Term
| 1. _____ is idiopathic high blood pressure that usually goes undetected due to a lack of symptoms. |
|
Definition
| PRIMARY/ESSENTIAL HYPERTENSION |
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|
Term
| 2. Primary/essential hypertension represents _____% of hypertension cases. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 3. 4 causes of secondary hypertension. |
|
Definition
| 1) CUSHINGS DISEASE, 3) PRIMARY ALDOSTERONISM, 3) PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA, 4) COARCTATION OF THE AORTA |
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|
Term
| 4. 9 risk factors of hypertension. |
|
Definition
| 1) FAMILY HISTORY, 2) AGE, 3) MALE GENDER, 4) BLACK RACE, 5) OBESITY, 6) HIGH SODIUM DIET, 7) GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE, 8) SMOKING, 9) HEAVY ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION |
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Term
| 5. What is the best way to diagnose hypertension. . |
|
Definition
| TAKE BP AT THE SAME TIME OF DAY AND RECORD IT OVER A PERIOD OF DAYS |
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Term
| 6. If one has hypertension, there will be ophthalmic changes in the _____ of the eyes. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 7. _____ is thong term effect of hypertension, so we should run kidney function tests when one presents with hypertension. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 8. If one has hypertension, there will be a _____ in an ECG. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 9. 7 steps in the pathyphysiology of hypertension. |
|
Definition
| 1) HYPERTENSION DAMAGES THE WALLS OF THE SYSTEMIC VESSELS, 2) PROLONGED VASOCONSTRICTION AND HIGH PRESSURE CAUSES THE VESSELS TO THICKEN, 3) ARTERIAL SMOOTH MUSCLE UNDERGOES HYPERTROPHY, 4) TUNICA INTIMA AND MEDIA UNDERGO FIBROMUSCULAR THICKENING LEADING TO NARROWING OF THE LUMEN, 5) VESSELS BECOME PERMANENTLY NARROWED, 6) HYPERTENSIVE INJURY CAUSES INFLAMMATION TO INCREASE THE PERMEABILITY OF THE VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM, 7) AS PERMEABILITY INCREASES MORE IONS ENTER THE VESSEL WALLS CAUSING FURTHER THICKENING |
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|
Term
| 10. When _____ occur, hypertension is usually far advanced. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 11. 7 manifestations of hypertension. |
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Definition
| 1) UNSTEADINESS, 2) WALKING HEADACHE, 3) BLURRED VISION, 4) DEPRESSION, 5) RENAL DYSFUNCTION, 6) RETINAL CHANGES, 7) SIGNS OF VENTRICULAR FAILURE SUCH AS DYSPNEA OR EXERTION |
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Term
| 12. 4 hypertensive death related causes. |
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Definition
| 1) STROKE, 2) MI, 3) RENAL FAILURE, 4) ENCEPHALOPATHY |
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Term
| 13. _____ is a CVA when a blood clot lodges in a vessel leading to ischemic hypoxia. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 14. _____ is a CVA when a clot comes from a far away source. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. _____ is a CVA caused by bleeding. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 16. Hypertension is the primary cause of _____ strokes. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 17. _____ are small stroke like incidents that last 10 minutes or less. It leads to a loss in a patients senses. |
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Definition
| TIA (TRANSIENT ISCHEMIC ATTACK) |
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Term
| 18. If one has a TIA, a patient will experience these 2 symptoms. |
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Definition
| 1) BRUITS, 2) THEY WILL SEE FLOATERS |
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Term
| 19. For something to be diagnosed as a stroke, symptoms must remain for _____ hours. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 20. If a patient has a thrombotic stroke, _____ can be administered to bust out the clot that’s blocking the brain, and restore blood flow. This is able to completely resolve the stroke leading too complications. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 21. Strokes tame time to _____ to completion. It might not look severe at first, but the next day the patient could look much worse. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 22. Once a patient has completed a stoke they should work on _____ as quick as possible. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 23. _____ and _____ are 2 agents used to treat thrombotic and embolic strokes. They must not be administered to a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke because they will bleed to death. |
|
Definition
| FIBRINOLYSIS AND FIBRINOLYTIC AGENTS |
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Term
| 24. 13 risk factors of cerebrovascular disease. |
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Definition
| 1) ATHEROSCLEROSIS, 2) HYPERTENSION, 3) HIGH CHOLESTEROL, 4) FAMILY HISTORY, 5) OBESITY, 6) SEDENTARY LIFESTYLE, 7) ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES, 8) SMOKING, 9) COAGULATION DISORDERS, 10) DEHYDRATION, 11) CHRONIC HYPOXIA, 12) CIGARETTE SMOKING |
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Term
| 25. 4 manifestations of a left hemispheric stroke. |
|
Definition
| 1) RIGHT SIDED HEMIPLEGIA, 2) SLOW AND CAUTIOUS BEHAVIOR, 3) RIGHT VISUAL FIELD DEFECT, 4) EXPRESSIVE, RECEPTIVE OR GLOBAL DYSPHASIA |
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|
Term
| 26. 7 manifestations of a right hemispheric stroke. |
|
Definition
| 1) LEFT SIDED HEMIPLEGIA, 2) SPATIAL-PERCEPTUAL DEFICITS, 3) IMPULSIVE BEHAVIOR, 4) DISTRACTABILITY, 5) DENIAL, 6) LEFT VISUAL FIELD DEFECTS, 7) PERSEVERATION (REPEATING A WORD OVER AND OVER) |
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Term
| 27. _____ is a medium by which we get transmission of a lot of different systems for the body. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 28. The normal blood volume in the human body is _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 29. _____is the fluid part of blood. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 30. Plasma makes up _____% of blood. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 31. _____ is a measure of albumin acting like a giant sponge that osmotically attracts fluids and holds the fluids together. It is due to the osmotic pressure created by solutes in the fluid. |
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Definition
| COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE (COP) |
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Term
| 32. Most plasma proteins are manufactured and synthesized by the _____. |
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Definition
|
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Term
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Definition
| 1) LIVER HYPERTENSION, 2) HYPOALBUMINEMEA, 3) EXCESS ALDOSTERONE |
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Term
| 34. Plasma is made up of _____% water, and _____% proteins. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 35. _____ are the antibody making cells in the body. |
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Definition
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Term
| 36. _____ are antibodies that are the primary immune responders. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 37. IgM antibodies are responsible for _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 38. _____ are antibodies that are the secondary immune responders. |
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Definition
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Term
| 39. _____ are the most abundant immunoglobulin’s in the body. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 40. IgG antibodies respond immediately after _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 41. _____ are antibodies found in allergies and hypersensitivity responses. |
