Term
| About how many diseases and parasites of animals can be transmitted to humans through ingestion of contaminated meat or meat products? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two goals of meat inspection? |
|
Definition
1. Prevent diseased meat from reaching the consumer
2. Ensure sanitary conditions at processing facilities |
|
|
Term
| Is meat inspection required by law? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When were the first meat inspection laws made? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What was the first U.S. inspection law? |
|
Definition
| It was related to exports of salted pork and bacon. |
|
|
Term
| What were the second and third US inspection laws? |
|
Definition
2. Pre-slaughter inspection for interstate shipment or export
3. Condemnation of diseased animals for shipment |
|
|
Term
| What was the point of early meat inspection laws - protect the people, or protecting trade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who was the author, and what was the book that described the unsanitary conditions in the Chicago meat-packing industry at the turn of the century? |
|
Definition
| The Jungle by Upton Sinclair in 1906. |
|
|
Term
| What was the result of Upton Sinclair's book? |
|
Definition
| President Roosevelt called upon Congress to pass a law establishing the Food and Drug Administration, and for the first time, setting up federal inspection standards for meat. |
|
|
Term
| What were the two parts of the 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act? |
|
Definition
1. For preventing the manufacture, sale, or transportation of adulterated or misbranded or poisonous or deleterious foods, drugs, medicines, and liquors, and for regulating traffic therein.
2. That the introduction into any State or Territory or the District of Columbia from any other state or Territory or the District of Columbia, or from any foreign country, or shipment to any foreign country any article of food or drugs which is adulterated or misbranded is hereby prohibited.
|
|
|
Term
| What was the goverment concerned with during the Pure Food and Drug Act? |
|
Definition
| More concerned at this point in time with the additives to the food. |
|
|
Term
| What were the reasons for the 1906 Federal Meat Inspection Act? |
|
Definition
1. To safeguard the public by eliminating diseased animals and unwholesome meat products.
2. Inspection of both products and facility sanitation
3. Provided safeguards against the use of harmful ingredients.
4. Mandated the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) inspection of meat processing plants that conducted business across state lines. |
|
|
Term
| Was the Federal Meat Inspection Act driven for food safety or commerce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During the end of what decade of the twentieth century did the Horse Meat Inspection Act come into existence?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the middle of what twentieth century decade was there voluntary poultry inspection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What was unique/ironic about the voluntary poultry inspection? |
|
Definition
| It was funded by the companies. |
|
|
Term
| When was poultry inspection a federal requirement? (AKA when was the Poultry Inspection Act passed?) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What decade of the twentieth century was the Humane Slaughter Act passed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What was the requirement of the humane slaughter act? |
|
Definition
Animals must be unconscious when exsanguinated (i.e. via captive bolt stunner; electric shock)
It was pushed for by animal rights activist groups |
|
|
Term
| What decade of the twentieth century was the Wholesome Meat Act passed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What was called for in the wholesome meat act? |
|
Definition
1. Inspection for all products: export, interstate, and intrastate
2. Cooperative state-federal program
3. Required that states have inspection programs "equal to" that of the federal government
|
|
|
Term
| What decade of the twentieth century was the Wholesome Poultry Products Act passed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What decade was the Processed Products Inspection Improvement Act passed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What decade of the twentieth century was the mandatory adoption of SSOP and HACCP plans for all processing plants passed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sanitation Standard Operating Procedures |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points. |
|
|
Term
| What are the seven HACCP Principles? |
|
Definition
1. Analyze Hazards
2. Identification of CCP's
3. CCP Prevention Measures
4. Monitoring of CCP Prevention Measures
5. CCP Not Met
6. HACCP & CCP Log
7. Establish procedures for verifying the HACCP system is working as intended |
|
|
Term
| What happens during the Analyze Hazards principle? |
|
Definition
| Potential hazards to the food safety are recognized, in addition measures to regulate and control the hazards are identified. |
|
|
Term
| What happens during the identification of CCP's principle? |
|
Definition
| Critical Control Points throughout the production process of the product are established. |
|
|
Term
| What happens during the CCP prevention measures principle? |
|
Definition
A prevention measure is established at all CCP's
Example - a computer system would moniter and log the temperature.
|
|
|
Term
| What happens during the CCP not met procedure? |
|
Definition
Establish a precaution when the CCP hasn't been met.
