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SCCCAP-FinalReview
SCCCAP-FinalReview
381
Anatomy
Undergraduate 2
12/10/2012

Additional Anatomy Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
T/F: Positive feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with the palms facing forward and
the thumbs pointing away from the body.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The elbow is proximal to the shoulder.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through
old age.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Without some sort of negative feedback mechanism, it would be impossible to keep our body
chemistry in balance.
Definition
TRUE
Term
Histology would be best defined as a study of________.
A) cells
B) tissues
C) the gross structures of the body
D) cell chemistry
Definition
B) tissues
Term
The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is
__________ anatomy.
A) microscopic
B) systemic
C) gross
D) developmental
Definition
C) gross
Term
Normal body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade.
A) 98 B) 37 C) 68 D) 47
Definition
B) 37
Term
The heart lies in the ________ cavity.
A) dorsal
B) superior mediastinal
C) pleural
D) pericardial
Definition
D) pericardial
Term
The cavities housing the eyes are called __________ cavities.
A) nasal B) orbital C) frontal D) cranial
Definition
B) orbital
Term
A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be ________.
A) an organ system
B) an organ
C) a complex tissue
D) a complex cell
Definition
B) an organ
Term
________ means toward or at the back of the body, behind.
A) Dorsal B) Distal C) Anterior D) Lateral
Definition
A) Dorsal
Term
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.
A) palms turned posteriorly
B) body erect
C) thumbs pointed laterally
D) arms at sides
Definition
A) palms turned posteriorly
Term
A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________.
A) regulating glucose levels in the blood
B) enhancement of labor contractions
C) body temperature regulation
D) blood calcium level regulation
Definition
B) enhancement of labor contractions
Term
Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched.
A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
B) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.
C) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.
D) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye.
Definition
A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
Term
The lungs are located in the following cavities ________.
A) mediastinum, thoracic, and ventral
B) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal
C) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic
D) pleural, ventral, and thoracic
Definition
D) pleural, ventral, and thoracic
Term
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?
A) thoracic cavity
B) spinal cord
C) cranial cavity
D) vertebral cavity
Definition
A) thoracic cavity
Term
The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?
A) brain B) lungs C) liver D) intestines
Definition
A) brain
Term
The frontal plane is also called the ______ plane.
A) vertical B) oblique C) median D) coronal
Definition
D) coronal
Term
A horizontal section through the body is called ________.
A) sagittal B) regional C) frontal D) transverse
Definition
D) transverse
Term
A vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, is called ________.
A) transverse B) sagittal C) frontal D) regional
Definition
B) sagittal
Term
Which body cavity protects the nervous system?
A) Vertebral B) Cranial C) Thoracic D) Dorsal
Definition
D) Dorsal
Term
The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60 to 80% of body weight,
is ________.
A) protein B) hydrogen C) oxygen D) water
Definition
D) water
Term
A vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior, is called ________.
A) median B) frontal C) transverse D) sagittal
Definition
B) frontal
Term
 ________ consist of similar cells that have a common function.
Definition
tissues
Term
The ________ cavity contains tiny bones that transmit sound vibrations to the organ of
hearing in the inner ear.
Definition
middle ear
Term
________ is explained by chemical and physical principles and is concerned with the
function of specific organs or organic systems.
Definition
physiology
Term
________ is a broad term that covers all chemical reactions that occur within the body cells.
Definition
metabolism
Term
________ is a dynamic equilibrium of your internal environment.
Definition
homeostasis
Term
The ________ system secretes hormones that regulate growth processes and nutrient usage
by body cells.
Definition
endocrine
Term
The parietal pleural would represent a serous membrane ________.
A) covering individual lungs
B) covering the heart
C) lining the thoracic cavity
D) lining the abdominal cavity
Definition
C) lining the thoracic cavity
Term
Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes.
A) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures.
B) Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space
between the two.
C) Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid.
D) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls
of the heart.
Definition
D) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls
of the heart.
Term
The main, general purpose of negative feedback is ________.
A) to control all body system tissues
B) to regulate excretion
C) to keep the body's sugar high
D) to maintain homeostasis
Definition
D) to maintain homeostasis
Term
 ________ cavities are spaces within joints.
A) Oral B) Orbital C) Nasal D) Synovial
Definition
D) Synovial
Term
Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms?
A) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.
B) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
C) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.
D) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms.
Definition
B) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
Term
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.
A) a static state with no deviation from preset points
B) a dynamic state within an unlimited range
C) the lowest possible energy usage
D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
Definition
D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
Term
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organ
A) 1-2-3-4-5 B) 1-2-4-3-5 C) 2-1-3-4-5 D) 2-1-4-3-5
Definition
D) 2-1-4-3-5
Term
Subdivisions of anatomy include ________.
A) regional, surface, visual, and microscopic
B) gross, regional, systemic, and surface
C) gross, regional, dissection, and surface
D) gross, macroscopic, visual, and microscopic
Definition
B) gross, regional, systemic, and surface
Term
The anatomical position is used ________.
A) as the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a specimen
B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
C) only when a body is lying down
D) rarely, because people don't usually assume this position
Definition
B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
Term
T/F: The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum.
Definition
FALSE
Term
If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis then the wall thermostat would
be the ________.
A) control center B) variable C) effector D) receptor
Definition
A) control center
Term
Survival needs of the body include ________.
A) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction
B) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
C) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement
D) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction
Definition
B) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
Term
The plasma membrane is ________.
A) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
B) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
C) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
Definition
B) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
Term
Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?
