Term
| What is an endochondral ossification? |
|
Definition
| Process of bone formation in which cartilage is replaced by bone (e.g. long bones, such as femur and humerus) |
|
|
Term
| What is an intramembraneous ossification? |
|
Definition
| Formation of bone on, or in, fibrous connective tissue (e.g. flat bones, such as the mandible and flat bones of the skull) |
|
|
Term
| What are the steps to endochondral ossification? |
|
Definition
| Mesenchymal condensation, cartilage model, ossification, secondary ossification, mature bone |
|
|
Term
| What are the regions of a long bone? |
|
Definition
| Eat Poop Mr Dinosaur - Epiphysis, physis, metaphysis, diaphysis |
|
|
Term
| What are three generalized developmental disturbances? |
|
Definition
| Chondrodysplasia, osteopetrosis, osteogenesis imperfecta |
|
|
Term
| What are chondrodysplasias? |
|
Definition
| Cartilaginous disorders - most are characterized by disproportionate dwarfism. Distinguish from primordial dwarfism! Some are lethal. |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of primordial dwarfism |
|
Definition
| Proportionate body form, recessive character fixed by selection, well known in cattle and dogs, often classified as distinct breeds (min poodle, min schnauzer,) some disproportionate dwarfs also classified as breeds (pekingese, basset hound, dachsund) |
|
|
Term
| Name some chondrodysplasias. |
|
Definition
| Dexter bulldog, snorter type, spider lamb |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cattle, cranium domed; short head with retruded face, projecting mandible and normal tongue, short, rotated limbs and large umbilical hernia. Likely mutation in aggrecan gene. |
|
|
Term
| What is snorter type chondrodysplasia? |
|
Definition
| Cattle. Brachycephalic is nonlethal. Common in beef breeds (esp Herefords.) Autosomal recessive, short-legged compact in heterozygotes, skeletal and visceral abnormalities in homozygotes (short, broad head, bulging forehead, protrusion of upper jaw, prominent and laterally displaced eyes) |
|
|
Term
| How can you measure snorter type chondrodysplasia? |
|
Definition
| In homozygotes the ratio of total metacarpal length to diaphyseal diameter is 4.0 or less in snorters and 4.5 or more in normal animals. |
|
|
Term
| What is spider lamb chondrodysplasia? |
|
Definition
| Sheep. Inherited condition (autosomal recessive) in Suffolks and Hamps. May be aborted, stillborn or born alive. Long, thin angular legs (unlike other chondrodysplasias) in tall, finely boned, poorly muscled lambs, small heads, scoliosis, sternal deformity, "knock knees." Severe degenerative arthropathy develops. Sternum forms an "S" shape. |
|
|
Term
| What causes spider lamb chondrodysplasia? |
|
Definition
| Single-base change in the tyrosine kinase II domain of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3.) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a negative regulator of bone growth and plays an important role in chondrocyte proliferation and differentiation during endochondral ossification. In spider lambs, FGFR3 mutation induces elongation of of bones forming by endochondral ossification by removing the FGFR3-induced inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation. |
|
|
Term
| What breeds of dogs most commonly are affected by chondrodysplasias? |
|
Definition
| Alaskan Malamute and Norwegian Elkhound, however several breeds are affected |
|
|
Term
| Describe chondrodysplasias in dogs. |
|
Definition
| Disproportionate short-limbed dwarfism with normal body length, loss of normal cone shape of distal ulnar metaphysis, enlarged carpal joints with lateral deviations of the paws. |
|
|
Term
| When is the best time for radiographic diagnosis of chondrodysplasia in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Autosomal recessive disorder characterized by accumulation of primary and secondary spongiosa in marrow space. Defective osteoclastic resporption of mineralized tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What breeds/species are affected by osteopetrosis? |
|
Definition
| Multiple species, including humans especially Aberdeen Angus, Herford, Simmental and Holstein |
|
|
Term
| Describe a calf affected by osteopetrosis. |
|
Definition
| Small, premature, usually stillborn, brachygnathia inferior, sloping forehead, impacted molars and protruding tongue. Diaphyses narrow; bones fragile. |
|
|
Term
| What bone disorder is rare in domestic animals, but very important in humans? |
|
Definition
| Osteogenesis Imperfecta - most common inherited connective tissue disorder in humans |
|
|
Term
| What is osteogenesis imperfecta? |
|
Definition
| Bones are fragile and fracture under physiological pressure. Important to distinguish disease from possible abuse cases! Multiple fractures, joint laxity, defective dentin. Thin cortex, wide marrow cavity. Growth plates normal. Joint hypermobility; blue sclera; fragile teeth. |
|
|
Term
| What causes osteogenesis imperfecta? |
|
Definition
| Inherited, may be autosomal dominant. Due mainly to mutations in genes coding for type I collagen. Altered quality of collagen or reduced amount. |
|
|
Term
| Name some localized developmental disturbances. |
|
Definition
| Polydactylia, adactylia, syndactylia, cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy in horses, wobbler syndrome in dogs |
|
|
Term
| Define polydactylia, adactylia and syndactylia. |
|
Definition
| Poly - increase in number of digits. Adactylia - absence of digits. Syn - fusion of digits. |
|
|
Term
| What breeds require polydactylia in their breed standard? |
|
Definition
| Norwegian Lundehund (6 toes/foot) and Great Pyrenes (each rear leg must have double dewclaws) |
|
|
Term
| What is equine cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy? |
|
Definition
| "wobbles" - incoordination and locomotor disturbances. Morphological or functional stenosis of vertebral canal. Compression/stretching of cervical spinal cord secondary to vertebral. Two pathologic syndromes (cervical vertebral instability and cervical static stenosis) |
|
|
Term
| What are signs of cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy? |
|
Definition
| Ataxia, with forelimbs less severely involved. Insidious onset. Lesions confined to spinal column (primary) and cord (secondary.) May also have osteochondrosis. |
|
|
Term
| What dogs are more likely to get wobbler syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Large breed dogs (Great Dane and Doberman,) male dogs, genetic predisposition, age of onset weeks to years |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of wobbler syndrome in dogs? |
|
Definition
| Spinal cord compression or stretching, funnel-shaped vertebral canal, anterior stenosis. |
|
|
Term
| How does hypothyroidism affect bones? |
|
Definition
| Causes retardation of growth and development of bones, severity depends on age and degree of deficiency. |
|
|
Term
| How does hyperthyroidism affect bones? |
|
Definition
| Acceleration of normal processes of maturation. |
|
|
Term
| How does hypogonadism affect bones? |
|
Definition
| Leads to delayed epiphyseal fusion |
|
|
Term
| How does hypergonadism affect bones? |
|
Definition
| Leads to premature epiphyseal closure and maturation of the skeleton. |
|
|
Term
| How does hyperadrenocorticism affect bones? |
|
Definition