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Definition
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Term
| 42. _____ are antibodies found in most of bodily fluid secretions. |
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Definition
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Term
| 43. _____ is the main clotting protein in our blood. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 44. _____ is the total amount of blood cells and blood cell fragments due to the RBC volume and the quantity of red cells. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 45. _____ is another name for hematocrit. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 46. A normal person has _____ platelets in their blood stream. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 47. A normal person has _____ leukocytes in their blood stream. |
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Definition
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Term
| 48. Men have _____ erythrocytes in their blood stream. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 49. Women have _____ erythrocytes in their blood stream. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 50. _____ tissue is where RBC’s originate. |
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Definition
| MYELOID TISSUE (RED BONE MARROW) |
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Term
| 51. During childhood, _____ are RBC producing. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 52. As our bodies mature, the _____ and the _____ are the producers of RBC’s. |
|
Definition
| AXIAL SKELETON, AND THE ENDS OF LONG BONES |
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|
Term
| 53. _____ are the parent cells of all RBC’s. |
|
Definition
| HEMOCYTOBLAST (HEMATOPOETIC STEM CELL) |
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Term
| 54. _____ is an almost mature form of the RBC that has lost its nucleus. They consist of small cells which become biconcave. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 55. There are _____ million hemoglobins per erythrocyte. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 56. 1 molecule of hemoglobin can bind _____ oxygen cells. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 57. _____ is the process of producing blood cells. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 58. _____ is the iron element at the center of the hemoglobin molecule. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 59. _____ is iron deficiency often due to blood loss or nutritional deficiencies. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 60. The main stimulus for formation of erythrocytes is _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 61. Decreased blood oxygen causes signals to be sent to the kidneys to release _____. This hormone causes an increase in the blood production of RBC in the bone marrow. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 62. _____ is red blood cell making that occurs in the ends of long bones. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 63. _____ is the inactive form of erythropoiesis formed in the liver. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 64. _____ is secreted by the kidney that causes activation of erythropoitinogen. |
|
Definition
| RENAL ERYTHROPOITINOGEN FACTOR (EZ) |
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|
Term
| 65. _____ is the bone marrow that makes fatty cells used to beef up our bodies systems. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 66. Erythrocytes have an average life span of _____ days. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 67. Erythrocyte breakdown occurs in the _____, and the _____ is the chief cell used to break them down. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 68. Hemoglobin is broken down into _____, which then becomes _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 69. Bilirubin is responsible for giving _____ and _____ its color. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 70. _____ coming off from the heme is recycled and reused in the future. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 71. Excess bilirubin in the liver spills out in the skin causing _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 72. Proerythroblasts are the precursor cells to _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 73. Monoblasts are the precursor cells to _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 74. Myeloblasts are the precursor cells to _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 75. Lymphoblasts are the precursor cells to _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 76. Megakaryocytes are the precursor cells to _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 77. 3 types of granulocytes. |
|
Definition
| 1) NEUTROPHILS, 2) BASOPHILS, 3) EOSINOPHILS |
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|
Term
| 78. _____ are the most numerous white blood cells in the body. They are important phagoc ytes in acute inflammation. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 79. Neutrophils stain _____, and have a _____ nucleus. |
|
Definition
| LIGHT PURPLE; MULTI-LOBULED NUCLEUS |
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|
Term
| 80. _____are white blood cells that protect us against infections caused by parasitic worms, and they are involved in allergic reactions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 81. Eosinophils stain _____, and they have a _____ nucleus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 82. _____ are the least common white blood cells that are responsible for secreting heparin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 83. Basophils stain _____, and have a _____ nuclei. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 84. 2 different types of agranulocytes. |
|
Definition
| 1) LYMPHOCYTES, 2) MONOCYTES |
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|
Term
| 85. _____ are the second most common WBC’s that play an immunity role defense. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 86. _____ lymphocytes are regulatory helper and suppressor cells. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 87. _____ lymphocytes are responsible for antibody production. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 88. Lymphocytes have a _____ stained cytoplasm. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 89. _____ are key phagocytic agranulocytes that become macrophages in circulation as soon as they leave production. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 90. _____ is a decrease in the number of white blood cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 91. 3 causes of a shift to the left differential. |
|
Definition
| 1) NEUTROPHILS RESPONDING TO ACUTE INFLAMMATION, 2) LEUKOCYTOSIS, 3) MORE BAND CELLS IN THE PLASMA |
|
|
Term
| 92. 2 causes of a shift to the right differential. |
|
Definition
| 1) INCREASED LYMPHOCYTES DURING CHRONIC INFLAMMATION, 2) LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKOCYTOSIS |
|
|
Term
| 93. 88% neutrophils causes what? |
|
Definition
| SHIFT TO THE LEFT, ACUTE INFLAMMATION |
|
|
Term
| 94. What is an example of a shift to the left? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 95. 40% lymphocytes causes what? |
|
Definition
| SHIFT TO THE RIGHT, CHRONIC INFLAMMATION |
|
|
Term
| 96. What is an example of a shift to the right? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 97. _____ are cell fragments from megakaryocytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 98. Platelets play a major role in _____ and _____, and they are released in response around tissue injury and clump together to stop bleeding. |
|
Definition
| HEMOSTASIS (STOP BLEEDING) AND COAGULATION |
|
|
Term
