Term
| What is the sac consisting of loose skin and CT hanging from the root of the penis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the scrotum? |
|
Definition
| The supporting structure for the testicles or testes. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two oval glands suspended within the scrotum consisting of one to three tightly coiled seminiferous tubules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of producing sperm called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does spermatogenesis take place? |
|
Definition
| The seminiferous tubules of the testicles. |
|
|
Term
| Is sperm haploid or diploid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three parts of the sperm? |
|
Definition
| The head, the midpiece, and the tail. |
|
|
Term
| What is the enzyme found on the tip of sperm head designed to penetrate the wall of the egg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of tail does the sperm have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the mitochondria contained in the sperm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do sperm cells mature so they can become mobile and able to fertilize the ovum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does semen consist of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of seminal fluid in sperm? |
|
Definition
| To carry sperm through ejaculation. |
|
|
Term
| Which structure stores as well as conveys sperm from the epididymis to the urethra? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the thicker portion of the ductus deferens called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the 45 cm long duct that extends from the epididymis to the urethra? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tube that encloses the ductus deferens, arteries, veins, muscles, and nerves as they travel through the male reproductive system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is formed by the union of the ampulla of the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicle as they pass through the prostate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do the ejaculatory ducts terminate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the sperm and seminal vesicle secretions released just before ejaculation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What duct in the male reproductive system allows semen and urine to exit the body through the tip of the penis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three segments of the male's urethra? |
|
Definition
| Prostatic Urethra, Membranous Urethra, and the Penile Urethra |
|
|
Term
| What is the most proximal part of the male's urethra? |
|
Definition
| Prostatic Urethra, surrounded by the prostate gland |
|
|
Term
| Which section of the male urethra is inferior to the prostatic section? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In males, what muscle does the membranous urethra pass by the ischia and pubis bones through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What section of the urethra extends from the base to the tip of the penis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the urethral opening at the tip of the penis called? |
|
Definition
| External Urethral Orifice |
|
|
Term
| Where do urine and semen exit the body? |
|
Definition
| External Urethral Orifice |
|
|
Term
| What glands secrete most of the liquid portion of semen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the convoluted, pouch-like structures that lie posteriorly to the base of the bladder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the thick, viscous fluid that makes up 60% of the semen volume consist of? |
|
Definition
| Fructose (monosaccharide sugar), prostaglandins, and clotting factors. |
|
|
Term
| What gland secretes a milky acidic fluid that helps semen coagulate after ejaculation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what age does the prostate stop growing? When does it start again? |
|
Definition
| It grows from puberty to age thirty and stops then begins again after 45. |
|
|
Term
| Where are bulbourethral glands found? |
|
Definition
| Distal to the urogenital diaphragm. |
|
|
Term
| Which gland secretes alkaline fluid that neutralizes the acidic environment of the urethra, as well as mucus that lubricates the urethral lining and tip of penis during intercourse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three parts of the penis that create a passageway for the urethra? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where on the penis are the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ______ in the penis dilate causing the ___________ to fill with blood and enlarge and stiffen the penis. |
|
Definition
| Arteries dilate and the Corpora Cavernosa fills with blood. |
|
|
Term
| What is the head or tip of the penis called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the bilateral, almond-shaped and sized organs hat produce the female haploid reproductive gametes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What carries the ovum from the ovary to the uterus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the finger-like projections on the ovarian end of the fallopian/uterine tubes designed to sweep the ovum into the tube after ovulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do sperm cells fertilize the ovum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the result of the union of sperm cells and an ovum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many days does it take for the zygote to make its way to the uterus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is located superior and posterior to the urinary bladder and posterior to the rectum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What holds the uterus in its position in the pelvic cavity, affording it flexibility and stability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the space inside the uterus called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many layers are there in the uterine cavity wall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the zygote implanted after fertilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the highly vascularized, innermost layer of the uterine cavity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the innermost layer of the endometrium that lines the uterine cavity and thickens during the menstrual cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the middle layer of the uterine cavity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the outermost layer of the uterine cavity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most inferior portion of the uterus that opens the uterus up into the vagina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cervix made of? |
|
