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Spring Final A&P
A&P Final
193
Anatomy
Graduate
04/08/2015

Additional Anatomy Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

 Someone with a hematocrit of 25 is

 A: anemic

B: normal

C: polycythemic

 

Definition

A: anemic

C: polycythemic

Term

Fight or flight responses characterize the activation of the

A: cranial division of the central nervous system.

B: motor division of the somatic nervous system.

C: parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

D: sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

Definition
D: sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
Term

Which plasma protein is largely missing from serum?

 A: fibrinogen

B: hemoglobin

C: immunoglobulins

D: albumin

 

 

Definition
A: fibrinogen
Term

 Most of the erythropoietin needed for erythropoiesis comes from

A: bone marrow

B: kidneys

C: lymph nodes

D: spleen

 

Definition
B:kidneys
Term

In infants and in liver disease, the inability to metabolize bilirubin may result in

 

A: Jaundice

 B: Hemophilia

C: Cardiac arrest

D: Hypertension

 

Definition
A:Jaundice
Term

The secretion of thromboxane A2 and ADP by activated platelets to surrounding cells is an example of

 

A: synaptic transmission

 B: paracrine transmission

C: endocrine transmission

D: signaling by direct contact

 

Definition
B: paracrine transmission
Term

In thrombocytopenia pupura there are multiple small hemorrhages all over the body because small holes are not plugged due to a deficiency of

A: fibrin

  B: Ca++

C: factor VIII

D: platelets

 

Definition
D: platelets
Term

Factor VIII deficiency:

A: Anemia

B: Hypertension

C: Hemophilia

D: Polycythemia

E: Heart attack

Definition
C:Hemophilia
Term

The intrinsic clotting pathway is initiated by _____. The extrinsic clotting pathway is initiated by _____.

 

A: The heart; Activated platelets

B: Activated platelets; Damaged tissue

C: Damaged tissue; Activated platelets

D: Erythrocytes; Damaged tissue

 

Definition
B:Activated platelets; Damaged tissue
Term

The main function of thrombin is to catalyze the production of

 

A: thromboplastin

B: prothrombinase

C: plasmin

D: fibrin

Definition
D: fibrin
Term

 

When atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure, the cardiac cycle is in

 

A: atrial systole

B: arrest

C: ventricular systole

D: atrial diastole

Definition

A:atrial systole

 

Term

 

Which receptor is activated to cause a decreased rate of firing of the pacemaker cells of the SA node?

A: nicotinic cholinergic

 B: muscarinic cholinergic

C: a1 adrenergic

D: b1 adrenergic

 

Definition
B: muscarinic cholinergic
Term

 

A prolonged bleeding time (on a bleeding time test) suggests

 

A: Increased blood volume

B: Low platelet count

C: Decreased production of clotting factors

D: High red blood cell count

 

Definition
B: Low platelet count
Term

What is the mechanism of action of Coumadin?

A: chelation (binding) of Ca++

B: inhibition of the function of coagulation factors

C: inhibition of the synthesis of coagulation factors

D: inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

Definition
C: inhibition of the synthesis of coagulation factors
Term

 

Which valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?

 

A: pulmonary

 B: mitral

C: aortic

D: tricuspid

 

Definition
D: tricuspid
Term

In cardiac muscle contraction, influx of extracellular calcium causes

A: release of Na+ from the extracellular fluid

B: release of Ca++ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

C: pumping of Ca++ into the mitochondria

D: pumping of K+ out of the cells

Definition
B: release of Ca++ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Term

 

Electrical coupling between cardiac myocytes is facilitated by

 

A: Gap junctions

B: Desmosomes

C: Sarcomeres

D: I-bands

Definition
A: Gap junctions
Term

 

Rapid depolarization in cardiac myocytes is caused by the opening of _____.

 

A: voltage-gated Na+ channels

B: voltage-gated K+ channels

C: voltage-gated Ca++ channels

D: voltage-gated Cl- channels

Definition
A:voltage-gated Na+ channels
Term

 

The pacemaker region of the heart is (are) the

 

A: conduction myofibers (purkinje fibers)

B: AV bundle (bundle of His)

C: atrioventricular valve

D: sinoatrial node

Definition
D: sinoatrial node
Term

Which phase of the cardiac action potential is caused by rapid entry of Na+ into the cell?

A: 0

B: 1

C: 2

D: 3

E: 4

Definition
A:0
Term

 

During the plateau of the cardiac action potential, the potassium current leaving the cell is balanced by the ____ current entering the cell.

 

A: K+

B: Ca++

C: Na+

D: Cl-

Definition
B:Ca++
Term

 

The left and right branches of the vagus nerve carry what type of signals to the heart?

 

A: Somatic motor

B: Sympathetic

C: Parasympathetic

D: No signals

Definition
C:Parasympathetic
Term

 

The main sources of epinephrine are

 

A: postganglionic sympathetic neurons

B: preganglionic sympathetic neurons

C: adrenal medullary cells

D: adrenal cortical cells

Definition

C: adrenal medullary cells

D: adrenal cortical cells

Term

 

Intrinsic control of heart rate is mediated by

 

A: Cardiac myocytes

B: The vagus nerves

C: The sympathetic nervous system

D: Pacemaker cells

Definition
D: Pacemaker cells
Term

 

Blood that exits the right ventricle enters the

 

A: Pulmonary arteries

B: Pulmonary veins

C: Vena cava

D: Aorta

Definition
A:Pulmonary arteries
Term

 

Norepinephrine is a positive chronotropic substance because it produces

A: decreased heart rate

B: decreased myocardial contractility

C: increased heart rate

D: increased myocardial contractility

 

Definition
C:increased heart rate
Term

 

Which receptor on cardiac myofibers mediates increased myocardial contractility?

