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SCCCAP-Test 2-TYK
Test 2 Test Your Knowledge Questions
244
Anatomy
Undergraduate 2
10/10/2012

Additional Anatomy Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

[image]

 

Site of the dermal ridges that produce epidermal ridges on the epidermal surfaces of the fingers.

Definition
E
Term

[image]

Pulls the hair follicle into an upright position.

Definition
A
Term

[image]

Sudoriferous gland.

Definition
C
Term

[image]

Dense irregularly arranged, fibrous connective tissue.

Definition
D
Term

[image]

Where capillary loops are found.

Definition
E
Term

The most abundant cells of the epidermis.

 

A) Merkel disc

B) Dendritic cells

C) Cornified keratinocytes

D) Keratinocytes

E) Keratin

 

Definition
Keratinocytes
Term

The protein found in the epidermis that is responsible for toughening the skin.  

 

A) Merkel disc

B) Dendritic cells

C) Cornified keratinocytes

D) Keratinocytes

E) Keratin

  

Definition
Keratin
Term

Skin macrophages that help activate the immune system.

 

A) Merkel disc

B) Dendritic cells

C) Cornified keratinocytes

D) Keratinocytes

E) Keratin

 

Definition
Dendritic cells
Term

The layer of the epidermis where the cells are considered protective but nonviable.        

 

A) Vellus

B) Stratum corneum

C) Sudoriferous glands

D) Stratum basale

 

Definition
Stratum corneum
Term

The glands that serve an important function in thermoregulation.

 

A) Vellus

B) Stratum corneum

C) Sudoriferous glands

D) Stratum basale

 

Definition
Sudoriferous glands
Term

The layer that contains the mitotic viable cells of the epidermis.

 

A) Vellus

B) Stratum corneum

C) Sudoriferous glands

D) Stratum basale

 

Definition
Stratum basale
Term

May indicate embarrassment, fever, hypertension, inflammation, or allergy.        

 

A) Addison's disease

B) Pallor

C) Erythema

D) Jaundice

E) Cyanosis

 

 

Definition
 Erythema
Term

May indicate fear, anger, anemia, or low blood pressure.

 

A) Addison's disease

B) Pallor

C) Erythema

D) Jaundice

E) Cyanosis

 

Definition
Pallor
Term

Usually indicates a liver disorder.

 

A) Addison's disease

B) Pallor

C) Erythema

D) Jaundice

E) Cyanosis

 

Definition
Jaundice
Term

Appearance of a permanent tan; bronzing.

 

A) Addison's disease

B) Pallor

C) Erythema

D) Jaundice

E) Cyanosis

 

Definition
Addison's disease
Term

A bluish color in light-skinned individuals.

 

A) Addison's disease

B) Pallor

C) Erythema

D) Jaundice

E) Cyanosis

 

Definition
Cyanosis
Term

[image]

Hypodermis

Definition
D
Term

[image]

Epidermis

Definition
A
Term

[image]

Reticular layer of the dermis

Definition
C
Term

[image]

Papillary layer of the dermis

Definition
B
Term
T/F: The apocrine sweat glands are fairly unimportant in thermoregulation.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The protein found in large amounts in the outermost layer of epidermal cells is collagen.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Joe just burned himself on a hot pot. A blister forms and the burn is painful. Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The most dangerous skin cancer is cancer of the melanocytes.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The dermis is rich in blood vessels and nerve fibers.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: A physician is often able to detect homeostatic imbalances in the body by observing changes in the skin color.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that blood and heat will be dissipated.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The pinkish hue of individuals with fair skin is the result of the crimson color of oxygenated hemoglobin (contained in red blood cells) circulating in the dermal capillaries and reflecting through the epidermis.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: When a patient is said to have "third-degree burns," this indicates that the patient has burns that cover approximately one-third or more of the body.
Definition
 FALSE
Term
T/F: Sweat glands continuously produce small amounts of sweat, even in cooler temperatures.
Definition
TRUE
Term

Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.

 

A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant.

B) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum.

C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant.

D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

Definition

D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

Term

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

 

 

A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum

 

B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum

 

C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum

 

D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

 

Definition

D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

Term

The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________.

 

 

A) medulla

 

B) cortex

 

C) external root sheath

 

D) cuticle

 

Definition

C) external root sheath

Term

Acne is a disorder associated with ________.

 

A) sweat glands

B) sebaceous glands

C) Meibomian glands

D) ceruminous glands

 

Definition

B) sebaceous glands

Term

The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________

 

A) race

B) genetics

C) use of farm chemicals

D) overexposure to UV radiation

 

Definition

D) overexposure to UV radiation

Term

What is the most important role of the arrector pili muscles in humans?

 

A) Help retain heat

B) Defense

C) Cause the hair follicle to stand erect

D) Force sebum out of the hair follicle to the skin surface

 

Definition

D) Force sebum out of the hair follicle to the skin surface

Term

A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured?

 

A) granulosum

B) basale

C) lucidum

D) spinosum

 

Definition

B) basale

Term

Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure?

 

A) Meissner's corpuscles

B) Pacinian corpuscles

C) free nerve endings

D) Krause's end bulbs

 

Definition

A) Meissner's corpuscles

Term

Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?