| Commonly causes osteopetrosis in humans and dogs. Effects vary with species, exposure, and source of compounds. Reduction of rate of bone formation and amount of bone produced. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decreased amount of bone tissue in skeleton. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disease in which osteopenia leads to fractures. Imbalance between formation and resorption. |
|
|
Term
| What does osteoporosis look like radiographically? |
|
Definition
| Need 30% bone loss to detect, mainly cancellous bone, trabeculae reduced in number/size. |
|
|
Term
| What causes osteoporosis/osteopenia? |
|
Definition
| Usually nutritional - starvation, disuse, old age, intestinal parasitism, calcium deficiency, copper deficiency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disease of growing bones, caused by deficiency of phosphorus or vitamin D, lesions due to failure of mineralization of osteoid and cartilaginous matrix, both matrices accumulate |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of rickets? |
|
Definition
| Increased depth of physis and distortion of metaphysis and epiphyses, gross skeletal deformities may occur, cortex is soft, with curvature and fracture, spinal deformities common, joint enlargement, rachitic metaphysis (esp costochondral junction,) histological changes heal rapidly |
|
|
Term
| What is osteodystrophia fibrosa? |
|
Definition
| Extensive osteoclastic resorption of bone and formation of fibro-osseous tissue, caused by prolonged/excessive secretion of PTH. Primary (parathyroid hyperplasia/neoplasia) or Secondary (nutritional or renal - lower plasma ionized calcium and increase PTh) |
|
|
Term
| What is nutritional hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
| Deficiencies of dietary calcium and/or vitamin D, and excess dietary phosphorus - each of these causes hypocalcemia. Disease limited to young, rapidly growing animals with exception of horses. High plasma phosphate depresses ionized calcium and thereby stimulates the release of parathyroid hormone. |
|
|
Term
| Why is nutritional hyperparathyroidism different in horses? |
|
Definition
| Horses are remarkably sensitive to effects of high phosphorus diets; resistant to diets low in P. |
|
|
Term
| What does nutritional hyperthyroidism look like in horses? |
|
Definition
| lesions most severe in upper face and mandible ("bighead",) diets consisting largely of grain, corn, and grain by-products such as bran, gait changes, stiffness, shifting lameness, loss of appetite, cachexia, anemia, swelling of jaws, high susceptibility to fractures, increased osteoclasts with fibrous replacement of bone |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of nutritional hyperparathyroidism in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| Fulminating, signs usually begin a few weeks after weaning, diets of meat or offal, loss of lamina dura due to resorption of alveolar bone around teeth |
|
|
Term
| What is renal osteodystrophy? |
|
Definition
| Fibrous osteodystrophy in chronic renal failure, well known in dogs, uncommon in other species, retention of phosphate due to reduced glomerular filtration, reduced plasma ionized calcium stimulates PTH release - leads to end-stage kidneys |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disease of primates and guinea pigs that occurs secondary to dietary lack of Ascorbic acid (vit C) - vitamin C is required for hydroxylation of proline and lysine (essential for collagen formation) - with deficiency, less collagen production and increased fragility and degradation. Most animals synthesize ascorbic acid from glucose via glucuronic acid except humans, primates and guinea pigs which lack hepatic microsomal enzyme L-gluconolactaone oxidase. |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of scurvy? |
|
Definition
| Animals lose condition, become reluctant to stand or move, and develop swellings around joints. Massive subperiosteal accumulations of clotted blood around shafts of long bones, scapulae, bones of head and on ribs. Changes in physeal cartilage. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of fractures? |
|
Definition
| Traumatic (bone is initially normal) and Pathologic (fracture occurs in response to mild physiologic stress) |
|
|
Term
| How does repair of a closed, complete fracture occur? |
|
Definition
| Blood clot, organization of clot, production of callus (woven bone,) remodeling of callus (replacement by lamellar bone) - process takes months or years depending on site and age |
|
|
Term
| What are some complications of a fracture repair? |
|
Definition
| Misalignment, infection, necrosis, pseudoarthrosis (nonosseous union; permits continued mobility at fracture site,) premature closure of growth plate (skeletal deformities) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ischemia often secondary to trauma with fracture |
|
|
Term
| What does osteosis look like histologically? |
|
Definition
| Death and disappearance of osteocytes |
|
|
Term
| What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease? |
|
Definition
| Necrosis/collapse of femoral capital epiphysis, almost exclusively occurs in small dogs, lameness of insidious onset (4-8 months of age,) osteonecrosis initiated by episode of ischemia. May lead to collapse of femoral head. Long-term outcome is degenerative arthropathy. |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of Actinomysis? |
|
Definition
| Actinomyces bovis causes classic disease in cattle. Gram-positive, branching of filamentous organism. Classic lesion is mandibular osteomyelitis - "lumpy jaw" - maxilla rarely involved. Direct extension, foreign bodies, periodontitis. Periosteal proliferation. "Sulfur granules" microscopically. |
|
|
Term
| What viruses cause infection in bone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is most likely to be affected by metaphyseal osteopathy? |
|
Definition
| Young (usually 3-6 months old,) fast-growing dogs, large/giant breeds |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of metaphyseal osteopathy? |
|
Definition
| Fever, anorexia, severe lameness with swelling in metaphyseal regions of long bones. Distal radius and ulna usually most severely affected. Bones distal to tarsus and carpus are spared. |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of metaphyseal osteopathy? |
|
Definition
| Fever, anorexia, severe lameness with swelling in metaphyseal regions of long bones. Distal radius and ulna usually most severely affected. Bones distal to tarsus and carpus are spared. |
|
|
Term
| What pathology is associated with metaphyseal osteopathy? |
|
Definition
| Hemorrhages and necrosis of osteoblasts, neutrophils infiltrate chondro-osseous complex, alternating radiodense/radiolucent zones in metaphysis, ends of long bones become swollen and hard, remissions/exacerbations over weeks to months, most dogs recover completely, excess bone removed |
|
|
Term
| How is CLAD associated with metaphyseal osteopathy? |
|
Definition
| Colony of dogs with combined leukocyte adhesion deficiency, lack CD18 expression on neutrophil surface and neutrophils don't marginate or extravasate and cannot phagocytose by CD18, many systemic infections, 75-80% develop MO |
|
|
Term
| What is canine panosteitis? |
|
Definition