Example - if the temperature is too low, the computer will alarm the batch to be destroyed |
|
|
Term
| What happens during the HACCP & CCP Log principle? |
|
Definition
| Maintain a log system of all the CCP's, also, this would include records of CCP control methods and action taken to correct potential problems. |
|
|
Term
| When was the National Food Safety Initiative made? |
|
Definition
| In 1997; made by USDA, HHS, EPA |
|
|
Term
| What was the recent food safety act that was passed into law earlier this year? |
|
Definition
| The FDA Food Safety Modernization Act |
|
|
Term
| What does the FDA Food Safety Modernization Act do? |
|
Definition
| Gives the FDA the power to order food recalls on its own instead of relying on cooperation from industry. |
|
|
Term
| What federal groups are able to recall food? |
|
Definition
USDA - meat and poultry
FDA - other foods (seafood, juice, eggs) |
|
|
Term
| What is a problem with current recall times? |
|
Definition
| By the time a recall is made (even with the new law) a lot of recalled food is already consumed. |
|
|
Term
| What two goverment agencies are in charge of performing meat and poultry inspection? |
|
Definition
| US Department of Agriculture (USDA) and Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) |
|
|
Term
| What are the elements of inspection? |
|
Definition
1. Sanitation
2. Antemortem inspection
3. Postmortem inspection
4. Condemnation
5. Product inspection
6. Laboratory inspection
7. Labeling |
|
|
Term
| What are the nine steps of the inspection process? |
|
Definition
1. Examination of animals and their carcasses at slaughter
2. Inspection to assure sanitary handling and equipment at all stages of preparation
3. Destruction of condemned product
4. Examination of added ingredients
5. Application of identification standards
6. Enforcement of accurate labeling
7. Inspection of imported products
8. Administration of produce certification
9. Verification of adequacy and effectiveness of plant SSOPs |
|
|
Term
| How many inspectors are there? |
|
Definition
Three
1. Food inspectors (laymen)
2. Veterinary medical officers (DVMs)
3. Laboratory inspectors (trained in food science) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three classifications of antemortem inspection? |
|
Definition
1. Passed - acceptable for slaughter
2. Suspect - animal suspected of having a disease which may result in condemnation
3. Condemned - animal does not go to slaughter (5 Ds: dead, dying, diseased, disabled, or drugged) |
|
|
Term
| What are the five purposes of antemortem inspection? |
|
Definition
1. Remove conditions undetectable on postmortem
2. Prelude to postmortem
3. Prevent contamination of personnel or equipment
4. Report reportable diseases including foreign animal diseases
5. Identify symptoms from drug misuse |
|
|
Term
| Do you want to observe an animal in an antemortem inspection only at rest or only in motion? |
|
Definition
| NEITHER!! Want to observe them in both states! |
|
|
Term
| What are the condemnation body temperatures for animals? |
|
Definition
< 96 F in any species - b/c dying
> 105 F in cattle, sheep, goats, and horses
> 106 F in swine |
|
|
Term
| If you see an animal with epithelioma is that animal passed, suspect, or condemned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you see an animal with actinomycoses is that animal passed, suspect, or condemned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you see an animal with pneumonia is that animal passed, suspect, or condemned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If an animal has CNS signs, is that animal passed, suspect, or condemned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When can you slaughter a postpartum cow? |
|
Definition
| After the placenta has passed |
|
|
Term
| If you have downer cattle, are they passed, suspect, or condemned? |
|
Definition
| Condemned after a dairy cow was diagnosed w/BSE in December 2003. |
|
|
Term
| If an animal is a TB reactor are they passed, suspect, or condemned? |
|
Definition
| TB reactors are US suspect. They have a 'T' brand on the left jaw and a reactor tag in the left ear. They can be passed on postmortem inspection or passed for cooking at 170 F for 30 minutes. |
|
|
Term
Are Brucellosis reactors passed, suspect, or condemned?
|
|
Definition
| They are passed, but reactor bull testicles and cow udders are condemned. They are branded with a B in the left jaw and a reactor tag is in their left ear. They do not have any special postmortem examinations. |
|
|
Term
| What are the methods of humane stunning? |
|
Definition
1. Captive bolt (penetrating and nonpenetrating)
2. Firearms (brain and head meat are non-edible then)
3. Electrical
4. Carbon dioxide (for smaller species)
|
|
|
Term
| What are the five principles of postmortem inspection? |
|
Definition
1. Generalized vs. localized conditions
2. Acute vs. chronic
3. Body functions are deranged
4. Injurious to consumer's health
5. Offensive or repugnant |
|
|
Term
| What are the differences between generalized vs localized infections? |
|
Definition
Generalized - systemic spread of organism or condition, cannot remove affected tissue
Localized - body has isolated condition, affected tissue can be trimmed, remaining tissue is safe to use, no secondary carcass changes |
|
|
Term
| What are the differences between acute vs chronic infections? |
|
Definition
Acute - causative agent still present and active, tend to be more generalized
Chronic - tend to be more localized |
|
|
Term
| What is looked at in the postmortem inspection? |
|
Definition
Lymph nodes (incise superficial nodes)
Cheek muscles
Palpate tongue
Internal organs (palpate, incise thoracic and mesenteric nodes, open heart, open bile duct)
Internal body surfaces |
|
|
Term
| Is an animal with septicemia/toxemia passed, suspect, or condemned? |
|
Definition
| If there is degeneration of heart, liver, spleen and kidneys = condemn |
|
|
Term
| If an animal has icterus, xanthosis, emaciation is it passed, suspect, or condemned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In postmortem conditions, how do you determine to pass or condemn pneumonia animals? |
|
Definition
| Depends on the severity, and if it is localized or generalized. It is then either trimmed or condemned. |
|
|
Term
| How do you make a determination of passing or condemning an animal with epithelioma? |
|
Definition
If it is extensive and involving the orbit - condemn
If it is small and not involving the orbit - pass w/o the head |
|
|
Term
| How do you make the determination on condemnation for bruises and injury? |
|
Definition
If it is slight - trim it and pass
If it is extensive - condemn it |
|
|
Term
| How do you make the determination of condemnation in pericarditis? |
|
Definition
If it's extensive - condemn
If it's slight - trim |
|
|
Term
| How do you make the determination of condemnation in cysterciosis? |
|
Definition
If slight and localized - trim and pass, observe carefully
If generalized - condemn |
|
|
Term
| What is a USDA labeling requirement? |
|
Definition
| USDA requires that safe handling instructions be put on all raw and not fully cooked meat and poultry products |
|
|
Term
| Are condemned products supposed to be labeled as such and disposed of properly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What six things are supposed to be on product labels? |
|
Definition
1. Product name
2. Ingredients
3. Name and address
4. Net weight
5. Inspection legend
6. Warning statement (if applicable) |
|
|
Term
| True/False: meat and meat products after processing are sterile. |
|
Definition
| False - they are not sterile |
|
|
Term
| What is the 40-140 Rule of temperature ranges? |
|
Definition
Meat should be stored below 40 F, cooked thoroughly above 140 F (preferably above 150 F).