 

A) Pacinian corpuscle

B) tactile corpuscle

C) Ruffini body

D) free nerve ending

 

Definition

B) tactile corpuscle

Term

Although the integument is a covering, it is by no means simple, and some of its functions include ________.

 

A) the dermis providing the major mechanical barrier to chemicals, water, and other external substances

 B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system

C) cooling the body by increasing the action of sebaceous glands during high-temperature conditions

D) epidermal blood vessels serving as a blood reservoir

 

Definition

 B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system

Term

The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.

 

A) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed

B) bind the hair root to the dermis

C) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle

D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

 

Definition

D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

Term

Which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends to grow rapidly and metastasize?

 

A) Melanoma

B) Squamous cell carcinoma

C) Basal cell carcinoma

D) Adenoma

 

Definition

B) Squamous cell carcinoma

Term

Which of the following cells and their functions are correctly matched?

 

A) Keratinocytes — provide sense of touch and pressure

B) Melanocytes — protects cells in the stratum corneum from damaging effects of sun's rays

C) Dendritic cells — activate the immune system

D) Tactile cells — protection

 

Definition

C) Dendritic cells — activate the immune system

Term

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?

 

A) stratum corneum

B) stratum granulosum

C) stratum basale

D) stratum lucidum

 

Definition

C) stratum basale

Term

The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?

 

A) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes

B) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes

C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells

 

Definition

C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

Term

The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

 

A) the reticular layer

B) the subcutaneous layer

C) the hypodermal layer

D) the papillary layer

 

Definition

A) the reticular layer

Term

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn?

 

A) There is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles.

B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent "black-and-blue marks."

D) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.

 

Definition

B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

Term

The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:

 

A) dermal papillae.

B) hair follicles.

C) ceruminous glands.

D) reticular papillae.

 

Definition

A) dermal papillae.

Term

The design of a person's epidermal ridges is determined by the manner in which the papillae rest upon the dermal ridges to produce the specific pattern known as handprints, footprints, and fingerprints. Which of the following statements is true regarding these prints or ridges?

 

A) Every human being has the same pattern of ridges.

B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person.

C) Because we are constantly shedding epithelial cells, these ridges are changing daily.

D) Identical twins do not have the same pattern of ridges.

 

Definition

B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person.

Term

Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?

 

A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color.

B) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.

C) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system.

D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

 

Definition

D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

Term

Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?

 

A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

B) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.

C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.

D) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin.

Definition

A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

Term

A dendritic or Langerhan cell is a specialized ________.

 

A) squamous epithelial cell

B) phagocytic cell

C) nerve cell

D) melanocyte

Definition

B) phagocytic cell

Term

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?

 

A) sebaceous and merocrine

B) mammary and ceruminous

C) eccrine and apocrine

D) holocrine and mammary

Definition

C) eccrine and apocrine

Term

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.

 

A) primarily uric acid

B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

D) metabolic wastes

Definition

B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

Term

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

 

A) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis

B) beneath the flexure lines in the body

C) in the axillary and anogenital area

D) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

Definition

C) in the axillary and anogenital area

Term

The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.

 

A) by high temperatures

B) when the air temperature drops

C) by hormones, especially androgens

D) as a protective coating when one is swimming

Definition

C) by hormones, especially androgens

Term

In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?

 

A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.

B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.

C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.

D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.

Definition

A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.

Term

 Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

 

A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake

B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist

C) through blood analysis

D) by using the "rule of nines"

Definition

D) by using the "rule of nines"

Term

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

 

A) infection

B) catastrophic fluid loss

C) unbearable pain

D) loss of immune function

Definition

B) catastrophic fluid loss

Term
The layer of the epidermis immediately under the stratum lucidum in thick skin is the stratum ________.
Definition
granulosum
Term
The ________ are the small muscles located in the dermis that cause goose bumps.
Definition
arrector pili
Term
A summertime golden bronze tan may not be a tan at all; especially if the skin appears almost metallic bronze, it may be the result of ________ disease.
Definition
Addison's
Term
Burns that result in injury to the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis is called a ________ burn.
Definition
Second-degree
Term
Pigment-producing cells in the epidermis are ________.
Definition
 Melanocytes
Term
The only place you will find stratum ________ is in the skin that covers the palms, fingertips, and soles of the feet.
Definition
lucidum
Term
List the layers of the dermis and describe the tissue that makes up each layer.
Definition
The papillary layer is composed of areolar connective tissue that allows phagocytes and other defensive cells to serve as a second line of defense against microbial invasion. The reticular layer is composed of dense irregular connective tissue
Term
How are burns commonly classified? Give an example.
Definition
Burns are classified according to their severity or depth. For example, in first-degree burns, only the epidermis is damaged; in second degree burns, the epidermis and upper dermis are damaged; in third degree burns, there is widespread damage of epidermis and dermis.
Term
What complications might be anticipated from the loss of large areas of skin surfaces?
Definition
Large losses of skin, as with severe burn injuries, allow excessive fluid loss and infection. Skin grafting or "synthetic skin" applications are usually necessary.
Term
Name the layers of the epidermis in order from the surface down.
Definition
Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, and basale.
Term
Why are the apocrine sweat glands fairly unimportant in thermal regulation?
Definition
They are largely confined to the axillary and anogenital regions rather than distributed on the body where heat can be more readily dissipated.
Term
Name the four kinds of sudoriferous glands and give their locations.
Definition

