| Term 
 
        | skeletal muscle structure |  | Definition 
 
        | striated and multinucleated |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | movement of body, voluntary |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | cylindrical, striated, single nucleus, branched |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | tapered, non-striated, single nucleus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | regulates size of organ, fluid movement, pupil dilation/contraction, involuntary control |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | surrounds external surface of muscle (connective tissue) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | surrounds a fascicle (connective tissue) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | surrounds each muscle fiber/cell (connective tissue) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False:   Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium are continuous and form tendons |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: All muscle types aid in movement. |  | Definition 
 
        | True. skeletal-walking/running cardiac-movement of blood smooth- movement of food in digestive system |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: myofibrils are also called muscle cells. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: myofibrils are structures inside of muscle cells. muscle fibers are also called muscle cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Myofibrils are made up of thick myofilaments and thin myofilaments |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Is this a correct association: Thin myofilaments-myosin |  | Definition 
 
        | No. Thin myofilaments are composed of actin, troponin, and tropormyosin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Thick myofilaments are composed of: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Myosin has two tails and one head |  | Definition 
 
        | False: Myosin has two heads and one tail |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Plasma membrane that is found around a muscle cell |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | found inside a muscle cell, detoxifies and synthesizes, reabsorbs calcium after muscle contraction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Dialated ends of sarcoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium for release during a muscle contraction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | infoldings of sarcoplasmic reticulum which allows an action potential to reach myofibril |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Part of thin myofilament that binds calcium, actin and tropomyosin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | long strands that are bound to actin and troponin- tropomyosin covers the actin binding sites. It moves to reveal binding sites when Ca binds to troponin. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Formed when myosin binds to actin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Area that extends from one Z disk(Z line) to adjacent Z disk (Z line) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Composed of both thick and thin myofilaments |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Composed of only thin myofilaments (Z lines bisect the I bands) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Composed of only thick myofilaments |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | the synapse between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a muscle cell |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: A motor neuron only inervates one muscle cell (fiber) |  | Definition 
 
        | False: A motor neuron can innervate one to many muscle fibers/cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: neuromuscular junction is an electrical synapse |  | Definition 
 
        | False: a neuromuscular junction is a chemical synapse |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | a chemical synapse between a motor neuron and muscle fiber |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | highly excitable region of a muscle fiber |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | process by which muscle fiber excitation causes a muscle fiber to contract |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Explain role of ACh during muscle excitation: |  | Definition 
 
        | ACh is released from the motor neuron. ACh binds to the ACh receptors on the motor end plate. ACh receptors open allowing influx of Na |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | action potentials produced from Na depolarizing the sarcolemma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What causes release of Ca from terminal cisternae of sarcoplasmic reticulum? |  | Definition 
 
        | Action potentials travel down sarcolemma to transverese tubules and open calcium channels in the terminal cisternae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ca binds to what to cause tropomyosin to change position? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | sites on actin that allow myosin heads to bind |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: ATP allows myosin heads to bind to actin |  | Definition 
 
        | False: ADP allows myosin heads to bind to actin but is quickly released once myosin binds |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ATP and muscle contraction |  | Definition 
 
        | ATP allows myosin to detach from actin binding sites |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | when thin myofilaments slide medially over thick Caused when ADP is released from myosin head |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prior to myosin attaching to actin: ATP hydrolizes to ADP and P |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does phosphate have to be released before mysoin heads can bind to actin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Yes.  ADP can't bind to actin until phosphate is released |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The action potential must stop before: |  | Definition 
 
        | muscle contraction ceases |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | breaks down ACh into Aectic acid and choline allows for choline to be taken back by presynaptic terminal of motor neuron |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Ca is passively taken back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum |  | Definition 
 
        | False: It is actively taken back via the Ca pump |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What shortens during muscle contraction? |  | Definition 
 
        | sacromere, I band and H zone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does not change during muscle contraction:   |  | Definition 
 
        | A band, thin filament and thick filament |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Optimal length of  sacromere to create greatest amount of tension? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If sacromere length is greater than 2.25µm.... |  | Definition 
 