A) stereocilia B) flagella C) cilia D) microvilli
Definition
D) microvilli
Term
Cell junctions that promote the coordinated activity of cells by physically binding them together
into a cell community include all of the following except ________.
A) gap junctions
B) tight junctions
C) peroxisomes
D) desmosomes
Definition
C) peroxisomes
Term
Passive membrane transport processes include ________.
A) consumption of ATP
B) movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
C) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
D) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
Definition
D) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
Term
A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.
A) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
B) shrink
C) neither shrink nor swell
D) swell and burst
Definition
D) swell and burst
Term
If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen?
A) The cells will lose water and shrink.
B) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.
C) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.
D) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution
and return to their original condition.
Definition
A) The cells will lose water and shrink.
Term
T/F: The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Cartilage tissue tends to heal less rapidly than bone tissue.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Smooth muscle cells possess central nuclei but lack striations.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Endocrine glands are often called ducted glands.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Blood is considered a type of connective tissue.
Definition
TRUE
Term
Simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract is characterized by ________.
A) cilia
B) dense microvilli
C) fibroblasts
D) a rich vascular supply
Definition
B) dense microvilli
Term
Which statement best describes connective tissue?
A) usually contains a large amount of matrix
B) always arranged in a single layer of cells
C) usually lines a body cavity
D) primarily concerned with secretion
Definition
A) usually contains a large amount of matrix
Term
Matrix is ________.
A) ground substance and cells
B) fibers and ground substance
C) composed of all organic compounds
D) cells and fibers
Definition
B) fibers and ground substance
Term
The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.
A) elastic cartilage
B) adipose tissue
C) hyaline cartilage
D) fibrocartilage
Definition
A) elastic cartilage
Term
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through
ducts are classified as ________.
A) endocrine B) exocrine C) ceruminous D) sebaceous
Definition
A) endocrine
Term
Which of these is not considered connective tissue?
A) blood B) muscle C) cartilage D) adipose
Definition
B) muscle
Term
Which is true concerning muscle tissue?
A) cuboidal shape enhances function
B) is a single-celled tissue
C) highly cellular and well vascularized
D) contains contractile units made of collagen
Definition
C) highly cellular and well vascularized
Term
The three main components of connective tissue are ________.
A) ground substance, fibers, and cells
B) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
C) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells
D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts
Definition
A) ground substance, fibers, and cells
Term
T/F: Squamous cells are flattened and scalelike when mature.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers.
Definition
FALSE
Term
Cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue include all except: ________.
A) mast cells
B) chondrocytes
C) fibroblasts
D) macrophages
Definition
B) chondrocytes
Term
Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form
a(n) ________.
A) tissue B) organism C) organ system D) organ
Definition
A) tissue
Term
________ muscle cells are multinucleated.
Definition
skeletal
Term
________ live in the lacuna of cartilage.
Definition
chondrocytes
Term
A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified
as ________.
A) simple cuboidal
B) stratified squamous
C) simple squamous
D) transitional
Definition
B) stratified squamous
Term
 An epithelial membrane ________.
A) usually involves transitional epithelium
B) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane
C) is formed of epithelium and smooth muscle
D) contains neuroglia
Definition
B) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane
Term
Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone?
A) live cells B) blood vessels C) lacunae D) organic fibers
Definition
B) blood vessels
Term
Epithelial tissue ________.
A) is usually acellular
B) is highly vascularized
C) has a basement membrane
D) contains a number of neuron types
Definition
C) has a basement membrane
Term
T/F: Sweat glands are apocrine glands.
Definition
FALSE
Term
Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.
A) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.
B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.
C) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.
D) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
Definition
D) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
Term
Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.
A) Its primary function is nutrient storage.
B) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.
C) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.
D) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix.
Definition
A) Its primary function is nutrient storage.
Term
T/F: The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore
there are no sensory receptors in the skin.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the
dermis.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The most dangerous skin cancer is cancer of the melanocytes.
Definition
TRUE
Term
Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.
A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant.
B) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.
C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant.
D) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum.
Definition
B) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.
Term
The dermis ________.
A) is where melanocytes are found
B) is an avascular connective tissue layer
C) has two layers
D) lacks sensory corpuscles and glands
Definition
C) has two layers
Term
Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps?
A) arrector integument
B) arrector folliculi
C) arrector pili
D) levator folliculi
Definition
C) arrector pili
Term
The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.
A) mammary B) eccrine C) ceruminous D) apocrine
Definition
C) ceruminous
Term
Keratinocytes are an important epidermal cell because ________.
A) they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties
B) they are able to reproduce sporadically as needed
C) they are able to transform from living cells to plasma membranes and still function
D) they are a powerful defense against damaging UV rays
Definition
A) they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties
Term
The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The
superficial surface has structures called:
A) hair follicles.
B) dermal papillae.
C) ceruminous glands.
D) reticular papillae.
Definition
B) dermal papillae.
Term
87) In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of
the following is another vital function of the skin?
A) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.
B) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium
metabolism.
C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.
D) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.
Definition
B) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium
metabolism.
Term
Acne is a disorder associated with ________.
A) Meibomian glands
B) ceruminous glands
C) sweat glands
D) sebaceous glands
Definition
D) sebaceous glands
Term
The ________ are the small muscles located in the dermis that cause goose bumps.
Definition
arrector pili
Term
________ are pigment-producing cells in the epidermis.
Definition
Melanocytes
Term
The dermis is composed of the reticular and ________ layers.
Definition
papillary
Term
A summertime golden bronze tan may not be a tan at all; especially if the skin appears almost metallic bronze, it may be the result of ________ disease.
Definition
Addison's
Term
Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the
following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?
A) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.
B) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.
D) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin.
Definition
B) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
Term
T/F: The dermis is rich in blood vessels and nerve fibers.
Definition
TRUE
Term
Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light
pressure?
A) free nerve endings
B) Krause's end bulbs
C) Pacinian corpuscles
D) Meissner's corpuscles
Definition
D) Meissner's corpuscles
Term
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health,
well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell
division and replacement?
A) stratum basale
B) stratum lucidum
C) stratum corneum
D) stratum granulosum
Definition
A) stratum basale
Term
The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is
responsible for the tension lines in the skin?
A) the subcutaneous layer
B) the reticular layer
C) the papillary layer
D) the hypodermal layer
Definition
B) the reticular layer
Term
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
A) unbearable pain
B) catastrophic fluid loss
C) loss of immune function
D) infection
Definition
B) catastrophic fluid loss
Term
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
D) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
Definition
C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
Term
T/F: When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the dermal blood vessels will
dilate so that blood and heat will be dissipated.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Bones are classified by whether they are weight-bearing or protective in function.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only.
Definition
TRUE
Term
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to
support weight and withstand tension stress?
A) compact bone
B) trabecular bone
C) irregular bone
D) spongy bone
Definition
A) compact bone
Term
In bone formation, a deficiency of growth hormone will cause ________.
A) increased osteoclast activity
B) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
C) inadequate calcification of bone
D) decreased osteoclast activity
Definition
B) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
Term
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.
A) epiphysis
B) diaphysis
C) metaphysis
D) articular cartilage
Definition
B) diaphysis
Term
The term diploë refers to ________.
A) the two types of marrow found within most bones
B) the double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone
C) the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
D) the fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue
Definition
C) the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
Term
The most abundant skeletal cartilage type is ________.
A) fibrocartilage B) hyaline C) epiphyseal D) elastic
Definition
B) hyaline
Term
Which of the following is (are) not the function(s) of the skeletal system?
A) storage of minerals
B) communication
C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
D) support
Definition
B) communication
Term
The structural unit of compact bone is ________.
A) osseous matrix
B) spongy bone
C) the osteon
D) lamellar bone
Definition
C) the osteon
Term
The small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live are called ________.
A) lacunae
B) trabeculae
C) Haversian canals
D) Volkmann's canals
Definition
A) lacunae
Term
The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.
A) closing of the epiphyseal plate
B) concentric growth
C) appositional growth
D) long bones reaching adult length and width
Definition
C) appositional growth
Term
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells
accomplishes this process?
A) osteoblast B) osteoclast C) osteocyte D) stem cell
Definition
B) osteoclast
Term
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
A) thyroxine
B) calcitonin
C) parathyroid hormone
D) estrogen
Definition
C) parathyroid hormone
Term
Vertebrae are considered ________ bones.
A) short B) flat C) irregular D) long
Definition
C) irregular
Term
Select the correct statement concerning the location of blood-forming tissue.
A) There is blood-forming marrow in most short bones of an adult.
B) The sternum (breastbone) is a good source of blood-forming tissue.
C) There is blood-forming marrow in the diaphysis of most long bones of an adult.
D) Blood-forming tissue is found in the skull and pelvic bones only.
Definition
B) The sternum (breastbone) is a good source of blood-forming tissue.
Term
Blood cell formation is called ________.
Definition
hematopoiesis
Term
________ are multinucleated cells that destroy bone.
Definition
osteoclasts
Term
________ is a disease of the bone in which bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit,
leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones.
Definition
osteoporosis
Term
Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium
levels?
A) parathyroid B) thyroid C) pineal gland D) spleen
Definition
B) thyroid
Term
T/F: The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.
Definition
TRUE
Term
Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. Appositional growth is ________.
A) along the edges only
B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
C) growth at the epiphyseal plate
D) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage
Definition
B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
Term
In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________.
A) from the edges inward
B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
C) in a circular fashion
D) by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis
Definition
B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
Term
Spongy bones are made up of a framework called ________.
A) trabeculae
B) osteons
C) lamellar bone
D) osseous lamellae
Definition
A) trabeculae
Term
Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
B) bone destruction to liberate calcium
C) bone formation
D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
Definition
C) bone formation
Term
Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________.
A) calcification of the matrix
B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity
C) differentiation of osteoclasts
D) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
Definition
D) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
Term
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for bone
growth during infancy and childhood?
A) thyroid hormone
B) prolactin
C) growth hormone
D) somatomedins
Definition
C) growth hormone
Term
T/F: Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood.
Definition
TRUE
Term
On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
A) syndesmosis B) pivot C) synchondrosis D) symphysis
Definition
A) syndesmosis
Term
Lyme disease is a bacterial disease transmitted by the bite of a ________.
A) fly B) flea C) mosquito D) tick
Definition
D) tick
Term
T/F: The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification
of joints.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability.
Definition
FALSE
Term
If a patient was suffering from bursitis, this condition would be designated as inflammation of a(n)
________.
A) articular cartilage
B) small sac containing fluid
C) cavity within a long bone
D) sesamoid bone found at a joint
Definition
B) small sac containing fluid
Term
An immovable joint found only between skull bones is called a ________.
A) synovial joint
B) suture
C) cartilaginous joint
D) condyle
Definition
B) suture
Term
A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement
is a ________.
A) symphysis B) gomphosis
C) suture D) syndesmosis
Definition
A) symphysis
Term
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction
develops are called ________.
A) menisci B) ligaments C) tendons D) bursae
Definition
D) bursae
Term
Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.