| Large/giant breeds, 5-12 months of age, males, esp. german shepherds - shifting lameness, mild to extremely severe, remission/exacerbation, self-limiting, abnormalities in diaphysis of long bone (usually foreleg,) no radiographic signs initially |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathology associated with canine panosteitis? |
|
Definition
| Densities of medulla, region of nutrient foramen develop over about 10 days. Expanding fibrovascular tissue in bone marrow, replaced by woven bone. Increased density disappears over weeks to months. No evidence of inflammation. +/- Eosinophilia. Serum chemistry unremarkable. Cause unknown. |
|
|
Term
| What is hypertrophic osteopathy? |
|
Definition
| AKA Hypertrophic Pulmonary Osteopathy. Diffuse periosteal osteophytosis secondary to chronic lesion, usually intrathoracic. Inflammatory or neoplastic. Initial clinical signs often related to secondary bone changes. Bone lesions regress if primary thoracic lesion removed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of hypertrophic osteopathy? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary lesions may lead to reflex vasomotor changes (mediated by vagus nerve) and increased blood flow to extremities. Lesions similar to HO can be reproduced in dogs by creating shunts that allow blood to bypass pulmonary circulation. Increased arterial pressure, hyperemia, and edema of periosteum lead to thickening of the periosteum by fibrous tissue (early) and new bone formation (later) |
|
|
Term
| Are neoplastic conditions generally malignant or benign? |
|
Definition
| Malignant until proven benign |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Neoplasm of medullary cavity and periosteum. Less likely to metastasize than osteosarcoma. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Benign tumor of cartilage. |
|
|
Term
| What is a chondrosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Malignant neoplasm in which cartilaginous matrix is produced. Arise from cartilage and perichondrium. Occur in pelvis, nasal cavity, sternum and ribs more commonly than in long bones. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Malignant tumors in which osteoid or bone is produced (sarcomas that produce osteoid.) Often metastasizes to lungs and is present as painful swellings of bones. Forelegs > hindlegs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common skeletal neoplasm in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What dogs are more likely to get an osteosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Mature males of large and giant breeds (St Bernard, Great Dane, Boxer, German Shepherd, Irish Setter.) Sudden increased risk after 5 years of age and decreases after 9 years of age. |
|
|
Term
| What causes osteosarcomas? |
|
Definition
| Generally unknown - bone infarction, previous fractures, metallic fixation devices, viral origin in mice |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of bovine lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| Juvenile. Commonly involves long bones. Infarction of marrow and necrosis of bones. |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary sites of metastases from bone? |
|
Definition
| Most are carcinomas. Primary sites mammary gland, liver, lung, prostate gland. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a patellar luxation and subluxations? |
|
Definition
| Patellar luxations are complete dislocation of a joint. Subluxations are partial dislocation of a joint. |
|
|
Term
| In what species are luxations common? |
|
Definition
| Dogs - medial most common in small dogs, later most common in larger dogs and some giant breeds. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inherited (polygenic.) Most are associated with anatomical defects. |
|
|
Term
| What type of luxation is most common in horses? |
|
Definition
| Lateral patellar luxation, generally associated with hypoplasia of lateral ridge of femoral trochlea. |
|
|
Term
| What species are affected by hip dysplasia? |
|
Definition
| Large dogs and less common in cattle. Rare in other species. |
|
|
Term
| What causes hip dysplasia (acetabular dysplasia)? |
|
Definition
| Inherited (polygenic,) with modification by environment. Rapid growth rate. May be a manifestation of osteochondrosis. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the progression of hip dysplasia. |
|
Definition
| Normal at birth; definitive radiographic evidence may not occur until after one year of age; earlier in severe disease - will see retarded development of craniodorsal acetabular rim. Initial microscopic lesions may be seen as early as 30 days. Acetabulum becomes shallow, distorted and wide. Drift of capital femoral epiphysis with remodeling of femoral neck. Degenerative changes by 5-8 months. Advanced degenerative joint disease with osteophytes, carilage ulceration and eburnation of bone. |
|
|
Term
| What causes hip dysplasia in cattle? |
|
Definition
| Inherited, males only. Recessive and sex limited inheritance. Herefords and other beef breeds. |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of degenerative joint disease? |
|
Definition
| Common disorder. Not driven by inflammation. Joint fluid initially normal and chronicity leads to deterioration. Any insult that produces structural injury to joint cartilage or subchondral bone or that is associated with prolonged or repetitive abnormal joint function. "wear and tear" disease. Larger joints usually first to show degenerative changes and are most severely affected. Areas of cartilage that bear the most stress are the most vulnerable |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of primary arthropathies? |
|
Definition
| Ringbone, spavin and navicular disease. Arthropathy of canine shoulder. Arthropathy of the bovine stifle. |
|
|
Term
| What are examples of secondary arthropathies? |
|
Definition
| Osteochondrosis, previous trauma |
|
|
Term
| What lesions are associated with degenerative joint disease? |
|
Definition
| Fibrillation, clefting and loss of articular cartilage. Increased thickness of subchondral bone (eburnation.) Osteophytes (increased size of joint.) Thickened joint capsule (fibrous tissue) with synovial proliferation. |
|
|
Term
| What are the common characteristics of ringbone, spavin, and navicular disease? |
|
Definition
| Common in horses. All develop at site of high or sustained mechanical loading. Fibrous or bony joint union may occur. May be initiated by repeated episodes of minor trauma and mechanical stress from faulty conformaition. |
|
|
Term
| What are the common pathological findings in ringbone, spavin and navicular disease? |
|
Definition
| Full thickness of necrosis of cartilage covering bone surfaces at sites of sustained compression, remodeling of subjacent subchondral bone and penetration of cartilage by granulation tissue arising from remodeling response in the subchondral bone. |
|
|
Term
| Where does ringbone affect limb? |
|
Definition
| Involves interphalangeal joints (high ringbone if it is proximal and low ringbone if it is distal) |
|
|
Term
| What joints does bone spavin involve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the lesions associated with arthropathy of canine shoulder? |
|
Definition