Temperatures between these two constitute the "Danger Zone" |
|
|
Term
| A foodborne illness is... |
|
Definition
| any illness that results from ingestion of any food product |
|
|
Term
| A foodborne outbreak is defined as... |
|
Definition
| the occurrence of 2 or more cases resulting from a single food item |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Foodborne illnesses are estimated to cause 48 million illnesses, 325,000 hospitalizations, and 3,000 deaths in the US each year. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is food irradiation or cold pasteurization? |
|
Definition
| Food safety technology designed to greatly reduce disease-causing germs from food. It is the process of exposing food to high levels of radiant energy which penetrates into food, killing microorganisms w/o significant increases in the temperature of the food. |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Food irradiation replaces proper food handling and storage. |
|
Definition
| False - it only compliments proper food handling and storage. |
|
|
Term
| Is there a specific symbol that is required on irradiated food? |
|
Definition
| Yes, the Radura Symbol must be displayed on irradiated foods sold for retail. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four qualifications for the AVMA supporting the use of an ionizing source for the pasteurization of meat and poultry to inactivate contaminating micro-organisms? |
|
Definition
1. The animals are healthy and free of chemical residues
2. The animals have been slaughtered and processed under clean, sanitary conditions
3. Ionizing pasteurization is applied at licensed levels and following propers safeguards
4. The meat and poultry are protected from recontamination until consumed |
|
|
Term
| What are the sources of protein in pet foods? |
|
Definition
1. Lungs, spleen, and tripe
2. Slunks (fetal animals)
3. Meat and meat products
4. Certain condemned carcasses
5. Horse meat and meat products |
|
|
Term
| Is federal inspection of pet foods required or voluntary? |
|
Definition
| Voluntary - done under certification service of federal meat inspection programs. |
|
|
Term
| Do certified pet foods require an inspection legend? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False: Sanitation requirements of pet food are not the same as for human meat processing establishments. |
|
Definition
| False - they are the same |
|
|
Term
| What are the two considerations with regard to milk and public health? |
|
Definition
1. Potential for transmission of pathogens btwn humans and animals
2. Potential for consumption of milk adulterated with biologicals, pharmaceuticals, pesticides, or hormones |
|
|
Term
| What does the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance do? |
|
Definition
The US Dept. of Health and Human Services establishs nationwide quality standards for milk from pre-harvest to finished product.
Individual states may have additional requirements. |
|
|
Term
| Who does the PMO regulate and who is it enforced by? |
|
Definition
Regulates dairy producers, creameries, milk processors, and veterinarians.
