Term
| proportional to its concentration |
|
Definition
| In a mixture of gases, each gas will exert a pressure that is _________. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The partial pressure exerted by each gas will be a function of the _______, or the atmospheric pressure |
|
|
Term
| What is Partial pressure of oxygen at 705mmHg? |
|
Definition
| 705mmHg x (21/100) = 148mmHg |
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of nitrogen at 705mmHg? |
|
Definition
| 705mmHg x (79/100) = 557mmHg |
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the arteries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the veins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the veins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much fresh air is brought in during each inspiration? |
|
Definition
~350ml. This amount mixes with the FRC which is about 2500ml.
note: the volume of fresh gas inhaled is relatively small compared to the volume already present in the lungs (the FRC) |
|
|
Term
| increases,decreases,do not change |
|
Definition
| The oxygen concentration of the alveoli ____ slightly and the carbon dioxide concentration ______ slightly, but average alveolar values _______very much. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Expired air has a _____ oxygen concentration and a ______ carbon dioxide concentration than the inspired air |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Oxygen is ______ from the lungs by the blood during inspiration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| At the same time, carbon dioxide which is produced by the tissues, moves _______ and is exhaled. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| At the tissues, Oxygen _____ the capillary and _____ into the cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Carbon Dioxide produced in the tissues _____ the capillaries
note: As a result, venous blood has relatively low oxygen concentrations and high carbon dioxide concentrations |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The most direct and accurate way to measure whole body oxygen uptake
Oxygen consumption = C.O. x (arterial - mixed venous)
C.O. = SV x HR
0.25 L/min = at rest
4.00 L/min = max |
|
|
Term
| Typical values for oxygen consumption: |
|
Definition
at rest: 250mL/min
Max EX. : 3,500mL/min |
|
|
Term
| Typical values for carbon dioxide production. |
|
Definition
at rest: 200mL/min
MAX. EX. : 3,800mL/min |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the amount of oxygen consumed ________ carbon dioxide produced |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the amount of carbon dioxide produced divided by the oxygen consumed represents this. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The respiratory quotient varies with the ______ being used by the cell.
Pure fat = 0.7
Pure Carbohydrate = 1.0 |
|
|
Term
| Purpose of Lymphatic vessels |
|
Definition
1)Drains excess ISF and return it to the blood stream
2) Immune system |
|
|
Term
| Where are lymph capillaries located? |
|
Definition
lie adjacent to blood capillaries in the tissue spaces. Lymph nodes are found at irregular intervals along the lymph vessels
note: They have one-way valves |
|
|
Term
| Are lymphatic capillaries larger or smaller then blood capillaries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Organs that contain significant lymphatic tissue (4) |
|
Definition
| Red bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, and spleen |
|
|
Term
| Where do lymphocytes reside? |
|
Definition
| in the spleen and lymph nodes. The Immune responses are often initiated in these regions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do T cells reach maturation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lymphatic tissue is also present in mucous membranes that line what? (4) |
|
Definition
| GI tract, Respiratory tract, Urinary tract, and the reproductive tract |
|
|
Term
| Non-specific (innate) Immunity |
|
Definition
| First line of defense against invasion by pathogens (e.g. bacteria, viruses, fungi, and environmental hazards) |
|
|
Term
| Innate immunity include what 4 things? |
|
Definition
| Physical barriers, fever, inflammatory responses, and antimicrobial substances and cells that can kill and or orchestrate the killing of pathogens; phagocytes, complement proteins, interferons, and natural killer cells |
|
|
Term
| Physical barriers to pathogenic invasion (5) |
|
Definition
1) Skin-sebaceous glands, sudoriferous glands (sweat glands), and lysozyme