| Cartilage ulceration, eburnation of bone, thickening of joint capsule and villous proliferation of synovium. Osteophytes. -same location as OC, different pathogenesis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of bovine stifle arthropathy? |
|
Definition
| Dairy cows. Inherited in Holsteins and Jerseys. Lameness and muscle atrophy in mature cows. Bilateral lesions (same as canine and OC.) Most severe in medial aspect of distal femur. |
|
|
Term
| What breeds are chondrodystrophoid breeds and what type of intervertebral disk degeneration do they get? |
|
Definition
| Dachshund and Pekingese - nucelus pulposus degenerates and replaced by cartilaginous tissue (at 1 yr of age.) This increases the likelihood that protrusion will occur. Annulus fibrosus also degenerates. Prolapses caused by complete rupture of annulus fibrosus and are usually massive. |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of intervertebral disk degeneration in nonchondrodystrophoid breeds? |
|
Definition
| Initial changes occur later in life and consist of fissures in annulus fibrosus. After middle age, nucleus toughened by deposition of collagen, followed by degeneration and necrosis. Prolapses associated with partial rupture of annulus and bulging of dorsal surface of disk. |
|
|
Term
| Where do displacements occur most often in IVDD? |
|
Definition
| Dorsally - dorsal part of annulus fibrosus is thinner than ventral. Most disk disease involves thoracolumbar and cervical regions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Common condition of vertebral column. Osteophytes develop at intervertebral space as spurs or as complete bony bridges. Common in bulls, pigs and dogs. Posterior weakness and ataxia or paralysis. Onset of signs usually associated with fracture of the vertebral bodies and of the ankylosing bone. |
|
|
Term
| What is the usual pathogenesis of infectious arthritis in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| Usually monoarticular - caused by penetrating wounds and involves adolescent or older animals. |
|
|
Term
| What is the usual pathogenesis of infectious arthritis in farm animals? |
|
Definition
| Usually polyarticular, hematogenous and affects neonates. |
|
|
Term
| What joints are more susceptible to infectious arthritis? |
|
Definition
| Subsides in many joints, but more progressive in large joints. Bilateral - serofibrinous. |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of infectious arthritis? |
|
Definition
| Streptococci, coliforms, lentiviruses, mycoplasma, chlamydia, etc |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does bursitis occur? |
|
Definition
| Capped elbow and capped hock. Carpal bursitis in cattle. Fistulous withers and poll evil. |
|
|
Term
| What is diskospondylitis? |
|
Definition
| Intervertebral disk inflammation with osteomyelitis of contiguous vertebrae. Dogs and Pigs. Usually bacterial cause. Gray areas of discoloration and disruption. Complete destruction of disk occurs late in disease. |
|
|
Term
| What causes noninfectious arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does noninfectious arthritis occur? |
|
Definition
| Either centered in synovium or centered elsewhere in body. Either erosive or nonerosive. |
|
|
Term
| How is joint fluid different in infectious vs. noninfectious arthritis? |
|
Definition
| Infectious often contains toxic neutrophils |
|
|
Term
| What is erosive arthritis? |
|
Definition
| Classic example is rheumatoid arthritis (humans) - episodes of anorexia, depression and fever with generalized or shifting lameness associated with swelling around joints. Clinical course is progressive. |
|
|
Term
| What type of cartilage is not affected by neoplasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Multifocal disorder of epiphyseal (growth) cartilage that occurs in both the articular-epiphyseal cartilage complex and the growth plate. |
|
|
Term
| What species are affected by osteochondrosis? |
|
Definition
| Pigs (100%???,) horses, large-breed dogs, poultry, humans, cattle, sheep, cats |
|
|
Term
| How does the pathophysiology of OCD vary with species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four zones of epiphyseal cartilage? |
|
Definition
| Resting, proliferating, hypertrophic and calcifying |
|
|
Term
| How does epiphyseal cartilage change? |
|
Definition
| It is vascular hyaline cartilage in the growth plate that is responsible for longitudinal bone growth. Destined to ossify by endochondral ossification, becoming bone in the mature individual. |
|
|
Term
| What is endochondral ossification? |
|
Definition
| Orderly maturation of four zones - required throughout growth. Cartilage calcification is followed by vascular invasion. Osteoprogenitor cells produce osteoid on calcified cartilage matrix. Epiphyseal cartilage must be viable for process to occur. |
|
|
Term
| When do lesions of OCD occur? |
|
Definition
| Must occur in growing individuals because epiphyseal cartilage is absent in adult. May not show clinical signs until adulthood. |
|
|
Term
| Is articular cartilage vascular? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is epiphyseal cartilage vascular? |
|
Definition
| Yes. Supplied by blood vessels within cartilage canals |
|
|
Term
| What are cartilage canals? |
|
Definition
| Channels containing blood vessels, nerves and possibly lymphatics. Arise mainly from perichondrium, some from subchondral bone. Present at birth, and gradually decrease in number and extent with increasing age and weight. Disappear completely by several months of age. Supply epiphyseal cartilage. |
|
|
Term
| Where does adult articular cartilage derive it's nutritional supply? |
|
Definition
| From synovial fluid, with a minor supply from vessels in subchondral bone. |
|
|
Term
| Describe OCD lesions in the A-E complex. |
|
Definition
| Earliest lesion (may heal completely) is composed of focal area of necrotic epiphyseal cartilage that often is centered on a necrotic cartilage canal. In chronic cases, area of necrosis causes delay in endochondral ossification and marked reaction in subjacent bone. Cleft formation may occur leading to cartilage flap formation and osteoarthrosis. |
|
|
Term
| When do growth plate lesions occur in OCD? |
|
Definition
| When there is failure in endochondral ossification. Composed of focal accumulation of viable hypertrophic chondrocytes. Most heal uneventfully. Pathologic fractures may occur. |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology of OCD? |
|
Definition
| Multifactorial - trauma, hereditory, rapid growth, nutritional factors, ischemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The great majority of subclinical lesions of OCD heal; therefore, if the joint can be protected from trauma during the time frame during which it is vulnerable, it is possible that clinical disease could be reduced. |
|
|
Term
| Can you prevent OCD by reducing growth rate? |
|
Definition
| No - in all species, lesions occur during the period of rapid growth and occur most commonly in species that emphasize rapid growth HOWEVER, reducing growth rate by restricting feed or breeding with animals of a slower growth rate does not reduce prevalence of lesions |
|
|
Term
| What nutritional practices can be done to prevent OCD? |
|
Definition
| None - dietary manipulations are unsuccessful in reducing incidence/severity. Do not let horses become copper deficient. |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary immune organs? |
