Term
| Name the ideal pre-med, induction and maintenance drugs for a c-section in a dog |
|
Definition
Atropine (anticholinergic)
Midazolam (benzodiazepine tranquilizer)
Butorphanol (opioid/analgesic)
Propofol (induction)
Isoflurane (gas inhalent)
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Term
| Give 2 reasons why atropine is the anticholinergic of choice for c-sections. |
|
Definition
1. Has a short onset and duration
2. Can cross the placental barrier |
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Term
| Why give metaclopramide or cimetidine (famotidine) to a c-section patient? |
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Definition
| Give acid blockers to inhibit reflux due to increased intra- abdominal pressure from the fetuses |
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Term
| Why do we pre-oxygenate c-section patients and what is the duration? |
|
Definition
Duration 5 minutes pre-induction.
We give to prevent hypoxia and poor tissue perfusion due to pressure on the diaphragm |
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Term
| Name a disadvantage to mask inhalant induction vs. injectable induction for c-section? |
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Definition
| Mask induction does not provide airway protection and her increased risk of reflux means increase risk of vomit aspiration. |
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Term
| List 2 strategies for reviving an unresponsive puppy delivered via c-section. |
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Definition
1. rub vigorously with a towel
2. place 1 drop of doxapram under the tongue to initiate a breath and increase respiration |
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Term
| Name the reversal agent for opiods, alpha 2 agonists and benzodiazepines |
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Definition
opioids-naloxone
benzodiazepines-flumazenil
alpha 2s- yohimbine for most |
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Term
| Name 4 parameters that affect the CO2 laser's effect on tissue |
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Definition
1.power setting
2. spot size/tissue area
3. tip to tissue distance
4. hand speed |
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Term
| List 4 surgeries where lasers may be beneficial |
|
Definition
1. spay
2. neuter
3. cat declaw
4. mass removal |
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Term
| List 2 distinct advantages to laser surgery |
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Definition
1. cauterizes the vessels and causes hemostasis
2. should be less painful/traumatic to tissues if done properly, esp. w/ declaws |
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Term
| What are 2 disadvantages of using a laser in surgery |
|
Definition
1. cost-very expensive
2.steep learning curve, can do more damage than good if not done properly. |
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Term
| List 4 safety precautions for when lasers are in use |
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Definition
1. protect the skin, don't scrub w/ alcohol, use saline instead
2. protect your eyes, wear safety glasses
3. protect yourself from fumes. use a plume scavenger and face mask
4. prevent fire hazzard- wet down flammable objects (i.e. ET tube)and beware laser near O2 tanks |
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Term
| Name some key differences between lidocaine and bupivicaine |
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Definition
Lidocaine- 15 min. onset
4-6 hour duration
Bupivicaine- less than 5 min. onset
1-2 hour duration
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Term
| What should you be aware of if you choose to mix lidocaine and bupivicaine for maximum benefit |
|
Definition
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Term
| Name 4 important differences between the lidocaine patch and fentanyl patch |
|
Definition
Mode of Action- lidocaine topical absorption, fentanyl systemic transdermal absorption
Application- lidocaine must be applied near site of pain for local analgesia, fentanyl can be applied anywhere, because drugs are released systemically
cost- lidocaine is cheaper
Fentanyl is a controlled drug, lidocaine is not |
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Term
| Why can you cut a lidocaine patch to size, but not a fentanyl patch? How do we reduce the dose of fentanyl for a small patient |
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Definition
| If a fentanyl patch is cut, drugs will be delivered uncontrollably throughout the system, while lidocaine only provides local analgesia. To reduce the dose of fentanyl, only remove part of the protective backing. You can use the rest later. |
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Term
| Describe opioids as analgesics. List some and their receptors. |
|
Definition
Opioids are good, potent somatic and visceral analgesics, w/ mild sedation
i.e.
morphine- pure mu agonist
oxymorphone-pure mu agonist
hydromorphone- pure mu agonist
fentanyl- pure mu agonist
buprenorphine-partial mu agonist
butorphanol-mu antagonist, kappa agonist |
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Term
| Which opioid has the longest onset and duration? |
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Definition
| The fentanyl patch- 6-12 hour onset, w/ 72 hour duration |
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Term
| Which opioid has the shortest onset and duration? |
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Definition
| butorphanol- onset 15 mins IM/SQ, duration 1-2 hours. Also least potent opioid analgesic |
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Term
| Which opioids are bad to combine? |
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Definition
| butorphanol w/ mu agonists. Will cancel each other out. |
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Term
| What is the only oral, synthetic opioid we have in veterinary medicine? |
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Definition
| Tramadol- 1-2 hour onset, lasts 8-12 hours given PO |
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Term
| What is the most profound side effect of giving opioids, besides analgesia? |
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Definition
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Term
| List some alpha 2 agonists that provide analgesia |
|
Definition
xylazine (horses usually)
dexmedetomidine
medetomidine
detomidine (horses only)
ramifidine (horses only) |
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Term
| Which drugs can be used as emetics in dogs and cats? |
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Definition
xylazine- cats
apomorphine-dogs |
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Term
| Name some NSAIDs commonly used for analgesia |
|
Definition
carprofen- injectable or oral
meloxicam- injectable or oral
etodolac-oral
deracoxib-oral
tepoxalin-oral
firocoxib (Previcox)-oral |
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Term
| Which NSAID as of 2010 is no longer approved in cats for post-op analgesia? What is our only post-op alternative as a result? |
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Definition
Oral meloxicam, though some vets may continue to use it off label
buprenorphine is the only approved alternative. |
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Term
| What is our biggest concern when it comes to giving NSAIDs...especially perisurgically? |
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Definition
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Term
| What can we do to help increase renal profusion during surgery where NSAIDs are part of the protocol? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which drugs commonly used for surgery, are NOT analgesics? |
|
Definition
anticholinergics (atropine and glyco)
Phenothiazines (acepromazine)
benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam, zolazepam, etc.)