Definition
| Smooth muscle, lined internally by stratified suamous epithelium. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The entrance from the vagina to the cervix. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The entrance from the cervix into the main uterus. |
|
|
Term
| What is the lumen of the cervix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tubular, muscular canal that extends from the cervix to the outside of the body and serves as a receptacle for the penis during intercourse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The external female genitalia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The elevation of adipose tissue covered by skin and pubic hair and cushions the pubic symphysis. |
|
|
Term
| What part of the female anatomy is homologous to the scrotum in males? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is part of the female anatomy is homologous to the spongy urethra in males? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the Labia are abundant in sweat and sebaceous glands as well as adipose tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the labia has no hair? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the small cylindrical mass of erectile tissue and nerves at the anterior junction of the labia minora? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of cells are scraped and examined during a pap smear test? |
|
Definition
| Stratified Squamous Epithelium |
|
|
Term
| What is homologous to the clitoris in females? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the external opening of the vagina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the opening to the urethra? |
|
Definition
| External Urethral Orifice |
|
|
Term
| What are the bilateral glands in the breasts that are sweat glands modified to produce milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of tissue surrounds the mammary glands of the breast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What carries the milk out of the breast via a series of small openings in the nipple? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the darkly-pigmented projection at the center of the breast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What strands of connective tissue run from the skin and deep fascia to support the breast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the hormones that control the female reproductive cycles secreted from? |
|
Definition
| Hypothalamus (brain), anterior pituitary gland (brain), and the ovaries. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main cycles of the Female Reproductive Cycle? |
|
Definition
| Ovarian Cycle and Uterine (Menstrual) Cycle. |
|
|
Term
| What causes the shed of blood, mucus, tissue fluid and epithelial cells from the endometrium? |
|
Definition
| The decrease in ovarian hormones signaling that there has been no fertilization in the previous cycle. |
|
|
Term
| What phase does the first five days of the Female Reproductive cycle consist of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During what female reproductive phase do about 20 small, secondary follicles in the ovary begin to enlarge and move to the edge of the ovary to prepare to be released for ovulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What phase occurs between menstruation and ovulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pituitary hormone causes about 20 follicles to grow in the ovaries, all harboring a primary oocyte? |
|
Definition
| Follicle Stimulating Hormone |
|
|
Term
| What is the degeneration of the non-dominant follicles in the ovaries due to a decrease in FSH called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the dominant follicle matures and grows to about 20mm in diameter it is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the endometrium repaired in the uterus and begins to prepare for a fertilized ovum again? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the mature follicle ruptures and releases the secondary oocyte into the pelvic cavity this is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pituitary hormone is released during ovulation? |
|
Definition
| Leutenizing Hormone (LH). |
|
|
Term
| On day 14 of the Female Reproductive Cycle, LH is released and what is the result? |
|
Definition
| 9 hours later the dominant follicle ruptures and releases the secondary oocyte. |
|
|
Term
| What is the time between ovulation and the next onset of menstruation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most consistent in length of all the Menstrual phases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the postovulatory phase, the mature follicle collapses and a blood clot forms becoming _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What forms the Corpus Luteum? |
|
Definition
| The cells of the Corpus Hemorragicum mixed up. |
|
|
Term
| What hormones does the corpus luteum secrete? |
|
Definition
| Progesterone, estrogen, relaxin and inhibin. |
|
|
Term
| How long does the corpus luteum last with an unfertilized oocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the endometrium prepare for the implantation of a fertilized egg (zygote)? |
|
Definition
| Hormones secreted by the Corpus Luteum promote the growth and coiling of endometrial glands in the uterus, thickening and vascularizing it. |
|
|
Term
| What does the corpus luteum degenerate into after its 2 week lifespan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the progesterone and estrogen release stops, what occurs? |
|
Definition
| The pituitary gland increases its release of FSH and LH, follicular growth resumes and a new ovarian cycle begins. |
|
|
Term
| What causes the onset of the menstrual cycle and a new ovarian cycle? |
|
Definition
| Withdrawal of progesterone and estrogen. |
|
|
Term
| How is the corpus luteum saved from degeneration? |
|
Definition
| An ovum is fertilized and 8 days later it releases human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) which saves it. |
|
|
Term
| After fertilization, what secretes the hormones promoting growth of the endometrium in preparation for implantation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the indicator for a positive pregnancy test? |
|
Definition
| HCG found in the maternal blood or urine. |
|
|
Term
| What does motion in and of the body result from? |
|
Definition
| Alternating contraction and relaxation of muscle tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of muscle tissue? |
|
Definition
| To change chemical energy from food into mechanical energy to generate force, perform work and produce movement, stabilize the body's position, generate heat, propel fluids and food matter |
|
|
Term