1.   eccrine — found in most of the body, especially the palms, soles, and forehead

2.   apocrine — axillary and anogenital regions

3.   ceruminous — lining of the external ear canal

4.   mammary — breasts

Term
Why is profuse sweating on a hot day good, and yet a potential problem?
Definition
Good because the sweat and evaporating of the sweat causes cooling of the body. Bad because excessive water and salt loss may occur. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances may follow.
Term
The temperature yesterday was an uncomfortable 98°F. You unwisely chose to play tennis at noon, counting on your body's internal defenses to protect you against heat exhaustion. How did your body respond to this distress?
Definition
The thermoreceptors sense the temperature change, and neural stimulation responds by stimulating sweat glands. Their watery products evaporated at the skin surface and cooled the body. Blood vessels in the dermis also responded by dilating and releasing heat to the exterior.
Term
 Mary noticed a large, brown spot on her skin. She has been playing tennis in the sun for several years without sun protection. She reported the discovery to a friend, who told her to apply the ABCD rule to determine whether or not she had malignant melanoma. Her friend told her that if her answer was "no" to the questions that were asked by the ABCD rule, she had nothing to worry about. What is the ABCD rule and should she ignore the spot if her answers are negative?
Definition
The ABCD rule refers to the following: asymmetry—where the two sides of the spot do not match; border irregularity—the borders are not round and smooth; color—the pigmented spot contains shades of black, brown, tan, and sometimes blues and reds; and diameter—the spot is larger than 6 mm in diameter. It is imperative that Mary have a physician examine the spot immediately. Any unusual lesion on the skin of a sun worshipper should be examined and the ABCD rule does not account for all possible factors, such as rapid growth, even if less than 6 mm.
Term
John, a younger teenager, notices that he is experiencing a lot of pimples and blackheads, which frequently become infected. What is causing this problem?
Definition
Because of hormonal changes, teenagers frequently have overactive sebaceous (oil) glands, which can clog and become infected or inflamed. Scratching, squeezing, or irritating the tissue can lead to infection.
Term
Melanoma is a form of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes. Melanoma is most common in Caucasians between 40 and 70 years of age. Explain why Caucasians would have a greater incidence of melanoma.
Definition
Melanoma has its beginnings in melanocytes, the skin pigment cells. These cells produce the dark protective pigment called melanin to protect against sun damage to DNA. Since the melanocytes in Caucasian people do not make as much melanin per cell as darker-skinned individuals, their melanocytes are more easily sun-damaged, resulting in damaged DNA cells that are more apt to lose genetic control of their own cell division.
Term
The 68-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital medical floor with a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis. His wife asks the nurse why his skin looks blue. How would you explain cyanosis to the patient and his wife?
Definition
Cyanosis is a dusky bluish or grayish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes that occurs with reduced oxygen levels.  Without enough oxygen getting to the tissues the skin in Caucasians appears blue due to the color combination of dark maroon blood seen through the yellowish tint of skin. At close inspection of the conjunctiva and palms and soles may also show evidence of cyanosis.
Term
Explain why soap that has an alkaline base may not be healthy for some patients to use daily.
Definition
The skin's acid mantle slowss growth of bacteria. Soap may destroy the acid mantle of the skin, causng it to lose its protective mechanism. Some soaps contain antibacterial agents, which can change the natural flora of the skin.
Term
Robert, a surfer, has a mole that has changed its shape and size. His doctor, applying the ABCD(E) rule, diagnosed a melanoma. What do the letters ABCD(E) represent?
Definition

A = asymmetry

B = border irregularity

C = color

D = diameter

E = elevation

Term

[image]

Name the shape classification of each numbered bone

Definition
1-Flat, 2-Long, 3-Flat, 4-Irregular, 5-Long, 6-Sesamoid, 7-Short
Term

[image]

Compact Bone

Definition
C
Term

[image]

Location of the epiphyseal line.

Definition
B
Term

[image]

Area where yellow marrow is found.

Definition
D
Term

[image]

Epiphysis of the bone.

Definition
A
Term

Bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal.

 

A) Osteoporosis

B) Paget's disease

C) Osteomalacia

 

Definition

A) Osteoporosis

Term

Bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. Deforms on weight bearing.

 

A) Osteoporosis

B) Paget's disease

C) Osteomalacia

 

Definition

C) Osteomalacia

Term

Abnormal bone formation and reabsorption.

 

A) Osteoporosis

B) Paget's disease

C) Osteomalacia

 

Definition

B) Paget's disease

Term

 The lining of the marrow cavity.

 

A) Lamellae

B) Canaliculi

C) Endosteum

D) Osteoclasts

E) Osteoblasts

 

Definition

C) Endosteum

Term

Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix.

 

A) Lamellae

B) Canaliculi

C) Endosteum

D) Osteoclasts

E) Osteoblasts

 

Definition

D) Osteoclasts

Term

Layers of bone matrix. 

 

A) Lamellae

B) Canaliculi

C) Endosteum

D) Osteoclasts

E) Osteoblasts

 

Definition

A) Lamellae

Term

Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone.