A) synovial joints
B) diarthroses
C) synarthroses
D) amphiarthroses
Definition
D) amphiarthroses
Term
________ are cartilaginous joints.
A) Sutures
B) Synchondroses
C) Syndesmoses
D) Gomphoses
Definition
B) Synchondroses
Term
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
A) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.
B) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.
C) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.
D) All synovial joints are freely movable.
Definition
D) All synovial joints are freely movable.
Term
A joint that is known as a suture is found ________.
A) in the skull only
B) in areas where bones have not yet closed
C) where functionally it is amphiarthrotic
D) in areas most prone to fracture
Definition
A) in the skull only
Term
Gouty arthritis is a painful condition caused by ________.
A) a thickening of the synovial membrane and a decrease in fluid production
B) a disorder in the body's immune system resulting in destruction of joints
C) excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints
D) a bacterial infection in the bursae
Definition
C) excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints
Term
Which of the following conditions is generally considered a noninflammatory type of arthritis?
A) bursitis
B) tendonitis
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) osteoarthritis
Definition
D) osteoarthritis
Term
T/F: The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the
presence or absence of a joint cavity.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial
fluids.
Definition
FALSE
Term
Tendon sheaths ________.
A) form channels for tendons
B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue
C) act as friction-reducing structures
D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle
Definition
C) act as friction-reducing structures
Term
T/F: A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.
Definition
TRUE
Term
In skeletal muscle contraction, calcium apparently acts to ________.
A) cause ATP to bind to actin
B) remove the blocking action of tropomyosin
C) increase the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma
D) release the inhibition on Z discs
Definition
B) remove the blocking action of tropomyosin
Term
Calcium ions bind to the ________ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.
A) troponin B) myosin C) tropomyosin D) actin
Definition
A) troponin
Term
An elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that functions in calcium storage is the
________.
A) mitochondria
B) sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) intermediate filament network
D) myofibrillar network
Definition
B) sarcoplasmic reticulum
Term
The striations of a skeletal muscle cell are produced, for the most part, by ________.
A) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) the T tubules
C) the arrangement of myofilaments
D) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma
Definition
C) the arrangement of myofilaments
Term
Which of the following are composed of myosin?
A) thin filaments
B) thick filaments
C) Z discs
D) all myofilaments
Definition
B) thick filaments
Term
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
A) fascicle
B) endomysium
C) perimysium
D) epimysium
Definition
B) endomysium
Term
The term aponeurosis refers to ________.
A) the bands of myofibrils
B) the tropomyosin-troponin complex
C) the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
Definition
D) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
Term
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
A) microtubules
B) mitochondria
C) myofibrils
D) T tubules
Definition
C) myofibrils
Term
One functional unit of a skeletal muscle is ________.
A) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) a sarcomere
C) a myofibril
D) a myofilament
Definition
B) a sarcomere
Term
The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.
A) perimysium
B) endomysium
C) sarcolemma
D) epimysium
Definition
C) sarcolemma
Term
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
A) secretion
B) extensibility
C) contractility
D) excitability
Definition
A) secretion
Term
Only ________ muscle cells are always multinucleated.
Definition
skeletal
Term
Only ________ muscle cells commonly branch.
Definition
cardiac
Term
After nervous stimulation stops, ACh in the synaptic cleft is prevented from continuing stimulation
of contraction by ________.
A) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
B) the action potential stopped going down the overloaded T tubules
C) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
D) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
Definition
A) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
Term
Muscle tone is ________.
A) a state of sustained partial contraction
B) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements
C) the condition of athletes after intensive training
D) the feeling of well-being following exercise
Definition
A) a state of sustained partial contraction
Term
The most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue is ________.
A) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
B) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue
C) the design of the fibers
D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Definition
A) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
Term
T/F: The all-or-none phenomenon as applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must
be stimulated for conduction to take place.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Saltatory conduction occurs because of the presence of salt (NaCl) around the neuron.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Myelination of the nerve fibers in the central nervous system is the job of the oligodendrocyte.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Neurons in the CNS are organized into functional groups.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Action potentials can be generated by virtually all cells of the body because all cells possess cell
membranes.
Definition
FALSE
Term
Ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid are called
________.
A) Schwann cells
B) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes
D) ependymal cells
Definition
D) ependymal cells
Term
An excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle is ________.
A) cholinesterase
B) norepinephrine
C) gamma aminobutyric acid
D) acetylcholine
Definition
D) acetylcholine
Term
Which of the following is not a structural feature of a neuron?
A) synaptic cleft B) axon C) Nissl bodies D) dendrites
Definition
A) synaptic cleft
Term
The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.
A) Schwann cell B) dendrite C) neurolemma D) axon
Definition
D) axon
Term
The point at which an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell is the
________.
A) receptor B) effector C) cell body D) synapse
Definition
D) synapse
Term
Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? 185)
A) innervation of skeletal muscle
B) innervation of glands
C) innervation of cardiac muscle
D) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
Definition
A) innervation of skeletal muscle
Term
Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.
A) tracts B) nerves C) ganglia D) nuclei
Definition
C) ganglia
Term
The term central nervous system refers to the ________.
A) autonomic nervous system
B) spinal cord and spinal nerves
C) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
D) brain and spinal cord
Definition
D) brain and spinal cord
Term
The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.
A) neurotransmitter
B) biogenic amine
C) ion
D) cholinesterase
Definition
A) neurotransmitter
Term
Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.
A) large nerve fibers
B) the myelin sheath
C) erratic transmission of nerve impulses
D) diphasic impulses
Definition
B) the myelin sheath
Term
The part of the neuron that normally receives stimuli is called ________.
