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P&P-1
P&P
168
Veterinary Medicine
Graduate
02/11/2013

Additional Veterinary Medicine Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
_____is a factor which when altered, produces a change in the frequency or characteristic of a disease
Definition
determinant
Term
_______is a state of dysfunc of body detectable by one or more of the person’s senses
Definition
clinical
Term
____ functional or anatomical abnormalities detectable only with dx aids, lab tests, indirect measures
Definition
sub-clinical
Term
_____ is a state of inability to adapt to stressor, leading to phys, behavioral, and physiological changes
Definition
stress
Term
______ is a set of signs or series of events occurring together that often point to a single dz or condition as the cause
Definition
syndrome
Term
_______is any subjective evidence of dz or of a pt’s condition, e.g. such evidence as perceived by the patient, a change in a patient’s condition indicative of some bodily or mental state
Definition
symptom
Term
_____ is an objective physical finding found by the examiner
Definition
sign
Term
_______is a collection of diseases with a common characteristic (major sign) starting point in diagnostic process.
Definition
group syndrome
Term
what is sensitivity?
Definition
measure of the test’s ability to id true positives, given that the tested group is truly positive
Term
what is specificity?
Definition
measure of the test’s ability to id true negatives, given that the tested group is truly negative
Term
what are five consumer issues in food animal production?
Definition
1. Animal welfare
2. want wholesome and economical product
3. environmental impact
4. sustainability
5. organic
Term
what are four parameters of reproduction efficiency in dairy herds?
Definition
  • increases likelihood of cows remaining in herd
  • increases number of cows that spend life in profitable milk prod
  • increases calves born per year
  • reduces involuntary calving
Term
peak milk production in cows is at:
Definition
4 (4-6) weeks postpartum
Term

peak dry matter intake occurs:

Definition

2-3 weeks after peak milk production

Term
T or F: loss of body condition score during lactation in cows is never acceptable.
Definition
F: loss of 1bcs is okay, more than that will interfere with cycling
Term
what is the purpose of the voluntary waiting period? how long is it?
Definition
voluntary 60-70 day waiting for uterus to involute and return to positive energy balance
Term
what is the dry period?
Definition
7th month of gestation, dry period for 2 months to prepare for lactation and to optimize output
Term
how is pregnancy rate calculated?
Definition

#cows pregnant/#cows eligible to become 



or heat detection rate x conception rate

Term
what determines pregnancy rate?
Definition
heat detection and conception rates determine pregnancy rate 
Term
what is the average pregancy rate in the US?
Definition
~18%
Term
beyond _____% pregnancy rate, there is little economic benefit
Definition
30%
Term
what are the 5 C's of dairy replacement rearing?
Definition

o   colostrum

o   cleanliness

o   comfort

o   calories (nutrition)

o   consistency

Term
what can you use to time ovulation for artificial insemination?
Definition
OvSynch
Term
when can pregnancy be detected in cows?
Definition

by palpation is 35 days;  earliest via US 26-33 days

Term
a vaccination program for dairy cattle should include what?
Definition
  • BVDV 1 and 2
  • bovine herpes 1
  • BRSV
  • also:
  • Leptospira 
  • Clostidia
  • core endotoxins
  • Brucella?

 

Term
what is no longer used in navel dipping?
Definition
strong (7%) iodine
Term
what is CCI? what determines this?
Definition
calving to conception interval. determined by PR at the end of the VWP.
Term
as PR increases, CCI ___________
Definition
decreases
Term
what are the two main determinants of success or failure of a colostrum program?
Definition
time and mass of Ig (quality x quantity)
Term
efficiency of absorption of colostrum in dairy cows is about ____% at birth, and gut closure occurs _______
Definition

25%

linearly

Term
how much Ig mass is necessary for colostral success? what is the Ig mass content of good and excellent quality colostrum? What is the necessary amount necessary of these?
Definition

>280g Ig

good= >50g/L Ig or 5-6L needed 

excellent= >70g/L Ig  or 4L needed

Term
how much colostrum should be given immediately?
Definition
2-3 L or 1 gallon within the first hour
Term
when do most calves die?
Definition
8-14 days from birth
Term
serum [Ig] can be determined by:
Definition
  1. single radial immunodiffusion (RID)
  2. ELISA
  3. zinc sulphate turbidity (ZST)
  4. sodium suphite precipitation (SSP)
  5. glutaraldehyde test (GT)
  6. serum total protein (TP)
Term
low TP calves have a  _____risk of mortality
Definition
higher
Term