A: a1 adrenergic receptor

B: a1 cholinergic receptor

C: b1 adrenergic receptor

D: b1 cholinergic receptor

E: b2 adrenergic receptor

Definition
C:b1adrenergic receptor
Term

 

The AV node causes a _____ of the conduction of the heart

Definition
A:Delay
Term

 

Which pair is incorrect regarding the action potential of a cardiac myocyte?

 

A: Phase 4: Resting Membrane potential

B: Phase 3: Repolarization due to K+ efflux

C: Phase 0: Depolarization caused by rapid Ca++ influx

D: Phase 1: Na+ channel inactivation

Definition
C:Phase 0: Depolarization caused by rapid Ca++ influx
Term

 

An L-type calcium channel blocker will have the most significant effects on the action potential of

 

A: Pacemaker cells

B: Neurons

C: Skeletal muscle fibers

D: Cardiac myocytes

Definition
A: Pacemaker cells
Term

 

Which of the following expresses the Frank- Starling Law of the Heart (Starling's Law)

 

A: Î EDV ->Î SV

 

B: Î HR  ->Î CO

 

C: SV x HR = CO

 

D: Flow = Driving force x Resistance

Definition
A:Î EDV ->Î SV
Term

As seen in the case study in class, hyperkalemia caused a shift in the resting membrane potential to more (+) (depolarized) This ultimately caused tachycardia by doing what in pacemaker cells?

 

A: Increasing the distance to threshold

B: Opening Na+ channels to depolarize more quickly in pacemaker cells

C: Decreasing the rate of rise of the pacemaker potential

D: Increasing the rate of rise of the pacemaker potential

 

Definition

C: Decreasing the rate of rise of the pacemaker potential

D: Increasing the rate of rise of the pacemaker potential

Term

 

A high afterload

 

A: Decreases cardiac output by decreasing stroke volume

B: Increases cardiac output by decreasing stroke volume

C: Increases cardiac output by increasing heart rate

D: Decreases cardiac output by decreasing heart rate

Definition

A:Decreases cardiac output by decreasing stroke volume

 

Term

 

Which receptor when activated, stimulates postganglionic sympathetic neurons to secrete norepinephrine?

A: nicotinic cholinergic

B: muscarinic cholinergic

C: b1 adrenergic

D: a1 adrenergic

Definition
A: nicotinic cholinergic
Term

 

Place the following events of the cardiac cycle in proper sequence first heart sounds isovolumetric ventricular relaxation atrial systole opening of semilunar valves

 

A: iii, i, ii, iv

B: iii, i, iv, ii

C: i, iii, iv, ii

D: iii, ii, i, iv

 

Definition
B: iii, i, iv, ii
Term

 

Following completion of his exam, Reggie assumed rest and digest mode, and the following parameters existed: Stroke volume = 70 ml/ heartbeat and Heart rate = 70 heartbeats/min What was his cardiac output at the time?

 

A: 70 ml/heartbeat

B: 140 heartbeats/min

C: 49 ml/heartbeat

D: 4900 ml/min

E: 4900 beats/min

Definition
D: 4900 ml/min
Term

 

All of the following regulate stroke volume EXCEPT

 

A: The end diastolic volume

B: The inotropic state of the heart

C: The afterload

D: The heart rate

Definition
D: The heart rate
Term

When left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure, the heart is in

A: Ventricular systole

B: Ventricular diastole

C: Atrial systole

D: Isovolumetric relaxation

Definition
A:Ventricular systole
Term

 

During atrial systole, which statement is false?

 

A: Ventricles are in diastole

B: Ventricles are filling

C: AV valves are open

D: Atria are filling

Definition
D: Atria are filling
Term

 

Beta blockers can cause decreased heart rate by antagonizing the effects of

 

A: norepinephrine on beta 1 adrenergic receptors

B: norepinephrine on alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

C: acetylcholine on muscarinic cholinergic receptors

D: acetylcholine on beta 1 adrenergic receptors

 

Definition
A:norepinephrine on beta 1 adrenergic receptors
Term

 

ECGs record

 

A: Electrical activity of the heart

B: Mechanical activity of the heart

C: Blood flow through the heart

D: Cardiac output from the heart

E: Oxygen cycling through the heart

 

Definition
A:Electrical activity of the heart
Term

 

In an ECG, the P wave represents

 

A: Atrial systole

B: Atrial depolarization

C: Ventricular systole

D: Ventricular repolarization

 

Definition
B:Atrial depolarization
Term

Which is the correct sequence of electrical conduction thought the heart?

 

A: AV node, atrial myocardium, SA Node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, Ventricular myocardium

 

B: SA Node, AV Node, Atrial myocardium, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, Ventricular myocardium

 

C: Atrial myocardium, SA Node, AV bundle, AV Node, Ventricular myocardium, Purkinje fibers

 

D: SA node, atrial myocardium, AV Node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, Ventricular myocardium

 

Definition
D: SA node, atrial myocardium, AV Node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, Ventricular myocardium
Term

 

Which pair is correct?