2)Mucous Membrane - mucus is secreted by specialized epithelial cells called goblet cells
3) Hair - nose hairs; cilia on special epithelial cells that line the trachea
4) Acid - pH of the stomach is about 2.0
5) Tears - contain lysozyme |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chemicals secreted by leukocytes and macrophages exposed to bacteria and other foreign substances |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormally high body temperature in response to invading microorganisms. The body's thermostat is reset upwards in response to pyrogens. High fevers can be dangerous because they can 'denature' enzymes. Moderate fever can be beneficial, as it causes: 1) The liver and spleen sequester iron and zinc (needed by microorganisms). 2) Increase metabolic rate which speeds up tissue repair 3) Triggers production of interferons |
|
|
Term
| Inflammation: Tissue Response to Injury |
|
Definition
Inflammatory responses triggered whenever body tissues are injured: 1)Prevents the spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues
2) Disposes of cell debris and pathogens
3) sets the stage for repair processes |
|
|
Term
| What are the four cardinal signs of acute inflammation? |
|
Definition
| 1)redness 2) heat 3) swelling and 4) pain |
|
|
Term
| Phases of phagocyte mobilization |
|
Definition
1) leukocytosis
2) Margination
3) Diapedesis
4) Chemotaxis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Neutrophils are released from the bone marrow in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors released by injured cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| neutrophils cling to the walls of capillaries in the injured area |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Neutrophils squeeze through capillary walls and begin phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammatory chemcials attract neutrophils to the injury site |
|
|
Term
| How do antimicrobial substances enhance the innate defenses? |
|
Definition
1)They attack microorganisms directly
2) Hindering microorganism's ability to reproduce |
|
|
Term
| What are the most important antimicrobial proteins? |
|
Definition
| Interferons and complement proteins |
|
|
Term
| Interferons are proteins that are produced by |
|
Definition
| Natural killer cells, macrophages, virus-infected body cells, T-lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Interferons and other chemical messengers that alter cellular activities are called __________
The action of interferons are non-specific, they act against a large number of viruses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ________ provide a second line of defense against invasion by pathogens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The complement system refers to at least 20 specific proteins that "complement" or enhance the action of antibodies |
|
|
Term
| What do complement proteins attach to? |
|
Definition
Antibody-antigen complexes
The ends result of this combination is called a membrane attack complex (MAC) |
|
|
Term
| What do membrane attack complex (MAC) do? |
|
Definition
| atraction of phagocytes, stimulation of phagocytosis, and inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What do Natural Killer cells do? |
|
Definition
| NK cells are a specialized class of T-lymphocytes. They kill tumor cells and some viruses. They do this by a process called cytolysis. NK cells secrete a chemical known as perforin which perforates the cell membrane. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ability to stimulate proliferation of specific lymphocytes and antibodies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ability to react with the activated lymphocytes and antibodies released in response to them |
|
|
Term
| What do complete antigens include? |
|
Definition
| foreign proteins, nucleic acids, some lipids, and large polysaccharides |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Depends on T cell receptors expressed on the surface of T-lymphocytes. Defends the body against pathogens inside cells (viruses) |
|
|
Term
| Antibody-mediated immunity |
|
Definition
| Depends on antibody receptors that are expressed on the surface of B-lymphocytes. Defends the body against antigens and pathogens in body fluids |
|
|
Term
| How is a lymphocyte receptor specificity developed? |
|
Definition
1) Random arrangements of a series of gene segments that encode for receptors on the lymphocyte.
