Term
which of the following cardiac muscle changes is always irreversible? atrophy hypertrophy degeneration necrosis none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| true or false? PDA is one of the most common cardiac conditions in the cat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| tetralogy of fallot is made up of what? |
|
Definition
dextroaorta high VSD right ventricular hypertrophy pulmonic stenosis |
|
|
Term
what is the most likely diagnosis for cardiac tamponade in a stallion?
a. aortic rupture
b. trauma
c. hemangiosarcoma
d. valvular insufficiency
e. pericarditis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hypercoagulability Hemodynamic changes (stasis, turbulence) Endothelial injury/dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| the normal heart has a ________ reserve capacity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cranial vena cava and right atrium junction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| beneath septal leaflet of tricuspid valve and traversing lower atrial septum onto the upper portion of the muscular ventricular septum |
|
|
Term
| the thickness of the left ventricular free wall is approximately _____x greater than that of the right. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| artifacts seen at necropsy (cardiac) include (4): |
|
Definition
1. post mortem clots (red currant jelly not attached to endocardium) 2. chicken fat clots in the horse 3. red staining endocardium due to RBC lysis 4. euthanasia solution (white crystalline material on endocardium) |
|
|
Term
| the four steps to necropsy examination of the heart include: |
|
Definition
1. follow the flow of blood 2. is the heart enlarged and proportional? 3. weight/BW dependant on speciees and athleticism 4. wall thickness |
|
|
Term
| T or F: histopathology of the heart will usually result in a specific diagnosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| mature cardiac muscle cells are ______ and ______ and therefore have limited responses to injury |
|
Definition
| permanent and nondividing |
|
|
Term
| compensatory mechanisms of the heart include (6): |
|
Definition
1. dilatation 2. hypertrophy 3. increase HR 4. increase peripheral resistance 5. increase in blood volume 6. redistribution of blood flow |
|
|
Term
| left ventricular hypertrophy is due to (3): |
|
Definition
systemic hypertension(renal) congenital abnormalities mitral incompetence |
|
|
Term
| right ventricular hypertrophy is due to (3): |
|
Definition
pulmonary hypertension congenital abnormalities tricuspid incompetence |
|
|
Term
| syndromes of cardiac failure or decompensation include (5): |
|
Definition
1. cardiac syncope 2. congestive heart failure 3. decompensation 4. left heart failure 5. right heart failure |
|
|
Term
| what are the three compensatory requirements? |
|
Definition
• time • healthy myocardium • adequate myocardial nutrition |
|
|
Term
| cardiac syncope can arise from: |
|
Definition
| arrhythmias, massive necrosis, ventricular fibrillation, or heart block |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cardiac disease, pulmonary, renal, vascular disease leading to loss of cardiac reserve and development of decreased blood flow to peripheral tissues and accumulation of blood behind the failing chamber |
|
|
Term
| what is the pathophys of decompensation? |
|
Definition
reduced renal blood flow-->hypoxia in kidneys-->renin-->aldosterone-->Na and water retention-->plasma volume increase-->edema also erythropoiesis-->polycythemia |
|
|
Term
| left heart failure would manifest as: |
|
Definition
| pulmonary congestion and edema |
|
|
Term
| right heart failure would manifest as: |
|
Definition
| hepatic congestion (nutmeg liver), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, edema as ventral SC in horse/ruminants, ascites in dogs, hydrothorax in cats |
|
|
Term
| what are the four general causes of congenital heart diseases, and what are some examples? |
|
Definition
1. teratogenic drugs (griseofulvin, cortisone, thlidomide) 2. teratogenic plants (Veratrum) 3. nutritional deficiencies (vit A, riboflavin, zinc) 4. nutritional excess (vit A) |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common congenital heart diseases in the dog? |
|
Definition
PDA pulmonic stenosis subaortic stenosis persistent right aortic arch |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common congenital heart diseases in the cat? |
|
Definition
endocardial cushion defects mitral malformation VSD endocardial fibroelastosis |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common congenital heart diseases in the cow? |
|
Definition
ASD VSD transposition of aorta |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common congenital heart diseases in the pig? |
|
Definition
subaortic stenosis endocardial cushion defects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the path findings of PDA? |
|
Definition
1. compensatory hypertrophy of LV/RV with left atrial dilation 2. dilation of pulmonary artery and ascending aorta 3. left vent hypertrophy if shunt <3mm, pulmonary hypertension and CHF if >5mm 4. variation in shape, diameter, length of the PDA 5. jet lesions in pulmonary artery |
|
|
Term
| what type of aortic stenosis is most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of pulmonic stenosis is most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the path findings of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
1. concentric hypertrophy of LV
2. fibrous endocardial thickening
3. post stenotic dilation
4. focal myocardial necrosis/fibrosis
5. heart failure when LV can't compensate |
|
|
Term
| what are the path findings of pulmonic stenosis? |
|
Definition
1. concentric hypertrophy of RV 2. poststenotic dilatation of the maim pulmonary artery |
|
|
Term
| PRAA is a defect in which aortic arch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what comprises the ring in PRAA (4)? |
|
Definition
| ascending aorta, ligamentum arteriosum, main pulmonary artery, base of heart |
|
|
Term
| what is the path finding in PRAA? |
|
Definition
1. esophagus compressed against trachea 2. dilation of proximal esophagus |
|
|
Term
| what are the three types of atrial septum defects? |
|
Definition
1. ostium primium 2. ostium secundum 3. patent foramen ovale |
|
|
Term
| T or F: a foramen ovale that is probe patent is also functionally patent. |
|
Definition
| false. may be functionally closed |
|
|
Term
| what cardiac condition is seen particularly in burmese cats? |