|
Definition
| Bone marrow (source of B and T cells) and Thymus (T cell maturation) |
|
|
Term
| What are the secondary immune organs? |
|
Definition
| Lymph nodes, spleen, lymphoid nodules (MALT, tonsils) |
|
|
Term
| What do B lymphocytes do? |
|
Definition
| Humoral immune system. Antibody production. |
|
|
Term
| What do T lymphocytes do? |
|
Definition
| Cellular immune system. Direct killing of foreign or intracellularly infected cells. Control of immune response (cytokines) |
|
|
Term
| What do the germinal centers of lymphoid nodules consist of? |
|
Definition
| Central, pale zone of large lymphocytes and macrophages within a zone of small lymphocytes. |
|
|
Term
| What lymphocytes predominant in the follicles...paracortex? |
|
Definition
| Lymphocytes - B cells. Paracortex - T cells. |
|
|
Term
| What does the medulla of lymph nodes contain? |
|
Definition
| Macrophages (differentiated, bone marrow-derived monocytes) |
|
|
Term
| How do pig lymph nodes vary from other species? |
|
Definition
| Inverted structure. Medullary cords found in periphery of node, whereas lymphoid follicles are concentrated in the center of the lymph node. |
|
|
Term
| What are causes of atrophy/hypoplasia of lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
| Developmental disorder (B and/or T cells,) lack of antigen stimulation (SPF, neonatal,) cachexia and malnutrition (T cells,) Aging (B and T cells,) and viral infections (BVD, canine distemper) |
|
|
Term
| What are the main developmental diseases affecting lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
| SCID, T cell deficiency and B cell deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of T cell deficiency in lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
| Germinal centers are present, as are antibodies, but the paracortical areas are hypoplastic |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of severe B cell deficiency in lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
| Germinal centers are not formed and plasma cells are absent, cell-mediated immunity is intact - example: agammaglobulinemia in foals |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of SCID in lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
| Lymph nodes lack germinal centers and paracortical lymphoid colonization, both humoral and cell-mediated immunity are affected |
|
|
Term
| What are major causes of lymphadenopathy? |
|
Definition
| Lymphoid hyperplasia (follicular, paracortical, both,) lymphadenitis (acute or chronic,) lymphoid neoplasia (primary or metastatic,) hyperplasia of the monocyte-macrophage system |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of lymphoid hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
| Common in immune stimulation, nonspecific, localized or systemic, exaggeration of normal histology, follicular, paracortical or both |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of lymphadenitis? |
|
Definition
| Infectious agent is usually present in lymph node. Differentiate from lymphoid hyperplasia, node is reactive, but free of invasion. May result from drainage of the products of adjacent inflammation. Acute or chronic (suppurative, caseous, granulomatous) |
|
|
Term
| What causes acute lymphadenitis? |
|
Definition
| Usually the result of a regional lymph node draining an inflamed site and becoming infected. Strep equi ssp equi, strep porcinus. Will be soft or firm - reddened and may bulge on incision. |
|
|
Term
| What species are affected by CL? |
|
Definition
| Sheep (shearing wounds,) goats (head, neck, skin wounds,) cattle and horses (ulcerative lymphangitis) |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of CL? |
|
Definition
| Suppurative infection of lymph nodes caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. Produces a heat-labile toxin, increased vascular permeability. Usually persistent infection with progressive necrosis and reformation of capsule. Becomes systemic and produces abscesses in internal organs. |
|
|
Term
| What is a classic example of focal granulomatous lymphadenitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Mycobacterium bovis (inhalation) and Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (ingestion) - in swine seen as caseous lesions in retros and cattle as johne's disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of TB? |
|
Definition
| Inhaled bacilli reach alveoli, bacilli are phagocytosed by alveolar macrophages, multiply in macrophages, spread via airways within lungs, spread to mediastinal and tracheobronchial lymph nodes, dissemination via lymph vessels to distant organs and lymph nodes - miliary TB if dissemination is sudden and masive |
|
|
Term
| What are the microscopic lesions of TB? |
|
Definition
| Characteristic of granulomatous inflammation. Granulomas are usually encapsulated, with extensive caseous necrosis in the center, and presence of macrophages, epithelial, and giant, multinucleated cells in periphery. Areas of mineralization are commonly observed in necrotic areas. |
|
|
Term
| What diseases cause focal coalescing and diffuse granulomatous lymphadenitis? |
|
Definition
| Blastomycosis, cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis and leishmaniasis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lymph nodes are affected in blasto and crypto? |
|
Definition
| Regional lymph nodes draining an affected area. Example - tracheobroncial in pulmonary infections. |
|
|
Term
| What cases histoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of histo? |
|
Definition
| Intracellular parasite of monocyte-macrophage system. Organism is inhaled - hypertrophy of tracheobronchial lymph nodes - hematogenous and lymphatic dissemination (GI and hepatic) - lesions seen as enlarged lymph nodes, spleen and liver |
|
|
Term
| How can you diagnose histo? |
|
Definition
| Fine need aspiration biopsy, lymph node "imprint" and yeasts can be seen in the cytoplasm of macrophages and in the background of a cytologic smear. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three forms of leishmaniasis? |
|
Definition
| Cutaneous (leishmania tropica,) muco-cutaneous (leishmania braziliensis,) and visceral (lishmania donavani) |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of leishmaniasis? |
|
Definition
| Protozoa proliferates in the gut of sand fly - become flagellated organisms - introduced to mammals by insect bites - assume non-flagellated form in macrophages - diagnose by fine needle aspirate |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of canine lymphosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Middle-aged animals, etiology unknown, B cell neoplasms are more common. All forms cause anorexia, lethargy, cachexia and PU/PD due to hypercalcemia (production of PTH-like protein by neoplastic cells) |
|
|
Term
| What are the classifications of canine lymphosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Multicentric (most common, generalized enlargement of lymph nodes,) alimerntary (vomit, diarrhea, hematochezia,) cutaneous (nodules, plaques, skin ulcers,) and mediastinal (dyspnea, exercise intolerance) |
|
|
Term