2)Each lymphocyte expresses 10 to 5th receptors on its surface, and all of its daughter cells will have identical receptors. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ability to discriminate "self" from "non-self" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Antibodies or T cell receptors recognize one specific antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The second exposure to a pathogen is faster and more intense |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Immature lymphocytes in the bone marrow are essentially _____ |
|
|
Term
| Whether a lymphocyte matures into a B cell or a T cell depends on what? |
|
Definition
| It depends on where in the body the lymphocyte becomes immunocompetent. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| eliminates T cells that are strongly anti-self |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Selects T cells with a weak response to self-antigens and thus become both "immunocompetent" and self-tolerant |
|
|
Term
| Immunocompetent B or Te cells display what? |
|
Definition
| They display a unique type of receptor that responds to a distinct antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Genes, not antigens, will determine which foreign substance the immune system recognizes and resists |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| B and T cells become immunocompetent _____ they encounter antigens they may later attack |
|
|
Term
| Where does encounter with antigens occur for B and T cells? |
|
Definition
| In the secondary lymphoid tissue |
|
|
Term
| When do B and T cells finally become functional antigen-activated cells? |
|
Definition
| When they bind with their recognized antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| B lymphocytes recognize shapes of proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and nucleic acids and parts of macromolecules. Because they recognize diverse microbes and toxins they have _________. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T cells only recognize peptides when they are presented on antigen presenting cells (APCs) and the peptides are bound to MHC. This is called _______ |
|
|
Term
| Steps to cell mediated immunity |
|
Definition
1)antigen presentation
2)antigen recognition
3)activation
4)proliferation and differentiation
5)destruction of the infected cell |
|
|
Term
| What do APCs do? (Anitgen Presenting Cells) |
|
Definition
1)Engulf antigens
2)Present fragments of the antigen on their surface so that it will be recognized by T cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the major APCs? (3) |
|
Definition
Dendritic cells, macrophages, and activated B cells
note: The major initiator of adaptive immunity are dendritic cells which migrate to the lymph nodes and secondary lymphoid organs and present antigens to T and B cells |
|
|
Term
| MHC Proteins (Major Histocompatibility complex) |
|
Definition
T cells recognize antigens only when the antigen is attached (or bound) to membrane glycoproteins called ______.
note: only identical twins express the same MHC proteins |
|
|
Term
| MHC I proteins are found on what type of cell? |
|
Definition
| Only on nucleated cells. Any cell that is infected with an intracellular antigen can attach it to their own MHC I protein and inserting the complex onto the membrane surface. |
|
|
Term
| MHC II proteins are found on what type of cell? |
|
Definition
| APCs, which display the antigen on the MHC II on their membrane surface. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Both T and B-lymphocytes recognize discrete sites on the antigen called "antigenic determinats" or _______
_______are the regions on an antigen molecule that will bind to a T cell or B cell receptor, Antibodies can recognize an _______ on an antigen.
Note: T cell receptors recognize _____ only when they are bound to an MHC |
|
|
Term
| Helper T cells have what specific protein? |
|
Definition
| CD4 protein which only bind to MHC II molecules (APCs) |
|
|
Term
| Cytoxic T cells have what specific protein? |
|
Definition
| CD8 protein and bind to any cell with an MHC-I antigen complex on its surface |
|
|
Term
| How do you activate a T cell? |
|
Definition
Depending upon receptor type, costimulators can cause T cells to complete their activation or abort activation after binding to an antigen.
So without co-stimulation, Tells:
-become tolerant to that antigen
-are unable to divide
-do not secrete cytokines
With co-stimulation, T cells:
-Enlarge, proliferate, and form clones
-Differentiate and perform functions according to their T cell class |
|
|
Term
| What co-stimulate T cells and T cell proliferation? |
|
Definition
Cytokines
Interleukin (IL-1) is a cytokine released by macrophages, and it co-stimulates a T cells-antigen complex to:
-Release interleukin 2 (IL-2)
-Synthesize more IL-2 receptors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| IL-2 is a key growth factor, which sets up a positive feedback cycle that encourages activated T cells to divide. It is also used therapeutically to enhance the body's defense against cancer. |
|
|
Term
| What are some other functions of cytokines? |
|
Definition
Other cytokines amplify and regulate immune responses such as:
-Perforin and lymphotoxin - cell toxins
-Gamma interferon - enhances the killing power of macrophages
-inflammatory factors |
|
|
Term
| Functions of Cytotoxic T cells |
|
Definition
Cytotoxic T cells are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells. They circulate throughout the body in search of body cells that display the antigen to which they have been sensitized.
Their targets include:
-virus infected cells
-cells with intracellular bacteria or parasites
-cancer cells
-foreign cells from blood transfusions or transplants |
|
|
Term
| Functions of Helper T cells |
|
Definition
Helper T cells are regulatory cells that play a central role in the immune response (they are not responsible for destruction of pathogens).