| 99. The life span of platelets is typically _____ days. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 100. The normal platelet count is between _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 101. _____ is a deficiency in the number of WBC’s. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 102. Leukopenia is a common side effect of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 103. _____ is having decreased numbers of neutrophils. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 104. _____ is having decreased numbers of lymphocytes. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 105. _____ is a decrease in the number of platelets (below 100,000 platelets/mm3). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 106. Why do we worry about patients with thrombocytopenia. |
|
Definition
| WE WORRY ABOUT INTERNAL BLEEDING WHEN #’S FALL BELOW 40,000 |
|
|
Term
| 107. What is another name for platelets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 108. How are platelets formed? |
|
Definition
| FROM CELL FRAGMENTS OF MEGAKARYOCYTES WHICH COME FROM STEM CELLS |
|
|
Term
| 109. What is the average life span of platelets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 110. Red blood cells have surface _____ that have been given classification in the ABO system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 111. Type A blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and has _____ in plasma. |
|
Definition
| ANTIGEN A; TYPE B ANTIBODY |
|
|
Term
| 112. Type B blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and has _____ in plasma. |
|
Definition
| ANTIGEN B; TYPE A ANTIBODIES |
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|
Term
| 113. Type AB blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and _____ in plasma. |
|
Definition
| ANTIGENS A AND B; NO A OR B ANTIBODIES |
|
|
Term
| 114. Blood type AB is known as the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 115. Type O blood has _____ on the RBC surface, and _____ in plasma. |
|
Definition
| NO A OR B ANTIGENS; A AND B ANTIBODIES |
|
|
Term
| 116. Type O blood is known as the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 117. _____ is when the D-antigen is present on the RBC surface. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 118. _____ is when there is no D-antigen present on the RBC surface. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 119. _____ is when there is a blood transfusion reaction for an RH(-) patient. The first time fused no reaction will occur, but the patient will develop antibodies against the RH factor causing a reaction each subsequent blood transfusion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 120. _____ is a condition when a RH(-) mother gets pregnant with an RH(+) baby. The mother body creates antibodies against the fetuses blood, causing a destruction of the baby’s erythrocytes. |
|
Definition
| ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS (HEMOLYTIC DISEASE OF THE NEWBORN) |
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|
Term
| 121. The dangers of erythroblastosis fetalis increases with _____. |
|
Definition
| EACH SUBSEQUENT PREGNANCY |
|
|
Term
| 122. _____ is the medication given to the mother with erythroblastosis fetalis. It causes the mothers body to think it has already made antibodies to the D-antigen; fooling the mothers immune system to prevent the in utero attach on the fetus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 123. _____ means to stop bleeding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 124. 3 ways our bodies perform hemostasis. |
|
Definition
| 1) VASCULAR SPASM, 2) PLATELET PLUG FORMATION, 3) FIBRIN FORMATION CAUSING COAGULATION |
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|
Term
| 125. _____ agents are direct dissolvers of blood clots. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 126. _____ agents are clot prevents and prevent clots from forming, or already formed clots from getting any bigger. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 127. _____ is having blood in the stool. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 128. Blood clotting factors made in the liver are dependent on _____ for synthesis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 129. _____ is an immediate but temporary closure of a blood vessel resulting from contraction of smooth muscle within the blood vessels wall. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 130. Vascular spasms are caused by these 2 bodily mechanisms. |
|
Definition
| 1) NERVOUS SYSTEM REFLEXES, 2) CHEMICALS RELEASED FROM PLATELETS DURING FORMATION OF THE PLATELET PLUG |
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|
Term
| 131. In small vessels, vascular spasm can close the vessel _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 132. When a blood vessel is damaged, the endothelium becomes torn and the underlying tissue is exposed. When this happen _____ adhere to the _____ in the connective tissue. |
|
Definition
| PLATELETS; COLLAGEN FIBERS |
|
|
Term
| 133. When platelets adhere to the collagen fibers in the connective tissue during platelet plug formation, it causes the release of these 4 chemicals. |
|
Definition
| 1) ADP, 2) THROMBOXANE, 3) SEROTONIN, 4) CHEMICALS INVOLVED IN COAGULATION |
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|
Term
| 134. _____ and _____ are 2 chemicals released by platelets that cause vascular spasm. |
|
Definition
| THROMBOXANE AND SEROTONIN |
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|
Term
| 135. _____ is a chemical released by platelets that makes their surface sticky, so additional platelets adhere to those already attached to the collagen fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 136. _____ is a chemical released by platelets that induces the aggregating platelets to release ADP, thromboxane, and other chemicals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 137. When platelets adhere to each other and release chemicals that cause other platelets to adhere, it forms an accumulating mass called a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 138. _____ is the formation of a blood clot that consists of a network of fibrin in which blood cells, platelets, and fluid become trapped. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 139. Coagulation is dependent on coagulation factors present in the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 140. 3 main stages of coagulation. |
|
Definition
| STAGE 1) ACTIVATION OF FACTOR XII AND PRODUCTION OF PROTHROMBIN ACTIVATOR; STAGE 2) CONVERSION OF PROTHROMBIN TO THROMBIN BY PROTHROMBIN ACTIVATOR FACOR; STAGE 3) ENZYMATIC CONVERSION BY THROMBIN OF SOLUBLE FIBRINOGEN TO INSOLUBLE FIBRIN |
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|
Term
| 141. Coagulation operates via both the _____ and _____ pathways. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 142. The _____ pathway of coagulation is turned on by factors that are outside the damaged blood vessel. If surrounding tissues are damages, a domino effect will occur that will form the prothrombin factor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 143. The _____ pathway of coagulation is when circulating clotting factors (factor XII) comes in contact with damaged blood vessels that starts a cascade which ends up as prothrombin factor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 144. _____ is needed in both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 145. Once a blood clot forms, it condenses into a denser, compact structure through a process known as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 146. As a clot condenses _____ is squeezed out of the clot. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 147. Consolidation of clots pull the edges of damaged vessels together, which may help _____, _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| STOP BLOOD FLOW, REDUCE INFECTION, AND ENHANCE HEALING |
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|
Term
| 148. A clot usually dissolves within a few days after a clot formation by a process known as _____, which is a natural biochem reaction that occurs when the threat is over and the body returns its tissue to the original structure and function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 149. 3 steps of fibrinolysis. |