        | tension is reduced because there is not as much actin/myosin overlap. There is a larger sliding distance. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If sacromere length is less than 2.0µm..... |  | Definition 
 
        | tension is reduced because thin filaments begin to overlap. The sliding distance is limited. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Twitch of an individual muscle fiber.... |  | Definition 
 
        | All or nothing response. single contraction of a single muscle fiber in response to a single stimulus. Increase in stimulus strength does not increase the magnitude of the twitch |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Summation in a single muscle fiber |  | Definition 
 
        | successive muscle twitches in response to successive stimuli |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Lag phase but not the relaxation phase will begin to shorten and disappear with successive stimulation of a single muscle fiber. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: Both lag phase and relaxation phase begin to shorten and disappear |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Tension generated with successive stimulation of a single muscle cell increases. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Increase in stimulus strength causes an increase in tension in a single muscle cell. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: Increase in stimulus frequency will cause an increase in tension-but not an increase in stimulus strength |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Tetanus of a single muscle cell |  | Definition 
 
        | Sustained contraction due to MAXIMAL frequency of stimuli Lag phase and relaxation phase DISAPPEAR Tension is at a peak |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Contractile response of a whole muscle 1: Twitch |  | Definition 
 
        | single contraction of a whole muscle in response to a single stimulus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Tension is generated by what in a whole muscle twitch? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | single motor neuron and the muscle fiber(s) it innervates (potential for more than one muscle fiber) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Fewer muscle fibers in an unit are responsible for slow acting, larger muscles. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: fewer muscle fibers in an unit allows for finer movements (ie muscles in the fingers) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Greater muscle fibers in an unit are found in slow reacting muscles. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Summation of a single muscle fiber is known as spatial summation. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: It's temporal summation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | In whole muscle contraction, a larger stimulus recruits greater numbers of motor units which increases tension with each twitch. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | contraction in which muscle length changes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Isotonic contraction in which muscle tension exceeds resistance and causes muscle to shorten |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Isotonic contraction in which resistance exceeds tension and causes muscle to lengthen |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | No movement of muscle. muscle tension does not exceed resistance tension is present cross bridges are formed but there is no shortening or lengthening of sacromere |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | state of partial muscle contraction caused by nerves continually stimulating motor units |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Importance of muscle tone: |  | Definition 
 
        | maintains posture/ keeps head errect keeps muscles ready for work |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False:  there is increased muscle tone with upper motor neuron damage |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: There is increased muscle tone with lower motor neuron damage. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: There is decreased muscle tone with lower motor neuron damage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Involuntary forcible contraction of muscle with failure to relax |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Possible causes of muscle cramps: (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1)Fatigue (low ATP) 2)Low extracellular Ca (causes greater excitation of sarcolemma) 3) Dehydration   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Low potassium generally causes muscle cramps. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: Low potassium can lead to muscle weakness-not normally cramps |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Muscle rigidity that occurs several hours after death. Cause by depletion of ATP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Rigor Mortis can occur while you're alive. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: only happens after death-due to lack of ATP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: ATP is used as an immediate source of energy for muscle contraction |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sources of Energy for muscle contraction:   |  | Definition 
 
        | Creatine Phosphate Glycogen Fat Protein |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: ATP is the only form of energy that can be used in muscle contractions. |  | Definition 
 
        | True: Creatine phosphate, glycogen, fat, and protein can be used as sources for ATP, but can't be used directly to cause muscle contractions. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Processes that yield ATP: (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | Phosphagen System(direct phosphorlation of ADP into ATP) Anaerobic (only glycolysis) Aerobic(fatty acids, amino acids, and glycerol) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Anaerobic requires oxygen to produce ATP |  | Definition 
 
        | False Aerobic require oxygen to produce ATP Aerobic produces higher yield of ATP but takes longer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: The phosphagen system is what is used to produce ATP while running a marathon. |  | Definition 
 