|
Definition
| endocardial fibroelastosis |
|
|
Term
| which valve dysplasia is more common? |
|
Definition
| tricuspid is more common than mitral |
|
|
Term
| what is the Eisenmenger complex? |
|
Definition
| tetralogy of fallot without the pulmonic stenosis |
|
|
Term
| what are the clinical signs of general pericardial disease? |
|
Definition
increased venous pressure decreased arterial pressure muffled heart sounds |
|
|
Term
| what are the 6 causes of hydropericardium? |
|
Definition
1. CHF 2. toxemias 3. anema 4. febrile/septicemic illnesses 5. renal failure 6. hypoproteinemia of various chronic diseases |
|
|
Term
| what are the species-specific causes of hydropericardium caused by CHF? |
|
Definition
1. high altitude disease in cattle following pulmonary hypertension 2. dilated cardiomyopathy in dogs/cats 3. ascites syndrome in poultry |
|
|
Term
| what are three febrile/septicemic illnesses that cause hydropericardium? |
|
Definition
heartwater (Ehrlichia ruminatium) in ruminants african horse sickness bovine ephemeral fever |
|
|
Term
| what neoplasias cause hemopericardium? |
|
Definition
| hemangiosarcoma and heart base tumors |
|
|
Term
| what are the 5 causes of hemopericardium? |
|
Definition
| 1. hemorrhagic pericardial effusion (large breed dogs) 2. hemangiosarcoma or heart base tumors 3. spontaneous atrial rupture 4. rupture of atria or aorta in horses (stallions) 5. complication of intracardiac injection |
|
|
Term
| what are the 6 classifications of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
serous, fibrinous, purulent/suppurative, hemorrhagic (sanguineous), adhesive, constrictive |
|
|
Term
| what are some specific diseases with fibrinous morphology of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
cattle-pasteurellosis, blackleg, coliform septicemias
pigs- Glasser's, strep, pasteurellosis, enzootic mycoplasmal pneumonia, salmonellosis
horses-strep
birds-psittacosis |
|
|
Term
| endocardial degenerative mineralization occurs from: |
|
Definition
-intake of excessive Vit D -intoxication by calcinogenic plants with Vit D analogues -infectious diseases (Johnes) |
|
|
Term
| what bacteria are implicated in endocarditis in cattle? |
|
Definition
| Arcanobacter (Actinomyces) pyogenes |
|
|
Term
| what bacteria are implicated in endocarditis in pigs? |
|
Definition
Streptococcus Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae |
|
|
Term
| what bacteria are implicated in endocarditis in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| Bartonella Streptococcus E. coli |
|
|
Term
| what bacteria are implicated in endocarditis in horses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the relative frequency of valve involvement in bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| mitral > aortic > tricuspid > pulmonary |
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between endocardiosis and endocarditis? |
|
Definition
endocardiosis is non-inflammatory, degenerative, proliferative, unknown-etiology, targeting most often the mitral valve
endocarditis is an inflammatory alteration of the valvular and muralendocardium. |
|
|
Term
| what is the pathophys of sequelae of bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| bacterial (vegetative)-->colonization of valves--> thrombi--> embolization--> showering of kidney, lung, brain |
|
|
Term
| what is uremic endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| left atrial ulcerative endocarditis in acute renal insufficiency followed by fibrosis and mineralization |
|
|
Term
| could endocardiosis or endocarditis result in ruptured chordae tendinae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which has characteristic parachute valves: endocardiosis or endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 causes of myocardial necrosis? |
|
Definition
1. ischemic infarction 2. nutritional deficiencies (vit E, selenium causing white muscle disease; mulberry heart disease in pigs 3. toxins-anthrax, ionophors, calcinogenic plants, Gossypol, blister beetles 4. physical injury-CNS injury, gastric dilation and volvulus, overexertion, electrical defibrillation |
|
|
Term
| where is the most frequent site for focal lesions of myocardial necrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the three sequela to myocardial necrosis are: |
|
Definition
| 1. sudden DEATH 2. arrhythmias 3. extensive scarring |
|
|
Term
| what are the three sequelae to myocarditis? |
|
Definition
1. complete resolution of lesions 2. scattered residual scars 3. progressive myocardial damage with acute or chronic cardiac failure as secondary dilated cardiomyopathy |
|
|
Term
| what viruses can cause myocarditis? in what species? |
|
Definition
parvo-dogs encephalomyocarditis-pigs, mice, primates eastern and western encephalomyelitis in horses |
|
|
Term
| what bacteria can cause myocarditis? in what species? |
|
Definition
salmonella pullorum-chickens clostridium piliforme-rodents fusobacterium necrophorm-cattle clostridium chauvoei-cattle staph and strep-lambs mycobacterium-many species |
|
|
Term
| what fungus can cause myocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what parasites can cause myocarditis in what species? |
|
Definition
sacrocystosis-cattle cysticercosis-pigs, cattle, sheep trichinosis-pigs |
|
|
Term
| what protozoa can cause myocarditis in what species? |
|
Definition
toxoplasma gondii-cats neospora caninum-dogs trypanosoma cruzi-dogs and cats |
|
|
Term
| describe the two forms of hypertrophy in the heart: |
|
Definition
eccentric: enlarged ventricular chambers and walls with normal/thin walls. result of increased load
concentric: small ventricular chambers with thick walls. result of increased pressure load |
|
|
Term
| some cats with hyperthyroidism can have______as a result of _______. |
|
Definition
| cardiac hypertrophy as a result of cardiac contractile proteins under the influence of circulating thyorid hormones |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| group of diseases in which RV hypertrophy occurs with or without CHF as a result of pulmonary disease. |
|
|
Term
| T or F: all pulmonary diseases result in cor pulmonale. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the causes of cor pulmonale? |
|
Definition
1. primary chronic diseases of lung (parenchyma or vessels) 2. thromboembolic obstruction of pulmonary arteries 3. mech obstruction of pulm arteries due to compression by tumor 4. thoracic deformities which impair breathing. |
|
|
Term
| what are the three morphologic types of cardiomyopathies? |