| What is the ability to respond to certain stimuli by producing electrical signals (action potentials)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an electrical impulse generated by a nerve cell intended to evoke a response from tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ability to contract forcefully when stimulated by an action potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ability of the muscle to stretch without being damaged? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ability of the muscle tissue to return to its original length after being stretched? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of muscle tissue? |
|
Definition
| Skeletal Muscle, Cardiac Muscle, and Smooth muscle. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of skeletal muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of muscle is found in the blood vessels, digestive tract and airways? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is each muscle cell called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four layers of organization in a skeletal muscle? |
|
Definition
| Fascicles, muscle fibers, myofibrils, and muscle filaments. |
|
|
Term
| What is the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the smooth ER of the muscle fiber that acts as a reservoir for calcium ions? |
|
Definition
| Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR) |
|
|
Term
| What are the dilated ends of the SR that are adjacent to the T-tubules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the tunnel-like extensions of the sarcolemma that extend through the muscle fiber and are lined with sarcoplasmic reticulum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The degree of contraction taking place. |
|
|
Term
| What is an arrangement of muscle (thick and thin) filaments making one contractile unit of muscle tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the outer boundary of the sarcomere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mid-line of the sarcomere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the dark band formed by the thick filaments of the sarcomere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the lighter region in the middle of an A-band that is composed of only non-overlapping thick filaments of the sarcomere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the light band of non-overlapping thin filaments (between Z-disc & A-band)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the thin filament of the sarcomere? |
|
Definition
| Actin, held together by two proteins: troponin and tropomyosin) |
|
|
Term
| What is the thick filament of the sarcomere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the motor of muscle contraction that makes up the thick filament? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the part of the thin filament that anchors the myosin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the protein found only in muscle that binds oxygen for diffusion into the muscle cell for energy (ATP) production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the contractile muscle proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a graded potential? |
|
Definition
| A stimulus causing a ligand-gated or mechanically--gated ion channels to open or close in an excitable cells plasma membrane. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two possible responses of a graded potential? |
|
Definition
| Hyperpolarizing (more negative) graded potential or a depolarizing (less negative) graded potential. |
|
|
Term
| What is a sequence of rapidly occurring events that decrease and reverse the membrane potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the method the nervous system uses to communicate with itself and the tissues of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of channels that open and close for Action Potentials? |
|
Definition
| Na+ channels (depolarizing) and K+ channels (repolarizing). |
|
|
Term
| Where is Na+ in high concentration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is K+ in high concentration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Action potentials utilize what kind of diffusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In action potentials, the flow of _______ creates an electrical current down the cells membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Action potentials can be used in what kinds of communication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the resting state of action potentials, the potential = ___ mV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the depolarization state of action potentials the potential = ____mV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the resting state of action potential what state are the mechanically or ligand-gated sodium channels in? |
|
Definition
| Opened in response to to a mechanical or chemical stimulus. |
|
|
Term
| Repolarization occurs when the membrane potential reaches ____ mV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the voltage necessary to open voltage-gated sodium ion channels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the graded potential is enough to reach the threshold what occurs? |
|
Definition
| Voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly and allow Na+ to rush into the cell rapidly bringing the potential up past 0mV to +30mV. |
|
|
Term
| What type of gated channels are the most abundant and therefore have the greatest and fastest affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the "All or None" effect? |
|
Definition
| In voltage-gated ion channels, once one is stilumated it can not be reversed and all action potentials have the same amplitude. |
|
|
Term
| This stage of membrane potential makes the membrane less negative because of the influx of positively charged sodium ions into the cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depolarization that travels along a neuron's cell membrane is called ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Grade potentials have a refractory period. True or false? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Action potentials have a refactory period. True or false? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of potential has a refractory period? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the period of time when a cell can not be stimulated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are chemical synapses one-way? |
|
Definition
| Because the neurotransmitter receptors are onl on the postsynaptic side. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the process of a chemical synapse. |
|
Definition
a. Action potential arrives at synaptic end bulb of presynaptic axon of the neuromuscular junction
b. Depolarization opens Ca++ channels allowing Ca++ to flow in as well as Na+ channels allowing Na+ into the cleft.
