term
73.  _____ is a genetic dysplasia that causes a patient to have multiple osteochondromas, very wide femoral metaphyses, and bilateral fat femoral necks.
 Definition
HEREDITARY OSTEOCHONDROMATOSIS (HME)
Term
74.  _____ is a rare benign osseous lesion that is associated with pain.
 Definition
OSTEOBLASTOMA
Term
75.  What is the most common site for osteoblastomas?
 Definition
VERTEBRAL ARCH OF THE SPINE
Term
76.  _____ is a quasimalignant tumor that affects females aged 20-40. It causes a dull intermittent ache with localized tenderness. This is a moderately expansile tumor that extends to the articular surface.
 Definition
GIANT CELL TUMOR
Term
77.  What is the most common kind of giant cell tumor?
 Definition
PURELY LYTIC
Term
78.  When one has a giant cell tumor in the _____, the doctor should be thinking malignancy.
 Definition
DISTAL RADIUS
Term
79.  _____ is a benign osseous lesion that most commonly affects the frontal sinus of the skull, and the mandible.
 Definition
OSTEOMA
Term
80.  This is a benign osseous lesion that causes pain that is worse at night and relieved by aspirin.
 Definition
OSTEOID OSTEOMA
Term
81.  What is the age range of patients with osteoid osteomas?
 Definition
39745
Term
82.  What is the most common cause of painful scoliosis in the spine?
 Definition
OSTEOID OSTEOMA
Term
83.  _____ is not a true tumor, rather it is a fluid filled cyst with a fibrous lining.
 Definition
UNICAMERAL BONE CYST
Term
84.  What is the age range of patients with UBC’s?
 Definition
39520
Term
85.  UBC’s are cysts that start in the _____ and extend into the _____.
 Definition
METAPHYSIS, DIAPHYSIS
Term
86.  _____ is not a true neoplasm, but rather a cystic cavity filled with blood that causes an acute onset of pain with a rapid increase in severity.
 Definition
ANEURYSMAL BONE CYST
Term
87.  _____ is a painless tumor that affects long bones. It is a central tumor that expands from the inside out, and is prone to pathological fractures.
 Definition
ENCHONDROMA
Term
88.  _____ is the most common benign tumor of the hands.
 Definition
ENCHONDROMA
Term
89.  What is the age range of enchondromas?
 Definition
39750
Term
90.  _____ is a condition that consists of enchondromas in multiple sites. It affects patients aged 1-4, and causes multiple round or ovoid radiolucencies in the hands.
 Definition
OLLIER’S DISEASE
Term
91.  _____ is a condition characterized by enchondromatosis and soft tissue cavernous hemangiomas. It is usually present before puberty and has a greater % toward malignant degeneration.
 Definition
MAFFICCI SYNDROME
Term
92.  _____ is a general term which describes fibrous cortical defects and non-ossifying fibromas.
 Definition
FIBROUS XANTHOMAS
Term
93.  Fibrous cortical defects are generally present in children aged _____ years.
 Definition
39545
Term
94.  Non-ossifying fibromas are generally present in children aged _____ years.
 Definition
39679
Term
95.  What is the preferred site of fibrous xanthomas?
 Definition
POSTERIOR MEDIAL SURFACE OF DISTAL FEMUR
Term
96.  When fibrous xanthomas start becoming elongated, the doctor should start thinking of _____.
 Definition
NOF
Term
97.  _____ is the most common benign tumor of the spine.
 Definition
HEMANGIOMAS
Term
98.  If hemangiomas are expansile, we must worry about _____.
 Definition
STENOSIS
Term
99.  _____ is a condition which causes corduroy cloth appearance of the vertebral bodies.
 Definition
HEMANGIOMA
Term
100.                 Are hemangiomas correlated with compression fractures?
 Definition
NO
Term
101.                 Usually only _____ vertebra are affected by hemangiomas.
 Definition
1
Term
102.                 What are the 4 most common primary malignant neoplasms from most to least common.
 Definition
1) MULTIPLE MYELOMA, 2) OSTEOSARCOMA, 3) CHONDROSARCOMA, 4) EWING’S SARCOME (MOCE)
Term
103.                 This is a primary malignant tumor in which painful swelling is the most common presenting complaint. It is a metaphyseal tumor that causes cortical disruption with soft tissue masses.
 Definition
OSTEOSARCOMA
Term
104.                 _____ is the only consistent lab finding associated with osteosarcoma.
 Definition
ELEVATED ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE
Term
105.                 3 basic patterns of osteosarcoma.