 

 

protective effects of absorbed colostral Ig last at least:

Definition

 

 

6 months

Term
a goal TP for calves is
Definition
5.5-7.2 serum TP
Term
what is the navel disinfection protocol?
Definition
at birth, when put into its pen, and again 12-18 hours later using chlorhex or iodophor
Term
what are the three housing requirements for newborn calves?
Definition
  1.  clean and dry
  2. good (natural) ventilation
  3. prevention of calf-to-calf contact

 

Term
what is the preferred calf housing system? why?
Definition
hutch. ample ventilation and shade, movable for easy cleaning, isolates calves.
Term
what is the spacing requirement for hutches? how often should they be moved?
Definition

>2 hutches apart

moved every 3-4 days in wet weather, 10 days in dry weather

Term
when using calf barns, what are two recommendations:
Definition
use every other stall, and clean with water hose INfrequently to avoid aerosolization of pathogens
Term
how should calves be fed?
Definition
  • fresh (pasteurized) milk or hi qual milk substitute
  • feed 2x daily
  • feed out of open-faced bucket INCLUDE WATER
  • higher enviro temp, lower lb milk/d requirement
  • all equipment MUST be cleaned and sanities after every use
  • Vit E and Selenium for prevention of white muscle disease
  • Vit A and D
Term
in cold weather, calves should be fed ______
Definition
more milk
Term
T or  F: the majority of cows make good colostrum.
Definition
F. only 35% do. most have been bred for quantity not quality.
Term
when should calves be offered hi quality grain?
Definition
day 3, will begin eating between day 21-8
Term
when should calves be bled to determine colostral intake?
Definition
2-8 days
Term
T or F: most dairies perform assisted colostrum delivery
Definition
False. more than 80% allow for natural colostrum delivery
Term
what are the recommended vx for calves?
Definition
o 7-way clostridium vx for prev of overeating disease and bloat
o IBR, PI3, BVD, BRSV vx
Term
when does weaning occur in calves?
Definition
4-8 weeks
Term
what is the goal of growth in calves?
Definition
1.8lb/day
Term
when should calves be regrouped?
Definition
1-3 weeks post-weaning (to get over stress)
Term
What are the terms for young sheep and goats?
Definition
Lambs and kids
Term
What are the terms for males sheep and goats?
Definition
Rams and bucks
Term
What are the terms for female sheep and goats?
Definition
Ewes and does
Term
What are castrated sheep and goats called?
Definition
Wethers
Term
What percent of the world's goats are where?
Definition
96% in developing countries
Term
What are the meat breeds of goat?
Definition
Boer, Spanish, kiko
Term
What are the pet breeds of goat?
Definition
Fainting, Pygmy
Term
What makes fainting goats faint?
Definition
Caprine myotonia congenita. Autosomal dominant defect at muscle fiber membrane likely Cl- channel defect.
Term
What are the symptoms of caprine myotonia congenita?
Definition
Transient tetanic spasms of striated muscle initiated by visual, tactile, auditory stimuli. No loss of consciousness. Bunny hopping, falling over, legs extended, stiff gait after
Term
What are the dairy breeds of goat?
Definition
Alpine, la mancha, nubian, oberhasli, saanen, toggenburg.
Term
What fiber comes from goats?
Definition
Angora (mohair) and cashmere
Term
Are there more sheep or goats in the world?
Definition
Sheep
Term
What are the meat breeds of sheep?
Definition
Cheviot, dorset, Hampshire, Southdown, Suffolk, texel, Tunis
Term
What are the fine wool sheep?
Definition
Merino, Rambouillet
Term
What are the long wool sheep?
Definition
Border Leicester, Romney
Term
What are the dairy breed sheep?
Definition
Easy friesian, lacaune
Term
What is the dual purpose sheep?
Definition
Corriedale. Wool and dairy
Term
What are the hair sheep?
Definition
Hot environments.
Black belly, dorper, katahdin, royal white, st croix
Term
what animal is used most for meat and milk? goats or sheep?
Definition
goats
Term
what is the legal limit for somatic cells in goat milk?
Definition
1 x 10^6 cells/ml
Term

which of the following is false?