|
Definition
| dilated/congestive, hypertrophic, restrictive |
|
|
Term
| which can cause cardiomyopathy: hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which is the most common cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized how? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a nutritional cause of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| taurine deficiency in cats and foxes |
|
|
Term
| what is a heritable cause of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| Duchenne muscular dystrophy in golden retrievers |
|
|
Term
| what are some endocrine causes of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| hyper/hypothyroidism, acromegaly, Cushing's, DM |
|
|
Term
| which neoplastic infiltrate can cause cardiomyopathies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| systemic hypertension can cause _________ in cats |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| taurine supplementation in puppies of this (breed of dog) can reverse ________ due to __________ |
|
Definition
portuguese water dog dilated cardiomyopathy autosomal recessive gene |
|
|
Term
| where are hemangiosarcomas found in the heart? |
|
Definition
| right atrium, right auricle |
|
|
Term
| which dogs usually get idiopathic dilated or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| about 20% of animals affected with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy will have _______ |
|
Definition
| posterior paresis from thromboembolism of caudal abdominal aorta (saddle thrombus) |
|
|
Term
| what are the two types of restrictive cardiomyopathy? in what species does it occur? |
|
Definition
1. LV endocardium with diffuse marked fibrosis. (Burmese cats) 2. excessive moderator bands that traverse LV cavity
both in cats |
|
|
Term
| the primary cardiac tumors include: |
|
Definition
| hemangiosarcoma (right atria), rhabdomyomas, rhabdomyosarcomas, schwannomas, myxoma, fibroma |
|
|
Term
| the tumors that metastasize to the heart include: |
|
Definition
| hemangiosarcoma, lymphosarcoma, malignant melanoma, osteosarcoma, adenocarcinoma, mast cell tumor, melanoma |
|
|
Term
| what tumors are found at the heart base? |
|
Definition
| chemodectomas, aortic body tumors, paragangliomas, tumors of ectoopic thyroid and parathyroid tissue |
|
|
Term
| name the tumor that arises from chemoreceptor tissue at the bifurcation of the carotid artery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| localized dilatation or outpouching of thinned and weakened portions of a vessel |
|
|
Term
| what are the three species-specific causes of aneurysms? |
|
Definition
Spirocerca lupi in dogs copper deficiency in pigs Strongylus vulgaris in horses |
|
|
Term
| what are the two species-specific causes of arterial hypertrophy? |
|
Definition
muscular pulmonary arteries affected , may be associated with lungworm or heartworm in cats
high-altitude disease causing hypoxia-induced pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction and subsequent pulmonary hypertension in cattle |
|
|
Term
| T or F: arteriosclerosis rarely causes clinical signs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| describe arteriosclerosis |
|
Definition
| age-related disease with rare clinical signs, proliferative lesion that results in loss of elasticity and luminal narrowing. abdominal aorta most frequently affected, lesions appear as slightly raised, firm, white plaques |
|
|
Term
| atherosclerosis is (important/unimportant in animals), with accumulation of extensive _____deposits, and associated with ________ and ______ in dogs. |
|
Definition
unimportant lipid, fibrous tissue, calcium hypercholesterolemia, hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
| what are some viral causes of arteritis and vasculitis? |
|
Definition
equine viral rhinopneumonitis equine infectious anemia malignant catarrhal fever blue tongue FIP classical swine fever african swine fever bovine virus diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| what are some bacterial causes of arteritis and vasculitis? |
|
Definition
Salmonella haemophilus somnus erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae haemophilus suis haemophilus parsuis |
|
|
Term
| what are some chlamydial causes of arteritis and vasculitis? |
|
Definition
| sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| what are some rickettsial causes of arteritis and vasculitis? |
|
Definition
rickettsia rickettsii ehrlichia canis and ruminantium |
|
|
Term
| what are some parasitic causes of arteritis and vasculitis? |
|
Definition
| strongylus, dirofilaria immitis, spirocerca lupi, onchocerca |
|
|
Term
| what are the non-infectious causes of arteritis and vasculitis? |
|
Definition
| SLE, polyarteritis nodosa (rats), anaphylactoid purpurea, drug induced hypersensitivity, uremia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| heart enclosed within pericardium outside of the thorax |
|
|
Term
| what is likely the condition in a horse with a seagull sign in the aorta? |
|
Definition
| hemopericardium due to ruptured aorta |
|
|
Term
| smooth nodules indicate (endocarditis or endocardiosis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| irregular friable growths indicate (endocarditis/endocardiosis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dilatation of the lymph vessels is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| rupture of the thoracic duct results in.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is suspected in a goat with a heart with tissue that appears grossly to be pale or white? |
|
Definition
| nutritional myocardial degeneration due to Vit E/Selenium deficiency |
|
|
Term
what tumor type originates from cells in close association with nerves which function to initiate adjustments in the autonomic nervous system in response to changes in CO2, pH, O2?
a. insulinoma
b. perithyroidal ganglioneuroma
c. chemodectoma
d. neuroendocrine bronchial adenocarcinoma
e. pheochromocytoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which layer of the adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoids (non-human)?
a. zona glomerulosa
b. zona fasciculata
c. zona reticularis
d. all of the above
e. b and c |
|
Definition
| e. zonas fasciculata mostly and reticularis |
|
|
Term
atherosclerosis in dogs in exclusively associated with what condition
a. hypoparathyroidism
b. DM
c. insulinoma
d. Cushing's
e. hypothyroidism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is true about Addison's disease?