propofol
gas inhalents |
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Term
| Which class of drugs is commonly used in combination with analgesics and sedatives? What are their common side effects? |
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Definition
| NMDA antagonists, i.e. ketamine and tiletamine. Hallucinations, and muscle rigidity. |
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Term
| Define neurolept analgesia |
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Definition
| The combination of an opioid and a sedative to reach maximum potentiation of each drug to relax and reduce pain in the patient. |
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Term
| What is our main goal w/ analgesic protocols? |
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Definition
| To prevent pain, not to chase it. |
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Term
| What drugs are commonly used for ring blocks? What nerves do we numb for a routine declaw? |
|
Definition
lidocaine, bupivicaine, or mepivicaine (horses)
block the radial, ulnar and and median metacarpal nerves |
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Term
| What are the cellular components of a stress leukogram? What is the hallmark of chronic stress vs. acute stress? |
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Definition
See overall leukocytosis
neutrophilia
lymphopenia
eosinopenia
monocytosis
Will see significant increase in cortisol levels in chronic stress. |
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Term
| What will we see chemically in a stressed animal's bloodwork? |
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Definition
Increased glucose levels
increased platelets
increased RBCs
Increased cortisol |
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Term
| What is a marginal pool and how do peripheral blood changes occur during times of stress? |
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Definition
| The marginal pool is where blood cells made in the bonemarrow are stored until needed. In times of stress, HR and BP increase, flooding the marginal pool into the peripheral blood, thus leading t neutrophilia |
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Term
| What is the formula for blood pressure? |
|
Definition
BP=HR X SV X TPR
CO=HR X SV, so...
BP=CO X TPR |
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Term
| What is the ideal stage and plane of anesthesia for a routine spay or neuter? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name some of the MOST reliable signs of depth of anesthesia |
|
Definition
1. gross, purposeful, spontaneous movement
2. reflex movement,less reflex present, deeper they are
3. transient hemodynamic- increase or decrease in HR or Respiration (minus surgical stimulation)
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Term
| Name some reliable signs of anesthetic depth |
|
Definition
1. Vaporizer setting history
2. muscle tone
3. palpebral reflex
4. pupillary response
5. tear production, very dry=very deep
6. eyeball position |
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Term
| Name some of the LESS reliable signs of anesthetic depth |
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Definition
1. HR alone
2. Resp. rate alone
3. BP |
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Term
| Name some UNRELIABLE signs of anesthetic depth |
|
Definition
1. pupil size
2. shivering in response to hypothermia |
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Term
| Opioids cause what in cats? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What's important to remember when determining anesthetic depth? |
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Definition
| A positive response provides much more info than a negative one. Also, never make a determination of depth on one parameter alone |
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Term
| List 3 signs that a patient may display when in pain? |
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Definition
1. may vocalize
2. may not eat
3. may favor the affected area or hide |
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|
Term
| Define multimodal analgesia |
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Definition
| An approach to pain management that involves using analgesics from different categories...i.e. an opioid and an NSAID |
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|
Term
| What is the term for a pain response to a normally innocuous stimulus? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is defined as an increased pain response as a result of local inflammation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term for the absence of pain sensation in the skin and musculoskeletal system? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is the term for absence of pain or stimulation to the internal organs? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which lasts longer, the sedative or analgesia effects of butorphanol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which intervertebral space do we administer an epidural? |
|
Definition
| Lumbosacral joint-between L7 and S1 |
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|
Term
| Which complex is associated with ventricular depolarization on an EKG? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is associated with atrial depolarization on an EKG? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is associated with ventricular re-polarization on the EKG? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is associated with the time required for an impulse to travel from the SA node to the ventricle on an EKG? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What class of drugs is most likely to cause profound bradycardia or an AV block? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which class of drugs would you most likely use to TREAT an AV block or sinus bradycardia |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which drug is most likely used to treat VPCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do we consider a large breed dog to be bradycardic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do you consider a cat to be bradycardic? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Describe a 2nd degree AV block: Mobitz type 1 |
|
Definition
| An arrhythmia when the PR interval gradually gets longer and longer, until it skips a QRS complex/T wave and resets itself |
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Term
| What is going on if you see a wide QRS complex appearing early on the rhythm strip? |
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Definition
| VPCs- ventricular premature contractions |
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Term
| How do you calculate a HR based on a EKG rythm strip? |
|
Definition
1.Determine paper speed
2. count 5 large blocks to equal 1 second
3. count the number of complete complexes in 10 (5 block) spaces
4. Multiply that number by 6
i.e. paper speed is 25 mm/sec. you count 6 complexes in 10 seconds. Multipy that by 6 and get 36 BPM.