c. Ca++ triggers the synaptic vesicles to break open (exocytosis and release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft.
d. Neurotransmitter crosses cleft and binds to the neurotransmitter receptor sites on the postsynaptic membrane.
e. Neurotransmitter opens ligand-gated channels and allows ions to flow into the postsynaptic membrane.
f. Depolarization or hyperpolarization occur depending on whether Na+ or Cl- ion channels are opened.
g. If depolarization occurs enough for a threshold to be reached, an action potential is fired. |
|
|
Term
| What is the place where a neuron synapses with the muscle fibers it innervates and communicates via neurotransmitter (acetylcholine) transmitting a neuron action potential to a muscle action potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the initial impulse for contraction (action potential) come from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the combination of the nerve ending and the specific fibers it innervates called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the muscle side of the neuromuscular junction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of conducting a nerve impulse along a muscle fiber that allows a muscle cell to contract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four steps of muscle action potential? |
|
Definition
i. The action potential reaches the neuromuscular junction.
ii. The neuron releases its neurotransmitter (acetylcholine)
iii. The neurotransmitter binds to and stimulates receptors on the motor end plate resulting in the opening of ligand gated sodium/potassium ion channels.
iv. The motor end plate depolarizes from its resting membrane potential of -90 mv creating an end plate potential (a form of graded potential in the sarcolemma) and stimulates the opening of voltage-gated sodium ion channels along the adjacent sarcolemma creating the muscle action potential. |
|
|
Term
| What is the events that link the change in electrical potential of the sarcolemma (muscle action potential) to the shortening of sarcomeres creating muscle contraction (sliding filament theory)? |
|
Definition
| Excitation- Contraction Coupling |
|
|
Term
| What are the three steps of muscle-contraction coupling? |
|
Definition
| the events that link the change in electrical potential of the sarcolemma (muscle action potential) to the shortening of sarcomeres creating muscle contraction (sliding filament theory) |
|
|
Term
| How does a muscle contract or shorten to create movement? |
|
Definition
1. Using the enzyme Myosin ATPase myosin heads break down ATP into ADP & Phosphate (for energy) to become energized and oriented toward the actin
2. Myosin heads, still holding the ADP & Phosphate, bind to an actin site on thin filament creating a cross bridge
3. The Myosin heads release the ADP &Phosphate and then rotate toward the M Line, pulling the thin filaments toward the center (called the power stroke)
a. as the the thick & thin filaments overlap, the sarcomeres shorten
or contract.
4. Myosin heads bind ATP again and the cross bridges detach.
b. binding to ATP is necessary for the myosin heads to detach
from the actin sites.
5. The muscle is lengthened when gravity or an opposing muscle act on it pulling the sarcomeres back to their original lengthened position. |
|
|
Term
| How strong a contraction is dependent on how many sarcomeres contract as well as the length of the sarcomeres before the contraction begins is called what? |
|
Definition
| Length-tension relationship. |
|
|
Term
| What effect does the presence or comparatively the decrease in Calcium have on the muscle cells contraction? |
|
Definition
| The presence of calcium starts the contraction, a decrease in calcium stops it. |
|
|
Term
| What causes muscle fatigue? |
|
Definition
| It is unclear what causes individual muscle fibers to fatigue but it is theorized that decreases in calcium ions, the buildup of lactic acid (ATP breakdown by-product) and depletion of stored glucose (glycogen) in the muscle case it. |
|
|
Term
| How does the amount of ATP in a fatigued muscle compare to that of a resting muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Because a thin filament has to travel further to get to the M line of the sarcomere, what effect on the potential for contraction does this have? |
|
Definition
| There is more potential for contraction. |
|
|
Term
| A muscle that is partially contracted already contracts with what amount of force compared to one that is fully lengthened? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of skeletal muscle fibers? |
|
Definition
| Slow oxidative fibers, fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers and fast glycolytic fibers. |
|
|
Term
| These skeletal muscle fibers are the smallest and least powerful, appear dark red, slow contraction that is resistant to fatigue and are used for maintaing posture and endurance activities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of skeletal muscle fiber is medium-sized, appears dark red, contracts quickly and fatigues quickly, uses a lot of stored energy and is used for walking and sprinting. |
|
Definition
| Fast Oxidative-Glycolytic Fibers. |
|
|
Term
| These skeletal muscle fibers are the largest fibers with the highest number of fibrils, they generate the most powerful contractions, appear white in color, contract quickly and fatigue quickly, and are used for short explosive movements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A motor unit has how many different kinds of muscle fiber types in it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Muscles attach to bones via _______. |
|
Definition
| Tendons, at two or more different places in order to move the bones. |
|
|
Term
| What is the fleshy part of the muscle between two tendons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a muscle contracts it pulls on the _________ causing that bone to move at the joint that muscle crosses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Muscle of the head.