 

A) Lamellae

B) Canaliculi

C) Endosteum

D) Osteoclasts

E) Osteoblasts

 

Definition

B) Canaliculi

Term

Cells that can build bony matrix.

 

A) Lamellae

B) Canaliculi

C) Endosteum

D) Osteoclasts

E) Osteoblasts

 

Definition

E) Osteoblasts

Term

The growth pattern of bone in which matrix is laid down on the surface.

 

A) Diaphysis

B) Appositional growth

C) Epiphyseal line

D) Chondrocytes

E) Epiphyseal plate

 

Definition

B) Appositional growth

Term

The area of long bones where cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells.

 

A) Diaphysis

B) Appositional growth

C) Epiphyseal line

D) Chondrocytes

E) Epiphyseal plate

 

Definition

A) Diaphysis

Term

The appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth.

 

A) Diaphysis

B) Appositional growth

C) Epiphyseal line

D) Chondrocytes

E) Epiphyseal plate

 

Definition

C) Epiphyseal line

Term

Area where bone longitudinal growth takes place.

 

A) Diaphysis

B) Appositional growth

C) Epiphyseal line

D) Chondrocytes

E) Epiphyseal plate

 

Definition

E) Epiphyseal plate

Term
T/F: Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone.
Definition

FALSE

Term
T/F: Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Short, irregular, and flat bones have marrow cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk.
Definition
 TRUE
Term
T/F: The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones.
Definition
 TRUE
Term
T/F: Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: All bones stop growing by the end of adolescence.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth.
Definition
FALSE
Term

The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?

 

A) spongy bone

B) irregular bone

C) compact bone

D) trabecular bone

Definition

C) compact bone

Term

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.

 

A) fat

B) blood-forming cells

C) elastic tissue

D) Sharpey's fibers

Definition

A) fat

Term

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

 

A) osteocyte

B) osteoblast

C) osteoclast

D) chondrocyte

Definition

B) osteoblast

Term

What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?

 

A) inadequate calcification of bone

B) decreased osteoclast activity

C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage

D) increased osteoclast activity

Definition

C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage

Term

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.

 

A) epiphysis

B) metaphysis

C) diaphysis

D) articular cartilage

Definition

C) diaphysis

Term

The term diploë refers to the ________.

 

A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone

B) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue

C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

D) two types of marrow found within most bones

Definition

C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

Term

What causes osteoporosis?

 

A) poor posture
B) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.

C) heritage such as African or Mediterranean

D) abnormal PTH receptors

 

Definition
B) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.
Term

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?

 

A) lacunae

B) Haversian system

C) epiphyseal plate

D) epiphyseal line

 

Definition

C) epiphyseal plate

Term

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

 

A) parathyroid hormone

B) calcium

C) growth hormone

D) thyroid hormone

Definition

C) growth hormone

Term

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

 

A) support

B) storage of minerals

C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)

D) communication

Definition

D) communication

Term

What is the structural unit of compact bone?

 

A) osseous matrix

B) spongy bone

C) lamellar bone

D) the osteon

Definition

D) the osteon

Term

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.

 

A) cartilage and compact bone

B) marrow and osteons

C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts

D) chondrocytes and osteocytes

Definition

C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts

Term

The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.

 

A) Volkmann's canals

B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage

C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

D) the struts of bone known as spicules

Definition

C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

Term

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________.

 

A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae

B) adipose tissue and nerve fibers

C) yellow marrow and spicules

D) blood vessels and nerve fibers

Definition

D) blood vessels and nerve fibers

Term

The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.

 

A) closing of the epiphyseal plate

B) epiphyseal plate closure

C) appositional growth

D) concentric growth

Definition

C) appositional growth

Term

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

 

A) osteoclast

B) osteocyte

C) osteoblast

D) stem cell

Definition

A) osteoclast

Term

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

 

A) calcitonin

B) thyroxine

C) parathyroid hormone

D) estrogen

Definition

C) parathyroid hormone

Term

What is absolutely required for bone growth or healing from a fracture?

 

A) dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D

B) osteocytes

C) osteoclasts

D) osteoblasts

Definition

D) osteoblasts

Term

Wolff's law is concerned with ________.

 

A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age

B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

C) the function of bone being dependent on shape

D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts

Definition

B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

Term

Osteomyelitis is ________.

 

A) partially due to insufficient dietary calcium

B) literally known as "soft bones"

C) due to pus-forming bacteria

D) caused by altered vitamin D metabolism

Definition

C) due to pus-forming bacteria

Term

Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth?

 

A) growth at the epiphyseal plate

B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

C) along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger

D) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage

Definition

B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

Term

The structural unit of spongy bone is called ________.

 

A) osteons

B) lamellar bone

C) trabeculae

D) osseous lamellae

Definition

C) trabeculae

Term

Osteogenesis is the process of ________.

 

A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone

B) bone destruction to liberate calcium

C) bone formation

D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage

Definition

C) bone formation

Term

Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________.

 

A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates

B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity

C) differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes

D) calcification of the matrix of the zone underlying articular cartilage

Definition

A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates

Term

Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood?