Enforced by State Milk Inspectors by the State Dept. of Health. |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when milk is Grade A? |
|
Definition
1. It is fluid milk
2. Excess used for manufacturing
3. SCC limit 750,000
4. Bacteria count limit 100,000 (pre-pasteurization)
5. No inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when milk is Grade B? |
|
Definition
1. It is manufacturer grade (for manufacture of milk products like cheeses, yogurt, cottage cheese, ice cream, milk powder)
2. SCC limit = 750,000
3. Bacteria count limit = 500,000
4. No inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of abnormal milk? |
|
Definition
| Milk that is visibly changed in color, odor, and/or texture |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of undesirable milk? |
|
Definition
| Milk that, prior to the milking of the animal, is known to be unsuitable for sale, such as milk containing colustrum. |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of contaminated milk? |
|
Definition
| Milk that is un-saleable or unfit for human consumption following treatment of the animal with veterinary products, i.e. antibiotics, which have withhold requirements, or treatment with medicines or insecticides not approved for use on dairy animals by FDA or the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the mammary gland usually caused by a intramammary infection |
|
|
Term
| What are some common mastitis pathogens? |
|
Definition
| Staphylococci, Streptococci, Enteric pathogens, Mycoplasma sp., Arcanobacter sp., Corynebacterium sp., etc. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three main ways of contamination with milk? |
|
Definition
1. Equipment & utensils (fomites)
2. Poor handling techniques
3. Unclean cattle |
|
|
Term
| What are the seven potential zoonoses in milk? |
|
Definition
1. Brucellosis
2. Tuberculosis
3. Q fever (Coxiella burnetti)
4. Listeria monocytogenes
5. Salmonella (DT 104)
6. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis? (Johnes)
7. Mastitis pathogens? |
|
|
Term
| How do adulterants enter milk? |
|
Definition
Treatment of cattle - biologics, hormones, antibiotics, NSAIDs, pesticides
Contamination |
|
|
Term
| Do you want to have cross-contamination of lactating animals with abnormal milk and normal lactating animals? |
|
Definition
| NO, dispose of abnormal milk and milk animals with abnormal milk separately or last and clean the equipment. |
|
|
Term
| What are the prohibited list of drugs for dairy cows? |
|
Definition
| Chloramphenicol, Clenbuterol, Diethylstilbestrol (DES), Dimetridazole, Ipronidazole, other nitroimidazoles, Furazolidone, Nitrofurazone, other nitrofurans, Sulfonamide drugs in lactating dairy cattle (except approved use of sulfadimethoxine, sulfabromomethazine, and sulfaethoxypyridazine), Fluoroquinolones, Glycopeptides (ex. vancomycin), Phenylbutazone in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older |
|
|
Term
| What are the milk storage requirements? |
|
Definition
Milk must be chilled:
to 50F (10C) w/in 4 hours of initiating milking
to 45F (7C) by 2 hours post-milking
Must be stored at that temperature until pick up
There must be a chart recorder on the tank |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Water can be added to milk. |
|
Definition
| False - Can't be added and is tested by checking the freezing point |
|
|
Term
| The processor of milk does what tests on the bulk tanks of milk? |
|
Definition
Bacterial growth inhibitors
SCC
Pre-pasteurization Bacteria Count (by standard plate count and loop plate count) |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of pasteurization? |
|
Definition
| The heating of every particle of milk or milk product to a specific temperature for a specified period of time w/o allowing recontamination of that milk or milk product during the heat treatment process. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two purposes of pasteurization? |
|
Definition
1. Kill pathogens in milk including zoonotic pathogens (current recommendations are based on killing the thermoduric Coxiella burnetti)
2. Enhance shelf-life |
|
|
Term
| What are the three methods of pasteurization? |
|
Definition
1. Batch or vat method (heat jacketed vat)
2. High-Temperature-Short-Time (HTST) (counter-current heat exchanger (continuous method))
3. Ultra-high Temperature (UHT) (shefl storage w/o refrigeration) |
|
|
Term
| How many illnesses, hospitalizations, and deaths occur in the US each year due to foodborne illness? |
|
Definition
48 million illnesses
325,000 hospitalizations
3,000 deaths |
|
|
Term
| What are the estimated costs associated with foodborne illness each year? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when I say that it is a foodborne infection? |
|
Definition
| The pathogen was in the food, replicated in the GI tract, and symptoms started in 24-48 hours |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when I say that there is a foodborne intoxication? |
|
Definition
| The bacterial toxin was formed in the food, there was a shorter time course to illness (minutes to a few hours) |
|
|
Term
| Is the general trend for incidence of bacterial foodborne illnesses increasing or decreasing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Escherichia coli a member of the GI normal flora of humans and a variety of animal species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do you find E. coli? |
|
Definition
| In the shit! (shed in feces) |
|
|
Term
| Name the five major virotypes of E. coli. |
|
Definition
1. Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
2. Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
3. Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
4. Enterhemmorhagic (EHEC)
5. Enteroaggrative (EAggEC) |
|
|
Term
| What are two other names for ETEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence properties in ETEC? |
|
Definition
They are plasmid encoded.
