Term
What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
a. Fault Management Server
b. Security Management Server
c. Network Management Server
d. Performance Management Server |
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Definition
| c. Network Management Server |
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Term
What are the three most common network management architectures?
a. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed
b. Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid
c. Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed
d. Centralized, hybrid, and distributed |
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Definition
| a. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed |
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Term
What network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all NM duties?
a. Centralized
b. Distributed
c. Hierarchical
d. Hybrid |
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Definition
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Term
What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
a. Centralized
b. Distributed
c. Hierarchical
d. Hybrid |
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Definition
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Term
At what level of network management activity are you working when you, as the network manager, are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
a. Inactive
b. Reactive
c. Proactive
d. Interactive |
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Definition
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Term
At what level of network management activity are you working when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?
a. Inactive
b. Reactive
c. Proactive
d. Interactive |
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Definition
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Term
Gathering information about current network device settings is a step of what functional network management area?
a. Configuration management
b. Performance management
c. Accounting management
d. Security management |
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Definition
| a. Configuration management |
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Term
What are the two functional categories of performance management?
a. Monitoring and analyzing
b. Monitoring and replacing
c. Monitoring and tuning
d. Analyzing and tuning |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
a. Tuning
b. Analyzing
c. Gathering
d. Monitoring |
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Definition
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|
Term
What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
a. Configuration management
b. Performance management
c. Accounting management
d. Security management |
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Definition
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Term
What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
a. Fault parameters
b. Tolerance parameters
c. Low-level software alarms
d. Low-level hardware alarms |
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Definition
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Term
Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the open systems interconnections model?
a. Session
b. Transport
c. Presentation
d. Application |
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Definition
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Term
What is a hierarchical, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
a. Network device map
b. Network protocol list
c. Object identifier
d. Management information base |
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Definition
| d. Management information base |
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Term
Which category of SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
a. Primary domain controller
b. Backup domain controller
c. Manager
d. Agent |
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Definition
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Term
What simple network management protocol operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?
a. Get
b. Set
c. Trap
d. GetNext |
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Definition
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Term
What type of SNMP node is responsible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?
a. Network management controllers
b. Stand-alone servers
c. Domain controllers
d. Member servers |
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Definition
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Term
In the event that a domain controller is no longer functioning, what action is taken to make another DC take over the responsiblity?
a. No action is required
b. The spare is promoted to the DC postion
c. The logical name of the backup DC is changed to the logical name of the primary DC
d. The IP address of the backup DC is changed to the IP address of the primary DC |
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Definition
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|
Term
What type of network server is dedicated to an intensive application or database?
a. Network management controller
b. Domain controller
c. Stand-alone server
d. Member server |
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Definition
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Term
What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients?
a. Data link control protocol
b. Network basic input/output system extended user interface(NetBEUI)
c. TCP/IP
d. Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packed exchange(IPX/SPX) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers?
a. Data link control protocol
b. Network basic input/output system extended user interface(NetBEUI)
c. TCP/IP
d. Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packed exchange(IPX/SPX) |
|
Definition
| a. Data link control protocol |
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|
Term
Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?
a. To ensure users don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place
b. To ensure users understand how to create a password
c. To ensure the integrity of each user's password
d. To ensure users remember their unique password |
|
Definition
| a. To ensure users don't create a vulnerability by leaving the default password in place |
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|
Term
For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?
a. Minimum of nine characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters and numbers
b. Minimum of nine characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, numbers and special characters
c. Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters and two special characters
d. Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, numbers and two special characters |
|
Definition
| d. Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, numbers and two special characters |
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|
Term
Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?
a. Local
b. Global
c. Universal
d. Domain Local |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
a. Rights
b. Permissions
c. Access control lists
d. Hardware configuration |
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Definition
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|
Term
What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on NTFS volumes?
a. Full control
b. Change
c. Write
d. Read |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?
a. Full control
b. No access
c. Change
d. Write |
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Definition
|
|
Term
When a volume is formatted with NTFS, what group is automatically assigned full control permission to the volume?
a. Local group
b. Global group
c. Built-in group
d. Everyone group |
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Definition
|
|
Term
When a new folder or file is created on a NTFS partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?
a. Global group permissions
b. Everyone group permissions
c. No permissions are automatically assigned
d. Inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in |
|
Definition
| d. Inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in |
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|
Term
An administrator would normally allocate more file space to the users maintaining what type of files?
a. Databases
b. Spreadsheets
c. Word processing templates
d. PowerPoint slideshow files |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is one way to increase file server efficiency?
a. Reducing the file space per user
b. Reducing the available hours of use
c. Limiting the access time of typical users
d. Routinely running defragmentation software |
|
Definition
| c. Limiting the access time of typical users |
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|
Term
What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?