Once they are primed by presentation of an antigen, they:
-stimulate proliferation of other T cells
-Stimulate B cells that have already become bound to antigen
note: without T helper cells there would be no immune response |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Each B cell acquires a unique surface protein known as an antigen receptor or _____ via random genetic mutations before they enter the blood stream.
note: ______ are directed against pathogens located in interstitial and/or extracellular fluid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When an antigen binds to the antigen receptor on the B cell membrane, the B cell is activated, resulting in the production of _______. Plasma cells produce free antibodies with the same structure as the antibody receptor on the surface of the progenitor cell |
|
|
Term
| Do B cells leave the lymphatic system? |
|
Definition
| No, B cells do not leave the lymphatic system. However, the antibodies that B cells produce do leave the lymphatic system. Antibodies enter the extracellular fluid, where they are free to seek out and destroy the antigen that triggered their production. |
|
|
Term
| Antibody-mediated immunity involves what? |
|
Definition
| recognition, activation, proliferation and differentiation, and killing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inactive B cells encounter _____ antigen in lymph or interstitial fluid, bind to it and become ____ |
|
|
Term
| What type of MHC does B cells have? |
|
Definition
| B cells have MHC II. B cells are APCs. |
|
|
Term
| What do helper T cells do for B cells? |
|
Definition
| Helper T cells bind to the MHC-II antigen complex and begins secreting cytokines, promoting proliferation and differentiation of B cells. |
|
|
Term
| What do activated B cells divide and differentiate into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many antibodies can plasma cells produce per hour? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long can memory cells last in the body for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do antibodies destroy antigens? |
|
Definition
| No, antibodies do not destroy antigens. Antibodies inactivate and tag antigen for destruction via different mechanisms (neutralization, immobilize, agglutinate & precipitate, complement activation). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _____of antigen by blocking effects of toxins or preventing its attachment to body cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _____bacteria by attacking cilia/flagella |
|
|
Term
| Agglutinate & precipitate |
|
Definition
| _______antigens by cross-linking them causing clumping and precipitation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _____enhancing phagocytosis through precipitation, complement activation or opsonization (coating with special substance). |
|
|
Term
| Immunoglobulins (aka antibodies)are composed of what? |
|
Definition
| Two parallel protein light and heavy chains. Both of these chains have a constant region, and a variable region. Each antibody has a unique variable region that contains the antigen-binding site |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 major classes of antibodies? |
|
Definition
IgG, IgE, IgD, IgM, and IgA
note: this based on difference in constant region |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ~75% of all antibodies. ____ are the only antibodies that cross the placenta. |
|
|
Term
| Are all antibodies passed in breast milk? |
|
Definition
| yes, all antibodies are passed in breast milk. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Following initial contact with the antigen, it takes several days before the antibody concentration (the antibody 'titer') in the serum rises, peaking 7-10 days after the initial exposure. Memory B cells remain in the blood even though the antibody levels are no longer elevated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Upon re-exposure to the same antigen, the increase in antibody titer is faster and more intense, because each memory cell proliferates resulting in exponential growth of the antibody titer |
|
|
Term
| Major functions of the Respiratory System include: |
|
Definition
1) filtering, warming and humidifying the air
2)ventilation and gas exchange
3)sound production
4)The sense of smell
5)The metabolism of hormones (e.g. the angiotensin converting enzymes are in lung cells). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
refers to the exchange of gases
between the atmosphere and pulmonary circulation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
refers to gas exchange between
capillary oxygen and tissue cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| refers to oxidation of glucose to produce ATP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The pharynx, or throat is about 5 in long, and connects the nasal
and oral openings with the esophagus and trachea
– nasopharynx
– oropharynx
– laryngopharynx
• The larynx, (voice box)
– separates the upper and lower parts of the respiratory system |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Trachea is the largest of the conducting airways
• ~ 4.5 inches long
• lined with ciliated epithelium and mucus secreting goblet cells
• supported by C-shaped rings made of hyaline cartilage which helps to prevent collapse |
|
|
Term
| The two lungs are separated by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The right has three lobes. What are they? |
|
Definition
| Superior, middle, and inferior lobes |
|
|
Term
| Does the left lung have a middle lobe? |
|
Definition
| No, the left lung does not have a middle lobe |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ____ of the lung is the pointed top, and the ____ is the concave, inferior portion |
|
|
Term
| What are lungs comprised of? |
|
Definition
| Lungs are comprised of microscopic air sacs and associated capillaries and elastic connective tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What two membranes envelope the lungs? |