 

A: P wave: atrial repolarization

B: T wave: ventricular depolarization

C: QRS complex: ventricular depolarization

D: PR interval: time for a full electrical cycle of the heart

 

Definition
C:QRS complex: ventricular depolarization
Term

 

Compared with both plasma and interstitial fluid, intracellular fluid is

 

A: high in protein

B: high in K+

C: high in Na+

D: high in Ca++

 

Definition
B: high in K+
Term

 

The inferior and superior vena cava empty into the

 

A: pulmonary artery

B: left ventricle

C: right atrium

D: left atrium

Definition
C:right atrium
Term

The most abundant protein of red blood cells is

A: spectrin

B: hemoglobin

C: pyruvate kinase

D: Na+/K+ ATPase

E: erythropoietin

 

Definition
B: hemoglobin
Term

The heart rate in this ECG trace is approximately

A: 50 beats/min

B: 60 beats/min

C: 75 beats/min

D: 90 beats/min

Definition

C: 75 beats/min

Term

An ECG that appears almost like a “flat-line” is most characteristic of

A: Ventricular fibrillation

B: Premature ventricular contractions

C: AV node delay

D: Tachycardia

Definition

A: Ventricular fibrillation

Term

In partial AV block, an ECG typically shows

A: Prolonged PR intervals

B: Premature beats

C: Elevated heart rate

D: Missing P waves

Definition
A: Prolonged PR intervals
Term

(Cardiac output) X (total peripheral resistance) =

A: left atrial pressure

B: right atrial pressure

C: mean arterial pressure

D: mean systemic filling pressure

Definition

C: mean arterial pressure

Term

Capillaries can contain the same blood pressure as small arterioles without bursting because

A: their smooth muscles have a higher tone

B: their lumens have a smaller radius

C: blood flows slowly through capillaries

D: there is more collagen in the tunica externa

Definition
B: their lumens have a smaller radius
Term

The addition of 70 ml of blood causes pressure to increase 40 mm Hg. This is characteristic of the

A: right atrium

B: left ventricle

C: arteries

D: veins

Definition
C: arteries
Term

For veins a large change in volume produces only a small change in the venous pressure. Therefore, veins are very

A: compliant

B: inflated

C: rigid

D: elastic

Definition

A: compliant

Term

If total peripheral resistance increases (e.g. due to increased sympathetic tone), what happens to mean arterial pressure (assuming cardiac output remains constant)?

A: increases

B: decreases

C: stays the same

Definition

A: increases


Term

A layer of elastic fibers at the border between the tunica intima and the tunica externa is characteristic of

A: small arteries

B: large arteries

C: arterioles

D: veins

Definition

B: large arteries

Term

Which artery supplies the stomach, liver, pancreas, spleen, etc.?

A: celiac

B: brachiocephalic

C: common iliac

D: femoral

E: carotid

Definition
A: celiac
Term

"Increased perfusion of a tissue" means increased

A: blood flow through ateriovenous anastomoses

B: blood flow through tissue capillaries

C: ischemia of the tissue

D: cell size (hypertrophy) in that tissue

Definition

B: blood flow through tissue capillaries

Term

The large drop in mean arterial pressure between large arteries and capillaries shows that are the major site of resistance in the circulatory system.

A: bronchioles

B: lymphatics

C: systemic small arteries and arterioles

D: systemic veins

E: pulmonary veins

Definition

C: systemic small arteries and arterioles

Term

Which of the following statements about veins is false?

A: large lumens

B: thin, muscular walls

C: high pressure

D: carry blood to the heart

E: high compliance

Definition

C: high pressure

Term

Using a Blood pressure cuff, blood pressure is directly measured from the

A: Aorta

B: Brachial artery

C: Vena cava

D: Pulmonary artery

Definition

B: Brachial artery

Term

Connections between two arteries are called

A: metarterioles

B: endarterectomies

C: angioplasties

D: anastomoses

Definition

D: anastomoses

Term

Which of the following does not contribute to the development of varicose veins?

A: standing for long periods of time

B: high blood pressure at venous valves due to gravity

C: increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. during pregnancy)

D: increased systolic pressure during exercise

Definition
D: increased systolic pressure during exercise
Term

Hardening of the arteries is called

A: atriosclerosis

B: artherosclerosis

C: arteriosclerosis

Definition

B: artherosclerosis

C: arteriosclerosis

Term

One of the ways to increase systemic filling pressure (pressure in veins) is to

A: dilate veins

B: constrict arteries

C: inhibit angiotensin II

D: increase blood volume

Definition
D: increase blood volume
Term

In order for blood in systemic veins to return to the heart, venous pressure

A: must exceed arterial pressure

B: must be lower than right atrial pressure

C: must exceed right atrial pressure

D: must be lower than arterial pressure

Definition

C: must exceed right atrial pressure

Term

Of the following cardiovascular components, which is the major one regulated by the kidneys

A: sympathetic tone

B: venoconstriction

C: blood volume

D: vagal discharge

E: total peripheral resistance

Definition

C: blood volume

Term

Baroreceptors are part of the

A: Visceral sensory system

B: Somatic sensory system

C: Sympathetic nervous system

D: Central nervous system

Definition

A: Visceral sensory system

Term

During “fight or flight” situations, what ensures that skeletal muscles will receive an adequate blood flow?

A: epinephrine at  b2 receptors

B: norepinephrine at  b2receptors

C: epinephrine at  a1 receptors

D: norepinephrine at a1 receptors

Definition
A: epinephrine at  b2 receptors
Term

Which of the following hormones is secreted by the heart in response to increased pressure?

A: ADH

B: ANP

C: ATP

D: ASA

Definition

B: ANP

Term

What directly stimulates the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex?