Heat labile enterotoxin (increases cAMP level in target cells)
Heat stabile enterotoxin (increased cGMP levels in target cells) |
|
|
Term
| What allows ETEC to colonize the small bowel? |
|
Definition
| The pili which allows for adhesion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| NO! Human disease comes from human shit and not from animals |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of ETEC? (i.e. what type of diarrhea) |
|
Definition
| Watery (cholera-like) diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| How does EPEC cause disease? |
|
Definition
| It is an attaching and effacing lesion which means a loss of microvilli. There are no enterotoxins. Instead there is a bundle forming pilus |
|
|
Term
| What age group is EPEC most deadly to? |
|
Definition
| Infants. Major killer of infants in developing countries |
|
|
Term
| What are the mortality rates of EPEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| NO! Once again coming from human shit |
|
|
Term
| What happens in an attaching and effacing lesion? |
|
Definition
| Cells bind to the receptor, that triggers actin cytoskeletal rearrangement forming a pedestal, and then you have intimate contact btwn bacterium and host cell. Absorptive properties are affected |
|
|
Term
| What does EIEC have? (method of invasion) |
|
Definition
| Salmonella-like invasiveness which can result in septicemia |
|
|
Term
| Where is EIEC found (what animals)? |
|
Definition
| In humans and can be found in poultry. Rarely found in other mammals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| NO, more human shit is responsible! |
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of EAggEC? |
|
Definition
Pili - thin fibrillar structures, aggregative adherence fimbriae (AAF/I)
EAST (heat stable) enterotoxin |
|
|
Term
| What age group is most affected by EAggEC? |
|
Definition
| Children - get a persistent form of diarrhea (> 14 days) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ha, NO! Even more human shit causes this diarrhea! |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| YES!! It comes from cattle who are asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for EHEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the virulence factor of EHEC and how does it work? |
|
Definition
| EHEC strains produce Shiga toxin which inhibits protein syntehesis by cleaving 18S rRNA and kills cells (it's encoded on a prophage) |
|
|
Term
| What are the sources of infection in E. coli O157:H7 outbreaks? |
|
Definition
1. Undercooked ground beef and unpasteurized milk
2. Unpasteurized fruit juices
3. Drinking water and recreational water
4. Contaminated vegetables (alfalfa, sprouts, spinach) |
|
|
Term
| What are three ways to prevent E. coli O157:H7 outbreaks? |
|
Definition
1. Adequate refrigeration for storage and proper cooking (internal temperature of 160F for 15 sec.)
2. Pasteurization of milk and fruit juices
3. Implementation of Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) in Slaughtering and Meat Processing procedures |
|
|
Term
| What happens in EHEC infections? |
|
Definition
| Occur 4 days post exposure, and you get watery to dysentery-like diarrhea, intense abdominal pain, 6-7 days of bloody diarrhea, hemorrhage and edema in the lamina propria. Resolution occurs in 3-10 days. |
|
|
Term
| What can patients with EHEC infections also develop? |
|
Definition
| Can also develop hemolytic uremic syndrom (HUS) - about 6% |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Acute kidney failure, hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia.
Mortality rate is 5-15%.
Treatment is transfusion and dialysis |
|
|
Term
| How many salmonella infections occur every year in the US? |
|
Definition
| 40,000 cases of salmonellosis are reported, and estimated that approximately 400 people die each year from acute salmonellosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the three forms of Salmonellosis in humans and what organisms are associated with each? |
|
Definition
1. Typhoid fever - S. tyhpi
2. Paratyphoid fever (enteric fever) - S. parathyphi A, S. schotmulleri, S. hirshfeldii
3. Gastroenteritis - S. enterica serovars
|
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of salmonellosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you get Typhoid fever and what are the symptoms? |
|
Definition
Get it from ingestion of contaminated food or water.
Symptoms are fever, malaise, headache, and anorexia (no diarrhea). When bacteria are released into the bloodstream it also results in high fever, delerium, abdominal tenderness, and maculopapular erythematous lesions on the abdomen (rose spots). |
|
|
Term
| How does typhoid fever spread? |
|
Definition
| Bacteria multiply in the small intestine, invade across the mucosa, and multiply in the lamina propria (facultative intracellular parasites in gut associated monocytes). Dissemination occurs via the reticuloendothelial system (lungs, liver, spleen, and bone marrow). |
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of typhoid fever? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What is the time line of typhoid fever? |
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Definition
At 2-3 weeks, diarrhea begins (reinfection of the intestine via an infected gall bladder)
Necrosis of the Peyer's Patches (antigen-antibody interaction mediated). Can lead to peritonitis
Chronic infection
Septicemia can lead to abscess formation anywhere in the body.
Shedding of organisms can occur for weeks or can be chronic (extending beyond a year) |
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Term
| True/False: Humans are the only natural reservoir of typhoid fever. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the presentations of Paratyphoid fever? |
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Definition
| Similar to typhoid fever, just with different Salmonella species and it is usually a milder disease. |
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Term
| Who was the person that was most identified with the 1906 and 1915 epidemics of Tyhpoid fever? |
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Definition
| Typhoid Mary! (Mary Mallon) |
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Term
| Is gastroenteritis salmonellosis a zoonotic disease? |
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Definition
| Yes! Often foodborne (meat, chicken, eggs, and milk) |
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Term
| What age groups are most affected by gastroenteritis salmonellosis? |
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Definition
| Children and the elderly (severe for them while usually mild) |
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Term
| What are the symptoms of gastroenteritis salmonellosis? |
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Definition
| Diarrhea, abdominal cramps, chills, fever, nausea, or vomting, headache, etc. |
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Term
| Where are gastroenteritis salmonella species found? |
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Definition
| Found in the gut. Requires replication of the organism in the gut so it usually takes 24-48 hours before symptoms of diarrhea and abdominal pain occur |
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Term
| What are the common serotypes of gastroenteritis and where is it found? |
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Definition
Typhimurium: Chicken meat - most prevalent
Enteritidis: Eggs and chicken - most prevalent
Heidelberg: Chicken meat - most prevalent
Hadar: Cattle
Newport: Cattle
Dublin: Cattle |
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Term
| When was salmonella used as a bioterrorism agent? |
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Definition
| 1984 in the Delles, Oregon. Trying to influence local elections. Followers of Bhagwan Shree Rajneesh. |
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Term
| What is a common source of zoonotic transmission of salmonellosis? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the two Multi-Drug Resistant (MDR) Salmonella? |
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Definition
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Term
| What drugs is S. tyhpimurium DT104 resistant to and what is the mortality rate? |
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Definition
Drugs - ampicillin, chloramphenicol, streptomycin, sulfas, tetracylcine; some to quinolones
Mortality is 40% in infected cattle (zoonotic agent) |
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Term
| What drugs is S. newport resistant to? |
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Definition
Drugs - most beta-lactam antibiotics, chloramphenicol, streptomycin, and tetracycline.