 

A) thyroid hormone

B) somatomedins

C) growth hormone

D) prolactin

Definition
C) growth hormone
Term
Blood cell formation is called ________.
Definition
hematopoiesis
Term
A central (Haversian) canal may contain arteries, veins, capillaries, lymph vessels, and ________ fibers.
Definition
nerve
Term
What term describes in growth in the diameter of long bones?
Definition
Appositional
Term
What are multinucleated cells that destroy bone called?
Definition
Osteoclasts
Term
What is a disease of the bone in which bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit, leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones?
Definition
 Osteoporosis
Term
List the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture.
Definition
Hematoma formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, and remodeling.
Term
What is found in a Haversian canal?
Definition
Blood vessels and nerve fibers.
Term
 Several hormones control the remodeling of bones. Which two respond to changing blood calcium levels?
Definition
PTH and calcitonin are the major determinants of whether and when remodeling will occur in response to changing blood calcium.
Term
Inflammation of bony tissue is called ________.
Definition
osteitis
Term
Bones appear to be lifeless structures. Does bone material renew itself?
Definition
Bone only appears lifeless in gross anatomy. Microscopically, bone is full of cells and blood vessels that maintain and renew bone tissue. Approximately 5% to 7% of our bone mass is recycled each week. Up to 0.5 g of calcium may enter or leave the bones each day, depending on the negative feedback hormonal mechanism and gravitational forces.
Term
What are the differences between the diaphysis and the epiphyses of long bones?
Definition
Diaphyseal bone is composed almost entirely of compact bone (except in irregular and short bones), while the epiphyses are composed almost entirely of spongy bone. The epiphyses are on the ends of the bone; the diaphysis is the "shank" of the bone. The diaphysis in long bones has a large medullary cavity, whereas the epiphyses do not.
Term
Describe how oxygen is carried from outside a bone to an individual osteocyte.
Definition
Blood vessels enter through the periosteum into a perforating canal. The vessel may follow along the axis of the bone through a central canal. Osteocytes have long, almost dendritic-like extensions or arms that reach out through tiny holes called canaliculi. The canaliculi connect one cell to another and to the central canal. Oxygen leaves the blood vessel in the central canal and travels through the canaliculi from cell to cell until it reaches the cell in question.
Term
If your doctor notices a marked decrease in calcium ion levels in your blood, what gland might he suspect is not functioning properly and why?
Definition
The parathyroid gland normally responds to low calcium ion levels in the blood and releases PTH, which mobilizes osteoclasts to step up bone destruction, releasing more calcium into the bloodstream. Persistent low blood calcium level therefore implies insufficient PTH, suggesting injury or failure of the parathyroid glands.
Term
While on spring break from college, June fell on the pavement and broke her wrist. At the emergency room, a resident placed a cast on her wrist after manipulating the bones. It seemed to heal within a few months. Now, decades later she has noticed lumps in the area where the break happened and she has been complaining of pain. What could be causing the lumps and the pain?
Definition
June probably has "bone spurs," which are abnormal projections from a bone due to bone overgrowth.
Term
 Alice and James adopted a 3-year-old child from a developing country. They noticed that her legs were bowed and there were some deformities in her cranial and pelvic bones. They brought her to a physician for a diagnosis. What was the diagnosis, and what was the treatment for the disorder?
Definition
The child most likely has rickets, a condition caused by poor diet, especially one deficient in vitamin D. The parents were told to increase her intake of calcium and vitamin D and to make sure that she gets some sunshine every day.
Term
Emily, a 64-year-old formerly obese woman who successfully lost over 100 pounds, was brought to the hospital suffering pain in her legs, and an X- ray revealed that she had a simple fracture in her right femur and a crack in her left tibia. Other tests revealed that her bones were brittle and porous. What might have happened to Emily, and what advice would she have been given by the physician?
Definition
Emily has osteoporosis, a debilitating bone disease that strikes more women than men after age 45-50. The bones become weak and brittle due to osteoclast out pacing of osteoblast in the bone. Emily has been told that she needs to take supplements of Ca, Vitamin D, and do weight bearing exercise.
Term
People who live in the north should take supplemental calcium with vitamin D. Explain why.
Definition
Vitamin D is manufactured by the skin using sunlight and is needed for absorption of dietary calcium. People who live in the north where the winter months are severe may need supplemental vitamin D because of the decreased amount of sunlight exposure.
Term

[image]

Periosteum.

Definition
A
Term

[image]

Articular cartilage.

Definition
C
Term

[image]

Joint (synovial) cavity.

Definition
B
Term

[image]

 

Synovial membrane.

Definition
E
Term

[image]

Fibrous capsule.

Definition
D
Term

Joint found only in the skull       

 

A) Suture

B) Gomphosis

C) Symphysis

D) Syndesmosis

 

Definition

A) Suture

Term

Tooth in socket

 

A) Suture

B) Gomphosis

C) Symphysis

D) Syndesmosis

 

Definition

B) Gomphosis

Term

Bones united by hyaline cartilage          

 

A) Suture

B) Gomphosis

C) Symphysis

D) Synchondroses

Definition

D) Synchondroses

Term

Bones united by fibrocartilage

 

A) Suture

B) Gomphosis

C) Symphysis

D) Syndesmosis

 

Definition

C) Symphysis

Term
T/F: The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of joints.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood.
Definition
 TRUE
Term

T/F: The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability.

Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The major role of ligaments at synovial joints is to help direct movement and restrict undesirable movement.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the presence or absence of a joint cavity.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Synovial fluid contains phagocytic cells that protect the cavity from invasion by microbes or other debris.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial fluids.
Definition
FALSE
Term

A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.

 

A) syndesmosis

B) suture

C) synchondrosis

D) gomphosis

Definition

D) gomphosis

Term

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.

 

A) attach tendons

B) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)

C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

D) form the synovial membrane

Definition

C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

Term

A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.

 

A) suture

B) syndesmosis

C) symphysis

D) gomphosis

Definition

C) symphysis

Term

On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?

 

A) symphysis

B) synchondrosis

C) pivot

D) syndesmosis

Definition

D) syndesmosis

Term

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.

 

A) menisci

B) bursae

C) ligaments

D) tendons

 

Definition

B) bursae

Term

Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.

 

A) amphiarthroses

B) synarthroses

C) diarthroses

D) synovial joints

Definition

A) amphiarthroses

Term

Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?

 

A) Syndesmoses

B) Sutures

C) Synchondroses

D) Gomphoses

Definition

C) Synchondroses

Term

In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?

 

A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.

B) All synovial joints are freely movable.

C) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.

D) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.

Definition

B) All synovial joints are freely movable.

Term

Synarthrotic joints ________.

 

A) are found only in adults

B) are cartilaginous joints

C) permit essentially no movement

D) have large joint cavities

Definition

C) permit essentially no movement

Term

Fibrous joints are classified as ________.

 

A) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket

B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular

C) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal

D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

Definition

D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

Term

In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.

 

A) hyaline cartilage

B) synovial membranes

C) fibrocartilage

D) tendon sheaths

Definition

A) hyaline cartilage

Term

Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?

 

A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility

B) interphalangeal joints

C) joints that permit angular movements

D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

Definition

D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

Term

 Tendon sheaths ________.

 

A) act as friction-reducing structures

B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue

C) are extensions of periosteum

D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle

Definition

 

A) act as friction-reducing structures

Term

Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint?

 

A) joint cavity

B) tendon sheath

C) articular cartilage

D) articular capsule

Definition

B) tendon sheath

Term

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact?

 

A) structure and shape of the articulating bone

B) arrangement and tension of the muscles

C) strength and tension of joint ligaments
D) number of bones in the joint

Definition

D) number of bones in the joint

Term
Fluid-filled fibrous sacs lined with a synovial membrane and occurring where ligaments, muscles, and tendons rub together are called ________.
Definition
bursae
Term
The joint between the frontal and parietal bones is classified by material as a ________ joint.
Definition
suture
Term

Using the functional classification, a freely movable joint would be called a ________ joint.

Definition
diarthrosis
Term
Synovial joints have five major features. What are they?
Definition
articular cartilage, a joint cavity, an articular capsule, synovial fluid, and reinforcing ligaments
Term
Often people who exercise prudently seem to have fewer bouts with osteoarthritis. Will exercise prevent arthritis? If so, how?
Definition
Exercise does not prevent arthritis, but lessens it by strengthening muscles that in turn support and stabilize joints.
Term
Briefly describe a typical synovial joint
Definition
The ends of each bone are covered with hyaline cartilage that is continuous with the synovial membrane enclosing the joint. Synovial fluid fills the space between the articular cartilage. Outside the synovial membrane there is a very tough, fibrous capsule that prevents the synovial membrane from bulging out as pressure is applied to the ends of the bones.
Term
After reading a medical report, you learn that a 45-year-old female has the following symptoms: inflammation of synovial membranes, accumulation of synovial fluid, pain and tenderness about the joints, pannus formation, and some immobility at certain joints. On the basis of these symptoms, what would the patient probably have?
Definition
Rheumatoid arthritis
Term
Why is muscle tone the most important stabilizing factor for most joints?
Definition
The shapes of the articular surfaces may hinder rather than help joint stability. Ligaments can stretch and reduce stability. Muscle tendons are kept taut at all times by the tone of their muscle.
Term
Steven, a football player, complained of severe pain and the inability to use his right arm and shoulder after having been tackled during a game. What would you guess might be his problem?
Definition

He might have suffered a shoulder dislocation since the shoulder joint has sacrificed stability for flexibility.