A: renin

B: atrial natriuretic peptide

C: angiotensin II

D: angiotensin converting enzyme

Definition
C: angiotensin II
Term

A tumor that secretes norepinephrine and epinephrine (a pheochromocytoma) would

cause hypertension by

A: ↑ venous return

B: ↑ TPR

C: ↑ diuresis

Definition
B: ↑ TPR
Term

The receptor that mediates ANS-induced vasoconstriction is

A: a1 adrenergic

B: a2 adrenergic

C: b1 adrenergic

D: b2 adrenergic

E: M2 cholinergic

Definition
A: a1 adrenergic
Term

Which of the following is not likely to cause dilation of precapillary sphincters?

A: ↑ - [lactate]

B:  - ↑ [adenosine]

C: - ↑ [O2]

D:  - ↑ [H+]

E:  - ↑ [CO2]

Definition
C: - ↑ [O2]
Term

Where is the vasomotor center (cardiovascular center) located?

A: hypothalamus

B: carotid sinus

C: pons

D: medulla

E: cerebral cortex

Definition

D: medulla

Term

Which pituitary hormone is a vasoconstrictor?

A: angiotensin

B: antidiuretic hormone

C: epinephrine

D: acetylcholine

E: aldosterone

Definition
B: antidiuretic hormone
Term

When the rate of firing of the baroreceptors increases, some of the responses of the cardiovascular center are to

A: constrict the arterioles and dilate the veins

B: increase sympathetic tone to the heart and increase parasympathetic tone to the blood vessels

C: decrease all autonomic input to the body

D: decrease sympathetic tone to the blood vessels and increase parasympathetic tone to the heart

E: increase heart rate, resistance and venous return

Definition

D: decrease sympathetic tone to the blood vessels and increase parasympathetic tone to the heart

Term

How does increasing parasympathetic tone help to decrease mean arterial pressure?

A: decreased myocardial contractility

B: decreased heart rate

C: decreased constriction of arteries

D: decreased constriction of veins

Definition

B: decreased heart rate

Term

What is the major local vasodilator of coronary blood vessels?

A: H+

B: relaxin

C: kinins

D: adenosine

Definition

D: adenosine

Term

The common name for a myocardial infarction is

A: palpitations

B: weak heart

C: heart attack

D: iron-poor blood

E: high blood pressure

Definition

C: heart attack

Term

A direct effect of B-blockers, such as atenolol, is to

A: inhibit angiotensin

B: ↓ TPR

C: ↑ heart rate

D: ↓ myocardial contractility

E: ↑ venous return

Definition
D: ↓ myocardial contractility
Term

Weakness and light-headedness are characteristic of

A: shock

B: block

C: flock

D: dock

Definition

A: shock

Term

The major effect of nitroglycerin (via nitric oxide) is to dilate

A: pulmonary arteries

B: coronary arteries

C: systemic capillaries

D: portal veins

Definition

B: coronary arteries

Term

Calcium channel blockers decrease MAP by causing

A: vasoconstriction and decreased TPR

B: vasodilation and decreased TPR

C: vasodilation and increased TPR

D: venodilation and increased TPR

Definition
B: vasodilation and decreased TPR
Term

Inadequate tissue perfusion due to hypersensitive immune reactions

A: cardiogenic shock

B: hypovolemic shock

C: anaphylactic shock

Definition
C: anaphylactic shock
Term

Hypertension makes it more difficult for the heart to eject blood. I.e., hypertension increases

A: myocardial contractility

B: venous pressure

C: afterload

D: preload

Definition

C: afterload

Term

In the absence of other illnesses, the first therapy that should be tried for treating hypertension:

A: ACE inhibitors

B: diuretics

C: calcium channel blockers

D: behavioral changes

Definition
D: behavioral changes
Term

If behavioral changes are not sufficient in treating hypertension, the first pharmacological therapy usually used is/are

A: ACE inhibitors

B: diuretics

C: calcium channel blockers

D: beta blockers

E: angiotensin II receptor blockers

Definition

B: diuretics

Term

A crushing pain in the chest caused by inadequate oxygenation of the myocardium is called

A: heart failure

B: angina pectoris

C: myocardial infarction

D: cardiogenic shock

E: heartburn

Definition

B: angina pectoris

Term

Digoxin is a positive inotropic agent. Such agents are helpful in treating heart failure because they increase

A: heart rate

B: myocardial contractility

C: arterial tone

D: venous tone

E: parasympathetic tone

Definition

B: myocardial contractility

Term

Postural hypotension and postural syncope result when is unable to compensate rapidly enough for venous pooling due to gravity.

A: the baroreceptor reflex

B: the chemoreceptor reflex

C: ADH secretion

D: atrial natriuretic peptid secretion

E: the renin-angiotensin system

Definition

A: the baroreceptor reflex

Term

What are elevated in hypertension?

A: CO and TPR

B: MAP and CO

C: MAP and TPR

D: GFR and MAP

Definition
C: MAP and TPR
Term

Left sided heart failure produces

A: pulmonary edema

B: septic shock

C: elevated MAP

D: elevated CO

E: hepatic congestion

Definition

A: pulmonary edema

Term

Which of the following increases the afterload of the heart?