        | False:The phosphagen system only provides about 10-15 seconds of ATP.
 Aerobic production would be used to produce ATP during a marathon. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Signals the brain to feel tired. might be linked to interlueukin 6 possible defense mechanism to conserve energy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Causes of Muscular Fatigue: |  | Definition 
 
        | Depletion of ATP Accumulation of potassium outside the muscle fiber Accumulation of intercellular phosphate(muscle fiber Accumulaton of lactic acid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Dysfunction at the neuromuscular junction can move muscle at least once but can't repeat the movements numerous times |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Autoimmune causes of synaptic fatigue: (2)   |  | Definition 
 
        | myasthenia gravis: autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors-muscles can't be excited-muscle tone decreases   Lambert-Eaton myasthenia syndrome: Autoimmune destruction of pre-synaptic calcium channels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Red, slow twitch fibers White, fast twitch fibers Intermediate fibers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | high respiratory capacity (slow oxidative) High concentration of myoglobin Red More ATP produced aerobically Suited for endurance Marathon runners |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | White Fast twitch fibers: |  | Definition 
 
        | High concentration of glycogen Very low concentration of myoglobin more ATP produced anaerobically fast calcium pumps contracts rapidly suited for power movements (100m dash) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Fast twitch and fatigue resistant (fast oxidative-glycolytic) Not quite as resistant to fatigue as Red, slow twitch Do not contract as rapidly as fast/white twitch |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Matching: 1.)Red, slow twitch                            A.) Type IIa 2)White, fast twitch                          B.) Type IIb 3.)Intermediate                              C.) Type I                                                             D.) Type IIx                                                            E.) Type III |  | Definition 
 
        | Red, slow twitch fibers- (c) Type I White, fast twitch fibers- (b+d) Type IIb and IIx Intermediate fibers- (a+e) IIa and III |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Muscle cells grow by hyperplasia (cell division) |  | Definition 
 
        | False: Muscle cells grow via hyerptrophy Myofibrils increase in number |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Protein that prevents hyperplasia Prevents cell division |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | lines walls of organs (blood vessels, digestive tract, uterus, ureters) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | smooth muscle (voluntary or involuntary) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Single unit-unitary-visceral Multiunit |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | single unit, unitary, visceral smooth muscle: |  | Definition 
 
        | most common type digestive tract, ureters, uterus stimulation of one cell excites adjacent cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | less organized function independently arrector pili, iris, some blood vessels   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: smooth muscle contains myofibrils |  | Definition 
 
        | True: myofibrils are more randomly organized and not striated   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | myofibrils of smooth muscle: |  | Definition 
 
        | actin anchored to dense bodies in sarcoplasm actin anchored to dense areas attached to sarcolemma contain calcium binding protein calmodulin   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | calcium binding protein found in smooth muscle cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: T tubules are found in smooth muscle cells |  | Definition 
 
        | False: T tubules are not needed because cells are smaller than skeletal muscle cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | found in smooth muscle, state of sustained contraction, important in maintaining muscle tone or blood vessels and sphincters |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cardiac muscle: (Voluntary or involuntary) (Striated or nonstriated) (Developed sarcoplasmic reticulum or undeveloped) |  | Definition 
 
        | striated well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum involuntary |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Cardiac t tubules are more developed than skeletal muscle t tubules |  | Definition 
 
        | True Form diads with a single terminal cisternae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Calcium induced calcium release: |  | Definition 
 
        | found in cardiac muscle cells calcium released from terminal cisterna into the sarcoplasm causes release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | found in cardiac muscle cross bands that connect opposing ends of cardiac muscle fibers form syncitium |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | sheet of cardiac muscle cells allows all cardiac muscle cells to contract at the same time |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Blood is a connective tissue |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | plasma and formed elements |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | liquid portion of blood mostly (91% ) water rest proteins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | approx 9% of blood plasma includes albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | most abundant plasma protein  helps regulate water movement between tissues and blood |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | plasma protein that helps form immune system and transport molecules |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | involved in blood clot formation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | formed elements of blood plasma |  | Definition 
 