|
Definition
| 1) PLASMINOGEN IS ACTIVATED BY THROMBIN FACTOR XII, TISSUE PLASMINOGEN ACTIVATOR, AND LYSOSOMAL ENZYMES RELEASED FROM DAMAGED TISSUES, 2) PLASMINOGEN FORMS PLASMIN, 3) PLASMIN HYDROLYZES FIBRIN DISSOLVING THE CLOT |
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|
Term
| 150. What is the difference between anticoagulants and thrombolytic agents? |
|
Definition
| ANTICOAGULANTS PREVENT FIBRIN FROM FORMING, WHILE THROMBOLITIC AGENTS DISSOLVE FIBRIN OR BUST THE CLOT |
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|
Term
| 151. _____ are medications that drive the production of plasmin to bust the clots. They are not anti-coagulants. |
|
Definition
| THROMBOLYTICS/FIBRINOLYTICS |
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|
Term
| 152. _____ do not dissolve clots, rather they prevents cots from forming or prevent existing clots from getting bigger. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 153. _____ and _____ are common anticoagulant medications. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 154. How does Coumadin work? |
|
Definition
| IT WORKS IN THE LIVER BY COMPETING WITH VITAMIN K. SINCE CLOTTING FACTORS ARE DEPENDENT ON VITAMIN K, COUMADIN WILL RESTRICT FIBRIN SYNTHESIS |
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|
Term
| 155. If patients eat foods with _____, it can counteract the effects of Coumadin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 156. How does heparin work? |
|
Definition
| IT WORKS IN THE PERIPHERY PREVENTING PROTHROMBIN FROM BEING CONVERTED TO THROMBIN |
|
|
Term
| 157. Heparin takes up to _____hours to work. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 158. _____ is an antidote for heparin overdose, which is made from fish sperm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 159. 3 signs of internal bleeding. |
|
Definition
| 1) LARGE, DISTENDED HARD ABDOMEN, 2) FLANK PAIN, 3) BLOOD IN STOOL OR URINE |
|
|
Term
| 160. 3 signs of over-coagulation. |
|
Definition
| 1) EASY BRUISING, 2) PETECIAL HEMORRHAGES, 3) SHAVING CUTS THAT DO NOT STOP BLEEDING |
|
|
Term
| 161. 2 coagulation factors found in our body. |
|
Definition
| 1) FACTOR I- FIBRINOGEN, 2) FACTOR XII- FIBRIN STABILIZING FACTOR |
|
|
Term
| 162. _____ is a test to determine clotting test times of people taking warfarin/Coumadin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 163. _____ is a test to determine clotting test times of people on heparin. |
|
Definition
| PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME (PTT) |
|
|
Term
| 164. The normal PTT time is between _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 165. _____ is the standardized clotting times across the globe, it consists of a ration responsible for standardizing everything. |
|
Definition
| INTERNATIONAL NORMALIZED RATION (INR) |
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|
Term
| 166. The normal clotting time in the INR is between _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 167. The normal ratio of INR is between _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 168. The desirable anticoagulant effect of INR is between _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 169. 3 components of a complete blood count. |
|
Definition
| 1) WBC COUNT, 2) RBC COUNT, 3) PLATELET COUNT |
|
|
Term
| 170. _____ is a test the counts the actual number of WBC’s per volume of blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 171. _____ is a test that determines what types of WBC’s are present in the blood. |
|
Definition
| WHITE BLOOD CELL DIFFERENTIAL |
|
|
Term
| 172. _____ is a test to determine the actual number of RBC’s per volume of blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 173. _____ is a test to determine the amount of oxygen carrying protein in the blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 174. _____ is a test to determine the rate of RBC production. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 175. _____ is a test to determine the amount of space RBC’s take up in the blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 176. _____ is a test to determine the number of platelets in a given volume of blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 177. _____ is a test to measure the average size of RBC’s. |
|
Definition
| MEAN CORPUSCULAR VOLUME (MCV) |
|
|
Term
| 178. MCV is an important in testing for _____. |
|
Definition
| ANEMIAS DUE TO B12 DEFICIENCY |
|
|
Term
| 179. _____ is a test to calculate the amount of hemoglobin inside of the RBC’s. |
|
Definition
| MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN (MCH) |
|
|
Term
| 180. _____ is a test to calculate the percentage of hemoglobin in red blood cells. |
|
Definition
| MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN CONCENTRATION (MCHC) |
|
|
Term
| 181. _____ is a test to determine how varied the size of RBC’s are in a sample. |
|
Definition
| RED CELL DISTRIBUTION WIDTH (RDW) |
|
|
Term
| 182. RDW helps determine the kind of _____ one may have. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 183. _____ is the most life threatening skin carcinoma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 184. _____ for skin disorders serve as anti-inflammatory agents. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 185. What is a cubitus ulcer? |
|
Definition
| A BEDSORE (WHEELCHAIR BOUND PATIENT) |
|
|
Term
| 186. Herpes zoster spreads along the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 187. _____ is a condition caused by a low number of circulating red cells, abnormally low number of hemoglobin, or both. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) BLOOD LOSS, 2) LACK OF OXYGEN DELIVERY TO CELLS/TISSUES, 3) DECREASED OXYGEN AFFINITY TO HEMOGLOBIN |
|
|
Term
| 189. What increased oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
| THE ACTUAL BINDING OF OXYGEN TO THE HEMOGLOBIN |
|
|
Term
| 190. 3 things that decrease oxygen’s affinity for hemoglobin. |
|
Definition
| 1) BINDING OF CO2 TO HEMOGLOBIN, 2) BINDING OF PROTONS TO SPECIFIC BASIC GROUPS, 3) BINDING OF CERTAIN ORGANIC PHOSPHATES |
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|
Term
| 191. _____ anemia is most common in menstruating women. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 192. _____ anemia is due to an early destruction of RBC’s due to a pathology. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 193. _____ is a major pathology that causes hemolytic anemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 194. _____ anemia is caused by a vitamin B-12 deficiency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 195. 3 different types of nutritional deficiency anemia’s. |
|
Definition
| 1) PERNICIOUS ANEMIA, 2) FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, 3) IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 196. _____ anemia is caused by a bone marrow depression causing a lack of adequate production of RBC’s. it is usually accompanied by depressions in other formed elements of the blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 197. 9 signs and symptoms of general anemia. |
|
Definition
| 1) FATIGUE/WEAKNESS, 2) PALLOR, 3) TACHYCARDIA, 4) ANXIETY, 5) SYSTOLIC MURMUR, 6) VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY, 7) CHF, 8) ERYTHROPOEISIS, 9) ANGINA AND NIGHT CRAMPS |
|
|
Term