| What causes feline lymphosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| FLV - virus shed in saliva - colonizes pharyngeal lymphoid tissue - cat may mount effective immune response and clear virus - persistent viremia causes immunosuppresion - presdispose to development of lymphosarcomas |
|
|
Term
| What are classifications of feline lymphosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Multicentric (most common, enlarged lymph nodes, abdominal masses,) thymic (dyspnea,) alimentary (abdominal masses,) and miscellaneous (ocular, renal, neural forms) |
|
|
Term
| What is enzootic bovine lymphosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Adult cattle. Caused by BLV. Virus persists w/in lymphcytes for life. Horizontal transmission of infected lymphocytes by blood-sucking arthropods and mechanical means. Greater incidence in dairy cattle (due to husbandry.) |
|
|
Term
| What lesions are associated with enzootic bovine lymphosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Differntial - lymph node hyperplasia. Nonneoplastic persistant lymphocytosis, generalized enlargement of lymph nodes, persistent diarrhea, congestive heart failure, posterior paresis or paralysis. |
|
|
Term
| What is sporadic bovine lymphosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Affects young cattle (3-6 months.) No known etiology. Generalized lymphadenopathy, may involve other organs. Lymphocytic leukemia may occur. Cutaneous form is rare but presents as discrete cutaneous plaques. |
|
|
Term
| What causes lymphosarcoma in goats and sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common tumor in pigs? |
|
Definition
| Lymphosarcoma - generalized lymph node enlargement, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly. Gradual involvement of marrow. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Commonly observed in the bronchial lymph nodes of dogs, carbon is retained in phagocytes, inert and of no consequence |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Commonly observed in the bronchial lymph nodes of dogs, carbon is retained in phagocytes, inert and of no consequence |
|
|
Term
| What type of lymphatics supply the spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do antigens reach the spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What role do the germinal centers of the spleen play? |
|
Definition
| Humoral immune response, both by local production of antibodies and by the provision of the B-memory cells to peripheral lymphoid organs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the white pulp of the spleen composed of? |
|
Definition
| Lymphoid follicles and B cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the red pulp of the spleen composed of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of the spleen? |
|
Definition
| Filtration of unwanted elements from the blood by phagocytosis (red pulp,) major secondary organ of immune system, source of lymphoreticular cells and sometime hematopoietic cells, rarely the primary site of disease, spenomegaly usually results when spleen is involved in systemic disease |
|
|
Term
| What are developmental disorders of the spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are causes of uniform splenomegaly with bloody consistency? |
|
Definition
| Congestion - torsion, barbituates, acute hyperemia, acute hemolytic anemia |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of splenic torsion? |
|
Definition
| Mainly observed in pigs and dogs (especially deep-chested,) leads to congestion and splenic infarction, spleen is uniformly and markedly enlarged and blue-black from cyanosis |
|
|
Term
| What species are more susceptible to splenic congestion due to barbituates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does splenic congestion due to acute hyperemia occur? |
|
Definition
| Common in septicemias and bacteremias. Anthrax. |
|
|
Term
| What causes uniform splenomegaly with a firm consistency? |
|
Definition
| Cell proliferation (macrophages) in red pulp due to histo, leishmaniosis, lymphoid hyperplasia due to blood-borne antigens, lymphoma and from stored deposits of material (lysosomal storage diseases, amyloid) |
|
|
Term
| What causes splenic nodules with bloody consistency? |
|
Definition
| Hematomas, splenic vascular neoplasms, incompletely contracted areas of the spleen and acute splenic infarcts |
|
|
Term
| What causes splenic nodules with a firm consistency? |
|
Definition
| Nodular hyperplasia, primary neoplasms, metastatic neoplasms, granulomas and abscesses |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of splenic nodular hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
| Frequently observed in old dogs, nodules may have 2-5 cm of diameter, cut surface varies from gray to pink, yellow areas are characteristic of necrosis and are seen in large nodules, nodules lack germinal centers |
|
|
Term
| What are common neoplasms of the spleen? |
|
Definition
| Hemangiomas, hemangiosarcomas, lymphosarcoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common splenic tumor of dogs? |
|
Definition
| Hemangiosarcoma. German shepherds are most commonly affected, followed by golden retrievers and labrador retrievers. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common splenic tumor of dogs? |
|
Definition
| Hemangiosarcoma. German shepherds are most commonly affected, followed by golden retrievers and labrador retrievers. |
|
|
Term
| Which part of the immune system is the thymus primarily responsible for? |
|
Definition
| The cell-mediated immune response (T cells) |
|
|
Term
| Which part of the immune system is the thymus primarily responsible for? |
|
Definition
| The cell-mediated immune response (T cells) |
|
|
Term
| Name the developmental diseases of the thymus. |
|
Definition
| Congenital immunodeficiency, agammaglobulinemia, combined immunodeficiency |
|
|
Term
| What does deficiency of bone marrow lymphocytes result in? |
|
Definition
| Hypo or agammaglobulinemia |
|
|
Term
| What does deficiency of thymus-dependent cells results in? |
|
Definition
| Lymphopneia and deficient cell-mediated immunity. |
|
|
Term
| What is combined immunodeficiency? |
|
Definition
| Deficiency of B and T lymphocytes together. |
|
|
Term
| What are one of the main consequences of aggamaglobulinemia? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory tract infection. |
|
|
Term
| What causes myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
| It can be either acquired or congenital. Acquired is an autoimmune disorder that is characterized by muscle weakness and reduced exercise tolerance. It is often associated with megaesophagus. |
|
|
Term
| What are some processes that may lead to chronic renal failure? |
|
Definition
| Chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, chronic interstitial nephritis, polycystic kidney disease, neoplasia, amyloidosis |
|
|
Term
| What happens as nephrons are lost due to various chronic renal diseases? |
|
Definition
| An increasing proportion of the glomerular filtration must be handled by the remaining nephrons. To compensate, remaining individual nephrons undergo hypertrophy and each nephron handles an increased amount of filtration. |
|
|
Term
| At what point can the glomeruli no longer account for the lost glomeruli? What happens then? |
|
Definition
