Term
|
Definition
| Proton pump inhibitor - blocks H+. Treats gastric ulcers in dogs, cats, horses. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| H2 antagonists. Anti-ulcer tx or prophylaxis. Of the H2 antagonists, the most used, most potent, longest-lasting. Oral or IV. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| H2 Antagonist. Medium potency/duration. Inhibits p-450. Pro-kinetic. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| H2 Antagonist. Least potent/shortest duration. Inhibits p-450. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cytoprotectant (antacid). Forms paste-like insoluble complex that binds to ulcer sites. Stimulates local protectives - adjuvant to other therapy. Works up to 6 hours. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cytoprotectant (antacid). Anti-secretory (inhibits gastric secretion) and cytoprotective. Treats/prevents gastric ulcers. NOT for pregnancy --> uterine contractions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cytoprotectant. Induces mucous, bicarbonate in stomach - weak anti-microbial. Treats diarrhea and Helicobacter pylori. Caution in cats (can't metabolize well) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Digestant.
Helps to digest and absorb fats/proteins/carbs. Powder on food. Treats pancreatic insufficiency. |
|
|
Term
| What does GABA do (GI)? What does serotonin do (GI)? |
|
Definition
GABA - drives appetite, suppresses satiety.
Serotoin - inhibits appetite, enhances satiety. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Appetite stimulant.
Serotonin antagonist. Oral, dogs/cats. Treats anorexia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Appetite stimulant.
Serotonin antagonist. Oral, cats. Treats anorexia. |
|
|
Term
| Benzodiazepine (Diazepam) (GI) |
|
Definition
Appetite stimulant.
Increases GABA. Oral/IV, mostly cats. Treats anorexia. |
|
|
Term
| Glucocorticoids (prednisone, dexamethasone) (GI) |
|
Definition
Appetite stimulants.
Stimulates appetite - treats anorexia. Small or large animal. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Appetite stimulant (ex: marijuana) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Appetite suppressant.
MOA: Blocks process of fat assembly and fat absorption, increases satiety singal. Oral, anti-obesity, dogs. |
|
|
Term
| Which animals lack a vomiting reflex? |
|
Definition
| Horses, ruminants, rabbits, guinea pigs |
|
|
Term
| What are the centrally-acting emetics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Central-Acting Emetic.
Emetic dog drug of choice. (cats = controversial)
Stimulates dopamine in CRTZ, rapid-acting. IV, IM, conjunctival. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Central-acting emetic.
Emetic option for cats, rapid-acting. Also used as a sedative. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Peripheral-acting emetic.
MOA: stimulates afferent receptors in pharynx. Apply to pharynx, induce reflex emesis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Peripheral-acting emetic.
Irritates serotonin receptors in stomach, oral. Not used much. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
peripheral-acting emetic.
seldom used. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-emetic.
Anti-substance P (NK-1 receptor blocker). Treats acute emesis (SQ) in dogs and prevents motion sickness (oral). Suppresses both peripheral and centrally-mediated emesis. Most powerful blocker, very safe. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-emetic.
Anti-serotonin (5HT3) peripherally and at CRTZ (central). Treats severe vomiting, oral or IV.
Used commonly with chemotherapy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-emetic.
Anti-dopamine at CRTZ (central action). Treats severe vomiting, also prokinetic. Prevents gastric atony (needed for vomit reflex). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-emetic.
Anti-dopamine. Blocks dopamine at CRTZ. "broad spectrum" anti-emetic for dogs and cats, oral or IM. Can cause hypotension or sedation. |
|
|
Term
| How does serotonin affect the GI tract? Motilin? Dopamine? |
|
Definition
Serotonin/motilin --> increases ACh --> increases motility
Dopamine --> inhibits ACh --> stops motility |
|
|
Term
| Dimenhydrinate (Diphenhydramine, Promethazine) |
|
Definition
Anti-emetic.
Anti-histamine/anti-cholinergic at vestibular apparatus. Prevents motion sickness in dogs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-emetic.