A) a Schwann cell
B) a dendrite
C) a neurolemma
D) an axon
Definition
B) a dendrite
Term
The sympathetic and parasympathetic are subdivisions of the ________.
A) central nervous system
B) somatic nervous system
C) voluntary nervous system
D) autonomic nervous system
Definition
D) autonomic nervous system
Term
Ependymal cells ________.
A) are a type of macrophage
B) are the most numerous of the neuroglia
C) are a type of neuron
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
Definition
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
Term
Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and
recapturing neurotransmitters are ________.
A) astrocytes
B) Schwann cells
C) microglia
D) oligodendrocytes
Definition
A) astrocytes
Term
Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.
A) oligodendrocytes
B) microglia
C) astrocytes
D) ependymal cells
Definition
A) oligodendrocytes
Term
That part of the nervous system that is voluntary and conducts impulses from the CNS to
the skeletal muscles is the ________ nervous system.
Definition
somatic
Term
What are the basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
Definition

Sensory - Motor

Motor: Somatic - Autonomic

Autonomic: Sympathetic - Parasympathetic

Term
________ potentials are short-lived, local changes in membrane potential that can be either
depolarized or hyperpolarized.
Definition
graded
Term
________ is a disease that gradually destroys the myelin sheaths of neurons in the CNS,
particularly in young adults.
Definition
multiple sclerosis
Term
T/F: Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The nodes of Ranvier are found only on myelinated, peripheral neural processes.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes
Definition
TRUE
Term
A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n)
________.
A) afferent neuron
B) efferent neuron
C) glial cell
D) association neuron
Definition
D) association neuron
Term
All of the following are true of graded potentials except that they ________.
A) increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
B) can be called postsynaptic potentials
C) are short-lived
D) can form on receptor endings
Definition
A) increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
Term
In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ
from the external environment? The interior is ________.
A) negatively charged and contains more sodium
B) positively charged and contains less sodium
C) positively charged and contains more sodium
D) negatively charged and contains less sodium
Definition
D) negatively charged and contains less sodium
Term
T/F: Cell bodies of the somatic motor neurons of the spinal nerves are located in the ventral horn of the
spinal cord.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: One disorder of the substantia nigra is Parkinson's disease.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The spinal cord ends between L1 and L2.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space
outside the brain.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The left cerebral hemisphere is usually dominant.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective, brain.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Commissural fibers form the corpus striatum
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Most of the ascending and descending pathways to and from the brain cross over from one side of
the body to the other.
Definition
TRUE
Term
The arbor vitae refers to ________.
A) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
B) flocculonodular nodes
C) cerebellar gray matter
D) cerebellar white matter
Definition
D) cerebellar white matter
Term
The brain stem consists of the ________.
A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
B) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
C) midbrain, medulla, and pons
D) midbrain only
Definition
C) midbrain, medulla, and pons
Term
The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.
A) prefrontal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) frontal lobe
D) temporal lobe
Definition
D) temporal lobe
Term
The spinal cord has gray matter on the ________.
A) outside, white matter on the inside, and a dorsal motor root
B) inside, white matter on the outside, and a dorsal motor root
C) outside, white matter on the inside, and a ventral motor root
D) inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root
Definition
D) inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root
Term
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
A) dura and epidura
B) arachnoid and dura
C) arachnoid and epidura
D) arachnoid and pia
Definition
D) arachnoid and pia
Term
The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the
________.
A) medulla B) pons C) cerebrum D) midbrain
Definition
A) medulla
Term
Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.
A) sympathetic ganglia
B) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
C) the thalamus
D) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
Definition
B) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
Term
The fissure separating the cerebral hemispheres is the ________.
A) central fissure
B) parieto-occipital fissure
C) lateral fissure
D) longitudinal fissure
Definition
D) longitudinal fissure
Term
A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.
A) sulcus B) fissure C) furrow D) gyrus
Definition
A) sulcus
Term
The central sulcus separates which lobes?
A) frontal from temporal
B) temporal from parietal
C) frontal from parietal
D) parietal from occipital
Definition
C) frontal from parietal
Term
Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?
A) dendrites
B) cell bodies
C) unmyelinated axons
D) fiber tracts
Definition
D) fiber tracts
Term
The hypothalamus ________.
A) is an important auditory and visual relay center
B) is the thermostat of the body since it regulates temperature
C) mediates sensations
D) has the Pulvinar body as part of its structure
Definition
B) is the thermostat of the body since it regulates temperature
Term
An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in
________.
A) paraplegia
B) spinal shock only
C) hemiplegia
D) quadriplegia
Definition
A) paraplegia
Term
Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) sulci B) gyri C) fissures D) ganglia
Definition
B) gyri
Term
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.
A) segmental and nigrostriatal
B) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine
C) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal
D) pyramidal and corticospinal
Definition
D) pyramidal and corticospinal
Term
Broca's area ________.
A) is usually found in the right hemisphere
B) serves the recognition of complex objects
C) is considered a motor speech area
D) corresponds to Brodmann's area 8
Definition
C) is considered a motor speech area
Term
The function of commissures is to connect ________.
A) adjacent areas of gray matter within a cerebral hemisphere
B) pyramidal cells with corresponding cerebellar cells
C) areas of cortex with lower centers
D) corresponding areas of the two hemispheres
Definition
D) corresponding areas of the two hemispheres
Term
The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
A) alcohol
B) metabolic waste such as urea
C) nutrients such as glucose
D) anesthetics
Definition
B) metabolic waste such as urea
Term
Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.
A) lower motor neurons
B) neuromotor junction
C) spinal nerve roots
D) upper motor neurons
Definition
D) upper motor neurons
Term
The fourth ventricle is continuous with the ________ of the spinal cord.