A: end diastolic volume

B: ↑ TPR

C: ↑ stroke volume

D: ↑ venous tone

E: ↑ heart rate

Definition
B: ↑ TPR
Term

The major cause of hypertension is

A: unknown

B: pheochromcytoma

C: coarctation of the aorta

D: toxemia of pregnancy

Definition
A: unknown
Term

If a 70 year old has a blood pressure of 150/85, that person has

A: hypertension

B: heart failure

C: arteriosclerosis

D: angina

E: hypovolemic shock

 

Definition

A: hypertension

 

Term

Which type of capillary is found in the glomerulus?

A: sinusoidal

B: fenestrated

C: continuous

D: intersecting

Definition

B: fenestrated

Term

In ultrafiltration in a typical capillary bed, the ultrafiltrate moves from

A: the vascular lumen to the interstitium

B: the interstitium to the vascular lumen

C: the tubular lumen to the interstitium

D: the capsular space to the vascular lumen

Definition
A: the vascular lumen to the interstitium
Term

What is the single most important factor promoting reabsorption at the venous end of a capillary?

A: blood pressure

B: interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

C: interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

D: colloidal osmotic pressure of the plasma

Definition

D: colloidal osmotic pressure of the plasma

Term

A build-up of interstitial fluid in the lungs (e.g., secondary to left sided heart failure) is called pulmonary

A: embolism

B: edema

C: dyspnea

D: pneumonia

Definition
B: edema
Term

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) can cause constriction of the afferent arteriole. Thus, NSAIDS may

A: Promote filtration

B: Decrease GFR

C: Increase GFR

D: Function as diuretics

Definition

B: Decrease GFR

Term

Tubular fluid from the loop of Henle flows into the

A: efferent arteriole

B: afferent arteriole

C: distal convoluted tubule

D: proximal convoluted tubule

Definition

C: distal convoluted tubule

Term

The renal pyramids are part of the renal

A: calyx

B: medulla

C: capsule

D: cortex

Definition

B: medulla

Term

The preganglionic neurons that control the detrusor muscle leave the sacral region. Therefore, emptying of the bladder is under _____ control.

A: parasympathetic

B: sympathetic

C: somatic

Definition

A: parasympathetic

Term

The neuronal connections that allow brain control of bladder function take a couple of years to become established. For this and other reasons what is not possible before this time?

A: glomerular filtration

B: micturition

C: ureteral contractions

D: toilet training

Definition
D: toilet training
Term

What is the major tissue type of the detrusor?

A: smooth muscle

B: cardiac muscle

C: cardiac muscle

D: transitional epithelium

E: stratified squamous epithelium

Definition

A: smooth muscle

Term

What type of receptors on the detrusor muscles are activated to cause urine storage(muscle relaxation)?

A: b2 adrenergic

B: Muscarinic cholinergic

C: Nicotinic cholinergic

D: a1 adrenergic

Definition

A: b2 adrenergic

Term

What is the name of the long capillary loops that parallel the loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons?

A: vasa recta

B: vasa vasorum

C: vasa propria

D: vasa deferentes

Definition

A: vasa recta

Term

One hypothesis for the diuretic effect of caffeine is that it causes dilation of the afferent arteriole, thereby causing a(n)

A: increase in tubular reabsorption

B: increase in tubular secretion

C: increase in glomerular filtration

D: decrease in urinary excretion

Definition

C: increase in glomerular filtration

Term

A normal GFR for a young adult male is

A: 65 ml/min

B: 95 ml/min

C: 125 ml/min

D: 175 ml/min

E: 250 ml/min

Definition

C: 125 ml/min

Term

Which vessels receive blood directly from the efferent arteriole?

A: interlobar veins

B: glomeruli

C: interlobular arteries

D: peritubular capillaries

Definition
D: peritubular capillaries
Term

Which of the following will most definitely cause an increase in the GFR?

A: dilation of the afferent arteriole

B: constriction of the afferent arteriole

C: dilation of the efferent arteriole

D: constriction of the efferent arteriole

Definition
D: constriction of the efferent arteriole
Term

 

How does dilation of the afferent arteriole produce an increase in GFR?

A: increased blood pressure and increased blood flow

B: increased blood pressure and decreased blood flow

C: decreased blood pressure and increased blood flow

D: decreased blood pressure and decreased blood flow

Definition

A: increased blood pressure and increased blood flow

Term

During glomerular ultrafiltration, all of the following dissolved substances pass into the filtrate except

A: monosaccharides

B: urea

C: proteins

D: amino acids

E: electrolytes

Definition

C: proteins

Term

Calculate the clearance of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Be sure to note units given below. Plasma concentration = 15ug / ml Urine Flow Rate = 1440 ml / 24 hrs Urine Concentration = 5.25 mg / ml

A: 0.35 ml/min

B: 2.9 ml/min

C: 78.2 mg/ml

D: 78.3 ml/min

E: 350 ml/min

Definition
E: 350 ml/min
Term

From the calculation of acetaminophen clearance in the previous question, what does this number tell you about how the kidneys handle acetaminophen?

A: Acetaminophen is not filtered

B: Acetaminophen is filtered only

C: Acetaminophen is filtered and net secreted

D: Acetaminophen is filtered and net reabsorbed

Definition

C: Acetaminophen is filtered and net secreted

Term

The clearance of albumins from plasma is 0 ml/min in a healthy individual. How do nephrons most likely deal with albumins?

A: Not filtered

B: Filtered only

C: Filtered and net secreted

D: Filtered and net reabsorbed

Definition
A: Not filtered
Term

Substances with high clearances are actively

A: reabsorbed

B: filtered

C: excreted

D: secreted

Definition

D: secreted

Term

Because of autoregulation, when MAP increases, GFR

A: increases proportionally

B: remains nearly unchanged

C: decreases

D: increases half as much as expected

Definition

B: remains nearly unchanged

Term

In the first step of glucose reabsorption, what moves “downhill” to allow glucose to move“uphill” across the apical membrane?