|
Definition
| The parietal pleura, and the visceral pleura |
|
|
Term
| What space is between the parietal and visceral pleura |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the pleural membranes made of? |
|
Definition
| Serous tissue moistened by serous fluid |
|
|
Term
| How does the trachea and bronchi split? |
|
Definition
1)Trachea divides into 2 primary bronchi
2)Each primary bronchus divides into secondary or lobar bronchi, one for each lobe
3)Secondary bronchi divide further, into tertiary or segmental bronchi
4)There is one segmental bronchus for each bronchopulmonary segment
5)Tertiary bronchi branch extensively (over 6,000 times),giving rise to smaller bronchi
6)As the bronchi subdivide and become smaller they lose their cartilage and become bronchioles
7)Terminal bronchioles are slightly smaller branch extensions of the bronchioles |
|
|
Term
| What is a bronchopulmonary segment? |
|
Definition
| A bronchopulmonary segment is grossly defined as the portion of the lung that is supplied by a tertiary bronchus. There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments in the right lung and 8 in the left. Each segment is divided into many smaller lung lobules. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A lobule is a small segment of lung tissue that is wrapped in connective tissue. A lobule contains a lymph vessel, an arteriole, a venule, respiratory bronchioles, and alveolar ducts and alveoli. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| are formed as the terminal bronchioles sub-divide into microscopic branches and alveoli begin to be observed. Respiratory bronchioles open into alveolar ducts |
|
|
Term
| Alveolar ducts lead into what? |
|
Definition
| Each alveolar duct leads into 2 or more alveolar sacs, which are expanded regions containing at least 2 alveoli that share a common duct |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Alveoli are sac-like out-pouchings of the respiratory portion of the bronchial tree. There are 300 million alveoli in a normal lung. |
|
|
Term
| What are alveolar walls comprised of? |
|
Definition
| Alveolar walls are comprised mainly of Type I alveolar cells. These are epithelial cells which are very thin with tight junctions and prevent fluid leakage into the alveolar air space. |
|
|
Term
| Type II alveolar cells secrete what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The lung tissue receives oxygenated blood from the bronchial arteries, which branch off of the aorta |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The pulmonary artery supplies the lung capillaries
note: Each lung lobule receives a branch of the pulmonary artery. Pulmonary capillaries connect the arterioles with the pulmonary venules which ultimately drain into the pulmonary veins. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A measure of the rate of air movement into the lungs (liters/min or ml/sec) |
|
|
Term
| Minute ventilation (equation) |
|
Definition
| (Liters/min) = tidal volume (Liters) x breathing frequency (breaths/min) |
|
|
Term
| What does pulmonary ventilation refer to? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary ventilation refers to the alternating flow of air into and out of the lungs. |
|
|
Term
| What does alveolar ventilation refer to? |
|
Definition
| Alveolar ventilation is the air that actually ventilates the alveoli |
|
|
Term
| alveolar ventilation (equation) |
|
Definition
| (Liters/min) = (tidal volume – dead space volume) x breathing frequency (breaths/min) |
|
|
Term
| What is the skeletal portion of the thorax called? |
|
Definition
| The thoracic cage. Which includes the ribs, costal cartilages, thoracic vertebrae, and sternum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The study of how the respiratory muscles move the rib cage |
|
|
Term
| What does the respiratory pump refer to? |
|
Definition
| The term "respiratory pump" refers to the respiratory muscles, rib cage, pleural membranes, and lung elastic tissues. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary inspiratory muscle? |
|
Definition
| The Diaphragm is the primary inspiratory muscle. |
|
|
Term
| What muscles expand the rib cage by moving ribs upward and out? |
|
Definition
| The external intercostals. |
|
|
Term
| What muscle elevates the sternum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What muscles raise the top two ribs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _______reduce the diameter of the thorax and force air out of the lungs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ________expand the rib cage during inspiration driving airflow into the lungs |
|
|
Term
| What muscles pull the ribs down and inward reducing the diameter of the rib cage? |
|
Definition
| The internal intercostals |
|
|
Term
| What muscles depress the lower ribs, and move the diaphragm up and into the thorax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Breathing, or ventilation, depends on ______ in the lungs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pressure in the lungs becomes lower than atmospheric pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pressure in the lungs is higher than atmospheric pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pressure changes in the lungs depend on the _______________
example: During inspiration, the parietal pleura is pulled outward, and the visceral pleura and lungs move with it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the diaphragm contracts enlarging the thoracic cage. Which enlarges the intrapleural space and lowers the intrapleural pressure and "pulls" the alveoli open. This causes alveolar pressure to drop and air flows from the atmosphere into the lungs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
At end inspiration the diaphragm relaxes and the elastic tissues in the lung _____.