a. associated with calcinosis cutis
b. high serum potassium and low serum sodium
c. tachycardia
d. b and c
e. all of the above |
|
Definition
b. hi serum K, low Na
(bradycardia due to hi K, NOT tachycardia) |
|
|
Term
| what are the three types of hormones? |
|
Definition
- polypeptide (stored in secretory granules) (e.g. TRH, ACTH, ADH, TSH, calcitonin, insulin, glucagon)
- steroid
- amino acid derivatives (e.g. thyroid)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the decreased hormone production or secretion due to a primary disease process in the gland itself |
|
|
Term
| decreased hormone production in a target gland resulting from destructive lesions in parent endocrine gland responsible for trophic hormone production is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between primary and secondary hyperfunction? |
|
Definition
| excessive secretion of hormone by an endocrine gland indep of normal control mech vs excessive secretion of hormone by a target endocrine gland secondary to overstimulation be excessive trophic hormone from the disease parent endocrine gland. |
|
|
Term
| Veratrum californicum causes: |
|
Definition
| pituitary aplasia and prolonged gestation |
|
|
Term
| what is a craniopharyngioma? |
|
Definition
-pituitary neoplasia in Rathke’s pouch -most are benign -adenoma-like signs due to compression, can lead to panhypopituitarism -dwarfism possible if animal is still growing but usually animal is older |
|
|
Term
| what are the layers of the adrenal glands? what do they produce? |
|
Definition
cortex: -zona granulosa-mineralcorticoids -zona fasciculata-glucocorticoids -zona reticularis-androgens and some glucocorticoids
medulla-catecholamines |
|
|
Term
| who is susceptible to adrenal cortical adenomas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is seen on bloodwork of canine hyperadrenocorticism? |
|
Definition
| neutrophilia without a left shift, lymphopenia, eosinpenia, monocytosis, elevated glucose, elevated alkaline phosphatase |
|
|
Term
| hyperadrenocorticism presents in what derm signs in various species? |
|
Definition
calcinosis cutis in dogs hirsutism in horses friable skin in cats |
|
|
Term
| what is seen on bloodwork of primary hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
| hypercalcemia, low or low normal P |
|
|
Term
| “rubber jaw” or “big head” is seen in what condition? what is the bone replaced with? |
|
Definition
| primary hyperparathyroidism fibrous connective tissue |
|
|
Term
| what breeds are predisposed to dwarfism? |
|
Definition
| German shep, spitz, mini pinscher, karelian bear dog |
|
|
Term
| what causes proportional dwarfism? |
|
Definition
failure of Rathke’s pouch to differentiate into hormone-secreting cells of pars distalis -panhypopituitarism |
|
|
Term
| what breeds are predisposed to functional chromophobe adenoma ( bilateral adrenal cortical hyperplasia)? |
|
Definition
| bostons, boxers, daschunds |
|
|
Term
| what is caused by functional acidophil adenoma? what are the signs? |
|
Definition
acromegaly,
excess growth hormone -insulin resistant diabetes -exaggerated skin folds -increased interdigital and interdental spaces -“big boned” |
|
|
Term
| what are the two types of diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
-central form: inadequate ADH prod due to destruction of pars nervosa, infundibular stalk, or hypothalamus -nephrogenic form: target cell defect in tubular epithelial cells |
|
|
Term
| what is an example of hyperfunction due to production of hormone by a non-endocrine tumor? |
|
Definition
| carcinoma of apocrine gland of anal sac releasing PTH-like hormone. |
|
|
Term
| what is an example of hyperfunction of an endocrine gland secondary to disease in a non-endocrine organ or nutritional imbalance? |
|
Definition
| Ca and P imbalance of chronic renal failure resulting in secondary hyperparathyroidism |
|
|
Term
| what is an example of hyperfunction due to failure of normal hormone degradation/clearance leading to buildup? |
|
Definition
| lack of renal degradation of PTH in renal failure |
|
|
Term
| what is an example of endocrine dysfunction due to failure of target cell response? |
|
Definition
| insulin resistance due to lack of insulin receptors |
|
|
Term
| what are the two parts of the pituitary gland, their subunits, and their products? |
|
Definition
- neurohypophysis- oxytocin and ADH
- adenohypophysis -
- pars distalis- GH, LH, LTH, prolactin, FSSH, TSH, ACTH
- pars intermedia-ACTH in the dog
- pars tuberalis-supporting capillary network
|
|
|
Term
| what are the signs of adenoma of the pars distalis? |
|
Definition
| hypopituitarism, DI, CNS signs, blindness |
|
|
Term
| functional adenomas of the pars distalis are usually seen in what species what is the mechanism? |
|
Definition
| dog. neoplastic corticotroph cells secrete excessive ACTH leading to bilateral adrenal cortical hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
| describe a pituitary carcinoma |
|
Definition
older dogs, nonfunctional highly invasive and destructive, causing osteolysis, necrosis, etc. |
|
|
Term
| what are the mechanisms for hypothyroidism (5)? |
|
Definition
o Idiopathic atrophy o Lymphoplasmacytic thyroiditis o Pituitary or hypothalamus lesions o Destruction by nonfunctional neoplasm o Iodine deficiency |
|
|
Term
| describe a cortical carcinoma including histopath. |
|
Definition
uncommon, found in older dogs larger than adenomas, bilateral, invade surrounding tissues histopath: anaplastic epithelial cells, non-encapsulated, invasive, associated hemorrhage and necrosis hemorrhage, thrombosis, metastasis, clinical hyperadrenocortism as tumor is usually functional |
|
|
Term
| T or F: hyperadrenocorticism does not occur in the cat. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| after a ______ dose of dexamethasone, in adrenal dependent Cushings, cortisol level will ________ and the adrenals will be |
|
Definition
any dose not suppress unilaterally different in size (other will atrophy) |
|
|
Term
| after a ______ dose of dexamethasone, in pituitary dependent Cushings, cortisol level will ________ and the adrenals will be |
|
Definition
high dose (+/-) suppress bilaterally diffusely enlarged |
|
|
Term
| what are the mechanisms for Addison's? |
|
Definition
1. diffuse adrenocortical atrophy-most common form immune mediated or idiopathic in young dogs 2. iatrogenic-abrupt cessation of long-term corticosteroids 3. trophic adrenocortical atrophy-destructive pituitary lesion, only ACTH dependent zones atrophied 4. miscellaneous causes of adrenocortical atrophy (toxic, Lysodren, infectious, inflammatory) |
|
|
Term
| what is atypical Addison's? |
|
Definition
| trophic adrenocortical atrophy-destructive pituitary lesion, only ACTH dependent zones atrophied |
|
|
Term
| which zones are ACTH dependent? |
|
Definition
| zona reticularis and fasciculata |
|
|
Term
| T or F: only ZF and ZR are affected in Addison's |
|
Definition
| false. ZG affected unless atypical Addison's. |
|
|
Term
| T or F: only ZF and ZR are affected in Addison's |
|
Definition
| false. ZG affected unless atypical Addison's. |
|
|
Term
| what characteristics makes adrenalitis more likely to occur? |
|
Definition