A: Na+

B: K+

C: H2O

D: HCO3-

E: Cl-

Definition

A: Na+

Term

As it leaves the proximal convoluted tubule, tubular fluid is

A: isotonic

B: hypotonic

C: hypertonic

 

Definition

A: isotonic

Term

 The clearance of glucose is normally

A: 0 ml/min

B: 1 ml/min

C: 60 ml/min

D: 125 ml/min

E: 600 ml/min

Definition

A: 0 ml/min

Term

Net movement of material from the tubular lumen into the blood is called

A: Ultrafiltration

B: Reabsorption

C: Secretion

D: Filtration

Definition
B: Reabsorption
Term

One way to increase the medullary osmotic gradient is to increase the reabsorption of

A: uric acid

B: urea

C: glucose

D: proteins

Definition

B: urea

Term

Body osmolarity is approximately

A: 64 mOsm

B: 150 mOsm

C: 300 mOsm

D: 1200 mOsm

Definition

C: 300 mOsm

Term

The juxtamedullary nephrons, with their long loops of Henle, are most important for

A: reabsorption of Na+

B: production of a dilute urine

C: reabsorption of glucose

D: reabsorption of HCO3-

E: secretion of HCO3-

F: production of a concentrated urine

Definition

A: reabsorption of Na+


F: production of a concentrated urine

Term

What sort of urine is produced in the absence of ADH?

A: Isotonic to plasma

B: Hypertonic to plasma

C: Concentrated

D: Hypotonic to plasma

Definition

D: Hypotonic to plasma

Term

Which diuretic blocks the Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter?

A: bumetanide (Osmotic diuretic)

B: chlorothiazide (Thiazide)

C: triamterene (Aldosterone antagonist)

D: furosemide (Loop diuretic)

Definition

D: furosemide (Loop diuretic)

Term

Which of the following agents would address to problems of a person experiencing hypertension and hypokalemia?

A: Loop diuretic

B: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

C: Thiazide

D: Aldosterone antagonist

E: ADH antagonist

Definition
D: Aldosterone antagonist
Term

 The osmoreceptors that regulate ADH secretion are located in the

A: Kidneys

B: Medulla

C: Glomerulus

D: Pituitary gland

E: Hypothalamus

Definition
E: Hypothalamus
Term

Water can be called a diuretic because when present in excess in blood, it inhibits the secretion of

A: atrial natriuretic peptide

B: ADH

C: aldosterone

D: urine

Definition

B: ADH

Term

Aldosterone causes increased

A: Na+ and K+ reabsorption

B: Na+ and K+ secretion

C: Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption

D: Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

Definition

D: Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

Term

The most important stimulus for producing the sensation of thirst is

A: ↑ environmental temperature

B: ↑ plasma osmolarity

C: ↓ plasma osmolarity

D: ↑ right atrial pressure

E: ↓ right atrial pressure

Definition
B: ↑ plasma osmolarity
Term

Which of the following is not an effect of aldosterone?

A: ↑ sodium reabsorption

B: ↑ water reabsorption

C: ↑ potassium reabsorption

D: ↑ synthesis of sodium channels for the apical membrane

E: ↑ activity of the sodium pump on the basolateral membrane

Definition
C: ↑ potassium reabsorption
Term

Hypokalemia means

A: a low level of calcium in the blood

B: a low level of potassium in the urine

C: a low level of potassium in the blood

D: a low level of calcium in the urine

Definition

C: a low level of potassium in the blood

Term

The addition of water channels to the apical membranes of the cells of the collecting ducts, allowing increased water reabsorption, is caused by

A: ADH

B: renin

C: aldosterone

D: angiotensin II

Definition

A: ADH

Term

The Na+/H+ antiporter that is essential for most bicarbonate reabsorption is located in the

A: loop of Henle

B: proximal convoluted tubule

C: glomerulus

D: collecting duct

Definition

B: proximal convoluted tubule

Term

During respiratory or metabolic acidosis the renal tubules respond by increased secretion of

A: H+

B: CO2

C: HCO3-

D: Glutamate

Definition

A: H+

Term

Urine can be made alkaline by giving an agent that inhibits the reabsorption of

A: bicarbonate

B: urea

C: H+

D: amino acids

Definition

A: bicarbonate

Term

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors are found on

A: The afferent arteriole

B: The external urethral sphincter

C: The glomerular capillaries

D: The efferent arteriole

Definition

A: The afferent arteriole

Term

Angiotensin II increases GFR by causing

A: constriction of the afferent arteriole

B: dilation of the afferent arteriole

C: constriction of the efferent arteriole

D: dilation of the efferent arteriole

Definition
C: constriction of the efferent arteriole
Term

Net movement of material from the blood into the tubular lumen is called

A: Ultrafiltration

B: Secretion

C: Reabsorption

D: Filtration

Definition
C: Reabsorption
Term

The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of angiotensin I is

A: Acetylcholinesterase

B: Aldosterone

C: ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)

D: Renin

Definition
D: Renin
Term

What controls how concentrated urine can become?

A: Amount of reabsorption by the proximal convoluted tubule

B: Neural gradient of the medulla oblongata

C: Renal medullary salt gradient

D: Active transport of water by the collecting duct

Definition
C: Renal medullary salt gradient
Term

Which is true about capillary exchange in Bowman's capsule?