a. Rank
b. Duty hours
c. Job position
d. Time on station |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems?
a. NTBOOTDD.SYS and BOOTSECT.DOS
b. BOOTSECT.DOS and NTDETECT.COM
c. BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM
d. BOOT.INI and NTBOOTDD.SYS |
|
Definition
| c. BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM |
|
|
Term
What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems (OS) on which the higher-level functions are based?
a. BOOT.IOS
b. ROOT.SYS
c. Boot kernel
d. System kernel |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious network problem?
a. What is the size of the network?
b. Where is the network map?
c. Who are the critical users?
d. What services are down? |
|
Definition
| b. Where is the network map? |
|
|
Term
What is the first of seven logical steps used to troubleshoot a network problem?
a. Consider all possible causes
b. Define the main problems
c. Create a plan of action
d. Gather facts |
|
Definition
| b. Define the main problems |
|
|
Term
What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network problem?
a. Create a plan of action
b. Define the main problem
c. Consider all possible causes
d. Implement the plan of action |
|
Definition
| c. Consider all possible causes |
|
|
Term
Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?
a. For better documentation development
b. To effectively eliminate ideas not the problem
c. To ensure all personnel are informed of the results
d. Isolate a definite cause if the action fixes the problem |
|
Definition
| d. Isolate a definite cause if the action fixes the problem |
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|
Term
What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?
a. Failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts
b. Lack of communication during the troubleshooting process
c. Troubleshooting multiple possibilities at one time
d. Failure to interview the users |
|
Definition
| a. Failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts |
|
|
Term
What are the two basic ways network faults can be detected?
a. Automatically and proactively
b. Manually and automatically
c. Reactively and proactively
d. Reactively and manually |
|
Definition
| c. Reactively and proactively |
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|
Term
What are the most common, immediate and service-affecting types of faults?
a. Devices that have broken network connections and used up bandwidth
b. Devices that have lost power and have broken network connections
c. Devices with failed services and have broken network connections
d. Devices that have lost power and used up bandwidth |
|
Definition
| b. Devices that have lost power and have broken network connection |
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|
Term
What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing the effects of detected or predicted faults?
a. Fault diagnosis
b. Fault correction
c. Documentation
d. Fault detection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an indication that a noteworthy event has occurred on the network? a. Poll b. Push c. Alarm d. Notification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What network management system alarm browser information item indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms?
a. Ack
b. Cor
c. Source
d. Severity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame, what type of error occurs?
a. Frame check sequence
b. Retransmission
c. Collisions
d. Alignment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cyclic redundancy check value of the received frame and comparing it to the received 32-bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field?
a. Network interface card
b. Media access control frame
c. Session layer of OSI reference model
d. Transport layer of OSI reference model |
|
Definition
| b. Media access control frame |
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|
Term
Within how many bytes of transmission should a NIC sense a collision and stop transmitting?
a. 24
b. 48
c. 64
d. 128 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network?
a. Jabbers
b. Dribbles
c. Collisions
d. Network storm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to verify the level of availability an individual has to the resource?
a. Rights
b. Permissions
c. Access control lists
d. Hardware configuration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maximum packet size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?
a. 42,293
b. 48,800
c. 56,498
d. 65,535 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the minimum packet size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?
a. 28
b. 64
c. 128
d. 256 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of the OSI reference model?
a. Data link and session
b. Data link and physical
c. Physical and transport
d. Session and media access control |
|
Definition
| b. Data link and physical |
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|
Term
What type of network problem(s) is caused by collisions on the domain?
a. Jabbers only
b. Inability to transmit
c. High utilization only
d. High utilization or jabbers |
|
Definition
| d. High utilization or jabbers |
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|
Term
Ideally the average network utilization value should be less than
a. 20 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 40 percent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?
a. High utilization and collisions
b. Collisions and inability to transmit
c. High utilization and inability to transmit
d. Repeat transmissions and inability to transmit |
|
Definition
| a. High utilization and collisions |
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|
Term
What utilities are used to find the round-trip delay between a source and target node?
a. Send and Echo
b. PING and Echo
c. Tracert
d. PING and Tracert |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What diagnostics test is usually run on a NIC to ensure it is functional?
a. Loopback
b. CTS/RTS
c. Transmission trace
d. Self-test diagnostic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based machines?
a. TCPCONFIG
b. WINIPCFG
c. IPCONFIG
d. TRACERT |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What IP address is used to packet internetwork groper a computer's own NIC?
a. 126.0.0.1
b. 127.0.0.1
c. 128.0.0.1
d. 129.0.0.1 |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is one of the most common types of hardware devices used for network troubleshooting?
a. Loopback plug
b. Network sniffer
c. Protocol analyzer
d. Bit error rate tester |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three main components of the system management automated report tracking system?