 

1. worldwide there are more goats than cattle

2. Boer, Spanish, Kiko are popular meat goat breeds in US

3. Small ruminant milk typically has a lower somatic cell count than cow milk

4. meat and wool prod are the most common uses of sheep in the US

Definition
3. Small ruminant milk typically has a lower somatic cell count than cow milk
Term
how can you tell sheep and goats apart?
Definition

·         sheep: tail down, no bear or wattles, upper lip divided by distinct philtrum, often more lateral, curly horns

·         goats: tail up, many are horned, beards, wattles, shallow philtrum

Term
in general, which produces more milk, goats or sheep?
Definition
goats
Term
what are some disease concerns with unpasteurized goat/sheep milk?
Definition

Campylobacter jejuni, Q fever (more direct contact), Listeriosis (from illegal imports)

Brucella melitensis

Term
for fiber production, how are sheep and goats sheared?
Definition

goats-standing or recumbent

sheep-recumbent

Term
what is the average body weight of a sheep?
Definition
135lbs
Term
what are the differences between sheep and goat meat production?
Definition

·         altho many lamb producers feed out their own lambs to market weight, others sell them as feeder lambs, almost all goat producers feed out their own kids

·         2 breeding/kidding seasons/year are common in goat enterprises

·         less concentrates fed for finishing off kids than lambs

Term
what are the antagonist, fighting, and alarm signals of sheep and goats?
Definition

goats: sideways hooking, rear on hind legs, high pitched sneeze

 

sheep: butt head on, butt head on, snort and stamp one forefoot

Term
which newborns "lie in"?
Definition
lambs. stay close to ewe
Term

which of the following is false?

a. if male kids are castrated prior to puberty, the scent glands on the head do not mature.

b. goat kids should generally be disbudded in the first week of life, except nubian, pygmy, and angora kids can be disbudded at 10-14 days

c. to disbud kids, an electric dehorning iron should be applied to the bud for ~60 seconds.

d. lidocaine should typically be diluted to 0.5% prior to use for disbudding goat kids.

Definition
c. never more than 10 seconds
Term

 which of the following is false?

 

a. internal parsites are the most important production-limiting problem of small ruminants in the SE US.

b. bottle jaw, poor body condition, and pale mm are common signs of internal parasitism.

c. pasture management (rest periods, avoiding overgrazing) and keeping supplemental feed of the ground can help reduce parasite exposure

d. the FAMCHA scoring system is useful to detect animals with heavy trichostrongylus 

e. witholding feed or feeding only dry hay for 12-24 hours prior to deworming can increase the efficacy of oral dewormers due to a slowed gut transit time. 

Definition
D.  only detects anemia and only used in areas with heavy Haemochus
Term

Which is false?

1.      pet sheep and goats tend to become obese and should be limit-fed to maintain a BCS of 2.5-3/5

2.      sheep prefer to obtain ~80% of their diet by browsing

3. urine acidifiers are often used in diets of pet wethers to help prevent urolithiasis

4. ewes and does typically require supplemental feeding in late gestation, especially when carrying multiple fetuses

5. to avoid rumen acidosis when feeding large amounts of grain, it should be fed as part of a TMR or following hay feeding.

Definition
2. more like 50/50
Term
what can be added to small ruminant feed to prevent urolithiasis?
Definition
urine acidifiers (e.g. ammonium chloride)
Term
how much should water intake be increased to support milk production in small ruminants?
Definition
at least double
Term

how much grain should be included when feeding non-breeding, non-pregnant, wethers, and pet small ruminants?