Resistance is mediated by a plasmid
Most outbreaks associated with exposure to dairy farms. |
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Term
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Definition
| A disease characterized by production of large volumes of watery diarrhea (up to 20 liters/day). It is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality of impoverished people throughout history |
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Term
| What is the source of infection for cholera? |
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Definition
| Fecally contaminated food or water |
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Term
| How does the Cholera toxin work? |
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Definition
Cholera A-B type toxin binds to epithelial cells in the small intestine and the A subunit enters cells and ADP-ribosylates the G protein regulator of adenylate cyclase, activating the enzyme. The resulting elevated cAMP leads to an outpouring of fluid and electrolytes into the lumen of the gut.
Toxin is very similar to the labile toxin of ETEC strains. |
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Term
| How do you treat cholera? |
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Definition
| Treat with orally administered fluids because absorptive properties of the gut are normal |
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Term
| What is the problem associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus? |
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Definition
| Gastroenteritis. Associated with the consumption of raw, improperly cooked, or cooked, recontaminated fish and shellfish. |
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Term
| What symptoms are shown in gastroenteritis associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus? |
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Definition
| Diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, headache, fever, and chills |
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Term
| V. vulnificus can cause disease people who do what? |
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Definition
| Eat contaminated seafood or have an open wound that is exposed to seawater |
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Term
| What are the symptoms of Vibrio vulnificus? |
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Definition
| Vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. |
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Term
| What can happen to immunocompromised people, especially those with chronic liver disease, infected with V. vulnificus? |
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Definition
| It can infect the bloodstream, causing a severe and life-threatening illness characterized by fever and chills, decreased blood pressure (septic shock), and blistering skin lesions. Bloodstream infections are fatal about 50% of the time. |
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Term
| What is the leading cause of bacterial diarrheal illness in U.S.? |
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Definition
| Camplylobacter infections |
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Term
| True/False: Camplylobacter infections occur as part of large outbreaks? |
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Definition
| FALSE: isolated, sporadic events |
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Term
| What age group is more frequently affected by Camplyobacter infections? |
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Definition
| Children under five years and young adults (15-29) |
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Term
| What is the species that is the main cause of Campylobacter food poisoning? |
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Definition
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Term
| How is Campylobacter transmitted? |
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Definition
1. Contaminated food (particularly poultry)
2. Un-treated water
3. Raw milk
4. Contact with infected animals (particularly cats and puppies)
5. Can be spread from person to person by the fecal-oral route |
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Term
| What percentage of poultry for human consumption is contaminated with Campylobacter? |
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Definition
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Term
| When do symptoms of campylobacteriosis usually occur? |
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Definition
| Usually occur within 2 to 10 days |
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Term
| What are the symptoms of campylobacteriosis? |
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Definition
1. Diarrhea (may contain blood or mucus)
2. Fever
3. Nausea
4. Vomiting
5. Abdominal pain |
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Term
| What is the treatment of campylobacteriosis? |
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Definition
| Most people will recover without specific treatment, but in severe cases antibiotics can be used. |
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Term
| What are some complications of campylobacteriosis? |
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Definition
1. Meningitis
2. Urinary tract infections
3. Septicemia
4. Reactive arthritis (rare and almost always short-term)
5. Guillain-Barre syndrome, an unusual type of paralysis (rare) |
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Term
| Is Campylobacteriosis zoonotic? |
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Definition
| Yes? - see case report on slide 34 of this powerpoint. |
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Term
| What are the symptoms of Yersinia enterocolitica? |
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Definition
| Common symptoms in children are fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea which is often bloody. In older children and adults, right-sided abdominal pain and fever may be the predominant symptoms and may be confused w/appendicitis. |
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Term
| What age group is most often affected by Yersinia enterocolitica? |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you get get a yersiniosis infection? |
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Definition
| Most often acquired by eating contaminated food, especially raw or undercooked pork products. Drinking contaminated unpasteurized milk or untreated water can also transmit. Occasionally occurs after contact with infected animals. |
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Term
| What are the skin infections seen with Staphylococcus aureus? |
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Definition
1. Folliculitis
2. Boils
3. Pyogenic infections
4. Impetigo
5. Scalded Skin Syndrome |
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Term
| What is a serious toxin produced by certain strains of S. aureus? |
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Definition
| Toxic Shock Syndrome toxin |
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Term
| What are the symptoms of toxic shock syndrome? |
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Definition
| Sudden onset of fever, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle aches and rash. Can rapidly progress to severe ad intractable hypotension and multiorgan system dysfunction. Desquamation, particularly on the palms and soles can occur 1-2 weeks after onset of illness. 5% of all cases are fatal. |
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Term
| What is the usual source of food poisoning? |
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Definition
| Source is food handler, not animal isolates usually |
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Term
| True/False - food poisoning is intoxication with a relatively heat stable protein enterotoxin. |
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Definition
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Term
| Is food poisoning rapid or slow onset? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the main clinical signs with Staphylococcal enterotoxins?