i. O: Maxilla and zygomatic arch
ii. I: angle and ramus of mandible
iii. A: elevate the mandible (close mouth), retract the mandible
iv. N: trigeminal nerve (CN V)
1. important muscle for chewing & talking |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Head.
i. O: Temporal bone
ii. I: Coronoid process and ramus of mandible
iii. A: elevate and retract mandible
iv. N: trigeminal nerve (CN V)
1. also for chewing and talking |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Head.
i. O: sphenoid bone
ii. I: Mandibular condyle
iii. A: protracts & laterally deviates mandible
iv. N: trigeminal nerve (CN V) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Neck.
O: Sternum & clavicle
I: Mastoid process of temporal bone
A: Anterior flexion of neck, extension of head, laterally flex head side to side.
N: accessory nerve (CN XI) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Neck.
O: fascia of deltoid & pectoralis major muscle
I: mandible, lower skin of face, muscles at corners of mouth
A: depress mandible (open mouth), tenses skin of neck
N: Facial Nerve (CN VII) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Abdomen.
O: Pubic crest and pubic symphysis
I: 5th to 7th costal cartilage and xiphoid process
A: Flex lumbar spine anteriorly
N: Intercostal nerves 7-12 |
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Term
| The tendonous attachment vertically down the midline of the rectus abdominus is what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The tendonous connections horizontally between the bellies of the rectus abdominus muscle are ________. |
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Definition
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Term
| External Abdominal Oblique |
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Definition
Abdomen.
O: 5th to 12th ribs
I: Iliac Crest
A: together : flex lumbar spin anteriorly (trunk flexion)
Alone: ipsilateral lateral flexion of lumbar spine
N: intercostals 8-12, iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal |
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Term
| When does pregnancy begin? |
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Definition
| With the fertilization of the secondary oocyte. |
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Term
| When does embryonic development occur? |
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Definition
| In the first eight weeks. |
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Term
| When does fetal development occur? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| When does prenatal development occur? |
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Definition
| Between fertilization and birth. |
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Term
| When is the most critical stage of development, when the rudiments of all major organ systems appear? |
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Definition
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Term
| When do nearly all organ system complete their development? |
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Definition
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Term
| In what stage does the most rapid fetal growth occur? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the process in which the genetic material from a haploid sperm cell merges with that of a haploid secondary oocyte creating a single diploid nucleus? |
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Definition
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Term
| How many sperm are released into the vagina? How many reach the cervix? How many reach the secondary oocyte |
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Definition
| 200 million released. 2 million to the cervix. 200 reach the secondary oocyte. |
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Term
| How long is the maximum window around ovulation in which fertilization is likely to occur? |
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Definition
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Term
| How long can sperm last in the female reproductive organs? |
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Definition
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Term
| The plasma membrane of the secondary oocyte is covered by what two layers? |
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Definition
| The outer Corona Radiata, and the inner Zona Pellucida. |
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Term
| Which layer of the secondary oocyte contains the glycoprotein called ZP3, which acts as a sperm receptor? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the glycoprotein ZP3 in the zona pellucida do? |
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Definition
| Activates the acrosome on the sperm's head and releases the digestive enzyme so it can get through the zona pellucida and into the oocyte. |
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Term
| When the sperm penetrates the ovum and the gametes are fused are one it is called _____? |
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Definition
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Term
| When does Meiosis II occur? |
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Definition
| When the sperm cell enters. |
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Term
| What do the female pronucleus and male pronucleus fuse to produce? |
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Definition
| A single diploid nucleus containing 23 pairs of chromosomes- the zygote. |
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Term
| How do dyzygotic twins form? |
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Definition
| Two independent secondary oocytes are released and fertilized by two different sperms. |
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Term
| How do monozygotic twins form? |
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Definition
| A single fertilized ovum splits into two separate embryos within 8 days of fertilization. |
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Term
| How do conjoined twins form? |
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Definition
| A fertilized embryo splits into two separate embryos after 8 days post-fertilization. |
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Term
| What is the rapid cell division that the zygote undergoes after fertilization called? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Each smaller cell produced by cleavage. |
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Term
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Definition
| Solid sphere of blastomeres that form by the fourth day. |
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Term
| The fluid-filled cavity the morula enters and the blastomeres reorganize around. |
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Definition
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Term
| The mass developing in the blastocyst cavity that is a group of hundreds of cells. |