 

Definition
no more than 1lb grain/day
Term
how should ewes and does be fed in late gestation and why?
Definition
  • §  ewes: 2-2.5lb cereal grain (oats or corn) during late gestation
  • §  does: 1-2 lb concentrate during late gestation
  • during last 6 weeks: 70-80% fetal growth 
Term
when is peak milk production in small ruminants?
Definition
2-3wks postpartum
Term
during lactation in small ruminants, how should concentrates be fed?
Definition

o   concentrates should be fed as TMR or after hay feeding to avoid acidosis

Term
when should small ruminants be weaned?
Definition
2-4months if eating solids
Term
when is puberty and when is breeding ideally started in small ruminants?
Definition

puberty: 5-12 months

breeding at ~70% of mature size: 7-10 months

Term
how long is gestation in small ruminants?
Definition

gestation 147 days for sheep, 150 for goats

Term
what is the repro rate target in most small ruminants?
Definition
2 offspring/pregnancy
Term
describe the estrus cycle of the small ruminant.
Definition

seasonal polyestrus

short-day breeders-melatonin, shortening of day

Term
what is the whitten effect?
Definition

induction of cyclicity by abrupt introduction of male.

            ewes must be in shallow anestrus

            ovulation in 48 hours (no signs of heat)

estrus in 17 days

Term
describe does and ewes in heat
Definition

·         does: flagging, vocalization, mounting

·         ewes: subtle, will stand for ram to mate

Term
how can goats be handled?
Definition

easily trained, can be trained to use halter or collar, can be restrained by horns by grasping base, with second hand on tail, or by straddling at withers.

 

Term
how should small ruminants be transported?
Definition

transport in groups, not overcrowded, avoid transporting preggers in last 4-6wks of gestation, heat and cold stress considerations

Term
how can you tell if a small ruminant is sick?
Definition

listless, inappetance, poor BCS compared to others, lagging, resting/walking on knees

Term
how is pregnancy diagnosed in ewes and does?
Definition

progesterone >5 days post breeding

ultrasound 45-90days post breeding

Term
what is the Blitz treatment used to eradicate?
Definition
Strep. agalactiae
Term
how do you estimate age in small ruminants?
Definition

<1yr

No permanent teeth

1 yr

2 perm teeth

2 yr

4

3

6

4

8

>4 yrs

Worn permanent teeth

Term
when should kids be disbudded?
Definition

·         5-7 day does, 3-5 day bucks

·         Nubian , pygmy, angora goats at 10-14 days

Term
what is the toxic dose of lidocaine?
Definition
10mg/kg
Term
what restraint can be used during disbudding?
Definition

·         xylazine, ketamine, butorphanol or gas mask or restraint devices

Term
how should a nerve block be performed prior to disbudding?
Definition

·         local nerve block dilute 2% lidocaine to 0.5% with sterile water, inject 1ml over each of 4 nerves in kid weighing >3 kg

Term
what nerves should be blocked prior to disbudding?
Definition

·         cornual branch of lacrimal and cornual branch of intratrochlear nerve

Term
T or F: electric cautery can be used to disbud older goats.
Definition
false. past 6 weeks of age, should be done surgically
Term
where are the scent glands in a buck? will every buck have them?
Definition

·         located posterior-medially to horn bud. if castrated prior to 7.5 months, will not develop these.

Term
what are some special considerations for the physical exam in small ruminants?
Definition
  • check sinuses for fighting injuries in rams
  • teeth: dental problems common cause of poor doers
  • urine: briefly occlude nostrils in ewes to get sample
  • udder: sheep and goats have udder in halves not quarters
  • weigh often, at deworming, medicating, birthweight
Term
how is BCS assessed in small ruminants?
Definition
spinous and tranverse processes palpated
Term
when are scrapie tags needed?
Definition
small ruminants, >1 yr, interstate commerce
Term
what are the three methods of castration in small ruminants?
Definition

o   Burdizzo

o   surgical

o   elastrator bands (predispose to tetanus)

Term
when should small ruminants be castrated?
Definition

·         4-14 days of age

·         pets: delay until 6-8 weeks to potentially reduce later problems with obstructive urolithiasis, especially in pygmies or mini breeds

Term
when should tail docking be performed in lambs?
Definition

·         >24hrs to 7 days of age, definitely by 6 weeks

Term
how long should a tail be after docking in lambs?
Definition
should cover vulva (ewes) or anus (rams), AVMA says no shorter than distal end of caudal tail fold,
Term
if tail docking is done too short, what are some possible consequences?
Definition
vaginal and rectal prolapse, perineal neoplasia
Term
how often should hoofs be trimmed?
Definition
twice yearly, more often if soft ground or heavy rainfall
Term
what are the most common nematodes infections in small ruminants? where are they found?
Definition