Definition
central canal
Term
Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord via the ________ horn
Definition
dorsal
Term
The ________ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.
Definition
diencephalon
Term
The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the
________.
Definition
corpus callosum
Term
The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus to the ________.
Definition
pituitary gland
Term
Which is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
A) concussion
B) hemorrhage
C) contusion
D) swelling
Definition
A) concussion
Term
T/F: One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the
control of the rate and depth of breathing.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the
hypothalamus.
Definition
FALSE
Term
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the
cerebral cortex is the ________.
A) thalamus
B) pyramids
C) reticular formation
D) limbic system
Definition
C) reticular formation
Term
White matter (myelinated fibers) is found in all of the following locations, with the exception of the
________.
A) outer portion of the spinal cord
B) corpus callosum
C) cerebral cortex
D) corticospinal tracts
Definition
C) cerebral cortex
Term
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or
weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.
A) primary motor cortex
B) rubrospinal tracts
C) premotor cortex
D) spinal cord
Definition
C) premotor cortex
Term
T/F: There are 41 pairs of spinal nerves.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The only cranial nerves to extend beyond the head and neck region are the vagus nerves.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Dermatomes are skin segments that relate to sensory innervation regions of the spinal nerves.
Definition
TRUE
Term
The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________.
A) stress reflex
B) extensor thrust reflex
C) stretch reflex
D) cross extensor reflex
Definition
C) stretch reflex
Term
Inborn or intristic reflexes ________.
A) are always mediated by the brain
B) are involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
C) are autonomic only
D) are rapid, predictable, learned responses
Definition
B) are involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
Term
Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.
A) mechanoreceptors
B) exteroceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) interoceptors
Definition
B) exteroceptors
Term
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.
A) nociceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) interoceptors
D) photoreceptors
Definition
A) nociceptors
Term
Meissner's corpuscles ________.
A) are mechanoreceptors
B) are interoceptors
C) are found primarily in connective tissue
D) are anatomically unencapsulated
Definition
A) are mechanoreceptors
Term
Which receptors adapt most slowly?
A) pressure receptors
B) nociceptors
C) smell receptors
D) touch receptors
Definition
B) nociceptors
Term
After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.
A) Schwann cells
B) Golgi organs
C) Wallerian cells
D) dendrites
Definition
A) Schwann cells
Term
Regeneration within the CNS ________.
A) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars
B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
C) is more successful than with the PNS
D) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes.
Definition
D) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes.
Term
All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________.
A) pons
B) medulla
C) reticular formation
D) thalamus
Definition
D) thalamus
Term
Which of the following numbers of pairs of spinal nerves is correct?
A) eight sacral
B) twelve thoracic
C) six lumbar
D) six cervical
Definition
B) twelve thoracic
Term
A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a
________.
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) flexor reflex
C) plantar reflex
D) crossed extensor reflex
Definition
A) Golgi tendon reflex
Term
Babinski's sign is ________.
A) caused by incomplete development of the thalamus in the infant
B) a reflex whose physiological mechanism is well understood
C) normal in an infant less than 4 years old
D) when the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan laterally
Definition
D) when the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan laterally
Term
Transduction refers to conversion of ________.
A) afferent impulses to efferent impulses
B) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
C) receptor energy to stimulus energy
D) stimulus information to nerve impulses
Definition
D) stimulus information to nerve impulses
Term
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) vestibulocochlear
B) abducens
C) trigeminal
D) accessory
Definition
A) vestibulocochlear
Term
Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with
efferent fibers.
B) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
C) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.
D) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
Definition
D) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
Term
Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) efferent nerves
B) afferent nerves
C) mixed nerves
D) motor nerves
Definition
B) afferent nerves
Term
A simple spinal reflex goes along which of the following reflex arcs?
A) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
C) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
D) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
Definition
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
Term
The peripheral nervous system includes ________.
A) the spinal cord
B) basal nuclei
C) the corpus callosum
D) sensory receptors
Definition
D) sensory receptors
Term
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that
nerve supplies?
A) a complete loss of voluntary movement
B) complete loss of sensation
C) a complete loss of sensation and movement
D) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
Definition
A) a complete loss of voluntary movement
Term
T/F: The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that
is active and the target that is affected.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the sympathetic nervous division.
Definition
TRUE
Term
Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebrae?
A) third lumbar
B) first coccyx
C) first thoracic
D) second cervical
Definition
C) first thoracic
Term
Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
A) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
B) visceral arcs do not use integration centers
C) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
D) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
Definition
A) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
Term
Beta-blockers ________.
A) increase a dangerously low heart rate
B) are potent antidepressants
C) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
D) have widespread sympathetic effects
Definition
C) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
Term
Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?
A) regulation of cardiac rate
B) regulation of pupil size
C) regulation of body temperature
D) regulation of respiratory rate
Definition
C) regulation of body temperature
Term
Raynaud's disease ________.
A) is frequently life-threatening
B) is induced by heat stress
C) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
D) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord
Definition
C) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
Term
The sympathetic division is often casually referred to as the ________ system.
Definition
fight-or-flight
Term
Two major classes of adrenergic receptors, ________ and ________ are found in the ANS.
Definition
alpha; beta
Term
Sweat glands are innervated by the ________ fibers alone.
Definition
sympathetic
Term
The two cholinergic receptor types are ________ and ________.
Definition
nicotinic; muscarinic
Term
The parasympathetic division uses only ________ as a neurotransmitter in the ganglionic
neurons.