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Definition
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Term
| The two structures that the blastomeres rearrange to form. |
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Definition
| The inner cell mass, and the trophoblast. |
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Term
| The outer superficial layer of cells that will eventually become the fetal portion of the placenta. |
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Definition
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Term
| The site of exchange of nutrients and wastes between mother and the fetus. |
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Definition
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Term
| The internal portion the blastomeres rearrange to form that develops into the embryo. |
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Definition
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Term
| How many days after fertilization does the blastocyst use an enzyme to digest a hole in the zona pellucida and squeeze through, shedding the zona pellucida and preparing for uterine implantation? |
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Definition
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Term
| How many days after fertilization does the blastocyst attach itself to the endometrium? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is an ectopic pregnancy? |
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Definition
| When the zygote implants somwhere other than the uterine wall. |
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Term
| In the 2nd week of development, the trophoblast becomes part of what fetal membrane? |
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Definition
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Term
| The trophoblast releases which hormone that rescues the corpus luteum from degeneration and prevents shed of the endometrium by continuing to secrete estrogen and progesterone? |
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Definition
| Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) |
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Term
| What are the two layers of the Bilaminar Embryonic disc? |
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Definition
| Hypoblast (columnar cells on the blastocyst side) and the Epiblast (cuboidal cells on the endometrial side). |
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Term
| What is the small cavity that appears within the epiblast? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| The thin wall that separates the amniotic cavity from the myometrium, and eventually surrounds the entire embryo as the amniotic sac. |
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Term
| What is the function of the amniotic fluid? |
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Definition
| Shock absorber, regulates fetal temperature, prevents dehydration, prevents adhesions of the skin with surrounding tissue. |
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Term
| What are the functions of the yolk sac? |
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Definition
| Transfers nutrients until utero-placental circulation is established, source of blood cells, contains gonad cells, forms part of GI tract, shock absorption, prevents dessification. |
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Term
| What are the functions of the chorion? |
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Definition
| To form the embryonic placenta and allow exchange between mother and fetus, produces HCG, protects from immune response by producing t-lymphocytes. |
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Term
| What is the future umbilical cord that connects the amnion to the trophoblast? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the process of the three primary germ layers forming from the transformation of the bilateral embryonic disc into a 2-dimensional trilaminar embryonic disc? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three primary germ layers? |
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Definition
| Endoderm, Mesoderm, and Ectoderm. |
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Term
| The faint groove that forms as cells rearrange themselves for formation of the 3 germ layers. |
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Definition
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Term
| The small group of cells at the head of the primitive streak that form a rounded structure. |
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Definition
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Term
| Cells of the epiblast move inward below the primitive streak and detach from the epiblast. |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the endoderm become? |
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Definition
| The epithelial lining of the GI tract, respiratory tract and several other organs. |
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Term
| What will the mesoderm become? |
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Definition
| Muscle, bone, CT and peritoneum. |
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Term
| What will the ectoderm become? |
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Definition
| Epidermis and nervous system. |
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Term
| After 16 days post-ferilization a hollow tube of cells is formed from the cells of the primitive node called the _______. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| A cylinder of cells in the midline. |
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Term
| During the third and fourth weeks what two membranes form? |
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Definition
| Oropharyngeal membrane (mouth and pharynx_ and the cloacal membrane (anus and opening to urinary and repro. tracts) |
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Term
| Neuralation results in the growth of what four structures? |
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Definition
| Neural plate, neural fold, neural groove, neural tube. |
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Term
| What week does the cardiovascular system begin to form and out of what? |
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Definition
| In the 3rd week it forms out of the mesoderm. |
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Term
| What are the only two places in the body where arteries contain deoxygenated blood and and veins contain oxygenated blood? |
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Definition
| Lungs and umbilical cord. |
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Term
| The area where the umbilical cord was that is covered with a layer of skin and becomes a scar. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the process that occurs in the fourth week where the embryo triples in size and converts from a 2-dimensional tri-laminar disc into a 3-dimensional cylinder. |