HOT

Haemonchus (SE US), Ostertagia (temperate climates), and Trichostrongylus 

Term
what are some factors that increase susceptibility to nematode infections in small ruminants?
Definition
overcrowding, overgrazing, malnutrition, poor quality pasture
Term
when does haemonchus contortus peak?
Definition
late spring summer
Term
how can haemonchus contortus be controlled?
Definition
  • o   don’t feed on ground, feed troughs that young won’t play/sleep/defecate in
  • o   anthelmintics
  • o   pasture management: avoid overstocking, use pasture rest periods, use clean/safe pastures, supplemental feed in times of pasture stress
  • o   multi-species grazing with cattle or horses
  • o   graze tannin-rich forages that help control nematodes
  • o   zero grazing (feedlots)
  • o   genetic selection for parasite-resistant populations
Term
there is a high level of resistance to dewormers in SE US except for:
Definition
moxidection and levamisole
Term
increased resistance to dewormers is seen with: (2 factors)
Definition
frequent and long usage
Term
how can dewormer resistance be prevented?
Definition
  • don't dose by calendar/regularly,
  • minimize number of treatments
  • treat after heavy rain,
  • NEVER underdose
  • use FAMACHA to detect anemic animals
  • change out/rotate effective treatments yearly
Term
what is the vaccination protocol for small ruminants?
Definition
  • enterotoxemia (C. perfringens C and D) 10wk, booster in 1 month
  • tetanus 10wk, booster in 1 month
  •  contagious ecthyma (orf) only if existing problem. 4wk, booster in 1 month
Term
dewormer resistance can be measured by?
Definition
fecal egg count reduction test. used to measure the animal with heaviest parasite load to dose herd
Term
what should be fed in addition to deworming treatment in small ruminants?
Definition
dry hay 12-24 hours prior and 12 hours after oral dewormers to slow gut transit. fasted prior to this
Term
what are the six P's in small ruminant illnesses?
Definition

·         parasitism

·         pinkeye

·         pneumonia

·         pododermatitis (footrot)

·         predation

·         pregnancy toxemia

Term

95% of mastitis is due to:

 

Definition
  • Strep agalactiae
  • Staph aureus
  • S. uberis
  • Strep dysgalactia

 

Term
white coffee-ground milk is characteristic of what?
Definition
Mycoplasma
Term
the most common clinical form of mastitis is?
Definition
subacute
Term
the most common form of mastitis is?
Definition
subclinical
Term
"ping-pong" crypto is seen when?
Definition
when using calf barns. close contact keeps crypto passing from calf to calf
Term
what are the most common predators of small ruminants? what can be done to prevent predation?
Definition

coyotes and domestic dogs.

use of donkeys, llamas (not intact males), well-fed guard dogs. active elimination of predators (trap, shoot) 

Term
what supplemental injections are given to newborn small ruminants? Is this necessary in Florida?
Definition
vit E/selenium in Se-deficient areas. Yes, needed in Florida
Term
describe Bluetongue
Definition
  • orbivirus
  • spread by mosquitoes, 
  • severe clinical disease, abortion, facial erosions
  • really bad in lambs, longterm effects
  • seem to recover, then tank and die.
  • vx only in California
  • try and control mosquitos
  • usually occurs in sheep that are brought from non-bluetongue states
Term
in dealing with which small ruminant disease should you wear gloves?
Definition
orf. Contagious ecthyma (Sore mouth). causes blistering
Term
what causes Caseous Lymphadenitis and how can it be controlled?
Definition

corynebacterium ovis.


good sanitation, don't buy infected, sanitize shears

Term
describe footrot, including the responsible pathogens.
Definition
  • Dichelobacter nodosus (foot) and Fusobacterium necrophorum (soil)
  • severe lameness, exudative inflam and necrosis with foul odor
  • recovered animals can be carriers. 
  • prevent with trimming and foot bath, quarantine, vx
Term
what are the signs of malnutrition and starvation?
Definition

hunched stance, weakness, dehydration, hypothermia. poor BCS, recumbency, death. 