______ air compression and raises alveolar pressure above atmospheric pressure. This results in air flowing out of the lungs |
|
|
Term
| Transpulmonary Pressure (Ptp) |
|
Definition
The difference between intra-pleural pressure (the pressure in the pleural space) and the alveolar pressure.
Ptp = alveolar pressure - pleural pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A measure of the ease with which the lungs can be inflated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can decrease compliance? |
|
Definition
| Thickening or stiffening of lung tissue by diseases such as asbestosis decreases the compliance. |
|
|
Term
| What can increase compliance? |
|
Definition
| Emphysema increases compliance and raises FRC |
|
|
Term
| FRC (End-expiratory Lung Volume) |
|
Definition
| The volume of air remaining in the lungs after expiration. |
|
|
Term
| What is true during the time between breaths |
|
Definition
1) alveolar pressure ~ atmospheric pressure
2)Chest wall tends to recoil outward (expand)
3)Lungs tend to recoil inward |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Opposing forces results in the negative pleural pressure, which ____ on the lung tissue and prevents the lung from deflating. (this is between breaths) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
FRC is the volume that fresh air mixes with in order to increase lung oxygen stores, and decrease lung carbon dioxide stores.
If FRC is larger --> Labored breathing
IF FRC is small --> large fluctuations in oxygen and carbon dioxide |
|
|
Term
| In what two forms is Oxygen transported? |
|
Definition
| Oxygen is transported in two forms: it is dissolved in the plasma (about 1.5% of the total), and bound to the protein hemoglobin (about 98.5% of the total) |
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Term
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Definition
| The extent to which Oxygen binds depends on the ______ in the plasma |
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Term
| Oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve |
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Definition
Shows the relationship between the extent of oxygen binding to hemoglobin and the PO2 is described by constructing _________.
This shows that the binding and release of oxygen from hemoglobin is critically dependent on the PO2. |
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Term
| How does PO2 have an impact on oxygen uptake and discharge? |
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Definition
| Lung PO2 exceeds the PO2 in the blood that is entering the pulmonary capillaries (the "mixed venous blood"). As a result, oxygen diffuses into blood and binds to hemoglobin. When tissue PO2 is low, oxygen is released from hemoglobin to the tissues. |
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Term
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Definition
A reduction in the blood pH, and increases in blood PCO2 and temperature causes the curve (Oxyhemoglobin Dissociation Curve) to shift to the right; this is called the _______. The importance of the _______ is that the hemoglobin molecule will release more oxygen at any given PCO2.