Anti-cholinergic. Not used - too many adverse affects (tachycardia, constipation, dry mouth) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pro-kinetic. (Also anti-emetic)
Blocks dopamine and gets rid of block of motility. Used orally in dogs, cats, and horses. May cause CNS related excitement/behavior. Also, anti-serotonin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pro-kinetic.
Increases ACh via serotonin. Not used (compounding) hardly. Fatal arrhythmia in human (not in animals, but still pulled from market). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Prokinetic (also anti-ulcer)
Inhibits Acetylcholinesterase activity --> stimulates GI motility. Oral, cats and dogs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Prokinetic.
Mimics motilin to increase ACh release. Stimulates -upper- GI motility. Treats reflux esophagitis, gastric stasis in dogs/cats (oral), or gastric emptying in horses (IV). Can cause severe diarrhea in adult horses. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Prokinetic.
Prevents post-operative ileus in horses. IV bolus. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hyperosmotic laxative (most effective in this class!)
Forms acid w/ colonic bacteria. Laxative for small animal (but tastes bad to cats) |
|
|
Term
| Magnesium sulfate, Magnesium hydroxide "Saline carthartics" |
|
Definition
Hyperosmotic laxative.
Short-term, increases fecal water in 6-9 hours. Relieves constipation or cleanses colon. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Laxative - lubricant/surfactant.
Salts draw in water, soften fecal mass. Fecal impaction horses. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bulk laxative.
Fiber supplements, increase fecal bulk.
Dogs cats mild constipation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bulk laxative.
Collects sand - equine sand colic. |
|
|
Term
| Wheat bran, canned pumpkin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Opiate Anti-diarrheal.
Increases GI segmentation, slows transit to increase water absorption.
Contraindicated in infectious/toxigenic diarrhea. Can cause CNS excitation in cats. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Opiate anti-diarrheal.
For large animals (like loperamide) |
|
|
Term
| Diphenyloxylate HCl/Atropine |
|
Definition
Opiate anti-diarrheal.
Atropine is anti-cholinergic. Inhibit GI motility. Propensity to develop life-threatening ileus. Questionable use since some diarrhea can be hypomotile. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Anti-cholinergic anti-diarrheal, also anti-emetic. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Adsorbent anti-diarrheal.
Prevents absorption of chemicals/drugs. Treats acute diarrhea/poisoning. |
|
|
Term
| Di-tri-octahedral Smectite, "Biosponge" |
|
Definition
Adsorbent, protectant anti-diarrheal.
Binds bacterial toxins, viruses, etc. Treats acute diarrhea, powder/paste for horses. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-diarrheal:
weak anti-microbial, cytoprotectant, anti-endotoxic. Use to treat acute diarrhea (and prevent ulcers). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Claims to bind endotoxins, but no clinical evidence of efficacy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-diarrheal.
Anti-bacterial. Treats chronic diarrhea; dogs and cats with IBD, colitis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-diarrheal.
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. Treats IBD colitis. Oral, dogs and cats. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-diarrheal.
Reduces severity of IBD in humans, animal efficacy unknown. |
|
|
Term
| Poloxalene-Molasses-salt block |
|
Definition
Anti-bloat.
Breaks bubbles in FROTHY bloat in ruminants. Preventative or treatment. |
|
|
Term
| Glutamate receptors... what ions? Excitatory or inhibitory? |
|
Definition
| Na+ and Ca+2. Excitatory - lowers the seizure threshold (easier to have a seizure) |
|
|
Term
| GABA receptors... what ions? Excitatory or inhibitory? |
|
Definition
| Cl-. Inhibitory - hyperpolarizes cells, less likely to have a seizure. |
|
|
Term
| What is the ideal seizure drug? (generally) |
|
Definition
Good CNS penetration (lipophilic).
Rapid onset (acute), long duration (chronic).
Minimal sedation, minimal CV effects.