Definition
acetylcholine
Term
T/F: The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by
the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Most body organs are innervated by only the sympathetic division of the nervous system.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The parasympathetic division is a branch of the somatic nervous system.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Most blood vessels are innervated by the sympathetic division alone.
Definition
TRUE
Term
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.
A) vagus nerve activity
B) parasympathetic innervation
C) sympathetic stimulation
D) neurosecretory substances
Definition
C) sympathetic stimulation
Term
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) somatic nervous system
C) cerebrum
D) parasympathetic nervous
Definition
A) sympathetic nervous system
Term
The parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by peripheral ganglia usually near the
________.
A) spinal cord and by short postganglionic fibers
B) spinal cord and by long postganglionic fibers
C) organs and by long postganglionic fibers
D) organs and by short postganglionic fibers
Definition
D) organs and by short postganglionic fibers
Term
A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ________.
A) anticholinesterase
B) norepinephrine
C) a beta-blocker
D) epinephrine
Definition
C) a beta-blocker
Term
Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.
A) increase of heart rate and force
B) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
C) constriction of most blood vessels
D) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles
Definition
B) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
Term
Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.
A) VII B) XII C) V D) X
Definition
D) X
Term
The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.
A) somatic division
B) parasympathetic division
C) peripheral nervous system
D) sympathetic division
Definition
B) parasympathetic division
Term
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
A) medulla
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
Definition
D) hypothalamus
Term
Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
A) most glands
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) smooth muscle
Definition
C) skeletal muscle
Term
Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?
A) dilation of the pupils
B) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera
C) salivation
D) elimination of urine
Definition
A) dilation of the pupils
Term
The site of origin of the preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system is the ________.
A) brain stem and the sacral region of the spinal cord
B) sympathetic chain
C) higher brain centers
D) thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord
Definition
A) brain stem and the sacral region of the spinal cord
Term
Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
B) preganglionic fibers are long
C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
D) preganglionic fibers are short
Definition
C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
Term
Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.
A) is primarily under parasympathetic control
B) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
C) depends very little on autonomic activation
D) is primarily under sympathetic control
Definition
A) is primarily under parasympathetic control
Term
Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the ________.
A) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
B) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
C) craniosacral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
Definition
D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
Term
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. 301)
A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
B) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
D) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
Definition
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
Term
The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is the ________.
A) vagus nerve
B) phrenic nerve
C) sympathetic trunk
D) sacral nerve
Definition
A) vagus nerve
Term
Parasympathetic functions include ________.
A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
B) lens accomodation for close vision
C) mobilizing storage energy sources
D) allowing the body to cope with an external threat
Definition
B) lens accomodation for close vision
Term
All preganglionic axons of the autonomic nervous system release ________.
A) serotonin
B) the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons
C) dopamine
D) the same transmitter as the only one released by the sympathetic postganglionic axons
Definition
B) the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons
Term
T/F: When one has a cold, swelling of the lacrimal mucosa may result in watery eyes due to impaired
drainage of tears.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The neural layer of the retina prevents excessive scattering of light within the eye
Definition
FALSE
Term
Farsightedness is more properly called ________.
A) hyperopia B) hypopia C) myopia D) presbyopia
Definition
A) hyperopia
Term
Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?
A) external auditory meatus
B) pharyngotympanic tube
C) tympanic membrane
D) pinna
Definition
B) pharyngotympanic tube
Term
The oval window is connected directly to which passageway?
A) scala vestibuli
B) external auditory meatus
C) scala tympani
D) pharyngotympanic tube
Definition
A) scala vestibuli
Term
The middle ear middle ossicle is the ________.
Definition
incus
Term
T/F: The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball
is the conjunctiva
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The photoreceptor cells are sensitive to damage from light.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Like the cornea, the lens is vascular.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The optic disk is the spot where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Sour taste receptors are stimulated by hydrogen ions of acidic food substances.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The fluid contained within the membranous labyrinth is called perilymph.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The structure that allows equalization of the pressure in the middle ear with that outside the body
is the external auditory meatus
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The anterior chamber of the eye is filled with vitreous humor.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval
window and set the endolymph in motion.
Definition
TRUE
Term
What is the main function of the rods in the eye?
A) depth perception
B) vision in dim light
C) accommodation for near vision
D) color vision
Definition
B) vision in dim light
Term
What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?
A) aqueous humor B) cornea C) lens D) iris
Definition
D) iris
Term
Receptors for hearing are located in the ________.
A) cochlea
B) tympanic membrane
C) semicircular canals
D) vestibule
Definition
A) cochlea
Term
Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________.
A) go to the superior colliculus only
B) pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma
C) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
D) divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing
Definition
C) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
Term
Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be
transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.
A) does not contain connective tissue
B) has no blood supply
C) has no nerve supply
D) is not a living tissue
Definition
B) has no blood supply
Term
There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the
optic nerves?
A) bipolar cells
B) ganglion cells
C) rod cells
D) cone cells
Definition
B) ganglion cells
Term
Dark adaptation ________.
A) is much faster than light adaptation
B) involves improvement of acuity and color vision
C) results in inhibition of rod function
D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
Definition
D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
Term
The optic radiations project to the ________.
A) optic chiasma
B) medial retina
C) lateral geniculate body
D) primary visual cortex
Definition
D) primary visual cortex
Term
The blind spot of the eye is ________.
A) where the optic nerve leaves the eye
B) where the macula lutea is located
C) where more rods than cones are found
D) where only cones occur
Definition
A) where the optic nerve leaves the eye
Term
Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.
A) the movement of otoliths
B) stretching of the receptor cells
C) movement of a cupula
D) substances in solution
Definition
D) substances in solution
Term
he cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________.