        | erythrocytes, leukoctyes, platelets |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | RBC's majority of formed elements no nucleus, bioconcave contain oxygen carrying protein-hemoglobin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | precentage of RBC's in blood |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | normal HcT level for women: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | oxygen carrying protein of RBC's |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | WBC's less than 1% of total blood volume have a nucleus do not carry hemoglobin do not carry oxygen |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: WBC's carry oxygen |  | Definition 
 
        | False: RBC's carry oxygen via hemoglobin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Two categories of leukocytes: |  | Definition 
 
        | agranulocytes granulocytes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: agranulocytes do not have granules |  | Definition 
 
        | false: agranulocytes do have granules, but they are two small to be seen with a light microscope |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Granulocytes have granules |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | neutrophils basophils eosinophils |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | granulocyte that phagocytizes microorganisms and other substances |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | granulocyte that phagocytizes certain parasitic worms and responds to reduce inflammation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | granulocyte that releases histamine-which promotes inflammation and increases heparin-which prevents clot formation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | agranulocyte that has multiple immune system responses (attacks tumors, produces antibodies, contributes to allergic reactions, etc) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | agranulocyte that phagocytizes substances in the blood but will leave the blood and enter tissues (named macrophage in tissue-phagocytizes bacteria, dead cells,etc in tissue) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | pieces of cells that seal small tears in blood vessels and release chemicals that promote blood clots |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | transport of gases transport of nutrients transport of waste products regulation of pH, electrolytes, and water balance regulation of body temp protection against pathogens clot formation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | formed elements of blood (3)   |  | Definition 
 
        | erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: formed elements are created in the bone marrow as an adult |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | production of formed elements from hemocytoblast |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: erythrocytes have a nucleus |  | Definition 
 
        | False: RBC's do not have a nucleus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | develope into RBC does have nucleus at this stage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | daughter cell of hemocytoblast that developes into granular WBC's (basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | daughter cell of hemocytoblast that develops into lymphocytes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | daughter cell of hemocytoblast that develops into agranular WBC monocytes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | daughter cell of hemocytoblast that develop into megakaryocytes these fragment to form platelets |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stimulate red blood cell development |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stimulates megakaryocyte development (platelet formation) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clinical uses of EPO (3): |  | Definition 
 
        | treatment for kidney failure chemo patients blood doping for endurance sports |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 4 individual globin protein units: Adults- 2α and 2β globins Fetal- 2α and 2γ(gamma) globins each globin contains a heme which contains iron and binds an oxygen molecule |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 4 oxygens bound to Hb=100% saturation(full) 3 oxygens bound to Hb= 75% saturation 2 oxygens bound to Hb = 50% saturation 1 oxygen bound to Hb - 25% saturation   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | device that measures the percent of Hb that is fully saturated arterial blood is normally 95-99% saturated |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: RBC's contain mitochondria |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: a RBC does not have a nucleus to allow for greater number of Hb in the cell |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: A RBC can divide and can produce new proteins |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Number of RBC's produced per second: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | RBC's mature in 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 days? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | RBC production is stimulated by: |  | Definition 
 
        | low blood oxygen levels. Causes of low blood oxygen levels: decreased /defective RBC's decreased/defective Hb lung disease smoking strenous exercise high altitude cardiovascular disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Causes of low blood oxygen levels: |  | Definition 
 
        | decreased /defective RBC's decreased/defective Hb lung disease smoking strenous exercise high altitude cardiovascular disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Low blood oxygen levels stimulate: |  | Definition 
 
        | release of EPO from the kidneys |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does release of EPO stimulate the red bone marrow directly? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How many RBC's are destroyed per second? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2.5 million (same number as produced) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What's the lifespan of an RBC? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are old RBC's removed from the blood? |  | Definition 
 