IV (acute), Oral (chronic) |
|
|
Term
| Benzodiazepine (Diazepam) |
|
Definition
Prototype, drug of choice for acute seizures, ALL species.
Increases inhibitory effect of GABA.
Not as good for chronic in dogs (resistance), but okay for cats as 2nd choice.
Can be given IV (2 minutes), or for take-home: rectal, intra-naal. Lipophilic. If seizures persist (status elipticus), can do CRI. Phase 1 reaction in liver yield metabolites (active metabolites - can accumulate = prolonged sedation). Very safe, though cats may show bizarre behavior. Rare idiosyncratic reaction (acute hepatic necrosis) in cats. If there is resistance, try diazepam bolus/CRI OR anesthetics (propofol, ketamine, pentobarbital - careful!) |
|
|
Term
| Drugs to avoid that promote seizures |
|
Definition
| Enrofloxacin, theophylline, procaine (anything -"caine"). doubtful acepromazine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Anti-seizure, but with a longer half-life than diazepam (may be preferred in status epilepticus) |
|
|
Term
| Phenobarbital - indication |
|
Definition
Anti-seizure (chronic)
Barbituate that enhances the inhibitory effect of GABA (also inhibits calcium channels). Depresses ALL excitable tissue - can cause CV and respiratory depression. |
|
|
Term
| Phenobarbital disposition |
|
Definition
| Oral: peak 4-6 hours. IV = acute seizures. Less lipophilic, slower to CNS. 2 day half life in dogs, 43 hours in cats. |
|
|
Term
| Phenobarbital elimination and metabolism and drug interactions. |
|
Definition
| 25% in urine, 75% in liver. It is a very POTENT inducer of p450, so it can interact with drugs that inhibit p450 and increase phenobarbital half-life (chloramphenicol, cimetidine, ketoconazole) or drugs that increase p450 which decreases the phenobarbital half-life (anti-convulsants, rifampin, quinidine/warfarin/propranolol). Can induce its own metabolism - individual variation. Need therapeutic drug monitoring! |
|
|
Term
| When do we do therapeutic drug monitoring with phenobarbital? |
|
Definition
| Wait till steady state (10-12 days) or 5 half-lives. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.when steady state is reached, changing a dose, or immediately have loading dose.
2. When seizures aren't controlled despite adequate dose
3. Liver toxicity (dose dependent)
4. Every 6-12 months to make sure drug is in appropriate doses. |
|
|
Term
| When do you get a trough sample? |
|
Definition
Right before the owner is about to give a new dose.
Rule of thumb - if the half-life 2-3x longer than the dosing frequency, peak and trough will be similar. Peak is at 4 hours! |
|
|
Term
| What is a loading dose? Be specific to phenobarbital |
|
Definition
| If you don't want to wait 10-12 days to do TDM, you can do a loading dose. C x Vd. C = desired serum concentration, Vd = estimated volume of distribution. |
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse effects with phenobarbital? |
|
Definition
| Sedation, ataxia, weakness (will improve). High doses = CV depression, respiratory depression, coma, death. PU/PD will improve. T4 decreases. Myelosuppression (neutrophils). Hepatic induction (SAP, ALT increase and bile acids increase). Monitor liver function and bone marrow function! |
|
|
Term
| How is potassium bromide excreted? |
|
Definition
| Renal, NOT liver. Good for dogs with liver problems. |
|
|
Term
| What is the half-life of potassium bromide? And thus the steady state? |
|
Definition
dogs: 21-24 days; Cats: 10 days
for dogs, 100 days |
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse effects of potassium bromide? |
|
Definition
| Cats: bronchial asthma!! Most vets avoid using potassium bromide in cats. Can cause vomiting (salt), pancreatitis, appetite stimulant, diet (high Cl- diet can increase excretion of bromide). |
|
|
Term
| What does ACh (parasympathetic) due to the bronchi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do alpha-2 adrenergics (sympathetic) do to the bronchi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do beta-2 adrenergics (sympathetic) do to the bronchi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Stimulates beta-2 receptors, bronchial SM relaxation.