 Definition
1) 50% SCLEROTIC, 2) 25% PURELY LYTIC, 3) 25% MIXED
Term
106.                 _____ is a diaphyseal malignancy with laminated periosteum. It may mimic infection and has a laminated or onion skin appearance.
 Definition
EWING’S SARCOMA
Term
107.                 _____ is the age range for both ewing’s and osteosarcoma.
 Definition
10-25 YEARS
Term
108.                 _____ is a common primary malignant bone tumor in which painful swelling is the presenting complaint. It causes round radiolucencies in the metaphysis or diaphysis.
 Definition
CHONDROSARCOMA
Term
109.                 Chondrosarcoma is said to resemble _____ calcification in 2/3 of cases.
 Definition
POPCORN CALCIFICATION
Term
110.                 What is the age range of chondrosarcoma?
 Definition
40-60 YEARS
Term
111.                 When an older patient has a metaphyseal lesion the doc should think _____.
 Definition
CHONDROSARCOMA
Term
112.                 When a younger patient has a metaphyseal tumor, the doc should be thinking _____.
 Definition
OSTEOSARCOMA
Term
113.                 _____is a primary malignant bone tumor that is eccentrically placed, and is highly destructive and lytic. It has a long duration of symptoms and is not as aggressive as osteosarc or Ewing’s.
 Definition
FIBROSARCOMA
Term
114.                 Most fibrosarcomas occur between the ages of _____, but can occur anywhere between the ages of 4-83.
 Definition
30-50 YEARS
Term
115.                 _____ causes the largest soft tissue mass of all primary malignant tumors.
 Definition
FIBROSARCOMA
Term
116.                 _____ is the most common primary malignant bone tumor.
 Definition
MULTIPLE MYELOMA
Term
117.                 What is the cardinal symptom of multiple myeloma?
 Definition
PAIN RELIEVED BY REST, AGGRIVATED BY WEIGHT BEARING
Term
118.                 The most common site of multiple myeloma is in the _____.
 Definition
SPINE
Term
119.                 40% of all multiple myeloma patients show _____ in their lab findings.
 Definition
BENCE-JONES PROTEINS
Term
120.                 4 radiographic features of multiple myeloma.
 Definition
1) RAINDROP SKULL, 2) PEDICLE SIGN OF MYELOMA, 3) PUNCHED OUT LESIONS, 4) VERTEBRA PLANA
Term
121.                 _____ is a localized form of plasma cell proliferation, and patients generally present with back pain or cord compression.
 Definition
PLASMACYTOMA
Term
122.                 _____% of plasmacytomas develop into multiple myeloma.
 Definition
70.00000%
Term
123.                 _____ is the most common malignant tumor of the skeleton, and is more life threatening than any other malignancy.
 Definition
METASTATIC NEOPLASMS
Term
124.                 These 4 cancers account for 80% of all metastatic neoplasms.
 Definition
1) BREAST, 2) PROSTATE, 3) LUNG, 4) KIDNEYS
Term
125.                 _____ is a lab finding elevated in prostatic carcinoma.
 Definition
ACID PHOSPHATASE
Term
126.                 3 ways metastasis spreads.
 Definition
1) BLOOD, 2) LYMPH, 3) DIRECT INVASION
Term
127.                 The 2 most common sites of metastatic neoplasms are the _____ and _____.
 Definition
SPINE AND PELVIS
Term
128.                 Metastasis are rare below the _____ and _____.
 Definition
ELBOW AND KNEES
Term
129.                 The most common metastases cause _____ lesions.
 Definition
OSTEOLYTIC
Term
130.                 The one eyed pedicle sign seen with metastatic neoplasms is also known as the _____.
 Definition
OWL WINKING SIGN
Term
131.                 _____ is when both pedicles are destroyed by metastasis.
 Definition
BLIND PEDICLE SIGN
Term
132.                 _____ is the flattened vertebra causes by metastasis.
 Definition
VERTEBRA PLANA
Term
133.                 _____ METS will be hot on a bone scan.
 Definition
OSTEOBLASTIC
Term
135.                 When one presents with an ivory vertebra, the doc should think of these 3 conditions.
 Definition
1) OSTEOBLASTIC METS, 2) HODGKINS LYMPHOMA, 3) PAGET’S
Term
136.                 When one sees anterior scalloping of the vertebral bodies in young patients, they should be thinking _____.
 Definition
HODGKIN’S LYMPHOMA
Term
137.                 When one as a uniform compression fracture of the vertebral body, the doctor should be thinking _____ and _____.