| high blood supply and locally abundant level of steroids make them susceptible to infection |
|
|
Term
| what is pheochromocytoma? |
|
Definition
| tumor of chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla, can be bilateral. 50% are malignant and invade caudal vena cava. may be functional and secrete catecholamines |
|
|
Term
| what is the liver filled with in Cushing's? and in DM? |
|
Definition
glycogen in Cushing's fat in DM |
|
|
Term
| what are the cells in the thyroid and what do they secrete? |
|
Definition
follicular cells-T4 and T3 C or parafollicular cells- calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia |
|
|
Term
| what are two developmental disturbances of the follicular cells in dogs? |
|
Definition
accessory thyroid tissue thyroglossal duct cytsts |
|
|
Term
| what are the top two causes of hypothyroidism in dogs? |
|
Definition
1. lymphoplasmacytic thyroiditis-diffuse lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates with follicular destruction and eventual fibrosis 2. idiopathic follicular atrophy/fibrous replacement (primary degenerative) |
|
|
Term
| the two neoplasms of the thyroid gland include: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the pathophys of diffuse hyperplasia and colloid goiter? |
|
Definition
| inadequate thyroxine synthesis--> decreased blood T4 and T3--> secretion of TSH from pituitary--> hypertrophy/hyperplasia of thyroid follicular epithelium-->enlargement of gland |
|
|
Term
| what are the causes of diffuse hyperplasia and colloid goiter? |
|
Definition
| iodine deficiency, compounds interferring with thyroxine synthesis (thoiuracil, sulfonamides) |
|
|
Term
| what could be likely in a cat with weight loss, PU/PD, polyphagia, and behavioral changes? |
|
Definition
| hyperthyroidism. assoc with functional thyroid hyperplastic lesions, adenomas (but can be carcinomas), often palpable |
|
|
Term
| what are the breeds susceptible to hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
| goldens, doberman, dachshund, shetlands, irish setters, mini schnauzers, cockers, airedales |
|
|
Term
| what are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
| decreased activity, weight gain, hypercholesterolemia, altered estrus cycles, decreased libido, dermatopathy (dry) |
|
|
Term
| what are the functions of PTH? |
|
Definition
on kidneys: decrease P resorption, increase Ca resorption, stimulates conversion of vit D to active form which increases intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption
bone: increases osteoclastic bone resorption net effect is to increase blood Ca and decrease blood P |
|
|
Term
| which two breeds are predisposed to inflammatory lesions of parathyroid chief cells and hypoparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are two chief cell hyperplasias that cause secondary hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
- nutritional (dogs, cats, birds, reptiles, primates) low calcium/hi phosphorus diets, inadeq vit D in new world primates. stim parathyroid glands, hyperplasia, increase PTH
- renal (dogs) chronic renal disease-->failure to excrete P and retain Ca; failure of kidney to metabolize Vit D--> hypocalcemia-->increased PTH-->fibrous osteodystrophy--> eventually still low serum Ca and hi P , (insoluble calcium phosphate)
|
|
|
Term
| what are the clinical findings of primary hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
| hypercalcemia low or low normal serum phosphorus lameness-prolonged osteolysis and osteoclasis generalized weakness, PU/PD, depression |
|
|
Term
| the adenoma of the thyroid gland is most commonly associated with what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the carcinoma of the thyroid gland is most commonly associated with what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most common neoplasm in the parathyroid is the... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common cause of feline hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is pseudohyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
hypercalcemia of malignancy PTH related peptides or other bone resorbing substances are secreted by malignant non-parathyroid tumors. clinical sign is severe hypercalcemia |
|
|
Term
| what are the diagnostic criteria of pseudohyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
-persistent hyper Ca/hypo P
-parathyroid chief cells will be atrophied
-thyroid C cells will be hyperplastic
-removal of tumor returns values to normal, but recurrence of hypercalcemia with regrowth of the tumor |
|
|
Term
what three tumors are associated with pseudohyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
- anal sac apocrine gland acenocarcinoma (NOT perianal gland adenoma/adenocarcinoma)
- lymphosarcoma
- mammary gland adenocarcinoma
|
|
|
Term
| who is most at risk for DM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the two beta cell degenerations in the cat that can lead to DM? |
|
Definition
- selective deposition of amyloid in the islets resulting in degeneration of beta and alpha cells. not all cats with islet amyloid will have DM
- vacuolar degeneration of beta and alpha cells due to glycogen accumulation assoc with long term insulin resistance and exhaustion of insuling producing cells
|
|
|
Term
| what are the 7 mechanisms for DM? |
|
Definition
- beta cell degeneration
- anti-insulin Ab
- immune mediated islet cytotoxicity
- inappropriate secretion of hormones by other endocrine tissues
- destruction secondary to pancreatitis
- idiopathic atrophy
- hypoplasia of islets in young dogs
|
|
|
Term
| what endocrine disease can cataracts be a clinical sign for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a patient presents with blindness and gangrene of the extremities. what could be a DDx? |
|
Definition
| DM. signs due to microangiopathy |
|
|
Term
| what are the two beta cell neoplasms causing hyperfunction most often functional, most often in dogs 5-12 years old? |
|
Definition
adenoma=insulinoma
adenocarcinoma-most common and usually in right lobe |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| adenoma of beta cells leading to pancreatic hyperfunction |
|
|
Term
| chemodectomas can be _____ or ______ |
|
Definition
| adenomas (more common) or carcinomas |
|
|
Term
| stress intolerance and lymphocytosis are signs of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bran disease or "big head" is associated with what dietary irregularity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| peripheral neuropathies can be associated with what four endocrinopathies? what are the signs of each? |
|
Definition
- DM-due to hyperglycemia (weak pelvic limb, reduced spinal reflexes and muscle mass, plantigrade stance of pelvic limbs in cats)
- hypothyroidism-(LMN sings, megaesophagus, cranial nerve deficits, laryngeal paralysis)
- hypoadrenocorticism(megaesophagus)
- insulinoma
|
|
|
Term
deeply located muscles which function to maintian posture are composed mostly of what fiber type?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2A
c. Type 2B
d. satellite fibers
e. mitochondrial fibers
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
flat bones of the skull develop by the process of what?