| When only about 1/3 of the nephrons are left. At this point, the total amount of filtration that the remaining glomeruli can accomplish begins to decline - GFR decreases, causing a rise in BUN and serum creatinine concentrations (azotemia.) |
|
|
Term
| What are the two factors that cause polyuria in chronic renal failure? |
|
Definition
| The necessary number or "critical mass" of functioning nephrons is no longer present to adequately maintain the medullary solute gradient and countercurrent exchange mechanism. Solute diuresis occurs due to the fact that the few functioning nephrons must handle an increased solute load. |
|
|
Term
| How many neprons have to be lost for uremia to develop? What is uremia? |
|
Definition
| When 3/4 of the nephrons are lost, uremia develops. Hallmark of advanced chronic renal failure. Azotemia, PU/PD, metabolic acidosis, electrolyte abnormalities, metastatic mineralization, oral and GI ulcers and non-regenerative anemia. |
|
|
Term
| Why does dehydration develop in CRF? |
|
Definition
| Occurs due to impairment of renal concentrating ability with consequent excretion of large volumes of water. Polydipsia not sufficient to overcome diarrhea, vomiting, etc. |
|
|
Term
| Why does salt and water retention occur during CRF? |
|
Definition
| Volume depletion from dehydration causes increased renin secretion - converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and then II - arteriolar vasoconstriction resulting in hypertension and aldosterone secretion from adrenal cortex - increase Na+ retention (and water) |
|
|
Term
| Why does metabolic acidosis occur in CRF? |
|
Definition
| Due to reduced total renal ammonia production and decreased bicarbonate uptake. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to serum phosphate in CRF? What does this do to calcium? |
|
Definition
| Renal phosphate excretion is insufficient and serum phosphate levels rise. Enhances calcium entry into tissues, causing transient hypocalcemia. Persistent hypocalcemia sets in later due to extensive renal damage combined with hypophophatemia causing increased vitamin D. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to plasma PTH in CRF? |
|
Definition
| Hypocalcemia triggers increase PTH secretion which leads to parathyroid hyperplasia and secondary renal hyperparathyroidism. The clearance of PTH is also reduced which contributes to abnormally high plasma PTH levels. Leads to renal osteodystrophy. |
|
|
Term
| What tissues are susceptible to metatastic mineralization due to abnormal calcium and phosphate levels in CRF? |
|
Definition
| Lung, blood vessels and GI tract (especially mucosa) |
|
|
Term
| At what point does progression to end-stage renal failure tend to proceed if the primary disease has not been resolved? |
|
Definition
| When enough nephrons are destroyed to reduce the GFR to 30-50%. |
|
|
Term
| Why does glomerular hypertension develop? What does this lead to? |
|
Definition
| Disproportionate hyperperfusion (vasodilation of afferent//efferent arterioles) - affertent dilation is greater than efferent = increased glomerular hypertension. Leads to damage of the glomerular epithelial and endothelial cells and increased permeability to macromolecules = increased mesangial production of matrix and of mesangial cell proliferation and glomerulosclerosis. |
|
|
Term
| What are factors that contribute to tubulointerstitial damage? |
|
Definition
| Ischemic damage due to loss of tubular blood supply. Increased ammoniagenesis by renal tubules with activation of the alternative complement pathway which triggers the relase of inflammatory intermediates from leukocytes and proteinuria. Proteinuria results in activation of renal tubule epithelial cells which then release proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors which contribute to interstitial fibrosis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is characterized by oliguria or anuria of rapid onset (days), azotemia and metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia and hyperphosphatemia. |
|
|
Term
| How do you distinguish CRF from ARF? |
|
Definition
| Rapidity of onset, presence of nonregenerative anemia and polyuria versus oliguria or anuria. Small kidneys is more compatible with CRF and symmetrically enlarged with ARF...renal size alone is not definitive. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increased non-protein nitrogenous compounds in the blood = elevated BUN an/or serum creatinine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Blood/Serum Urea Nitrogen. Used an indicator of GFR. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| End product of creatine catabolism; used an indicator of GFR by virtue of its relatively constant rate of production (skeletal muscle), its complete filterability at the glomerulus, and its lack of tubular reabsorption. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dilute urine (specific gravity < 1.008) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A state in chronic renal failure in which the kidney cannot form urine with a higher or lower specific gravity than protein-free plasma (specific gravity = 1.008 to 1.012) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lower than normal urine production. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Frequent urination, typically of small volumes, without an increase in renal urine output. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increased and frequent water consumption. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Frequent urination, usually of large volumes, with increase in renal urine output. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Difficulty in passing urine, often with evidence of pain and tenesmus. |
|
|
Term
| How is ATN morphologically characterized? |
|
Definition
| Multifocal or patchy necrosis along the nephron. Proximal tubules are especially vulnerable but distal tubules also are affected. Basement membranes are often ruptured. |
|
|
Term
| What condition is also called "shock kidney"? |
|
Definition
| Ischemic ATN. Usually associated with an episode of severe hypotension or renal hypoperfusion due to shock. |
|
|
Term
| What can cause toxic ATN? |
|
Definition
| Wide variety of toxins - heavy metals (mercury, lead), organic solvents (carbon tetrachloride, chloroform), antibiotics (aminoglycosides, polymyxin, sulfonamides), pesticides and ethylene glycol |
|
|
Term
| How is toxic ATN characterized morphologically? |
|
Definition
| Kidneys are grossly swollen and pale and there may be perirenal edema. Microscopically the proximal tubules are diffusely involved and the distal nephron is relatively spared. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are the tubular epithelial cells vulnerable to injury that results in ATN? |
|
Definition
| Cells are highly metabolically active and have high O2 requirements. They have a large, highly charged surface area and active transport systems for reabsorption of ions and organic acids. They effectively concentrate toxins intracellularly. |
|
|
Term
| What causes oliguria in ATN? |
|
Definition
| Endothelial dysfunction due to sublethal ischemic or toxic injury resulting in increased release of vasoconstrictors and decreased vasodilators. Tubuloglomerular feedback leading to glomerular vasoconstriction. Tubular damage/necrosis may result in loss of tubular integrity and leakage/backflow of filtrate. Increased tubular pressure may lead to leakage from tubules. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ATN, acute glomerulonephritis, acute massive renal infarction, complete bilateral urinary tract outflow obstruction |