Term
 Mary has been suffering from a "bad knee" for several months. She is a tennis player who often slides in to attack a ball; she is an aerobic devotee and a jogger. She visited an orthopedic surgeon last week who told her that he would "like to have a look at her knee joint." He also told her that her symptoms indicated damage to the meniscus, and it might have to be removed. What will the doctor do to see the joint, and if the meniscus is removed will Mary be able to play tennis again?
Definition
The doctor will perform arthroscopic surgery on Mary in order to view the interior of the joint. If she has severely damaged the meniscus, it can be removed with little impairment to the knee except some loss in stability. However, over the long term, the lack of weight distribution by the missing meniscus increases the likelihood of osteoarthritis in her knee. Mary might consider taking up swimming instead.
Term
Farhad begins typing his term paper on his new computer early one morning. After 8 hours of typing, he notices that his wrists are stiff and very sore. The next morning, Farhad begins to finish his paper, but soon finds his wrists hurt worse than last night. What is wrong?
Definition
Farhad is suffering from tendonitis. If he continues to use the keyboard incorrectly, the tendonitis could develop into the more serious condition called carpal tunnel syndrome.
Term
Probenecid inhibits the active resorption of uric acid in the kidney, which leads to increased urinary excretion of uric acid. Explain why this drug would be useful in treating gout.
Definition
Uric acid, a normal waste product of nucleic acid metabolism, is ordinarily excreted in urine without any problem. However, when blood levels of uric acid rise excessively, it may be deposited as needle-shaped urate crystals in the soft tissue of joints. An inflammatory response follows, which leads to gout. By lowering the uric acid level, no crystals form, and inflammation subsides.
Term
Maggie is a 28-year-old Caucasian woman who has newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. She complains of painful, stiff hands and feet, feeling tired all the time, and reports an intermittent low-grade fever. She asks the nurse if she is going to be "crippled." How might the nurse explain the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis?
Definition
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic, systemic, and inflammatory disorder. RA is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks its own tissue. RA begins with inflammation of the synovial membrane of the affected joints. Fluid accumulates, causing joint swelling. The nurse should explain that RA is a chronic crippling disease with joint stiffening (ankylosis) resulting in restriction of joint movement and extreme pain.
Term
Susan was bitten by a deer tick and now complains of joint pain, flu-like symptoms, and difficulty thinking. What might be her diagnosis and the treatment required to alleviate her symptoms?
Definition
She probably has contracted Lyme disease, which is treated with antibiotics.
Term

The saying "beauty is only skin deep" is only pertinent to the __________ layer, which is outwardly visible.

 

a) epidermal
b) dermal
c) hypodermal
d) integumentary 

Definition
a) epidermal
Term

The principal role of melanin is to  ______.

 

a) give one that "healthy tan look"
b) keep the body cool
c) provide a waterproof layer
d) shield the nucleus from damage by ultraviolet radiation 

Definition
d) shield the nucleus from damage by ultraviolet radiation 
Term

The principle role of keratin is to _______.

 

a) give one that "healthy tan look"
b) keep the body cool
c) provide a waterproof layer
d) shield the nucleus from damage by ultraviolet radiation 

Definition
c) provide a waterproof layer
Term

The touch sensors of the epidermis are the__________.

 

a) keratinocytes
b) tactile cells
c) epidermal dendritic cells
d) melanocytes 

Definition
b) tactile cells
Term

A patient taking a drug that inhibits cell division (such as certain chemotherapy drugs) would expect which layer of the epidermis to be most noticeably affected?

 

a) Stratum corneum
b) Stratum lucidum
c) Stratum spinosum
d) Stratum basale 

Definition
d) Stratum basale 
Term

The principle tissue found in the dermal layer is ________.

 

a) dense irregular connective tissue
b) stratified squamous epithelium
c) dense regular connective tissue
d) areolar connective tissue 

Definition
a) dense irregular connective tissue
Term

The most important role of the eccrine sweat gland is ___________.

 

a) milk production
b) stress-induced sweating
c) body temperature regulation
d) earwax production 

Definition
c) body temperature regulation
Term

One critical function of sebum, in addition to roles in waterproofing and skin softening, is that it provides protection against ___________.

 

a) overexposure to the sun
b) overheating
c) harmful bacteria
d) abrasions or cuts to the skin 

Definition
c) harmful bacteria
Term

What is one major function of arrector pili muscle contraction that is particularly important in nonhuman mammals?

 

a) The arrector pili muscle contracts to allow for hair growth
b) The arrector pili muscle contracts to shed dead hairs
c) The arrector pili muscle contracts to alarm an approaching predator
d) All of the above are true 

Definition
c) The arrector pili muscle contracts to alarm an approaching predator
Term

Loss of one's skin, such as with severe burns, leads to an increased risk of ________.

 

a) bacterial infection
b) inadequate body temperature maintenance
c) dehydration
d) all of the above 

Definition
d) all of the above 
Term
The skin plays a role in the manufacture of vitamin ___.
Definition
D
Term

Which of the following types of skin cancer is the most dangerous?

 

a) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Melanoma
d) All are equally dangerous 

Definition
c) Melanoma
Term

Which of the following is not a type of cartilage?

 

a) hyaline
b) elastic
c) fibrocartilage
d) dense regular 

Definition
d) dense regular 
Term

The terms long, short, flat, and irregular are used to classify bones based on their _______.

 

a) tissue content
b) function
c) shape
d) weight 

Definition
c) shape
Term

The most important characteristic for designating a bone as a long bone is ________.

 

a) its elongated shape
b) its total length
c) its length relative to other bones
d) its location in the body 

Definition
a) its elongated shape
Term

Which of the following functions of the skeletal system would be considered a metabolic function?

 

a) protection
b) support
c) mineral storage
d) movement 

Definition
c) mineral storage
Term

Depressions on bones include ______.

 

a) fossae
b) trochanters
c) tubercles
d) tuberosities 

Definition
a) fossae
Term

An example of a projection on a bone that is a site of muscle or ligament attachment is a _______.

 

a) meatus
b) head
c) condyle
d) trochanter 

Definition
d) trochanter 
Term

Which of the following is NOT a type of bone cell?