A) ganglion cells
B) amacrine cells
C) bipolar cells
D) rods and cones
Definition
A) ganglion cells
Term
During dark adaptation ________.
A) the sensitivity of the retina decreases
B) the cones are activated
C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
D) the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated
Definition
C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
Term
Tinnitis, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________.
A) strabismus
B) Ménière's syndrome
C) conjunctivitis
D) motion sickness
Definition
B) Ménière's syndrome
Term
Light passes through the following structures in which order?
A) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
B) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
C) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
D) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor
Definition
A) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
Term
Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness?
A) impacted cerumen
B) otosclerosis
C) cochlear nerve degeneration
D) middle ear infection
Definition
C) cochlear nerve degeneration
Term
T/F: When we move from darkness to bright light, retinal sensitivity is lost, but visual acuity is gained.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level are calcitonin-parathormone.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The only known effect of prolactin in humans is to produce impotence in males.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenesis
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The beta cells are the pancreatic islet cells that produce insulin.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Calcitonin is a peptide hormone that has destructive effects on the skeletal system.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocorticoid produced in the adrenals .
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the
urinary excretion of sodium
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: While glucagon is a small polypeptide, it is nevertheless very potent in its regulatory effects.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls metabolic functions throughout the life of an
individual.
Definition
TRUE
Term
Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ________.
A) cortisol B) secretin C) aldosterone D) insulin
Definition
A) cortisol
Term
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular
________.
A) ions
B) second messengers
C) deactivators
D) nucleotides
Definition
B) second messengers
Term
Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that regulate the metabolic
function of other cells in the body are called ________.
A) hormones B) antibodies C) proteins D) enzymes
Definition
A) hormones
Term
 Tropic hormones ________.
A) do not regulate the function of other endocrine glands
B) include GH and PRL
C) exert their effects on cells by direct gene activation
D) include ACTH and TSH
Definition
D) include ACTH and TSH
Term
Oxytocin ________.
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
B) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
C) controls milk production
D) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
Definition
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
Term
ADH ________.
A) is produced in the adenohypophysis
B) is inhibited by alcohol
C) increases urine production
D) promotes dehydration
Definition
B) is inhibited by alcohol
Term
Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by ________.
A) exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
B) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate
C) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
D) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore
decreasing blood pressure
Definition
C) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
Term
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on
________.
A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
C) nothing--all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because
hormones are powerful and nonspecific
D) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
Definition
D) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
Term
Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary
gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through
the ________.
A) hepatic portal system
B) general circulatory system
C) feedback loop
D) hypophyseal portal system
Definition
D) hypophyseal portal system
Term
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because
________.
A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
B) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system
due to its location
C) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
D) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional
Definition
C) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
Term
Insulin, a small (51-amino-acid) protein, is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreas. This
hormone is released ________.
A) when the body's glucose level rises
B) in excessive amounts in obese people
C) when the body's glucose level drops
D) in response to severe physical stress (i.e., a ten-mile run)
Definition
A) when the body's glucose level rises
Term
Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.
A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
B) increasing blood pressure
C) finding an appropriate cell receptor and initiating cAMP activity
D) stimulating the synthesis of a glycogen
Definition
A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
Term
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during
the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.
A) renin
B) epinephrine
C) estrogen
D) angiotensinogen
Definition
B) epinephrine
Term
The major targets of growth hormone are ________.
A) bones and skeletal muscles
B) the adrenal glands
C) the blood vessels
D) the liver
Definition
A) bones and skeletal muscles
Term
The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished through
________.
A) antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonin
B) blocking the action of growth hormone
C) slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity
D) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
Definition
D) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
Term
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?
A) the heart B) the skin
C) the spleen D) the kidney
Definition
A) the heart
Term
T/F: All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, and LH.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F: Growth hormone always exerts its influence by targeting other endocrine glands to produce
hormones.
Definition
FALSE
Term
T/F: Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that usually enhance the immune responses when an
individual is suffering from severe stress.
Definition
FALSE
Term
Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.
A) testosterone
B) cortisol
C) estrogen
D) epinephrine
Definition
B) cortisol
Term
Leptin is secreted by ________.
A) lymphocytes
B) fibroblasts
C) goblet cells
D) adipocytes
Definition
D) adipocytes
Term
The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is ________.
A) cortisol B) aldosterone
C) insulin D) glucagon
Definition
B) aldosterone
Term
Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?
A) aldosterone
B) estrogen
C) cortisone
D) epinephrine
Definition
D) epinephrine
Term
Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________.
A) travel by arteries to the pituitary
B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary
C) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
D) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood
to the pituitary
Definition
C) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
Term
ACTH ________.
A) causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
B) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
C) is not a tropic hormone
D) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
Definition
D) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
Term
Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?
A) Increased calcitonin levels will cause increased blood calcium levels.
B) High calcium levels cause bone resorption.
C) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.
D) Parathyroid hormone causes an increase in osteoblast activity.
Definition
C) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.
Term
Aldosterone ________.
A) production is greatly influenced by ACTH
B) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
C) is secreted by the neurohypophysis
D) functions to increase sodium reabsorption
Definition
D) functions to increase sodium reabsorption
Term
Which organ does not have hormone production?
A) liver B) kidney C) skin D) heart
Definition
A) liver
Term
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for
this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.
A) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore it is not synthesized by males.
B) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
C) The physician is wrong--a hormone made in the adenohypophysis could not influence
fertility.
D) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH.
Definition
B) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
Term
Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They accomplish this by
________.
A) increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
B) stimulating the pancreas to release insulin
C) decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure
D) blocking the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response
Definition
A) increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
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