| 198. _____ anemia’s are due to an early destruction of red blood cells either due to extrinsic or intrinsic causes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 199. _____ is an intrinsic cause of hemolytic anemia that is caused by an autosomal trait causing spherical-shaped RBC’s rather than biconcave disc shape. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 200. In hereditary spherocytosis, the tight spherical shape RBC’s will hemolyze and be _____ early in mass numbers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 201. _____ is sometimes used as the treatment of hemolytic anemia’s for adults, but it will not work in children. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 202. _____ are conditions inherent to hemoglobin molecules. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 203. Hemoglobin usually consists of _____ polypeptide chains. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 204. Hemoglobinopathies occur when one hemoglobin polypeptide chain is substituted with an _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 205. Sickle cell anemia is a condition when one of the hemoglobin amino acids is substituted with _____ rather than a polypeptide chain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 206. Sickle cell anemia typically occurs in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 207. _____ are sickle cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 208. _____ are normal hemoglobin cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 209. Is a person contains the _____ and _____ cells, they are carriers for the sickle cell trait. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 210. If a person contains the _____ and _____ cells, they will have sickle cell anemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 211. Why is sickle cell anemia more dangers in a low oxygen environment. |
|
Definition
| IN LOW OXYGEN ENVIORNMENTS, THE SICKLE HBS BECOMES AN AGGREGATE AND BOWS OUT THE CELL |
|
|
Term
| 212. A sickling crisis can cause death by leading to _____. |
|
Definition
| HEMOLYSIS AT LOG-JAMMED CAPILLARIES |
|
|
Term
| 213. Factors that precipitate sickling are related to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 214. 6 low oxygen situations that can lead to sickling. |
|
Definition
| 1) EXERCISE, 2) HYPOXIA, 3) ACIDOSIS, 4) DEHYDRATION, 5) INFECTION, 6) REDUCED OXYGEN TENSION IN SLEEP |
|
|
Term
| 215. 5 symptoms of sickle cell crisis. |
|
Definition
| 1) SWOLLEN HANDS AND FEET, 2) STROKE, 3) MI, 4) KIDNEY FAILURE, 5) HEMOLYSIS |
|
|
Term
| 216. What causes the painful crisis of sickle cell? |
|
Definition
| VESSEL OCCLUSION THAT MAY APPEAR SUDDENLY IN ALMOST ANY PART OF THE BODY |
|
|
Term
| 217. Hemoglobin is composed of _____, which is made up of 4 folded polypeptide chains, and 4 _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 218. Each hemoglobin molecule can carry _____ molecules of oxygen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 219. When hemoglobin is called _____ when carrying oxygen, and _____ when not carrying oxygen. |
|
Definition
| OXYHEMOGLOBIN, REDUCED HEMOGLOBIN |
|
|
Term
| 220. Hemoglobin can also combine with _____ to transport it from the tissues to the lungs for excretion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 221. _____ is a condition that results from absent or defective synthesis of either the alpha or beta chains of hemoglobin’s causing a decrease in the size of cells and a change in the MCV (size of RBC). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 222. _____ is a repeated defect in the beta-chain synthesis of hemoglobin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 223. B-thalassemias is most common in the _____ population. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 224. If a person receives the B-thalassemias trait from both parents it will cause transfusion-dependent anemia leading to death by _____. |
|
Definition
| HEMOCHROMATOSIS (EXCESS IRON) |
|
|
Term
| 225. 6 symptoms present in children with B-thalassemias. |
|
Definition
| 1) GROWTH RETARDATION, 2) SPLEENOMEGALY, 3) HEPATOMEGALY, 4) INCREASED RBC DISTRUCTION, 5) INCREASED STIM FOR HEMATOPORIESIS CAUSING BONE MARROW EXPANSION, 6) THINNING OF THE CORTICAL BONE |
|
|
Term
| 226. A-thalassemias is most common in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 227. Most severe cases of A-thalassemias occurs in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 228. Anemia occurs in A-thalassemias due to _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| DEFECTIVE HEMOGLOBIN PRODUCTION, ACCUMULATION OF UNPAIRED GLOBIN CHAINS |
|
|
Term
| 229. What is more severe alpha or beta thalassemias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 230. Individuals with the mildest form of A-thalassemias are usually _____ having mild _____. |
|
Definition
| ASYMPTOMATIC, MICROCYTOSIS |
|
|
Term
| 231. The minor form of A-thalassemias is associated with these 4 conditions. |
|
Definition
| 1) MILD MICROCYTITC HYPOCHROMIC RETICULOCYTOSIS (IMMATURE RBC’S), 2) BONE MARROW HYPERPLASIA, 3) INCREASED SERUM IRON CONCENTRATION, 4) MODERATE SPLENOMEGALY |
|
|
Term
| 232. 2 factors that cause microcytic-hypochromic anemia in A-thalassemias. |
|
Definition
| 1) REDUCED HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS AND IMBALANCE IN GLOBIN CHAIN PRODUCTION, 2) UNPAIRED CHAINS ACCUMULATE IN RED CELLS CAUSING RBC DESTRUCTION AND ANEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 233. The most common disorder associated with an inherited enzyme deficiency is _____. |
|
Definition
| G-6-PD (GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHO DEHYDROGENASE) |
|
|
Term
| 234. G-6-PD causes the direct oxidation of hemoglobin which forms a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 235. 3 risk factors of the formation of methemoglobin. |
|
Definition
| 1) THE CELL IS NOT FUNCTIONAL, 2) DENATURED HEMOGLOBIN MOLECULE RESULTS, 3) THEY CAN NOT MAKE IT THROUGH THE TIGHT CIRCULATORY AREAS OF THE BODY |
|
|
Term
| 236. G-6-PD eventually results in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 237. 6 extrinsic anemia factors. |
|
Definition
| 1) DRUGS, 2) CHEMICALS, 3) TOXINS, 4) ARTIFICIAL MECHANICAL BODY STRUCTURES, 5) BURNS, 6) ANY DIRECT INJURY TO THE RBC’S THEMSELVES |
|
|
Term
| 238. _____ means the size of the RBC is normal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 239. _____ means the size of the RBC is small. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 240. The most common cause of microcytic RBC’s is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 241. _____ means the size of the RBC is large. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 242. _____ means the color of the RBC is normal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 243. _____ means there is a decrease in the color of the RBC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 244. These 2 criteria must be met for anemia to be classified as nutritional anemia. |
|
Definition
| 1) THERE MUST BE A DEFECIENCY OR LACK OF A NUTRIENT ALONE CAUSING THE ANEMIA, 2) HAVING THE NUTRIENT PROVIDED CORRECTS THE ANEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 245. 4 symptoms associated with nutritional anemias. |
|
Definition
| 1) PALLOR, 2) WEAKNESS, 3) LETHARGY, 4) HEART RATE ELEVATION |
|
|
Term
| 246. 2 additional symptoms associated with iron deficiency anemias. |
|
Definition
| 1) SOARS IN THE CORNER OF THE MOUTH, 2) PICA (EATING DIRT, CLAY OR ICE) |
|
|
Term
| 247. If blood was drawn in a patient with iron deficiency anemia, the red blood cells would be _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| MICROCYTIC AND HYPOCHROMIC |
|
|
Term
| 248. 3 classes of nutritional anemias. |
|
Definition
| 1) IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, 2) PERNICIOUS ANEMIA, 3) FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY ANEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 249. _____ is essential for heme, in that each heme unit has one of these molecules at its center to form hemoglobin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 250. 3 causes of iron deficiency during pregnancy and pre-natal development. |
|
Definition
| 1) IF MOM IS IRON DEFICIENT SO IS THE BABY, 2) MOMS WHO ARE IRON DEFICIENT AND BREAST FEED WILL TRANSFER IT TO THE BABY, 3) IF NOT BREAST FEEDING COWS MILK MUST BE IRON FORTIFIED |
|
|
Term
| 251. What is the main symptom of iron deficiency during the infant/toddler years? |
|
Definition
| PICA (EATING THINGS THAT ARE NOT NORMALLY EDIBLE) |
|
|
Term
| 252. During the teenage years girls on their _____ and _____ are susceptible to iron deficiency. |