Treats asthma, allergic bronchitis, recurrent airway obstruction. Can cross-react with beta-1 --> tachycardia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Stimulates beta-2 receptors, bronchial SM relaxation.
Treats asthma, allergic bronchitis, recurrent airway obstruction. Can cross-react with beta-1 --> tachycardia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Stimulates beta-2 receptors, bronchial SM relaxation.
Treats asthma, allergic bronchitis, recurrent airway obstruction. Can cross-react with beta-1 --> tachycardia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Beta-2 specific!
"longer acting" than epinephrine.
Treats bronchoconstriction in small animals, Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO) in horses.
Oral = longer-acting. also injectable, aerosol. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Beta agonist.
Bronchodilator - illegal in food animal!! increases muscle mass and decreases fat. Avoid chronic use! |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bronchodilator - illegal in food animal!! increases muscle mass and decreases fat. Avoid chronic use! |
|
|
Term
| Theophylline, theobromine |
|
Definition
Decreases breakdown of cAMP by inhibiting PDE. Bronchodilator (anti-inflammatory at lower dose)
Oral salt used. Cardiac and CNS stimulation. Narrow therapeutic window - causes CNS excitation (horses, humans), tremors, tachycardia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| POTENT anti-cholinergic. Useful rescue drug. Anti-cholinergic side effects (mydriasis, ileus, tachycardia) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Salt of atropine.
Topical atropine - LOCAL throat. Aerosol in horses (RAO) and humans (asthmas) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Anti-inflammatory. Anti-inflammatory drug of choice for respiratory disease. Enhances beta-2 agonist action. (also, enhances appetite) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mucolytic.
Reduces the viscosity of respiratory secretions. Oral or inhalation. May she bronchospasm. Treats tylenol toxicosis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mucokinetics (expectorants)
Increases water secretions in airways. Easier to cough up debris. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mucokinetics (expectorants)
Centrally-acting muscle relaxant, improves airway secretion clearance. |
|
|
Term
| when are antitussives indicated? |
|
Definition
| Non-productive coughing. NOT productive. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Centrally-acting, potent antitussive.
Oral in dogs.
Avoid in cats due to CNS excitation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| MOST potent anti-tussive effect. Most commonly used antitussive in dogs. oral. NOT in cats due to CNS excitation! |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ONLY centrally-acting antitussive that can be used in cats!! |
|
|
Term
| Phenylephrine, pseudophedrine |
|
Definition
Decongestant.
Adrenergic vasoconstriction to reduce capillary pressure. "dries up" mucus membranes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Stimulates respiration after general anesthesia. Dogs, cats, horses. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Refractory cases of epilepsy. Human drug that is expensive and difficult to get.
Inhibits glutamate. Blocks L-type calcium channels.
Good add-on! |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Used for refractory cases of epilepsy.
Blocks voltage-dependent sodium and calcium channels.
Oral, renally-excreted.
Add-on |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Refractory cases of epilepsy.
Prevents glutamate release. Expensive, safe, add-on drug. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Refractory cases of epilepsy.
GABA agonist. Renal excretion. Oral. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Refractory cases of epilepsy.
GABA agonist. Renal excretion. Oral. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NOT for dogs.
Good for cats - they don't develop resistance as easy and it's a shorter half-life.
May cause hepatic necrosis (fatal). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Decreases in dopamine.
Horses = long-term sedation.
Horses can have weird side effects (restlessness, sweating, striking, circling). Can appear rabid.
Time its detectable is less than time effective.
Lasts about 2 weeks. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Similar to fluphenazine.
Decreases dopamine.
Used on agalactia in mares. Lasts about 2 weeks. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inhibits dopamine by decreasing stores of monoamines.
Used to "Mellow" horses and decreases lactation. 2 weeks duration, oral, IM. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Narcolepsy.
Blocks NE re-uptake. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Separation anxiety, OCD
Blocks serotonin re-uptake. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inhibits re-uptake of serotonin and NE.