A: Glomerular capillaries filter out all of the components of plasma

B: Glomerular capillaries filter out many components of plasma that are smaller than proteins

C: Glomerular capillaries filter out all of the components of plasma and reabsorb them on the venous side

Definition

B: Glomerular capillaries filter out many components of plasma that are smaller than proteins

Term

In respiration O2 is brought in and used and _____ is given off.

A: CO

B: CO2

C: NO

D: NO2

E: N2

Definition

B: CO2

Term

What moves mucus, with its trapped dirt and bacteria, out of the respiratory system?

A: villi

B: microvilli

C: vibrissae

D: cilia

Definition
D: cilia
Term

What tissue keeps the trachea and bronchi open?

A: cartilage

B: bone

C: smooth muscle

D: skeletal muscle

Definition

A: cartilage

Term

During an asthma attack, if radii of the bronchioles were decreased by 50%, in accordance with Poiseuille's Law, how much would the airflow to the alveoli be reduced, if the pressure gradient did not change?

A: 16%

B: 50%

C: 94%

D: 100%

Definition
C: 94%
Term

Bronchiolodilation can be produced by a(n)

A: inhibition of a1 adrenergic receptors

B: stimulation of a2 adrenergic receptors

C: stimulation of b2 adrenergic receptors

D: inhibition of b1 adrenergic receptors

Definition

C: stimulation of b2 adrenergic receptors

Term

The major contributor to passive recoil in the lungs is

A: Surfactant

B: Surface tension of water

C: Contraction of the diaphragm

D: Relaxation of internal intercostal muscles

Definition
B: Surface tension of water
Term

Surfactant molecules reduce the surface tension of

A: Water

B: Lipoproteins

C: Triglycerides

D: Proteins

Definition

A: Water

Term

The tidal volume for normal breathing at rest is

A: 100 ml/min

B: 500 ml

C: 500 ml/min

D: 5L/min

Definition
B: 500 ml
Term

An increase in which of the following INHIBITS diffusion?

A: Surface area

B: Concentration gradient

C: Distance

D: Diffusion rate

Definition
C: Distance
Term

In emphysema, there is less surface area available for gas exchange because

A: Alveolar walls have deteriorated

B: Bronchioles have collapsed

C: Alveoli have filled with fluid

D: Fluid has built up in the interstitium

Definition
A: Alveolar walls have deteriorated
Term

Because it produces a right shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, the Bohr effect promotes

A: Increased O2 uptake in the lungs

B: Decreased O2 uptake in the lungs

C: Increased O2 delivery to the tissues

D: Decreased O2 delivery to the tissues

Definition

C: Increased O2 delivery to the tissues

Term

As CO2 levels rise, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen

A: Increases

B: Decreases

C: Stays the same

Definition

B: Decreases

Term

In auto regulation of airflow and blood flow in the lungs, when airflow increases

A: The pulmonary vessels constrict

B: The bronchioles constrict

C: The bronchioles dilate

D: The pulmonary vessels dilate

Definition

D: The pulmonary vessels dilate

Term

For a VA/Q ratio of 1.0 and an alveolar ventilation rate of 16 L/min, what is the cardiac output?

A: 5 L/min

B: 6 L/min

C: 10 L/min

D: 16 L/min

E: 20 L/min

Definition

D: 16 L/min

Term

The inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the

A: medulla

B: midbrain

C: cerebrum

D: cerebellum

Definition

A: medulla

Term

The majority of CO2 is _____ in the blood.

A: Carried as carbon monoxide

B: In dissolved form

C: Bound to hemoglobin

D: Carried as bicarbonate

Definition
D: Carried as bicarbonate
Term

Medullary chemoreceptors stimulate respiration

A: Only when O2 levels rise

B: Only when O2 levels fall

C: Only when CO2 levels rise

D: Only when CO2 levels fall

Definition
C: Only when CO2 levels rise
Term

The nerve networks that exert regional (local) control of the GI tract include

A: Myenteric and submucosal plexuses

B: Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

C: Hypothalamic input

D: Frontal lobe plexuses

Definition

A: Myenteric and submucosal plexuses

Term

Stimulation of what type of receptors in the gut causes increased motility?

A: Muscarinic cholinergic

B: Alpha 1 adrenergic

C: Beta 2 adrenergic

D: Nicotinic cholinergic

Definition

A: Muscarinic cholinergic

Term

Which of the following agents would you use to treat diarrhea?

A: Muscarinic cholinergic receptor agonist

B: Beta 1 adrenergic receptor agonist

C: Muscarinic cholinergic receptor antagonist

Definition
C: Muscarinic cholinergic receptor antagonist
Term

The defecation reflex is a parasympathetic reflex controlled by

A: Vagus nerve

B: Lumbar spinal cord

C: Phrenic nerve

D: Sacral spinal nerve

Definition
D: Sacral spinal nerve
Term

In general, what is the effect of increased parasympathetic tone have on the GI tract?

A: Stimulation

B: Inhibition

C: No effect

Definition

A: Stimulation

Term

When thoughts of food activate your stomach, which phase of regulation of gastric secretion are you experiencing?

A: Cephalic

B: Intestinal

C: Gastric

Definition

A: Cephalic

Term

Which hormone increases secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas?

A: Secretin

B: Gastrin

C: Insulin

D: Cholecystokinin

Definition
A: Secretin
Term

In a person who suffers from GERD (gastro esophageal reflux disease) a leaky lower esophageal sphincter allows what to come in contact with and damage the esophageal epithelium?