|
Definition
| MENSTRUAL CYCLE, NOT EATING PROPERLY |
|
|
Term
| 253. The most vulnerable time of iron deficiency in the adult years is during _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 254. _____ is anemia caused by a lack of vitamin B12/intrinsic factor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 255. Pernicious anemia causes _____ RBC’s as well as _____ anemias. |
|
Definition
| MACROCYTIC, MEGALOBLASTIC |
|
|
Term
| 256. The _____ is necessary for vitamin B-12 to be absorbed in the intestine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 257. Patients with pernicious anemia can have these 3 CNS related effects. |
|
Definition
| 1) NEUROLOGIC DEGENERATION OF DORSAL AND LATERAL SPINAL COLUMNS, 2) PARASTHESIA, 3) SPASTIC ATAXIA |
|
|
Term
| 258. Folic acid anemias cause _____ RBC’s and _____ anemias. |
|
Definition
| MACROCYTIC, MEGALOBLASTIC |
|
|
Term
| 259. _____ anemias usually have normal size and color RBC’s. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 260. 3 causes of a shift to the right in the oxygen saturation curve. |
|
Definition
| 1) EXERTION, 2) INFECTION (TEMP INCREASE), 3) SURGERY |
|
|
Term
| 261. _____ is polycythemia caused by dehydration or fluid loss. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 262. _____ is polycythemia caused by anything that increases the bone marrow production of RBC’s. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 263. _____ polycythemia is caused by a congenital issue leading to a proliferative disease in the bone marrow causing an accelerated production of RBC’s. |
|
Definition
| PRIMARY POLYCYTHEMIA (POLYCYTHEMIA VERA) |
|
|
Term
| 264. Polycythemia vera causes _____ blood due to extra RBC’s, and problems arise due to _____. |
|
Definition
| VISCOUS; INCREASED BLOOD VISCOSITY |
|
|
Term
| 265. The skin of a patient with polycythemia vera will appear _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 266. _____ is the treatment of polycythemia vera. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 267. 7 conditions associated with polycythemia vera. |
|
Definition
| 1) BLOOD CLOTS, 2) HYPERTENSION, 3) PAINFUL ITCHING SENSATIONS, 4) SLUGGISH BLOOD FLOW, 5) PROBLEMS HEARING AND CONCENTRATING, 6) IRRITABILITY, 7) THROMBOSIS |
|
|
Term
| 268. Suppressing the bone marrow of polycythemia vera requires _____, which is risky due to the side effects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 269. Polycythemia vera may lead to _____ or _____ due to stagnation and build-up of thick blood. |
|
Definition
| THROMBOSIS, FRANK HEMORRHAGING |
|
|
Term
| 270. _____ disorders are caused by platelet issues and anything that causes a decrease in platelet production. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 271. _____ is a condition when there is less than 100,000 platelets in the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 272. 3 mechanisms behind thrombocytopenia. |
|
Definition
| 1) DECREASE IN PLATELET PRODUCTION BY THE BONE MARROW, 2) INCREASED POOLING OF PLATELETS IN THE SPLEEN CAUSING SPLEENOMEGALY, 3) DECREASED PLATELET SURVIVAL |
|
|
Term
| 273. 4 causes of thrombocytopenia. |
|
Definition
| 1) VIRAL INFECTIONS, 2) DRUGS, 3) IDIOPATHIC, 4) BONE MARROW PROBLEMS |
|
|
Term
| 274. 3 signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia. |
|
Definition
| 1) EASY BRUISING, 2) NOSE BLEEDS, 3) SHAVING CUTS THAT DON’T STOP BLEEDING |
|
|
Term
| 275. _____ occurs 1-4 weeks after a viral infection, causing bruising and a generalized petechial rash that often occurs with acute onset. |
|
Definition
| IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPA (ITP) |
|
|
Term
| 276. 4 conditions associated with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpa. |
|
Definition
| 1) ASYMMETRICAL BLEEDING FOUND MOST FREQUENTLY COVERING THE LEGS, 2) HEMORRHAGE BULLAE OF THE MUCOUS MEMBRANES, 3) EPISTAXIS (NOSE BLEEDS), 4) SPONTANEOUS HEMORRHAGES THAT LAST 1-2 WEEKS |
|
|
Term
| 277. _____ is used to slow down the platelet production in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpa. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 278. _____ is a condition that begins as a systemic clotting issue that ends up as a bleeding problem secondary to some other event. |
|
Definition
| DISIMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION (DIC) |
|
|
Term
| 279. _____ is the most common cause of disiminated intravascular coagulation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 280. 8 causes of disiminated intravascular coagulation. |
|
Definition
| 1) MASSIVE TRAUMA, 2) BURNS, 3) SEPSIS, 4) SHOCK, 5) MALIGNANT DISEASE, 6) MENONGOCOCCEMIA, 7) OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS, 8) SNAKE BITES |
|
|
Term
| 281. _____ is a condition associated with disiminated intravascular coagulation that has a very high mortality rate. |
|
Definition
| BLEEDING FROM EVERY ORIFICE |
|
|
Term
| 282. What is the treatment of disiminated intravascular coagulation? |
|
Definition
| STOP THE UNDERLYING PATHOLOGY AND ADMINISTER HEPARIN TO SUPPLY FRESH COAGULATION FACTORS AND PLATELETS |
|
|
Term
| 283. _____ is a common bleeding pathology within the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 284. _____ is classic hemophilia, which is an x-linked recessive disorder manifesting in males that is transmitted by females. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 285. Hemophilia A is caused by a defect of _____, which is prevented from participating in the intrinsic clotting pathway. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 286. _____ is the most common hemophilia and accounts for 80-85% of all cases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 287. Thrombin is nor normally found in circulating blood. In order for thrombin to be made in the intrinsic clotting pathway, prothrombin (factor II) requires _____ and _____ to be converted to thrombin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 288. _____ is the second most common hemophilia (15%) caused by an x-linked recessive trait that is clinically indistinguishable from a factor VIII deficiency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 289. Hemophilia B is caused by a _____ deficiency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 290. Hemophilia B is also referred to as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 291. How can a doctor distinguish between hemophila A and B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 292. _____ is a hemophilia that results from an autosomal recessive disease that occurs equally in males and females. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 293. Hemophilia C is caused by a _____ deficiency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 294. In patients with hemophilia C, bleeding is usually _____ than in hemophilia A or B. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 295. Hemophilia C does not present at birth, but rather around _____ when clotting factors begin to fail. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 296. 4 symptoms of patients with hemophilia C. |
|
Definition
| 1) EASY BRUISING, 2) BLEEDING GUMS OR JOINTS, 3) BLOOD IN URINE OR STOOL, 4) EPISTAXIS (NOSE BLEEDS) THAT DO NOT STOP |
|
|
Term
| 297. _____ is a condition caused by a defect in a different subunit, co-factor, or carrier protein of factor VIII. It is an inherited autosomal dominant trait that is different from hemophilia A. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 298. In von wilderband disease, rapidly circulating platelets are unable to stick to _____ and _____ cannot be formed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 299. What is mainly affected by von wildebrand disease? |
|
Definition
| ENDOTHELIAL CELLS THAT LINE VESSELS |
|
|
Term
| 300. _____ is the usual treatment of von wildebrand disease, which caused factor VIII activity to increase for several days. It temporarily induced endogenous synthesis of factor VIII. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 301. _____ is a life threatening condition that causes a rapid proliferation of immature WBC’s by the bone marrow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 302. 11 endogenous findings associated with leukemia. |