Term
when does orbivirus peak?
Definition
late summer and fall in the NW, spring and summer in FL in introduced sheep (think when mosquitoes peak)
Term
describe neonatal diarrhea in small ruminants including responsible agents.
Definition
  • E.coli, salmonella, C perfringens type C, rotavirus, crypto 
  • northern parts of US. 
  • confinement exacerbates 
  • management and sanitation key, also colostrum. 
  • just symptom treatment.
Term
tenesmus in small ruminants is a sign of what? what other signs may be present and what is the treatment? when is this disease the worst?
Definition

Coccidiosis. greenish/yellow diarrhea, rarely blood tinged,  off feed, wt loss, fecal material smeared around rectum. 10-50% morbid, 10%mortality.  proper sanitation. amprolium or sulfa drugs. worst is at weaning or high stress

 

Term
How is Johne's disease different in small ruminants compared to cattle?
Definition
in small ruminants, diarrhea occurs closer to the end. otherwise, very similar
Term
T or F: dystocia in small ruminants is complicated and small animal practitioners should avoid intervening in dystocias.
Definition
False. easy flank or midline C-section under gas anesthesia or valium. just DO SOMETHING!!!
Term
which bovine diseases are in the US? which are not?
Definition

in US: BSE, Brucellosis, Tuberculosis

 

NOT in US: FMD (aphthovirus), heartwater (ehrlichia rumenantium), texas cattle fever (babesia bigemina and bovis

Term
describe pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants
Definition
  • generally ketosis, but term also used to refer to hypocalcemia syndromes
  • ewes/does during advanced pregnancy (postpartum in cows). 
  • more in multiple fetus carriers. 
  • neg energy balance, hypoglycemia, increased fat catabolism, ketonemia, ketonuria with CNS signs. 
  • tx: C-section, induce parturition, IV dextrose, oral propylene glycol, Ca
Term
what is the most important first line of defense against invasion of pathogenic bacteria in the teat? why?
Definition

teat canal

 

smooth muscle

keratin squamous epi

keratin-baceriostatic

Term
what are the primary udder pathogens?
Definition

S. aureus

S. agalactiae

Mycoplasma

S dysgalactia* (also enviromental)

Term
how can S. agalactiae be controlled?
Definition

Blitz treatment:


§ post-milking teat disinfection

§  dry cow therapy (Abx up in teat)

§  ID infected cows and treat 

Term
what causes contagious mastitis?
Definition
S. aureus or mycoplasma
Term
T or F: S. aureus mastitis can be treated with β-lactams
Definition
False. produces penicillinase.
Term
what mastitis-causing bacteria are non susceptible to eradication?
Definition
the enviro ones: S. uberis and dysgalactia
Term
describe coliforms. who is at risk?
Definition
  • environmental
  • opportunistic
  • peracute to acute
  • likely to kill the cow
  • E.coli, Klebsiella, Serratia, Aeromonas
  • higher quality milk producing herds are at higher risk
Term
what is the goal of clinical mastitis cases?
Definition
<3% of milking cows with mastitis/month
Term
the somatic cell legal limit in cow milk is:
Definition
450k cells/mL 
Term
what does the lab pasteurized count indicate? what should this number be?
Definition

the amount of bacteria growing after pasteurization (thermophiles)-indicates how well equipment is cleaned.

<300 bacteria/ml

Term
what is the legal limit of bacteria in milk? how is this measured?
Definition

<100,000 bacteria/ml 

standard plate count

Term
what does the preliminary incubation count indicate?
Definition
# of bacteria growing after refrigerated incubation. indicates how well and quickly milk is refrigerated
Term
what are the limitations of the California mastitis test?
Definition
  • good for screening subclinical mastitis
  • good at id'ing cows with high SCC (>1 million)
  • not good at differentiating infected from non-infected (<or > 200k)
Term
in individual somatic cell count, a linear SCC of 4 indicates_________actual SCC, which means a milk loss of  _____________lb/d
Definition

linear SCC4=200,000 actual SCC= milk loss 3lb/d

Term
when milking,  the udder and teat should be:
Definition
clean and dry. but mostly dry.
Term
what are fed and non-fed cattle?
Definition

fed-cattle: cattle raised from calf to 21 months of age with purpose of becoming meat

non-fed cattle: some other function in life, but now entering food chain (culled dairy cows, beef cows raising calves, etc). 

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