A: HCl

B: Lipase

C: Trypsin

D: Excessively large boli of food

Definition

A: HCl

Term

Histamine receptor antagonists inhibit the secretion of gastric

A: mucus

B: acid

C: hormones

D: enzymes

Definition

B: acid


Term

The stomach and portions of the intestines are contained within which cavity?

A: Pleural

B: Pelvic

C: Cranial

D: Pericardial

E: Peritoneal

Definition
E: Peritoneal
Term

The major function of the large intestine is

A: Digestion of organic nutrients

B: Absorption of water

C: Secretion of NaHCO3

D: Absorption of carbohydrates

Definition

B: Absorption of water

Term

If a drug produces difficulty in defecation and dry mouth as side effects, these are

A: Adrenergic agonist side effects

B: Anti-adrenergic side effects

C: Cholinergic agonist side effects

D: Anti-cholinergic side effects

Definition

D: Anti-cholinergic side effects

Term

Finger-like projections of the intestinal mucosa, covered by epithelium, and containing lymphatic and blood vessels:

A: Villi

B: Microvilli

C: Cilia

D: Papillae

Definition

A: Villi

Term

The single most important protein for the absorption/reabsorption of water, salts and nutrients from the intestinal lumen into the body is

A: The H+/K+ ATPase

B: The Na+/K+ ATPase

C: The Ca++/Mg++ ATPase

D: The Na+/glucose symporter

Definition

B: The Na+/K+ ATPase

Term

What process occurs in hepatocytes that typically allows a substance to be secreted into the bile?

A: Conjugation

B: Hydrolysis

C: Gastrocolic reflex

D: Enterohepatic circulation

Definition

A: Conjugation


Term

The hunger and satiety centers are located in

A: The stomach

B: The small intestine

C: Adipose tissue

D: The cerebral cortex

E: The hypothalamus

Definition

E: The hypothalamus

Term

Which substances are least likely to be subject to a first pass effect?

A: Lipids

B: Peptides

C: Nucleotides

D: Monosaccharides

E: Amino acids

Definition
A: Lipids
Term

The term otitis media refers to

A: An eye infection

B: A sinus infection

C: A middle ear infection

D: Inflammation of the cornea

E: An ear, nose and throat infection

Definition

C: A middle ear infection

Term

Auditory information is processed in which region of the CNS?

A: Cochlea

B: Inner ear

C: Temporal Lobe

D: Vestibulocochlear nerve

Definition

C: Temporal Lobe

Term

Infection of the membranes that line the eyelids and eyeballs

A: Conjunctivitis

B: Otitis media

C: Orbit atrophy

D: Glaucoma

Definition

A: Conjunctivitis

Term

Constriction of the pupils in light is mediated by the action of _____ through ______.

A: Acetylcholine; muscarinic cholinergic receptors

B: Norepinephrine; alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

C: Acetylcholine; nicotinic cholinergic receptors

D: Epinephrine; beta 2 adrenergic receptors

Definition

A: Acetylcholine; muscarinic cholinergic receptors

Term

What visual effects might be seen in a patient with an overactive adrenal medulla?

A: Dilation of the pupils in bright light

B: Constriction of the pupils in dark

C: Excessive tear production

D: Dry eyes due to impaired tear production

Definition

A: Dilation of the pupils in bright light

Term

What is the meaning of normal amylase and lipase levels?

A: The brush border enzymes are functioning normally.

B: Gastric enzymes are functioning normally

C: Pancreatic enzymes are functioning normally.

Definition
C: Pancreatic enzymes are functioning normally.
Term

The liver stores glucose and other organic nutrients as

A: Glycogen

B: Glucagon

C: Starch

D: Protein

Definition
A: Glycogen
Term

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

 

What is stored in the gall bladder?

A: bile

B: fatty acids

C: micelles

D: digestive enzymes

Definition

A: bile

Term

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

 

What is the function of this substance (bile)?

A: deliver fats to the blood via the lymphatics

B: detoxify toxic substances

C: allow fats to become mixed into the aqueous chyme

D: digest fats

Definition
C: allow fats to become mixed into the aqueous chyme
Term

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

 

The pain that radiates to the right shoulder

A: indicates that this patient is experiencing atypical symptoms

B: is called referred pain

C: is called phantom pain

D: indicates that the patient may be having a heart attack

Definition

B: is called referred pain

Term

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

 

What hormone secreted by the small intestine causes the pain to intensify?

A: gastrin

B: cholecystokinin

C: insulin

D: secretin

Definition
B: cholecystokinin
Term

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

 

What is the stimulus for secretion of this hormone (cholecystokinin)?

A: above average blood glucose levels

B: the presence of protein in the duodenum

C: the presence of fats in the duodenum

D: the presence of carbohydrates in the duodenum

Definition

C: the presence of fats in the duodenum

Term

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

 

How would this hormone (cholecystokinin) cause pain to intensify?

A: increased smooth muscle contraction around the gall stones

B: intense constriction of the lower esophageal sphincter

C: increased smooth muscle contraction of the stomach

Definition
A: increased smooth muscle contraction around the gall stones
Term

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

 

What does this hormone (cholecystokinin) do to the pancreas?

A: generalized inhibition of pancreatic function

B: increased secretion of pancreatic enzymes

C: increased secretion of pancreatic fluid rich in bicarbonate ions

D: increased secretion of glucagon

Definition
B: increased secretion of pancreatic enzymes
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