 

a) osteoblast
b) osteoclast
c) osteocyte
d) osteoclasp 

Definition
d) osteoclasp 
Term

An adult male is donating red bone marrow to determine is he is a match to a leukemia patient. Most likely, the doctor will collect the bone marrow from his _______.

 

a) femur diaphysis
b) humerus diaphysis
c) sternum
d) skull 

Definition
c) sternum
Term

The end of a long bone is the _______.

 

a) medullary cavity
b) diaphysis
c) epiphysis
d) periosteum 

Definition
c) epiphysis
Term

A group of concentric rings of bone matrix comprising the function unit of long bones, is called a(n) _____.

 

a) lamella
b) osteon
c) pillar system
d) Sharpey's system 

Definition
b) osteon
Term

The principal component of bone that contributes to its hardness is __________.

 

a) hydroxyapatite
b) collagen
c) osteoid
d) organic 

Definition
a) hydroxyapatite
Term

Which of the following bone cell types is primarily responsible for initiating ossification of bone?

 

a) osteoblasts
b) osteoclasts
c) osteocytes
d) chondroblasts 

Definition
a) osteoblasts
Term

What would long bone growth look like in an individual whose cartilage in the epiphyseal disc stopped dividing?

 

a) the long bones would grow excessively
b) the long bones would cease growth in length
c) the long bones would cease growth in width
d) the long bones would appear normal 

Definition
b) the long bones would cease growth in length
Term

Adding new bony matrix to injury sites is known as _______.

 

a) bone sizing
b) bone deposition
c) bone resorption
d) bone addition 

Definition
b) bone deposition
Term

The primary metabolic signal that triggers bone deposition is ______.

 

a) vitamin D
b) phosphate
c) hydroxyapatite
d) vitamin A 

Definition
a) vitamin D
Term

Which two hormones work in opposition to control homeostatic blood levels of calcium via bone remodeling?

 

a) Thyroid hormone and estrogen
b) Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
c) Calcitonin and estrogen
d) Parathyroid hormone and estrogen 

Definition
b) Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
Term

In a patient whose parathyroid glands have been removed, you would expect that person's blood calcium levels to ______.

 

a) decrease
b) increase
c) stay the same
d) increase twofold 

Definition
a) decrease
Term

Calcium's importance to the body is primarily ________.

 

a) to strengthen bone
b) to function in numerous metabolic activities (muscle contraction, blood coagulation)

c) to whiten our teeth
d) both a and c 

Definition
b) to function in numerous metabolic activities (muscle contraction, blood coagulation)
Term

A local coroner determined that the unidentified skeleton found last week was that of a weight lifter because the muscle attachment sites were much thicker than in a normal person. This phenomenon is known as _______.

 

a) calcitonin metabolism
b) the weightlifter law
c) bone resorption
d) Wolff's law 

Definition
d) Wolff's law 
Term

The site where two or more bones meet is call a(n) _____.

 

a) cartilage connection site
b) alignment site
c) auriculation site
d) articulation site 

Definition
d) articulation site 
Term

Which of the following correctly lists the three structural type of joints?

 

a) bony, cartilaginous, immovable
b) synarthotic, diarthotic, amphiarthotic

c) fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
d) suture, syndemoses, gomphoses 

Definition
c) fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
Term

Of the following types of joints, which type occurs only in the skull?

 

a) suture
b) ball and socket
c) hinge
d) symphysis 

Definition
a) suture
Term

The _____ the ligament fibers of the syndesmosis, the _____ the degree of movement.

 

a) longer; greater
b) longer; smaller
c) shorter; greater
d) wider; smaller 

Definition
a) longer; greater
Term

Which of the following describes the two types of cartilaginous joints?

 

a) syndesmosis and gomphosis
b) synchondrosis and symphysis
c) ball and socket and hinge
d) symphysis and syndesmosis 

Definition
b) synchondrosis and symphysis
Term

Which of the following joints is a site of long bone growth?

 

a) symphysis

b) ball and socket
c) gomphosis
d) synchondrosis 

Definition
d) synchondrosis 
Term

When someone has "slipped a disc" of their vertebral column, which type of joint have they disrupted?

 

a) synchondrosis
b) suture
c) symphysis
d) the connections between the vertebrae are not examples of joints 

Definition
c) symphysis
Term

All synovial joints are ______.

 

a) diarthotic
b) amphiarthotic
c) synarthotic
d) none of the above 

Definition
a) diarthotic
Term

Which of the following synovial joint components is responsible for secreting synovial fluid?

 

a) articular cartilage
b) synovial cavity
c) articular capsule
d) synovial membrane 

Definition
d) synovial membrane 
Term

Much of the friction associated with synovial joints is reduced by the presence of _____.

 

a) tendons
b) fatty pads
c) bursae
d) fibrous capsules 

Definition
c) bursae
Term

The greatest degree of motion that synovial joints display is described as ______.

 

a) nonaxial movement
b) uniaxial movement
c) biaxial movement
d) multiaxial movement 

Definition
d) multiaxial movement 
Term

The most common joint injuries include:

 

a) sprains
b) dislocations
c) cartilage injuries
d) both a and b 

Definition
d) both a and b 
Term

The most common form of chronic arthritis is ______.

 

a) osteoarthritis
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) gouty arthritis
d) subluxation 

Definition
a) osteoarthritis
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