This is most important at tissue capillaries because the hemoglobin in blood flowing through these vessels will release oxygen more readily |
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Term
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Definition
| When fully saturated with oxygen, each gram of hemoglobin can bind the equivalent of ______ of oxygen |
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Term
| How many grams of hemoglobin per liter of blood does an adult male have? |
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Definition
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Term
| How many grams of hemoglobin per liter of blood does an adult female have? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Arterial blood in healthy persons is very close to _____ saturated |
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Term
| example of oxygen concentration (equation) |
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Definition
Oxygen concentration = 160 grams Hb/liter x 1.34 ml oxygen/gram Hb x 100%
=214.4 ml oxygen/liter of blood |
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Term
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Definition
| low blood hemoglobin concentration |
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Term
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Definition
| low blood oxygen and therefore low hemoglobin saturation |
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Term
| Carbon Monoxide Poisoning |
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Definition
| CO from car exhaust and tobacco smoke. CO is harmful because it binds to HB heme group more successfully than oxygen. This is called CO poisoning. Treatment includes administering pure oxygen |
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Term
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Definition
| About _____ of the total carbon dioxide is transported in plasma as bicarbonate ions |
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Term
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Definition
| About _____ of the carbon dioxide is transported as carbaminohemoglobin |
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Term
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Definition
| _____ of the carbon dioxide transported is dissolved in the plasma |
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Term
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Definition
| Carbon dioxide is released from _______ cells and diffuses into the plasma and then into RBCs |
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Term
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Definition
| Oxygen loading at the pulmonary capillary is a _________ process |
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Term
| Oxygen loading at the pulmonary capillary is dependent on two things. What are they. |
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Definition
| It depends on the rate of 1) gas diffusion, and 2) the rate of blood flow through the pulmonary capillaries also known as transit time. |
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Term
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Definition
| In a healthy lung, complete diffusion of oxygen occurs in about ______ in most alveolar-capillary units. |
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Term
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Definition
| Transit time at rest is about _______, so there is plenty of time for oxygen diffusion. |
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Term
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Definition
| The respiratory muscles are _______ |
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Term
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Definition
| made to contract by the action of ________ |
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Term
| Automatic and voluntary control |
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Definition
| Unlike other skeletal muscles, the respiratory muscles are under both ______________. |
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Term
| Automatic control of the respiratory muscles is dependent on what? |
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Definition
| The automatic control of respiratory muscles depends on groups of inspiratory and expiratory neurons in the brainstem (medulla) |
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Term
| dorsal respiratory group (DRG) |
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Definition
| Inspiratory neurons are localized into a functional group known as the _______ |
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Term
| Ventral respiratory group (VRG) |
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Definition
| Expiratory neurons are in the _____ |
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Term
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Definition
Both DRG and VRG contain _______
i.e. they synapse on and excite motorneurons that innverate respiratory muscles |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Pacemaker like, inspiratory |
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Definition
| Breathing depends on __________ activity in brain stem neurons that turn the ______ neurons on and off. |
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Term
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Definition
| ________are silent at rest, but are activated when breathing activity must be increased |
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Term
| respiratory neurons receive input from what? |
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Definition
specialized receptors
-pulmonary stretch receptors
-Central chemoreceptors
-peripheral chemoreceptors |
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Term
| Where do pulmonary stretch receptors lie? |
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Definition
| Stretch receptors lie in the smooth muscle lining the large conducting airways, bronchi and bronchioles |
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Term
| Where are pulmonary central chemoreceptors located? |
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Definition
| Central chemoreceptors are located just beneath the ventral surface of the medulla |
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Term
| Where are pulmonary peripheral chemoreceptors located? |
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Definition
| Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the aortic arch and in the carotid sinus. |
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Term
| What do peripheral chemoreceptors do for the pulmonary system? |
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Definition
| Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to low oxygen levels in the arterial blood. They also respond to elevated H+ concentrations and carbon dioxide (although this is a weak response). Innverated by axons that travel in CN IX and CN X. They synapse onto premotor neurons in the DRG |
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Term
| What do central chemoreceptors do for the pulmonary system? |
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Definition
| They respond to increases in hydrogen ion (H+) concentration in the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). Carbon dioxide that diffuses into the CSF from the blood forms H+. These Central chemoreceptors are carbon dioxide sensitive |
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Term
| What do stretch receptors for the pulmonary system? |
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Definition
| When the bronchioles are inflated they are stretched. They (stretch receptors) respond to the rate of change of lung stretch. The receptors are innervated by axons of the vagus nerve (CN X) |
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