OCD. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| SSRI. Compulsive disorders, separation anxiety or depression. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
increases in GABA's inhibitory effect.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitor-B.
Cognitive disorders (endocrine disorders) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Increase GABA's inhibitory effect.
Monamine oxidase inhibitor B
Cognitive dysfunction (pituitary hyperadrenocorticism) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Serotonin receptor agonist.
Inappropriate elimination, sedation, episodic phobias. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Drug of choice for life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmias. Rapid, IV, high first-pass.
NOT good for atrial arrhythmias.
Works on short-duration Na+ channel blockade. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Oral. good for supra-ventricular arrhythmias. Works on short-duration Na+ channels blockade. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
atrial fibrillation and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.
Prolonged block of fast Na+ channels. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pre-ventricular contractions, ventricular tachycardias, atrial fibrillation
Blocks fast Na+ channels
Side effect: AV blocks (sudden death) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pre-ventricular contractions, ventricular tachycardias, atrial fibrillation
Side effect: AV blocks (sudden death)
Blocks fast Na+ channels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Non-selective beta-blocker.
Tachyarrhythmias.
Do NOT use on asthma patients (beta-2 bronchodilation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Non-selective beta-blocker.
Tachyarrythmias.
Do NOT use on asthma patients (beta-2 bronchodilation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Selective Beta-1 blockers. Much safer in asthma patients (beta-2s are bronchodilators) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dogs with ventricular tachycardia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Treats sinus bradycardia or AV block.
Inhibits ACh, counteracts excess vagal tone. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Treats sinus bradycardia or AV block.
Inhibits ACh, counteracts excess vagal tone. |
|
|
Term
| Tissue plasminogen activators (t-PA) |
|
Definition
| Thrombolytic. Safer than streptokinase and urokinase. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Thrombolytic.
Facilitates the cleavage of plasminogen to plasmin. Hypersensitivity rxns. Risk of hemorrhage. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-platelets.
Decreases platelet TXA2 - irreversible inhibition of COX-1.
Treats thromboembolism, DIC, hypercoagulable states. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anti-coagulant.
Binds and activates antithrombin 3 - irreversibly binds to thrombin.
Can cause hemorrhage, antidote available (protamine sulfate) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Feline thromboembolism.
Anti-platelets, acts synergistically with aspirin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Used for heparin-evoked hemorrhages. May cause anaphylaxis. |
|
|
Term
| Low Molecular Weight Heparin |
|
Definition
Purified from unfractioned heparin.
Inactivates factor Xa, which can be measured to see response to therapy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Thromboembolic disease.
Rodenticide toxicity!!
Oral, protein bound, p-450-mediated metabolism.
Inhibits hepatic synthesis of vitamin-K dependent clotting factors.