a. reversal lines
b. proliferation
c. intramembranous ossification
d. endochondral ossification
e. hypertrophy |
|
Definition
| c. intramembranous ossification |
|
|
Term
blood vessels from the metaphysis invade into the advancing growth plate bringing with them what type of cell that forms bone on the cartilage spicules?
a. osteoblasts
b. osteocytes
c. osteoclasts
d. megakaryocytes
e. a and b |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
equine botulism can lead to what complication?
a. aspiration pneumonia
b. hepatic abscesses
c. COPD
d. foundering
e. b and d |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| muscle atrophy is associated most commonly with what two endocrine disorders in the dog? |
|
Definition
| hypothyroidism and hypercortisolism |
|
|
Term
| modeling is to ________, as remodeling occurs ________ and does not__________ |
|
Definition
growth
throughout life
alter gross shape of the bone |
|
|
Term
| the bone formation that occurs without a distinct growth plate or collagen model |
|
Definition
| intramembranous bone formation |
|
|
Term
| the bone formation that occurs when growth plate layers progressively generate a collagen model which is then ossified |
|
Definition
| endochondral bone formation |
|
|
Term
| unlike regular cancellous bone, woven bone is |
|
Definition
| less organized and patches weaknesses or areas of inflammation, infection, trauma |
|
|
Term
| intramembranous bones are susceptible to _________ as in ________in horses or _______in westies |
|
Definition
fibrous osteodystrophy
"big head"
crandiomandibular osteopathy |
|
|
Term
| long bones are susceptible to early nutritional problems such as ____ and _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| osteoids are _______________ and used to indicate ___________ or verify ____________ |
|
Definition
unmineralized collagenous matrix of bone
inadequate mineralization
a tumor as an osteosarcoma |
|
|
Term
| what does woven bone perpendicular to the periosteum suggest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the five layers in endochondral bone formation and their characteristics? |
|
Definition
- resting cartilage zone: inactive
- proliferating cartilage zone: interstitial growth within growth plate
- maturing/hypertrophic cartilage zone: cells making matrix and beginning to degenerate
- calcified cartilage zone: cartilagenous septa are invaded by blood vessels which bring osteoblasts and allows mineralization to begin
- primary spongiosa: bone deposited on outer surfaces of cartilagenous spicules
|
|
|
Term
| blood vessels bring osteoblasts to allow initial mineralization at the growing edge of the physis, bue can only penetrate or itneract with carilate that is: |
|
Definition
| well-formed and if they are themselves composed of good quality collagen. |
|
|
Term
| what is the pathophys of rickets? |
|
Definition
lack of dietary Ca, Vit D, P, P/Ca imbalance
accumulation of osteoid
blood vessels don't invade inadequately mineralized collagen/cartilage, resulting in persistence of unmineralized cartilage within metaphysis. |
|
|
Term
| what is the pathophys of scurvy? |
|
Definition
lack of vitamin C in species that lack enzyme L-gulonolactone oxidase.
blood vessels weak due to poor quality collagen cannot sustain osteogenesis and hemorrhage and result in diminshed metaphyseal bone formation |
|
|
Term
| what are the two layers of the periosteum? |
|
Definition
outer fibrous (structure, protection)
inner osteogenic layer |
|
|
Term
| which bone cell is multinucleated? where is it found? |
|
Definition
osteoclasts
Howship's lacunae |
|
|
Term
| what is the "regional acceleratory phenomenon"? |
|
Definition
| influx of fibroblasts, endothelium, osteoblasts, etc. to physically stabilize the break and restore blood flow for tissue survival. granulation tissue helps re-establish blood supply |
|
|
Term
| final state of bone repair depends on woven bone to create a supportive _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how are chondrodysplastic dwarves and pituitary dwarves different physically? |
|
Definition
| chondrodysplastic dwarves have short legs but a normal head. pituitary dwarves are proportionally small |
|
|
Term
| the lack of osteocytes suggest: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| unresolvable stranded island of necrotic bone surrounded by zone with no blood supply and more peripheral inflammation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pelvic limb lameness with femoral head collapse due to loss of integrity of underlying bone. small breed. cystic bone spaces can form in areas of necrotic bone |
|
|
Term
osteoporosis can be due to:
|
|
Definition
| disuse, malnutrition, and corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
| what is the enzyme lacking in animals that need dietary vitamin C? |
|
Definition
| enzyme L-gulonolactone oxidase |
|
|
Term
who gets osteogenesis imperfecta?
what is it? |
|
Definition
Holsteins, dogs
small fragile trabeculae |
|
|
Term
osteopetrosis is autosomal________,
and is the failure of ________ resulting in _______ |
|
Definition
recessive
osteoclasts
filling of medullaty cavity with excessive bone |
|
|
Term
| what are growth arrest lines and what do they indicate? |
|
Definition
| parallel horizontal lines of bone in metaphysis near physis indicating periods of slow growth as in anorexia or starvation |
|
|
Term
| hallmark microscopic pathology of osteopenia includes: |
|
Definition
| reduced numbers of trabeculae which are thin and often infracted |
|
|
Term
what is the growth retardation lattice?