 Definition
MULTIPLE MYELOMA, METS
Term
138.                 _____ and _____ are the 2 great imitators of bone disease.
 Definition
FIBROUS DYSPLASIA AND PAGET’S DISEASE
Term
139.                 _____ is a great imitator of bone disease that affects children aged 8-14. Causes café au lait spits and the coast of Maine appearance on the skin.
 Definition
FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
Term
140.                 _____is a great imitator of bone disease that affects patients over 55 years. It causes a blade of grass appearance in long bones, and cotton wool appearance in the skull.
 Definition
PAGET’S DISEASE
Term
141.                 What is another name for Paget’s disease.
 Definition
OSTEITIS DEFORMANS
Term
142.                 4 stages of paget’s disease.
 Definition
1) OSTEOLYTIC, 2) COMBINED, 3) SCLEROTIC, 4) MALIGNANT
Term
143.                 These 2 labs will be elevated when one has paget’s disease.
 Definition
1) ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE, 2) HYPERCALCEMIA
Term
144.                 _____ is the radiographic feature that separates Paget’s from fibrous dysplasia.
 Definition
SUBARTICULAR EXTENSION (PRESENT IN PAGET'S)
Term
145.                 If a patient has _____ of an ivory vertebra, the doctor should be thinking Paget’s.
 Definition
EXPANSION
Term
146.                 _____ is the poverty of bone.
 Definition
OSTEOPENIA
Term
147.                 These 5 conditions cause pathological compression fractures.
 Definition
1) METS, 2) MULTIPLE MYELOMA, 3) INFECTION, 4) OSTEOPOROSIS, 5) EOSINOPHILIC GRANULOMAS (CHILDREN)
Term
148.                 _____ is “adult rickets.” It is a metabolic disorder that causes soft bones.
 Definition
OSTEOMALACIA
Term
149.                 Patients with osteomalacia generally are deficient in either _____, _____ or _____.
 Definition
CALCIUM, PHOSPHORUS, VITAMIN D
Term
150.                 _____ is a childhood version of osteomalacia that causes soft bones, widened growth plates, and paintbrush metaphysis.
 Definition
RICKETS
Term
151.                 _____ is a condition seen in infants fed solely on pasteurized milk. It causes spontaneous hemorrhage, swlling, irritability, pain, costal rosary, and frog-legs, and trummerfield zones in bones.
 Definition
SCURVY
Term
152.                 Scuvy is caused by _____.
 Definition
HYPOVITAMINOSIS C
Term
153.                 _____ is the ring epiphysis seen in scurvy.
 Definition
WIMBERGER’S SIGN
Term
154.                 _____ is a condition that presents with stones, bones, abdominal moans, and psychiatric overtones.
 Definition
HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
Term
155.                 _____ HPT is due to adenomas, carcinoma, hyperplasia, and ectopic tumors.
 Definition
PRIMARY
Term
156.                 _____ HPT is due to renal glomerular disease.
 Definition
SECONDARY
Term
157.                 _____ HPT is caused by dialysis.
 Definition
TERTIARY
Term
158.                 Hyperparathyroidism is associated with subperiosteal resorption of bone known as _____.
 Definition
RAT BITES
Term
159.                 HPT causes a _____ appearance of the skull.
 Definition
SALT AND PEPPER
Term
160.                 When one has bilateral erosions of the distal clavicles, the doctor must be thinking of these 6 conditions.
 Definition
1) HPT, 2) AS, 3) ENTEROPATHIC, 4) RA, 5) REITERS, 6) PSORIATIC
Term
161.                 HPT causes _____ which causes thick radio-opaque cortical vertebral endplates.
 Definition
RUGGER JERSEY SPINE
Term
162.                 _____ is the most common cause of osteomyelitis.
 Definition
STAPH AUREUS
Term
163.                 4 major pathways of staph spread.
 Definition
1) HEMATOGENOUS, 2) CONTIGUOUS SOURCE, 3) DIRECT IMPLANTATION OF INFECTION, 4) POST-OP INFECTION
Term
164.                 _____% of cortical bone must be destroyed to be seen on a plain film.
 Definition
30.00000%
Term
165.                 _____ is the gold standard for diagnosing osteomyelitis.
 Definition
MRI
Term
166.                 _____ is a localized form of osteomyelitis. It causes pain that is worse at night relieved by aspirin.
 Definition
BRODIE’S ABSCESS
Term
167.                 _____ is the drainage port seen in a Brodie’s abscess.