a. Domain managers, consoles and clients
b. Domain managers, consoles and probes
c. Domain managers, broker and probes
d. Domain managers, broker and clients |
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Definition
| d. Domain managers, broker and clients |
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|
Term
What is the centerpiece of the SMARTS application?
a. Broker
b. Client
c. Map console
d. Domain manager |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What component of the system management automated report tracking system application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
a. Broker
b. Client
c. Probe
d. Console |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What color on the system management automated report tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events?
a. Blue
b. Purple
c. Orange
d. Yellow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
a. 7
b. 14
c. 19
d. 21 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What menu in the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
a. Connection statistics
b. Media access control node statistics
c. Protocol statistics
d. Node discovery |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
a. Connection statistics
b. Media access control node statistics
c. Protocol statistics
d. Node discovery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What menu on the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
a. Connection statistics
b. Media access control node statistics
c. Protocol statistics
d. Node discovery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system?
a. Authentication
b. Accreditation
c. Risk analysis
d. Certification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which phase of the Department of Defense information technology security certification and accreditation process is data gathered for system analysis?
a. Phase 1: Definition
b. Phase 2: Verification
c. Phase 3: Validation
d. Phase 4: Post accreditation |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maximum number of years an automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
a. Authentication
b. Recertification
c. Accreditation
d. Identification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is a personal identification number categorized?
a. Something you know
b. Something you have
c. Something you need
d. Something you read |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the Internet?
a. Token
b. Smart card
c. Private key
d. Session key |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is uniquely generated to encrypt a specific message by the user?
a. Token
b. Smart card
c. Private key
d. Session key |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?
a. Access control lists
b. Firewall configurations
c. Base network security policy
d. Network security training and education |
|
Definition
| c. Base network security policy |
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|
Term
In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map both the physical and logical topology of your network?
a. Step 1: Know thyself
b. Step 2: Determine requirements
c. Step 3: Policy formation
d. Step 5: Network monitoring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the Internet?
a. Token
b. Smart card
c. Private key
d. Session key |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you start a base network steering group to address base-wide network management and security issues?
a. Step 1: Know thyself
b. Step 2: Determine requirements
c. Step 3: Policy formation
d. Step 5: Network monitoring |
|
Definition
| b. Step 2: Determine requirements |
|
|
Term
What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?
a. Identification spoofing and tunneling
b. Tunneling and application-based attacks
c. Second message encryption and identification spoofing
d. Application-based attacks and second message encryption |
|
Definition
| b. Tunneling and application-based attacks |
|
|
Term
What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message (that would be rejected by the firewall) inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
a. Tunneling
b. Identification spoofing
c. Application-based attacks
d. Second message encryption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses?
a. Proxy
b. Bastion host
c. Packet filtering
d. Intrusion detection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
a. Proxy
b. Bastion Host
c. Packet filtering
d. Intrusion detection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
a. Intrusion detection
b. Packet filtering
c. Bastion host
d. Proxy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
a. Network management software
b. Intrusion detection devices
c. Vulnerability scanners
d. Proxy firewalls |
|
Definition
| c. Vulnerability scanners |
|
|
Term
What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable?
a. Deletedata
b. Deleteinfo
c. Wipedata
d. Wipeinfo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?
a. Degaussing
b. Overwriting
c. Formatting
d. Deleting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What web-based process incorporates identification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, disseminates technical responses, and tracks compliance within the DoD community?
a. DOD CERT
b. AFCERT
c. IAVA
d. TCNO |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is the IAVA process manager?
a. DOD CERT
b. AFCERT
c. HQ AIA
d. DISA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Within the DoD computer emergency response team three-tiered "vulnerability hierarchy" for notifications, what tier documents a new vulnerability that poses and immediate, potentially severe threat to DoD systems?
a. DoD computer emergency response team technical advisory
b. Time compliance network order
c. Information assurance vulnerability alert
d. Information assurance vulnerability bulletin |
|
Definition
| c. Information assurance vulnerability alert |
|
|
Term
Within the DoD computer emergency response team three-tiered "vulnerability hierarchy" for notifications, what tier addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose and immediate threat to DoD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat?
a. DoD computer emergency response team technical advisory
b. Time compliance network order
c. Information assurance vulnerability alert
d. Information assurance vulnerability bulletin |
|
Definition
| d. Information assurance vulnerability bulletin |
|
|
Term
What standard is utilized by the DMS for messaging services?
a. TCP/IP
b. SMTP
c. x.400
d. x.500 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What standard is utilized by the DMS for directory services?
a. TCP/IP
b. SMTP
c. x.400
d. x.500 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is one of the most important parts of security in the DMS?
a. Private keys
b. Fortezza cards
c. User-ID and passwords
d. Specific Algorithm encryption |
|
Definition
|
|