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Definition
| Vomiting and Diarrhea! (two buckets) |
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Term
| What is unique about Staphylococcal enterotoxins? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does a superantigen do? |
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Definition
| Allows the non-specific binding of MHC II with CD4+ T cells, resulting in polyclonal T cell activation |
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Term
| What are the three types of MRSA? |
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Definition
1. Hospital-associated strains
2. Community-associated strains
3. Veterinary clinical strains |
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Term
| What is Listeria monocytogenes? |
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Definition
| Gram-positive rod bacteria |
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Term
| What is unique about Listeria monocytogenes? |
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Definition
| Will grow at refrigerator temperatures! (not very quickly, but will increase in numbers) |
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Term
| Where is Listeria monocytogenes found? |
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Definition
1. In soil and the intestinal tract of many species of animals
2. In feces and fecally contaminated materials
3. In milk |
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Term
| What age group(s) are most severely affected by listeriosis? |
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Definition
| Infants, elderly, and immunocompromised |
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Term
| What is the correlation btwn pregnancy and listeriosis? |
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Definition
| Pregnant women are about 20 times more likely than other healthy adults to get listeriosis. Listeria infections have been linked to late-term miscarriages in pregnant women. |
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Term
| What symptoms are seen in adult disease listeriosis? |
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Definition
| Meningitis, septicemia, and endocarditis |
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Term
| How does listeria get to the CNS or fetus? |
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Definition
| After ingestion of contaminated food, the bacteria breach the intestinal barrier, travel via the bloodstream, and cross the blood-brain barrier to infect the CNS and also the placenta of pregnant women to infect the fetus. Does this by the actin tails and a double layer of protection around the bacteria. The double layer allows it to move from cell to cell w/o being exposed to the outside. |
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Term
| What problems are seen with neonatal infections (granulomatosis infantiseptica) of listeriosis? |
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Definition
In utero infections - abortion
At birth - sepsis, pneumonia, fetal distress, seizures, rash, abscesses and granulomas
Exposure during vaginal delivery - septicemia, meningitis, meningoencephalitis
High mortality rate
Mother is usually asymptomatic |
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Term
| What is the treatment for listeriosis? |
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Definition
| It is sensitive to antibiotics. Treatment of encephalitis success depends on the stage of the disease |
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Term
| What is the advice for pregnant women and at-risk consumers to avoid listeriosis? |
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Definition
1. Do not eat hot dogs, luncheon meats, or deli meats unless they are reheated until steaming hot
2. Do not eat soft cheeses (hard cheeses, semi-soft cheese, pasteurized processed cheeses, cream cheese, and cottage cheese are safe)
3. Do not eat refrigerated pate or meat spreads
4. Do not eat refrigerated smoked seafood unless it is an ingredient in a cooked dish such as a casserole
5. Do not drink raw (unpasteurized) milk or eat food that contain unpasteurized milk |
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Term
| What is Clostridium botulinum? |
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Definition
Botulism is a gram positive, endospore-forming, anaerobic bacterium.
Spores are heat resistant.
Found in soil
Disease is an intoxication |
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Term
| How much botulism toxin does it take to cause disease and what type of disease does it cause? |
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Definition
Only a few nanograms causes illness.