        | removed via spleen and liver they're phagocytized via macrophages |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: macrophages were once called monocytes when they were found in the blood. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Hemoglobin is broken down into heme and globin when the RBC is phagocytized. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Globin is broken down into amino acids when a RBC is phagocytized. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Heme broken into when an RBC is phagocytized? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Iron attaches to transferrin and most is transported to the liver when Heme is broken down? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | a protein that attaches to iron when it is stored in the liver |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | apoferritin and iron complex   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Ferritin is only found in the liver. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: it is also found in the spleen and bone marrow |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Ferritin used for in the redbone marrow? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Heme is broken down into biliverdin? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | part of Hb that is converted into bilirubin after hemoglobin breaks down |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | fat soluable product of biliverdin. must attach to albumin to be transported to the liver |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | when bilirubin binds to albumin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | free bilirubin that joins to glucuronic acid in the liver and becomes water soluable and can be excreted via the kidneys and intestines. Used to make bile   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Bile is released into the kidneys. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: conjugated bilirubin forms bile and is released into the small instestine, but some conjugated bilirubin is released back into the blood and is excreted through the kidneys |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Yellowing of the skin, conjunctiva, mucous membranes, due to an inrease of free or conjugated bilirubin in the blood |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | prehepatic jaundice Causes and type |  | Definition 
 
        | (bilirubin before reaches liver) Caused by increased RBC destruction liver can't conjugate all free bilirubin (high levels of free bilirubin) normal amount of conjugated bilirubin normal stool and urine color found in newborns due to high (70%)hematocrits  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | (jaundice caused by liver) Liver's unable to conjugate free bilirubin in blood High free bilirubin in the blood/low conjugated Pale feces/normal urine found with liver disorders-cirrhosis and hepatitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | posthepatic jaundice/obstructive jaundice |  | Definition 
 
        | blockage of bile drainage(gall stones) conjugated bilirubin can't enter small instestine increased conjugated bilirubin in blood pale feces/dark urine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | bilirubin toxicity in the brain of infants bilirubin moves from blood to brain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Warning signs of kernicterus |  | Definition 
 
        | jaundice below the waist high pitched cry lethargy loss of muscle tone -can lead to brain damage or death |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hemoglobin concentration (not the same as hematocrit) 1) males 2.) females |  | Definition 
 
        | 1.) 13.5-18mg/dl blood 2.) 11.5-16mg/dl blood |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | fatigue shortness of breath(dypsnia) malaise pale skin(pallor) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | genetic disorders blood loss lack of EPO (kidney disease) malnutrition cancer autoimmune |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nutritional causes of anemia |  | Definition 
 
        | iron deficiency inability to absorb b12 folate deficiency |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | nutritional cause low iron most common cause of anemia Treated with iron supplements |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | -lack of intrinsic factor in stomach can't absorb B12 from foods - nutritional deficiency Increase B12 via shots or nutrition |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | nutritional anemia folate needed to mature RBC's increase folate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Caused by damage to Red bone marrow possibly autoimmune or therapeutic drugs Diagnosed by bone marrow biopsy treatment: bone marrow transplant or immunosuppressive drugs   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Genetic disorder Anemia: due to defective Hb Type α or β Alpha-affects alpha globin chain/Beta affects beta globin chain Treatment: blood transfusions which can cause iron overloading which is treated by chelation therapy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Defective beta chain on Hb RBC's sickle due to polymerization of defective Hb RBC's clump and block blood flow-cause vaso-occlusive crisis Sickle cell crisis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | RBC's block blood flow cause ischemia and pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sickle cell crisis caused by |  | Definition 
 
        | hypoxia acidosis dehydration infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treatment of sickle cell anemia |  | Definition 
 
        | analgesics for pain blood transfusion bone marrow transplant hydroxurea: breaks down cells prone to sickling (a chemotherapeutic agent-long term use can cause leukemia) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Increased RBC destruction Lifespan of RBC just a few weeks Can cause jaundice |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Types of Hemolytic anemias |  | Definition 
 