|
Definition
| 1) ABNORMAL PATHOLOGICAL CELLS, 2) EXCESS BONE MARROW PROLIFERATION, 3) REPLACEMENT OF BONE MARROW WITH WBC’S (BONE MARROW DEPRESSION), 4) EXCESS NON-FUNCTIONAL WBC’S IN BLOOD, 5) SPLENOMEGALY, 6) HEPATOMEGALY, 7) LYMPHANDENOAPTHY, 8) WEIGHT LOSS, 9) NIGHT SWEATS, 10) LOW GRADE FEVER, 11) HYPERURICEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 303. If a patient has leukemia, _____ and _____ will result due to decreased platelet and erythrocyte production. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 304. _____ is present in 90% of all leukemia patients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 305. 6 CNS related conditions associated with leukemia. |
|
Definition
| 1) ENCEPHALOPATHY, 2) MENINGITIS, 3) CRANIAL NERVE PALSIES, 4) BLURRED VISION, 5) HEADACHE, 6) SEIZURES |
|
|
Term
| 306. The 2 acute forms of leukemia are _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA; ACUTE MYELOTIC LEUKEMIA OR ACUTE GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 307. _____ is an acute form of leukemia with a sudden onset most commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 4. |
|
Definition
| ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 308. In acute lymphocytic leukemia _____ are differentiated poorly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 309. The onset of acute lymphocytic leukemia is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 310. _____ accounts for 2/3 of all leukemia cases. |
|
Definition
| ACUT E LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 311. 6 symptoms associated with acute lymphocytic leukemia. |
|
Definition
| 1) FEVER, 2) MUSCLE FATIGUE, 3) BLEEDING, 4) BONE PAIN, 5) BONE MARROW DYSFUNCTION, 6) ANEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 312. More than _____% of children with acute lymphocytic leukemia have complete remission, while _____% of children live 5 years or longer. 90%, |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 313. _____ is an acute form of leukemia with a low survival rate. It affects all the –phil cells, and symptoms arise abruptly which are similar to those of acute lymphocytic anemia. |
|
Definition
| ACUTE MYELOTIC LEUKEMIA (ACUTE GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA) |
|
|
Term
| 314. _____ is the most common type of leukemia found in adults. |
|
Definition
| ACUTE MYELOTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 315. Acute myelotic leukemia is treated with intensive chemo to cause _____ of the bone marrow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 316. Only about _____% of acute myelotic leukemia patients who receive chemo will achieve long-term disease free survival. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 317. The more _____ a cell, the more malignant they can become and lead to a more progressive cancer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 318. These are the 2 types of chronic leukemia’s. |
|
Definition
| 1) CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA, 2) CHRONIC MYELOCYTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 319. _____ is a form of chronic leukemia that is often a disorder in older adults between the ages of 50-70. The disease consists of slightly differentiated cells which causes the disease to progress _____. |
|
Definition
| CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA; SLOWLY |
|
|
Term
| 320. Is chronic lymphocytic leukemia more common in men or women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 321. Unlike acute lymphocytic leukemia, in chronic lymphocytic leukemia the chronic cells are more _____ and easily identifiable. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 322. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia cells develops _____, but _____ are affected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 323. Patients with chronic lymphocytic anemia are usually diagnosed when they are _____, and they life expectancy is _____ than those patients with acute lymphocytic anemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 324. _____ is a chronic form of leukemia that occurs in patients between the ages of 30-50. |
|
Definition
| CHRONIC MYELOCYTIC OR GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
|
|
Term
| 325. In chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia, bone marrow cells have the _____ chromosome that occurs in mitotic error with a shortened arm on chromosome _____. |
|
Definition
| PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME; CHROMOSOME 22 |
|
|
Term
| 326. Chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia patients are often _____ when diagnosed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 327. About _____% of chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia patients enter an accelerated phase characteristic of acute leukemia which leads to _____ survival rates. |
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Definition
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Term
| 328. 13 symptoms associated with chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemia. |
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Definition
| 1) SPLENOMEAGALY, 2) IMMATURE LEUKOCYTES, 3) HIGH WBC COUNT, 4) ANEMIA, 5) THROMBOCYTOPENIA, 6) WEAKNESS, 7) FATIGUE, 8) DYSPNEA, 9) LOW GRADE FEVER, 10) NIGHT SWEATS, 11) WEIGHT LOSS, 12) HEPATOMEGALY, 13) LYMPHADENOPATHY |
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Term
| 329. 4 caused associated with chronic myelocytic or granulocytic leukemias. |
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Definition
| 1) RADIATION, 2) CHEMICALS LIKE BENZENE, 3) TWINS, 4) ANIMALS |
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Term
| 330. _____ are cancers of WBC’s (lymphocytes). |
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Definition
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Term
| 331. _____ is a malignant disorder or lymphoid tissue that constitutes 40% of all malignant lymphomas seen in younger adults between the ages of 20-40. |
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Definition
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Term
| 332. In hodgkins lymphoma, lymphoid tissue is characterized by the presence of _____ upon biopsy. |
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Definition
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Term
| 333. Manifestations of hogdkins lymphoma are due to rapid proliferation of abnormal _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 334. Hodgkins lymphoma often begins in lymph tissue above the _____, which usually sends people to see the doctor. |
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Definition
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Term
| 335. 10 symptoms associated with hodgkins lymphoma. |
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Definition
| 1) PAINLESS ENLARGEMENT OF LYMPHOID TISSUE, 2) SPLENOMEGALY, 3) FEVER, 4) NIGHT SWEATS, 5) WEIGHT LOSS, 6) FATIGUE, 7) PURITIS, 8) WEAKENED IMMUNE SYSTEM, 9) INCREASED WBC COUNT, 10) AFFECTED LIVER, LUNGS, DIGESTIVE TRACT AND CNS |
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Term
| 336. 7 medical tests used to identify hodgkins lymphoma. |
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Definition
| 1) LYMPH NODE BIOPSY, 2) CT SCANS OF ABDOMEN AND PELVIC LYMPH NODES, 3) LYMPHANGIOGRAPHY, 4) LAPAROTOMY, 5) LIVER BIOPSY, 6) BONE MARROW BIOPSY, 7) X RAYS AND LAB WORK |
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Term
| 337. In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, a single lymph node or single extralymphatic region is affected. |
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Definition
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Term
| 338. In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is involvement of lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm. |