All 7 neurotoxin serotypes cause flaccid paralysis by binding the neuromuscular junctions. |
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Term
| Is the toxin of botulism destroyed by heat? |
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Definition
| Yes the TOXIN is heat sensitive - destroyed by boiling |
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Term
| Are the 7 neurotoxin serotypes of botulism host specific? |
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Definition
| NO, there is some host bias but there is a lot of overlap as well |
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Term
| What are the three forms of botulism and are they fatal? |
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Definition
1. Foodborne
2. Wound
3. Infant
All are fatal (100% if untreated)
Incubation period: 12-36 hours |
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Term
| What causes foodborne botulism? |
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Definition
| Preformed toxin ingested from contaminated food - most common source is from home-canned foods |
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Term
| What symptoms are seen in human adult disease of foodborne botulism? |
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Definition
| Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, double vision (very important symptom), difficulty speaking or swallowing, descending weakness or paralysis, symmetrical flaccid paralysis, respiratory muscle paralysis |
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Term
| What is the most common form of botulism in the US? |
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Definition
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Term
| How do people get infant botulism? |
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Definition
| Ingest spores (from honey, food, etc.) which germinate and produce toxin in the GIT |
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Term
| What is the pathophysiology of infant botulism? |
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Definition
1. Toxin is from infection in the GIT vs. ingestion of toxin in adult disease
2. Lack of competitive intestinal flora
3. Neuroparalytic disease caused by heat-labile toxin
4. Irreversibly binds to presynaptic nerve endings of cranial and peripheral cholinergic nerves
5. Blocks calcium dependent exocytosis of acetylcholine vesicles |
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Term
| What are the risk factors with infant botulism? |
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Definition
1. Transition in feedings
2. Spore density
3. Local construction or family member working with soil
4. Honey or corn syrup consumption (4-25%) |
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Term
| What is the Clinical presentation of infant botulism? |
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Definition
95% of cases occur in the first 6 months of life
Think there is a SIDS association
Descending neuromuscular blockade - cranial nerves, trunk, extremities, diaphragm |
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Term
| What are the symptoms and signs of Infant Botulism? |
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Definition
Symptoms - constipation (most common), lack of expression, weak suck and prolonged feeding time, drooling, floppiness
Signs - poor head control, loss of gag/suck, sluggish or nonreactive pupils, hypotonia/hyporeflexia, diminished range of eye movements |
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Term
| How does Wound botulism infect people/animals? |
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Definition
| The organism goes into the wound and develops under anaerobic conditions. From ground-in dirt or gravel. Organism does not penetrate intact skin |
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Term
| What is the treatment for botulism? |
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Definition
Supportive - ventilator (may take months)
Antitoxin - inactivates circulating toxin but does not neutralize bound toxin (only at CDC)
Long term (months) - problem if there is a large number of cases
Recovered patients are not immune |
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Term
| Can/has botulism be used as a bioweapon? |
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Definition
| Yes to both. It is the most poisonous substance known |
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Term
| What is Clostridium perfringens? |
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Definition
Anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod.
Commonly found in the GI tract of humans and animals |
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Term
| What does C. perfringens illness look like? |
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Definition
Intense abdominal crampls and diarrhea
Starts 8-22 hours after consumption
Usually over w/in 24 hours |
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Term
| How do you get disease from C. perfringens? |
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Definition
From ingesting the organisms, followed by sporulation in the gut and then toxin release.
Results from temperature abuse of food |
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Term
| What is enteritis necroticans (pigbel)? |
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Definition
An often fatal illness characterized by hemorrhagic, inflammatory, or ischemic necrosis of the jejunum caused by Clostridium perfringens type C.
Bacteria multiply in the gut and produce beta toxin.
Death occurs by infection and necrosis of intestines and from the resulting septicemia. |
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Term
| What type of virus is Hepatitis A? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Usually a mild illness characterized by sudden onset of fever, malaise, nausea, anorexia, and abdominal discomfort, followed in several days by jaundice |
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Term
| How is Hepatitis A spread? |
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Definition
| Excreted in feces of infected people and can produce clinical disease when susceptible individuals consume contaminated water or foods (water, shellfish, and salads are the most frequent sources) |
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Term
| When are you in most danger of spreading Hepatitis A? |
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Definition
| During the middle of the incubation period, well before the first presentation of symptoms |
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Term
| What age group is hepatitis A more common in? |
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Definition
| Disease is more common in adults than in children |
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Term
| Is disease mild or severe in Hepatitis A? |
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Definition
| Usually mild and recovery is complete in 1-2 weeks. Occasionally severe and recovery can take several months. |
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Term
| What is the only common vaccine-preventable food-borne disease in the US? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of virus is Hepatitis E? |
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Definition
| A non-enveloped RNA virus |
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Term
| What is the case fatality rate of Hepatitis E? |
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Definition
Overall - 1-3%
Pregnant women - 15-25% (esp. 3rd trimester) |
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Term
| Does illness severity increase or decrease with age in Hepatitis E disease? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are most outbreak of Hepatitis E associated with? |
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Definition
| Fecally contaminated drinking water (also uncooked shellfish, uncooked fruit/vegetables not peeled or prepared by the traveler) |
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Term
| What virus is most commonly associated with cruise ships? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of virus is norovirus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Is norovirus contagious, and stable? |
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Definition
| Yes to both! Highly contagious and able to survive freezing and high temperatures |
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Term
| How is norovirus transmitted? |
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Definition
1. Fecal-oral route
2. Indirect contact w/the virus on contaminated surfaces
3. Via contaminated food and water
4. Shellfish from sewage contaminated water |
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Term
| What are the symptoms of norovirus and when do they start? |
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Definition
Start w/in 24-48 hours after exposure
Symptoms - vomiting, watery diarrhea, stomach cramping, low grade fever occurs in half of cases |
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Term
| What is the treatment for norovirus? |
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Definition
No specific treatment!
If have diarrhea and/or vomiting drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration
Medications (i.e. antibiotics which don't work on viruses) should be avoided |
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