what is a common cause? |
|
Definition
| metaphyseal zone of increased bone density caused by a failure of osteoclasts to resorb primary trabeculae. can be seen in canine distemper |
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between osteomalacia and rickets? |
|
Definition
| rickets is teh therm used in growing animals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| failure to deposit adequate quantities of mineral in bone resulting in poorly mineralized bone which is soft/weak. |
|
|
Term
| what are the gross lesions of rickets? |
|
Definition
- enlargement of ends of long bones and costochondral junctions (enlarged joints)
- valgus deformity
- soft bones
|
|
|
Term
| what are the microscopic lesions of rickets? |
|
Definition
- increase in size and disorganization in the zone of hypertrophic cartilage
- defective calcification
- excess osteoid
- marrow fibrosis
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fibrous osteodystrophy
continuous action of parathyroid hormone pulling calcium from bone either bc there is a tumor producing excess parathyroid hromone or in an attempt to raise the serum Ca or restore normal P/Ca ratio due to poor nutrition |
|
|
Term
| what is the hallmark microscopic lesion of FOD? |
|
Definition
| marked bone resorption and fibrous replacement with loss of bone, numerous osteoclasts, irregular mineralization of osteoid, poorly organized woven bone, and increased fibrous tissue |
|
|
Term
what is HOP-hypertrophic “pulmonary” osteo(arthro)pathy?
|
|
Definition
- proliferative bone condition assoc with a space occupying thoracic or abdominal mass lesion. inciting cause is usually a tumor by can be infec/inflam.
- hallmark path is chronic prolif of new bone beneath periostium, not involving joint surfaces.
- severing the vagus nerve can be curative
|
|
|
Term
| what is HOD? (hypertrophic osteodystrophy) |
|
Definition
- young large breed dogs, less than 1 yr.
- swollen, painful, hot joint (or near joint) metaphysis.
- radiographically, there is a double line. parallel lines
- will outgrow it, but need to get them non-weight bearing, otherwise, will slip their physis
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- transient inflammatory disease
- pain, lameness, inflammatory
- large breed dogs, german sheps,
- woven tissue density around nutrient foramen, with a minor inflam component
|
|
|
Term
| what is craniomandibular osteopathy? |
|
Definition
- hereditary (small breed, westies, etc) or spontaneous.
- also bull mastiffs.
- proliferative bone.
- reversal lines.
- aggressive remodeling
|
|
|
Term
| which is muscle specific? AST, ALT, CK? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inflammation of the marrow spaces. chronic and disfiguring due to lack of drainage and persistence of infectious agents in necrotic bone
can be caused by bacteria (most common), also viral, fungal, protozoal |
|
|
Term
| the hallmark path lesion of osteomyelitis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| slow-growing, benign, does not metastasize, expansile bone-forming lesion often on top of head |
|
|
Term
| what is an osteochondroma? |
|
Definition
| cartilage capped, exophytic lesion on the metaphysis of the long bones that stop growing when the growth plates close |
|
|
Term
| where are multilobular tumors of bone found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where are chondrosarcomas commonly found? |
|
Definition
| axial skeleton, often in nasal location |
|
|
Term
| what is osteochondromatosis? |
|
Definition
- young animals
- affects numerous bones and mis-interpreted as tumor
- radio-opaque cartilage and bone nodules that may disrupt movement
- hallmark path lesion is well-differentiated cartilage cap subtended by endochondral ossification
- lesions will close when growth ends
|
|
|
Term
| what is the most common primary bone tumor of the dog? who does it affect, and what is a possible outcome? |
|
Definition
osteosarcoma
large breeds
metastasize to lungs quickly |
|
|
Term
| what is the hallmark of osteosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| presence of neoplastic (polygonal) osteoblasts producing osteoid |
|
|
Term
| chondrosarcomas have a predilection for: |
|
Definition
| flatbones of skull, sinuses, ribs |
|
|
Term
| the hallmark path lesion of the chondrosarcoma is... |
|
Definition
| neoplastic cartilaginous cells near basophilic matrix |
|
|
Term
| reaction of joints to injury: |
|
Definition
- synovial membrane: hypertrophy, pannus
- articular cartilage: fibrillation
- bone: myxomatous degeneration, pseudocyts, eburnation, proliferation
|
|
|
Term
| chronic infections that lead to inflammatory arthritis have hallmark... |
|
Definition
| ....acute inflammation with villus hypertrophy, lymphoplasmacytic inflam, fibrin, granulomas |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- large breed dogs
- dysplasia of articular-epiphyseal complex with cartilage thinning and disorganization with fibrosis and possible collapse of subchondral bone.
|
|
|
Term
| what is generally the only primary tumor found in joints? what are the hallmark path lesions? |
|
Definition
synovial cell sarcoma
biphasic tumors epithelial and spindle. |
|
|
Term
| what are the three reactions to injury of muscle? |
|
Definition
1. degen with regen
2. degen and necrosis with some regen
3. degen and necrosis with fibrosis |
|
|
Term
| muscle needs these two things to regenerate (KNOW) |
|
Definition
1. intact basal lamina or sarcolemmal tube for scaffolding
2. satellite cells (aka proliferating myoblasts) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
dehydration--> nuclear material erupts dorsally into vertebral canal housing spinal cord.
very painful |
|
|
Term
| what is fibrocartilagenous emboli? |
|
Definition
| IVD disk material as acute microemboli within spinal blood vessels |
|
|
Term
| a small amount of patchy formation of bone and cartilage within meninges of the spinal cord is observed in some dogs and cats by 5 yrs. what is it? |
|
Definition
| osseous metaplasia of the spinal meninges/ossifyin pachymeningitis |
|
|
Term
| what is myoglobinuric nephrosis? |
|
Definition
| release from damaged muscle leads to necrosis of renal tubular epithelium. hypoxia/renal ischemia may also be a factor |
|
|
Term
complete the table:
type 1 type 2A type 2B
metab
speed
# of mitos
ATPASE
function |
|
Definition
type 1 type 2A type 2B
metab oxi oxi/glycolytic glycolytic
speed slow fast fast
# of mitos lots moderate few
ATPASE low moderate high
function postural rapid act rapid act |
|
|
Term
| two common degenerative changes in muscle that are not specific for any particular insult/cause and include: |
|
Definition
- vacuolar degen-intracytoplasmic vacuoles
- hyaline degen-glassy eosinophilic cytoplasm without striations
|
|
|
Term
| the sequence of events leading to myofiber regen includes: |
|
Definition
1. striations lost
2. macs and PMNs enter tissue
3. satellite cells enlarge and divide
4. satellite cells move to center of myofiber “nuclear rowing” is key sign
5. later cross striations reappear
|
|
|
Term
| two classic examples of muscle atrophy due to denveration are: |
|
Definition
1. transection of radial nerve in HBC
2. left cricoarytenoideius dorsalis due to left recurrent laryngeal derve damage |
|
|
Term
what are the common bac causes of abscesses (KNOW!)