|
|
Term
| What is primary glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
| An inflammatory and/or immune-mediated condition in which the renal glomerulus is the primary site of injury. |
|
|
Term
| What are the immune/inflammatory mechanisms associated with primary glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
| In situ immune complex formation, circulating immune complex deposition, cytotoxic antibodies, cell mediated injury and activation of alternate complement pathway. |
|
|
Term
| What are the consequences of glomerular injury? |
|
Definition
| Changes in renal plasma flow and glomerular filtration rate, sodium and fluid retention and proteinuria |
|
|
Term
| What are the four principal findings of nephrotic syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia (protein loss in urine exceeds liver's ability to synthesize urine,) generalized edema (due to reduced plasma oncotic pressure) and hyperlipidemia (low serum albumin leads to increased synthesis of cholesterol-rich LDL) |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology of bacterial urocystitis? |
|
Definition
| Bacteria commonly found in feces and on skin - E. coli, Staph spp, Proteus, Strep, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas or Eubacterium suis in pigs and Corynebacterium renale in bovine |
|
|
Term
| What factors predispose an animal to UTI? |
|
Definition
| Urinary tract outflow obstruction, incomplete voiding of urine, abnormal urine, hyperestrogenism may reduce urothelial barrier to bacterial invasion, urolithiasis, females (shorter length of urethra), pre-existing prostatitis in males, iatrogenic from catheters |
|
|
Term
| What are clinical signs of bacterial urocystitis? |
|
Definition
| Pallakiuria, urinating in inappropriate places. Urinalysis may reveal pyruia, hematuria, bacturia, and proteinuria (due to exudation) |
|
|
Term
| What does bacterial urocystitis look like morphologically? |
|
Definition
| Acute - urinary bladder mucosa is often hyperemic and edematous, thickened/tugid wall, mucosa may be hemorrhagic or eroded. Chronic - ulcers, erosions, eventually hyperplasia of urothelium, accumulation of chronic inflammatory cells and fibrosis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the renal pelvis, renal tubules, and interstitium most often due to bacterial infection. |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
| Ascending infection or hematogenous. Ascending is most common - begins with lower UT infection and bacteria gain entrance to ureters by the VUR. |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of acute pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
| Renal pelvis is dilated and filled with pus. Renal crest papillae may be diffusely or segmentally reddened or pale, necrosis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of chronic pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
| The renal pelvis is dilated and typically the renal crest/papillae are deformed, but frank pus is no longer a feature. The kidney is often assymetric due to wedge-shaped scars extending from medulla to cortex. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The presence of calculi in the urinary passages. May form in any part of the urinary duct system. |
|
|
Term
| What types of uroliths exist? |
|
Definition
| Struvite, calcium oxalate, urate, cystine, silica, calcium carbonate, CaPO4, Xanthine |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common urolith formed in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| Struvite - also found in pigs and rumiants |
|
|
Term
| What condition is most commonly seen with struvites? |
|
Definition
| Bacterial cystitis caused by urease-producing staph or proteus sp. High urine pH and excess ammonia and phosphate bind with magnesium. Treat with calculytic diet to reduce urine pH and reduce dietary magnesium. |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat calcium oxalate uroliths? |
|
Definition
| Surgical removal, lithotripsy or voiding urohydropropulsion. Pathogenesis may be associated with hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hyperuricosuria. |
|
|
Term
| What breed of dog is most likely to form a urate urolith? |
|
Definition
| Dalmation - high levels of uric acid in their urine (can't convert uric acid to allantoin in liver) |
|
|
Term
| Name some benign primary renal neoplasms. |
|
Definition
| Not common! Renal cell adenoma, oncocytoma, fibroma, hemangioma. |
|
|
Term
| How do you distinguish a renal cell adenoma from a renal carcinoma? |
|
Definition
| Difficult - metastases indicates malignancy. |
|
|
Term
| Name some malignant primary renal neoplasms. |
|
Definition
| Renal carcinoma, nephroblastoma, transitional cell carcinoma, hemangiosarcoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common primary renal tumor in dogs, cats and horses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinical signs of renal carcinoma? |
|
Definition
| Asymptomatic, colic, weight loss, hematuria, abdominal mass. Often metastatic when clinical signs evident. |
|
|
Term
| What does a renal carcinoma look like? |
|
Definition
| Unilateral (may be bilateral and multiple masses.) Well demarcated, tan-brown to cream-colored, often located at one pole. Typical histology of malignant tumors. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common primary renal neoplasm in pigs and chickens? |
|
Definition
| Nephroblastoma (2nd in dogs and cats) |
|
|
Term
| Are metastases common with nephroblastomas? |
|
Definition
| Rare in pigs and chickens - >50% of cases in dogs and cats |
|
|
Term
| What do nephroblastoma's look like? |
|
Definition
| Unilateral at one pole w/in cortex - very large in pigs - lobulated, meaty, white to tan with cystic areas and necrosis. Mix of embryonal epithelial and primitive mesenchymal tissues. |
|
|
Term
| Are secondary renal neoplasms malignant? |
|
Definition
| YES! All metastatic and malignant by definition. |
|
|
Term
| Name some secondary renal neoplasms. |
|
Definition
| Lymphosarcoma, hemangiosarcoma, malignant melanoma, carcinomas. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common neoplasm in cat kidneys? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is polycystic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
| A disorder characterized by displacemnet and loss of significant portions of normally differentiated renal parenchyma by multiple cysts. |
|
|
Term
| What breed of cats is most likely to get PKD? |
|
Definition
| Persians - autosomal dominant inherited condition. |
|
|
Term
| Name some benign primary neoplasms of the lower UT. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name some malignant primary neoplasms of the lower UT. |
|
Definition
| Transitional cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, leiomyosarcoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common primary tumor in the urinary bladder of most domestic animals? |
|
Definition
| Transitional cell carcinoma. |
|
|
Term
| In what species are squamous cell carcinoma's common? |
|
Definition
|
|