 Definition
CLOAICA
Term
168.                 _____ is caused when osteomyelitis spreads to the joint.
 Definition
SEPTIC ARTHRITIS
Term
169.                 Septic arthritis presents with a positive _____ sign in the pelvis.
 Definition
WALDENSTROM’S SIGN
Term
170.                 What is the typical Waldenstrom measurement?
 Definition
>6-11mm; no >2mm BETWEEN SIDES
Term
171.                 _____ is the pathogen that causes tuberculosis.
 Definition
MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS
Term
172.                 2 modes of TB spread.
 Definition
INHALATION AND INGESTION
Term
173.                 _____ is the most common site of TB spread from the lungs.
 Definition
THORACOLUMBAR SPINE
Term
174.                 There is a _____day latent period between lung and spine TB.
 Definition
21 DAY
Term
175.                 _____ are diseases that usually affect the epiphyses of growing bones resulting in necrosis most likely on a vascular basis.
 Definition
OSTEOCHONDROSES
Term
176.                 _____ is osteochondroses of the femoral head.
 Definition
LEGG-CALVE PERTHES DISEASE
Term
177.                 What is the age group to develop LCPD?
 Definition
39518
Term
178.                 4 phases of LCPD.
 Definition
1) AVASCULAR, 2) REVASCULARIZATION, 3) REPAIR, 4) DEFORMITY
Term
179.                 _____ is osteochondroses of the femoral condyles and dome of the talus. It presents with joint pain often aggravated by movement and joint locking and swelling.
 Definition
OSTEOCHONDRITIS DESSICANS
Term
180.                 Osteochondritis dessicant affects people aged _____.
 Definition
39771
Term
181.                 _____ is a condition seen in patients aged 30-60. It is most common in the hip, and seen due to a disrupted femoral head supply.
 Definition
AVASCULAR NECROSIS
Term
182.                 _____ is a break in the cortical margin of the femoral head seen with AVN.
 Definition
CRESCENT SIGN
Term
183.                 _____ is not an avascular condition, but an inflammatory condition seen in patients aged 11-15. Caused by an apophysitis of the tibial tuberosity.
 Definition
OSGOOD-SCHLATTER’S DISEASE
Term
184.                 _____ is a traction apophysitis of the calcaneous and not an osteochondrosis.
 Definition
SEVER’S DISEASE
Term
185.                 Sever’s disease is most commonly seen in patients aged _____.
 Definition
8-14 YEARS
Term
186.                 _____ is osteochondrosis of the navicular commonly seen in 5 year old patients. It causes a smaller navicular with fragmentation.
 Definition
KOHLER’S DISEASE
Term
187.                 _____ is osteochondrosis of the 2nd metatarsal head commonly seen in women. It causes a flat 2nd metatarsal head with widening of its space.
 Definition
FREIBERG’S INFRACTION
Term
188.                 _____ is juvenile kyphosis that affects males aged 13-17.
 Definition
SCHEUERMANN’S DISEASE
Term
189.                 For scheuermann’s disease to be diagnosed, it must affect _____ continuous vertebral segments.
 Definition
3
Term
190.                 _____ is osteochondrosis of the proximal humeral epiphysis.
 Definition
HASS’ DISEASE
Term
191.                 _____ and _____ are the 2 signs seen with Hass’ disease.
 Definition
SNOWCAP OR CRESCENT SIGN
Term
192.                 _____ is osteochondrosis of the capitellum.
 Definition
PANNER’S DISEASE
Term
193.                 Panner’s disease affects patients aged _____.
 Definition
39547
Term
194.                 _____ is osteochondrosis of the lunate.
 Definition
KEINBOCK’S DISEASE
Term
195.                 Keinbock’s disease affects patients aged _____.
 Definition
20-40
Term
196.                 _____ is a condition that causes an enlarged sella turcica in the skull, widened mandibular angle, widened diaphysis of the phalanges, and large disc spaces in the spine.
 Definition
ACROMEGALY
Term
197.                 When a patient has a heel fat pad > _____mm, then the doctor should suspect acromegaly.
 Definition
>20mm
Term
198.                 3 most common sites of aneurysms.
 Definition
1) ABDOMINAL AORTA, 2) COMMON ILIAC, 3) SPLENIC ARTERIES
Term
199.                 _____ is the most common cause of pancreatic calculi.
 Definition
ALCOHOLISM
Term
200.                 _____ causes a popcorn ball appearance above the pubic symphysis.
 Definition
LEIOMYOMA
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