Measure one-step protothrombin time. |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of Cyclophosphamide? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| Alkylation of DNA via cross-linking and DNA strand breaks. NOT cell cycle specific. |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of Cisplatin? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| Alkylation of DNA via cross-linking and DNA strand breaks. NOT cell cycle specific. |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of Methotrexate? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| Folic-acid analog. Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase. Impairs DNA synthesis. Cell cycle specific! |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of 5-fluorouracil? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| Folic-acid analog. Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase. Impairs DNA synthesis. Cell cycle specific! |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of Vincristine? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| Mitotic inhibitor. Destroys mitotic spindle, arrests cell division. Cell cycle specific! |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of Doxorubicin? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| DNA intercalation - prevents DNA/RNA synthesis. Cell cycle specific. |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of Toceranib, Masitinib? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| Inhibition of selective tyrosine kinase -> decreased cell signaling/tumor growth (which uses cKIT, platelet-derived growth factor). Yes specific? |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of L-asparaginase? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| Hydrolyzes L-asparagine. Cell cycle specific. |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of prednisone? Is it cell-cycle specific? |
|
Definition
| Multiple! Suppresses lymphocyte mitosis, prevents protein synthesis. NOT cell cycle specific. |
|
|
Term
| Indications for griseofulvin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is good for treating Cryptococcus? |
|
Definition
| 5-flucytosine. Need to add another anti-fungal though due to resistance! |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is good for Candida "Thrush" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is good for Blastomycoces? |
|
Definition
| Azoles. Ketaconazole (FIRST CHOICE, cheaper, but more hepatoxic. Itraconazole (expensive, less hepatotoxic) |
|
|
Term
| Which anti-fungal can get into the CSF/joints/etc.? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of the azoles? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits fungal p450 which inhibits the formation of ergosterol and disturbs permeability |
|
|
Term
| Which drug can be used for Actinobacillins (Wooden Tongue) or Actinomyces (Lumpy Jaw)? |
|
Definition
| Iodides. Sodium/potassium iodide. |
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse effect of AZT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the indication of AZT? |
|
Definition
| Improves the clinical signs of FeLV and FIV |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of acyclovir? |
|
Definition
| Nucleoside analog. Phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase. Inhibits DNA polymerase/terminates DNA chain. |
|
|
Term
| What is the indication for acyclovir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of oseltamivir (Tamiflu)? |
|
Definition
| Competitive inhibitor of neuramidase - prevents virus budding |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications for Oseltamivir? |
|
Definition
| Influenza, Equine Influenza A |
|
|
Term
| What drug is best for Equine Influenza A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Thymidine analog; inhibits viral reverse transcriptase |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications of AZT? |
|
Definition
| Improve clinical signs of FeLV and FIV in cats. Retroviruses only! |
|
|
Term
| What do we use for treating FIV and FeLV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the anti-metabolites? |
|
Definition
| Methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil |
|
|
Term
| What are the alkylating agents? |
|
Definition
| Cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, carboplatin |
|
|
Term
| What are the mitotis inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the tyrosine kinase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug can be given ophthalmically? Class? |
|
Definition
| Tobramycin. Aminoglycoside. |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 classes bind to 30S ribosomes? |
|
Definition
| Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines |
|
|
Term
| When should you use Amikacin instead of Gentamicin? |
|
Definition
| Use Amikacin when the foal is septic |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of Aminoglycosides (name 3)? Which species should not get these? |
|
Definition
| Nephrotoxic! (most important) - accumulates in the kidneys. Ototoxic (peak concentrations); Neuromuscular blockade. Do not give to food animals - 18 month WTD because kidneys are edible |
|
|
Term
| Neomycin. What class? How is it applied? |
|
Definition
| Aminoglycoside. Topical or Oral. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Beta-lactams. Monobactam. |
|
|
Term