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Term
| What is the term for the amount of blood ejected during one cardiac cycle? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What happens to blood pressure if the HR drops? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What happens to BP if the TPR drops? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Acepromazine causes profound vasodilation. Which part of the BP formula is most affected by this? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
True or Fals
Normal pulses= Normotension |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are 2 indications for monitoring BP in veterinary patients? |
|
Definition
1. monitoring geriatrics
2. monitoring patients on cardiac meds |
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Term
| What are the 2 most common technologies for measuring INDIRECT BP in animals? |
|
Definition
1. oscillometry
2.doppler |
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|
Term
| List the most common locations to place a BP cuff on dogs and cats |
|
Definition
| proximal to the carpus and proximal to the tarsus |
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|
Term
| What is the most common lead used in EKG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What rarely if ever causes perianesthetic arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some common issues we see w/doppler BP measurements? |
|
Definition
Tendency to underestimate systolic, usually a better reflection of MAP
Poor representation of diastolic BP
<100 readings consider MAP
>100 readings consider systolic |
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|
Term
| What are the 3 steps seen on an EKG preceding death of the patient? |
|
Definition
1. ventricular tachycardia- a bunch of VPCs in succesion
2. Ventricular Fibrillation- low amplitude chaotic electrical activity
3. asystole-flat line- no electrical or mechanical activity-DEATH |
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Term
| What are 2 places to palpate a PERIPHERAL pulse |
|
Definition
metacarpal palmar artery
metatarsal dorsal artery |
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|
Term
| When do we become concerned about inspiratory CO2 being registered on a capnograph? |
|
Definition
| When it reaches or exceeds 5 mmHG |
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|
Term
| What are 2 common causes for excessive inspiratory CO2? |
|
Definition
1. CO2 absorber, whether a leak or expired soda lime
2. A communication between the inhalation and exhalation tubes in an F circuit causing the patient to rebreathe excess CO2 |
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|
Term
| What is the Normal awake value for ETCO2 in both dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
dog-35-45 mmHG
cat- 30-40 mmhg |
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|
Term
| List 4 causes of increased ETCO2 |
|
Definition
1. hypoventilation
2. fresh gas flow too low
3. malignant hyperthermia
4. problem w/breathing circuit |
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|
Term
| List 4 causes of decreased ETCO2 |
|
Definition
1. Hyperventilation
2.hypothermia
3. apnea
4. asthma |
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Term
| List the normal canine values for the following: |
|
Definition
MAP: >70 mmHG
ETCO2: 35-45 mmHG
InCO2: 0-8 mmHG
PaCO2: 38-38 mmHG
SpO2: >95%
PaO2: >110 mmHG
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Term
| What might you do to correct a high ETCO2 and PaCO2 if you see the patient is hypoventilating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 2 indications for anticholinergics? |
|
Definition
| reduce salivary secretions and increase HR |
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|
Term
| What are 2 possible complications associated w/ acepromazine? |
|
Definition
| could lower the seizure threshold, could cause possible bradycardia |
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|
Term
| What are some possible immediate side effects of propofol induction? |
|
Definition
| going slowly through the excitement phase and apnea |
|
|
Term
| List some things that decrease pulmonary performance under anesthesia. |
|
Definition
drugs like opioids and inhalants
recumbancy
head down position
lung pathology |
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|
Term
| What is the term for a collapsed state of the lung/alveoli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 2 indications for complete controlled ventilation of a patient? |
|
Definition
1. elective for a patient that is very difficult to keep at a steady rate
2. open chest surgeries |
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|
Term
| At what pressure do we provide a regular breath to patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pressure do we provide a sigh or deep breath? |
|
Definition
| Depends on patient size, but never more than 30 cmH2O |
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|
Term
| Why do we sigh our patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often do we sigh, spontaneous ventilated patients vs. controlled ventilated patients? |
|
Definition
spontaneous=every 5 mins
controlled=every 15 mins |
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|
Term
| What is the unit we have to monitor vitals at BRCC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List some artifacts that can occur when taking an EKG |
|
Definition
60 cycle interference- electrical
wandering baseline-result of panting or purring
patient movement, etc. |
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|
Term
| What is the difference between a Mobitz Type 1 and Mobitz Type 2 arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
Mobitz type 1 will gradually extend time between complexes, until a beat is skipped entirely andthen it resets
Mobitz Type 2 has a consistant rhythm, then randomly drops a beat and resets-more dangerous and more related to pathology |
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Term
| Why might we see low ETCO2 on a non-rebreathing system |
|
Definition
| Because the patient is only taking in fresh gasflow. It is not unusual to see an ETCO2 in the 20s. |
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|
Term
| Which is more helpful and accurate to monitor the patient, ETCO2 or SpO2? |
|
Definition
| ETCO2, SpO2 is rarely accurate |
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|