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Definition
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Term
| 339. In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is involvement of lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm. |
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Definition
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Term
| 340. In _____ of ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma, there is diffused or disseminated involvement of lymph nodes. |
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Definition
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Term
| 341. The incidence rate of hodgkins lymphoma is _____ cases a year with _____ deaths. |
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Definition
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Term
| 342. _____ is a type of lymphoma that typically affects immune suppressed people over the age of 50, which could be virus related. It consists of a group of neoplastic disorders of lymphoid tissue not characterized by reed-sternberg cells. |
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Definition
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Term
| 343. In patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma, there is early involvement of the lymph nodes in the _____ area. |
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Definition
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Term
| 344. There is less than _____% chance of curability of patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma. |
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Definition
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Term
| 345. Non-hodgkins lymphomas are divided into 3 main groups according to the cell types involved which are _____, _____ and _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 346. The diagnosis of non-hodgkins lymphoma is through a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 347. 4 signs and symptoms of patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma. |
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Definition
| 1) EARLY INVOLVELENT OF OROPHARYNGEAL LYMPHOID TISSUE, 2) CONSTITUTIONAL SIGNS, 3) LEUKEMIC TRANSFORMATIONS WITH HIGH NUMBERS OF WBC’S, 4) INCREASED SUSCEPTIBILITY TO INFECTIONS |
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Term
| 348. The incidence rate of non-hodgkins lymphoma is _____ new cases a year with _____ deaths. |
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Definition
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Term
| 350. _____ is a condition that consists of bone tumors of B-lymphocytes commonly affecting people between the ages of 50 and 60. |
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Definition
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Term
| 351. Multiple myelomas causing B-cell neoplasms leads to an excess production of _____ and _____. |
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Definition
| IMMATURE AND MATURE PLASMA CELLS |
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Term
| 352. Multiple myeloma affecting B-cells can be detectable by _____ of the long bones, sternum, or skull. |
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Definition
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Term
| 353. Multiple myeloma is characterized by multiple malignant tumor masses of _____ scattered throughout the skeletal system and sometimes soft tissues. |
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Definition
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Term
| 354. Incidence of multiple myelomas is _____ times greater than all other malignant tumors of the bone combined. |
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Definition
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Term
| 355. Chronic stimulation of the mononuclear phagocytic system by these 3 things have been proposed causes of multiple myelomas. |
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Definition
| 1) BACTERIA, 2) CHEMICALS, 3) VIRUSES |
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Term
| 356. In the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma, _____ arise from 1 clone of B-cells that produce abnormally large amounts of _____. |
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Definition
| MALIGNANT PLASMA CELLS; CLASS 1 IMMUNOGLOBULINS (IgG) |
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Term
| 357. Laboratory examinations of the bone marrow of patients with multiple myeloma shows proliferation of _____ and _____ cells with 20% or more having multinucleated cytoplasms containing multiple immunoglobulins (whits blobs). These cells often completely replace _____. |
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Definition
| IMMATURE AND MATURE PLASMA CELLS; BONE MARROW |
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Term
| 358. _____ proteins, which are fragments of IgG/A are present in the urine and blood of over 60% of patients with multiple myeloma. |
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Definition
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Term
| 359. Bence jones proteins are proliferations of the _____. |
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Definition
| LIGHT CHAINS OF IMMUNOGLOBULINS (M-CHAIN) |
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Term
| 360. In multiple myeloma patients, there is a higher frequency of _____ correlated with the amount of protein found in urine, since the excreted light chains are through to be toxin to the renal tubules. |
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Definition
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Term
| 361. The malignant neoplasm of multiple myeloma usually does not metastasize outside of the _____, rather the destructive lesions typically erode the _____ and cause _____ that are observable on radiographs. |
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Definition
| BONE; BONE; LYTIC LESIONS |
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Term
| 362. Lytic lesions of multiple myeloma patients are most frequently visualized in these 7 places. |
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Definition
| 1) VERTEBRAL COLUMN, 2) RIBS, 3) SKULL, 4) PELVIS, 5) FEMUR, 6) CLAVICLE, 7) SCAPULA |
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Term
| 363. In multiple myeloma patients, pathological _____ usually occur in the areas with the lytic lesions, especially in the weigh bearing regions. |
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Definition
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Term
| 364. In multiple myeloma, calcium metabolism is usually abnormal resulting in elevated _____, because of _____. |
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Definition
| SERUM CALCIUM LEVELS; PLASMA CELL PROLIFERATION |
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Term
| 365. Multiple myeloma patients often experience _____ and _____ anemia with variable depression of _____ and _____ counts. |
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Definition
| NOMOCYTIC AND NONOCHROMIC ANEMIA; WBC AND PLATELET COUNTS |
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Term
| 366. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma is _____ or _____ pain, as well as _____. |
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Definition
| BONE OR BACK PAIN; COMPRESSION FRACTURES |
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Term
| 367. _____ and _____ may be caused by the secondary anemia of multiple myeloma. |
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Definition
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Term
| 368. Survival rates of multiple myeloma patients are generally poor, and rely largely on the persons response to _____. |
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Definition
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