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Definition
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Term
| By what week do the eyelids form, digits lose their webbing, tail disappears and genitals differentiate? |
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Definition
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Term
| By what week is gender distinguishable? |
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Definition
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Term
| Premature babies at what stage can survive in intensive care? |
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Definition
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Term
| When is the nervous system completely developed? |
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Definition
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Term
| When is the immune system fully developed? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the hormone secreted by the corpus luteum and then the placenta to increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis, sacroiliac, sacrococcygeal joints in animals to ease birth? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the hormone that is used to "clock" pregnancy that is also present in non-pregnant people? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Pain felt in the abdomen at irregular intervals that is unchanged by walking and does not intensify with no signs of cervical dialation or the baby's head. |
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Term
| Where do contractions begin and end? |
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Definition
| Begin at the superior uterus and ends at the inferior uterus. |
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Term
| What are the three stages of labor? |
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Definition
| Dilation, Expulsion and Placental. |
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Term
| What is the 6-week period during which the mother's reproductive organs typically return to the pre-pregnancy state? |
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Definition
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Term
| The rapid reduction in size of the uterus while the cervix loses its elasticity and regains firmness. |
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Definition
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Term
| The discharge the woman experiences in the 2-4 weeks of delivery, consisting of blood and serous fluid. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| How the genetic makeup is expressed in the body. |
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Term
| What two muscles are important in talking and chewing? |
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Definition
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Term
| A bundle of muscle fibers is called what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the biceps brachii muscle act to do? |
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Definition
| Flex the elbow, Supinate the forearm, and flex the shoulder. |
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Term
| What functions to produce movement of the skeleton at the joints? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the Quadriceps Femoris muscles? |
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Definition
| Vastus Lateralis, Vastus Medialis, Rectus Femoris, and the Vastus Intermedius. |
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Term
| What muscles act to elevate the scapula? |
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Definition
| Levator Scapula, Rhomboid Major, Rhomboid Minor and Trapezius. |
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Term
| What do intercostal muscles do? |
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Definition
| Assist in breathing and attach to the superior and inferior portions of the ribs. |
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Term
| What muscles are designed to stabilize the gleno-humeral joint? |
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Definition
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Term
| What do the muscles of the anterior compartment do? |
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Definition
| Extend the toes, dorsiflex the ankle, and invert the foot. |
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Term
| What muscles originate on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Why is the skin around the areola roughened? |
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Definition
| Because it is rich in sebaceous glands. |
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Term
| The glands that secrete the liquid portion of semen, but do not directly form a pathway for sperm are called what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What structure is responsible for maintaining the endometrium in preparation for fertilization? |
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Definition
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Term
| The union of the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the ductus deferens forms what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the sperm require in order to penetrate the wall of the ovum? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where is the secondary oocyte released as a result of ovulation? |
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Definition
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Term
| Immediately after ovulation the released ovum goes where? |
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Definition
| Into the uterine tube, assisted by the fimbria. |
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Term
| What structure protects the fetus from the mother's immune system? |
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Definition
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Term
| All major organs begin to appear during which period of development? |
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Definition
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Term
| During pregnancy in humans which hormone helps increase the flexibility of the pubic symphysis? |
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Definition
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Term
| The effect of which hormone must be diminished in order for labor to occur? |
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Definition
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Term
| The merger of the DNA of a haploid sperm cell and a haploid secondary oocyte to create a single diploid zygote is called what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Digits appear on the limb buds during what week? |
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Definition
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