| Amoxicillin vs. Ampicillin? |
|
Definition
| Amoxicillin - more stable than ampicillin, does better in gastric pH than ampicillin. |
|
|
Term
| Cefazolin. What class? What's it used for? How is it eliminated? |
|
Definition
| 1st generation cephalosporin. Used in conjuction with small animal surgery. Eliminated rapidly by the kidney. |
|
|
Term
| Cephalexin. What class? What's it used for? How is it given? |
|
Definition
| 1st generation cephalosporin. Used for small animal pyoderma, UTIs. Given orally. |
|
|
Term
| Cefadroxil. What class? What's it used for? How is it given? |
|
Definition
| 1st generation cephalosporin. Used for small animal pyoderma, UTIs. Given orally. |
|
|
Term
| Ceftiofur + Sodium. What class? What's it used for clinically? |
|
Definition
| 3rd generation cephalosporin. Used in respiratory diseases in food animals, horses, and dogs. |
|
|
Term
| Cefoxitin. What class? What's it used for? |
|
Definition
| 2nd generation cephalosporin. Not much in vet med, only Bacteroides. |
|
|
Term
| Ceftiofur + Sodium, Hydrochloride, Crystalline Free Acid. Which one lasts the longest and why? |
|
Definition
| Ceftiofur = Crystalline Free Acid. 7 day therapeutic dose. Depot formulation as a crystal. |
|
|
Term
| Crystalline Free Acid. How is it administered? |
|
Definition
| Cattle = by ear! Horses = by neck |
|
|
Term
| Cefovecin. What class? What's it used for? Unique benefit? Adverse effect? |
|
Definition
| 3rd generation cephalosporin. Used for dog and cat skin infections. Long elimination 1/2 life - which can be good, unless an adverse reaction occurs (anaphylaxis, hypersensitivity) - then you must treat for 65 days! |
|
|
Term
| Ceftazidime. What class? What does it treat? What's unique about it? |
|
Definition
| 3rd generation cephalosporin. Active against Pseudomonas. Likely to distribute into barrier-restricted compartment. |
|
|
Term
| Small MBC/MIC = Cidal/Static Large MBC/MIC = Cidal/Static |
|
Definition
| Small MBC/MIC = cidal, Large MBC/MIC = static |
|
|
Term
| Which 4 drugs (that we've discussed so far) can enter barrier-restricted compartments? |
|
Definition
| Ceftazidime, Chloramphenicol, Doxycycline, Rifampin |
|
|
Term
| Compare tetracycline to doxycycline. Which one is better for renal compromised and why? Which one can be taken with food? |
|
Definition
| Doxycycline is better for the renal compromised because it is eliminated in the feces (tetracycline is eliminated by urine). Doxycycline can also be taken with food. |
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of Chloramphenicol? What are its contraindications? Adverse effects? |
|
Definition
| Excellent penetration into abscesses. Contraindicated in food animals. May possibly cause aplastic anemia? (only show in humans) |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about Macrolide disposition? |
|
Definition
| It accumulates in lungs/WBCs |
|
|
Term
| What species is oxytetracycline used in? What is the clinical aspect we discussed? |
|
Definition
| Large animals. Used to treat angular limb deformities in foals. |
|
|
Term
| Erythromycin. What class? What is it's main use? What is a secondary use? |
|
Definition
| Macrolide. Respiratory diseases (i.e. Rhodococcus). It can also be used as a prokinetic (dosed below MIC) |
|
|
Term
| Which drug class is carcinogenic/mutagenic? Therefore, who should not get it? |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole. Pregnant animals |
|
|
Term
| Which drug increases the half-life of other drugs that are eliminated by hepatic metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amikacin. What class? Adverse effects? |
|
Definition
| Aminoglycoside. Nephrotoxic. |
|
|
Term
| Which beta-lactams are resistant to beta-lactamase? |
|
Definition
| Oxacillin, Methicillin, Cloxacillin, Carbapenam (Ibipenam) |
|
|
Term
| How do you administer Procaine Penicillin and Benzathine Penicillin? |
|
Definition
| IM or SQ. This is a depot drug. NOT IV. |
|
|
Term
| How can you decrease the adverse side effects of potassium penicillin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which beta-lactam drugs are anti-pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is the "big gun" saved for MRSA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Cephalosporins are good for Pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is good for treating skin infections in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical indication of Ceftiofur + hydrochloride? How is it administered? |
|
Definition
| Clinical mastitis in lactating dairy cattle. Intramammary infusion. |
|
|
Term
| Cefepime. what class? What is it used for? |
|
Definition
| 4th generation cephalosporin. Life-threatening infections - only as a last resort. |
|
|
Term
| What's a second use of tetracycline? |
|
Definition
| It has immunosuppressant activity (esp. when combined with niacinamide). |
|
|
Term
| When should you not use doxycycline? What could happen? |
|
Definition
| Do not use IV in horses. Fatal cardiovascular collapse. |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are good for intracellular infections? |
|
Definition
| Tetracycline. Also (chloramphenicols, macrolides, and lincosamides) |
|
|
Term
| what is the specific MOA for fluorquinolones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is enrofloxacin metabolized/excreted? |
|
Definition