|
|
Definition
- strep zooepidemicus (horses)
- Arcanobacterium pyogenes (cattle and sheep)
- cornyebacterium pseudotuberculosis (horse, sheep, goat)
|
|
|
Term
| clostridial species leading to myofiber damage include: |
|
Definition
o perfringens
o chauvoei
o septicum
o novyi |
|
|
Term
| which clostridium causes flaccid paralysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the signs in clostridium tetani? |
|
Definition
| sawhorse stance, prolonged tetanic muscle contractions, esp if startled |
|
|
Term
| if a cow comes in with gross lesions what smell like rancid butter, are dry, and spongy, what could it be? |
|
Definition
Black leg. Clostridium chauvoei
ingested, dormant in skeletal muscle, trauma, exotoxins |
|
|
Term
| what is the most common cause of clostridial myositis in horses? |
|
Definition
| C. septicum "malignant edema" either by ingestion or penetrating wound |
|
|
Term
| what is the mechanism behind C. botulinum? |
|
Definition
- toxin halts release of Ach at NMJ
- dogs/cats not very susceptible (rodent eaters)
- soil and GI tract spores
- irreversible damage presynaptic axon terminals
- horses susceptible, dysphagia and tongue weakness can cause aspiration pneumonia
|
|
|
Term
| for cat bite wound cellulitis, the most common cause is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| for granulomatous myositis, the most common cause is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| for chronic fibrosing nodular myositis of tongue in cattle, the most common cause is: |
|
Definition
| Actinobacillus lignieresii or Actinomyces bovis |
|
|
Term
| for botryomycosis, the most common cause is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| for parasitic myopathy in fetal cattle, the most common cause is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| for purpura hemorrhagica in horses, the most common cause is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| for pigeon fever of intramuscular pectoral abscesses of horses, the most common cause is: |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis |
|
|
Term
| for hind leg abscesses in cattle, the most common cause is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| myopathy assoc with sustained contraction= stiff gait |
|
|
Term
| in pigs, the most common myopathies are: |
|
Definition
1. malignant hyperthermia 2. myofibrillar hypoplasia “splayleg”-born with abducted legs; recover if given leg splints, non-slip floor, care |
|
|
Term
| what is HYPP? what does it affect? |
|
Definition
- hyperkalemic periodic paralysis quarterhorses,
- autosomal dominant recurrent weakness
- muscle fasciculations
- hyperkalemia ONLY during episodes
|
|
|
Term
| clinical signs: pale soft exudative meat. hyperthermia from stress. muscle tremors, edema in muscle especially shoulder, back and thigh muscles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is polysaccharide storage myopathy/recurrent equine exertional rhagdomyolysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the #1 plant cause of toxic myopathy in cattle?most common cause of segmental necrosis of myofibers (esp in diaphragm) in pigs
|
|
Definition
| Cassia occidentalis (coffeeweed) |
|
|
Term
| the three exceptions to the autosomal recessive rule for inherited muscle problems are: |
|
Definition
HYPP (autosomal dominant)
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy (X-linked)
fainting goats (autosomal dominant) |
|
|
Term
| what is Duchenne's muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
defect in dystrophin
X-linked
repeated bouts of necrosis and regeneration of skeletal muscle varies from early death to survival with resp failrue due to seevere diaphragmatic myonecrosis |
|
|
Term
| what is myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
immune mediated
Ab against Ach receptors on skeletal muscle
self-tolerance
thymomas can initiate a loss of tolerance to Ach receptors |
|
|
Term
| What type of muscle fibers are lost in physiologic atrophy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the mech for fainting goats?
what are the serum CK and AST levels? |
|
Definition
autosomal dominant
chloride channel in skeletal muscle defect
serum CK and AST normal (no leaking |
|
|
Term
| in HYPP, the serum CK and AST are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- feed additive used in cattle and poultry as coccidiostatic to improve growth
- horses extremely sensitive, pale muscles, myonecrosis.
- ionophores form lipid soluble dipolar reversible complexes with cations
|
|
|
Term
| what is a nutritional myopathy? |
|
Definition
| Vit E/Selenium deficiency |
|
|
Term
| what is canine masticatory myositis? |
|
Definition
eosinophilic myositis
german sheps with difficulty eating
acute disease with swollen temporalis and masseter
chronic disease with atrophic masticatory muscles
Ab agains IIM myosin |
|
|
Term
| what is purpura hemorrhagica? |
|
Definition
young to young adult quarterhorses
strep equi equi
circulating immune complexes
rhadomyolysis |
|
|
Term
| what are rhabdomyomas and rhabdomyosarcomas? |
|
Definition
| tumors with skeletal muscle differentiation |
|
|
Term
| the urinary bladder is a frequent site of: |
|
Definition
| botryoid rhabdomyosarcomas |
|
|
Term
| cross striations is a slam dunk hallmark for: |
|
Definition
| skeletal muscle differentiation in a tumor |
|
|
Term
| bull mastiffs are at risk for what bone disease? |
|
Definition
| calvarial hyperostotic syndrome |
|
|
Term
| what are the auto-immune disorders and their respective species? |
|
Definition
1. Purpura hemorrhagica-horses
2. viral-horses, cats
3. canine polymyositis
4. masticatory muscle myositis (dogs)
5. extraocular muscle myositisi (dogs)
6. acquired myasthenia gravis (dogs/cats) |
|
|
Term
| ______ causes bread and butter lesions in _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| describe the electrolyte and heart changes in aldosterone insufficiency in Addison's. |
|
Definition
- ↑K, ↓K in urine
- ↓Na, ↑Na in urine
- ↓Cl, ↑Cl in urine
- hypovolemia
- bradycardia
|
|
|