| 10 - 40% of it is metabolized by the liver into ciprofloxacin. About half of it is then excreted in the urine. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 primary categories that are included in Metronidazole spectrum of activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 drug classes are terrible at treating anaerobes? |
|
Definition
| Aminoglycosides. Fluoroquinolones. |
|
|
Term
| Which class (or classes) of drugs are time-dependent? |
|
Definition
| beta-lactams, macrolides, lincosamides |
|
|
Term
| Which class (or classes) of drugs are concentration dependent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which class of drugs is both concentration-dependent OR AUC dependent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs can be used to treat swine respiratory disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is good for cattle foot rot? How is it given? |
|
Definition
| Florfenicol. IM (2 doses, 48 hours apart) or SQ injection (1 x) |
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse effect of florfenicol? What species is it labeled for? |
|
Definition
| Causes diarrhea in horses. Labeled for food animals only! |
|
|
Term
| What is the resistance mechanism against macrolides? |
|
Definition
| Efflux pumps, and 50S binding site changes |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are known to cause esophageal damage if the pills are given to cats without water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should you administer macrolides in large animals? |
|
Definition
| Depends! If they are adults, ONLY parenteral. If it is a foal for Rhodococcus, then oral admin is okay. |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is good for treating osteomyelitis (incl. dental infections) in small animal? What class is it in? |
|
Definition
| Clindamycin. Lincosamide. |
|
|
Term
| What is the specific MOA of macrolides? |
|
Definition
| Binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit (inhibits peptide bond formation) |
|
|
Term
| What is the specific MOA of rifampin? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| What is the specific MOA of metronidazole? |
|
Definition
| Free radical derivatives in bacteria damage DNA |
|
|
Term
| Which drug class requires therapeutic drug monitoring? You should keep the trough low/high to minimize nephrotoxicity. |
|
Definition
| Aminoglycosides. You should keep the trough LOW to minimize nephrotoxicity. |
|
|
Term
| Which drug class causes clostridial overgrowth in hindgut fermenters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug has flex-labelling? In fact, what does that even mean? |
|
Definition
| Enrofloxacin. It means that the label now considers the targeted pathogen and variable MIC. AKA you can now use Enrofloxacin in dairy replacement heifers. |
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse effect of rifampin? |
|
Definition
| Red colored urine/tears/sweat/etc. Not actually "adverse", just freaks out clients. |
|
|
Term
| Name the 5 adverse effects/contraindications of fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
| 1. Prohibited extra-label use in food animals. 2. Arthropathy in young, growing animals. 3. Retinopathy in cats (dose dependent) 4. Potentiates seizures. 5. drug interactions with methylxanthines (ex: increases serum concentration x2 of theophylline) |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is neurotoxic in horses? Is this dose dependent or not? |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole. Yes, dose dependent. |
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse effect of penicillins? Is this dose-dependent or not? |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity/Anaphylaxis. No, not dose-dependent. |
|
|
Term
| In comparison with the disposition of Na penicillin G, the relatively insoluble benzathine salt of penicillin G has rapid/slow absorption, high/low peak concentration, and long/short duration of effect. |
|
Definition
| Depot penicillins (compared to IV penicillins) have slow absorption, low peak concentration, and long duration of effect. |
|
|
Term
| Which drug would be good for treating Anaplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has a longer half-life: tetracycline or doxycycline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are the chloramphenicol metabolized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse effect of tilmicosin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The maximal achievable plasma concentration of an antibiotic in a particular host is known as ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common mechanism of resistance to cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
| Enzymatic degradation of the drug (AKA beta-lactamases) |
|
|
Term
| Which drug classes are known for their post-antiobiotic effect? |
|
Definition
| Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole |
|
|
Term
| Which drug class has an adverse effect of fatal colitis in ruminants and hindgut fermenters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug class causes discoloration of teeth in neonates and retards fetal and neonatal skeletal development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug should you always use with a 2nd drug, due to its high potential for resistance? |
|
Definition
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