        | Pernicious folate deficiency thalassemia sickle cell anemia Ertythroblastosis fetalis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Increased percentage of RBC's Caused by increased EPO Increases viscosity of blood (thickness) Increases blood pressure   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | high altitude exposure lung disease smoking shots of EPO Blood doping (endurance athletes) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 5,000 to 9, 000 WBC's / µl of blood |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Elevated WBC count can be caused by infection (>10,000) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Abnormally low WBC count (<5,000) Can be caused by AIDS |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | overproduction of any one type of WBC Crowds out RBC's and platelets WBC's are defective non functioning Frequent infections More common in adults, but #1 type of children's cancer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Not cells, but cell fragments  normal range  150,000-400,000/µl of blood |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Decreased platelet counts <50,000- can lead to uncontrolled bleeding     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Causes of Thrombocytopenia: |  | Definition 
 
        | Leukemia autoimmune (lupus) aplastic anemias(bone marrow doesn't function properly) congenital idiopathic   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | symptoms of Thrombocyopenia |  | Definition 
 
        | usually asymptomatic unless platelet counts are extremely low purpura-red or purple discolorations of skin Petechiae-small spots Ecchymoses- larger spots bleeding of mouth, gums, digestive tract and brain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | treatment of Thrombocyopenia |  | Definition 
 
        | platelet transfusions TPO injections |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Increased platelet counts asymptomatic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | primary: idiopathic -can cause bleeding if platelets are abnormal or clotting if platelets are normal Secondary Thromobocytosis: - can cause inflammation and bleeding |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treatment of Thrombocytosis |  | Definition 
 
        | none needed for secondary daily low aspirin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Body's mechanisms of hemostasis (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | Vascular spasms/Vasospasm Platelet plug Blood coagulation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | vasoconstriction due to cut blood vessel decreases blood flow to vessel restricts bleeding more effective in veins than arteries |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | works in conjunction with vasospasm endothelial cells of blood vessels secrete vWF Platelets bind and become activated Platelets aggregate and form platelet plug occurs on a daily basis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Von Willebrand factor (vWF)   |  | Definition 
 
        | protein that aids in the adhesion of platelets to the blood vessel. Platelets adhere to collagen fibers of damaged blood vessel via vWF |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Platelet release reaction |  | Definition 
 
        | after platelets bind to damaged vessel, platelets activate and release ADP, thromboxane,serotonin, and calcium Causes them to become sticky Positive feedback cycle allows platelet plug to form |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Blood coagulation-extrinsic clotting mechanism |  | Definition 
 
        | so named because it begins with substances that are outside of the plasma. Rapid response- less than 30 sec release tissue thromboplastin (factor III) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Blood coagulation-intrinsic clotting mechanism |  | Definition 
 
        | So named because begins with substances that are part of the plasma relatively slow-takes minutes more complex than extrinsic initiated by activation of Hageman factor (XIIa) Cause by blood being exposed to foreign surface |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Pathway that involves both extrinsic and intrinsic clotting mechanisms: (combine)   |  | Definition 
 
        | Prothombinase converts prothrombin (factorII) into thrombin(factor IIa) Thrombin catalyzes a reaction that fragments fibrinogen Long threads of fibrin forms webbing of clot |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Calcium and vitamin K are both needed for the synthesis of prothrombin |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Part of common pathway catalyzes a reaction that fragments fibrinogen(factor I) Long threads of Fibrin are formed that forms the webbing of the clot |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | forms the webbing of a blood clot Part of common pathway |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | actin and myosin platelets pull edges of broken blood vessel together platelets release platelet derived growth factor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | platelet derived growth factor |  | Definition 
 
        | stimulates smooth muscle and fibroblasts to repair blood vessel |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clot dissolution Fibrinolysis |  | Definition 
 
        | Occurs a few days after clot formation plasminogen activators (enzymes) released by damaged tissue converts plasminogen into plasmin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cause of excessive bleeding |  | Definition 
 
        | Hemophilia's ABC Von Willebrand disease Vitamin K deficiency Liver Disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Hemophilia A Hemophilia B Hemophilia C |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | due to deficiency of factor VIII Bleeding into joints, muscles, GI tract and brain Most common in males Most common form of Hemophilia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | treatment of Hemophilia A |  | Definition 
 
        | Plasma transfusion Factor VIII injection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Due to deficiency of factor IX bleeding into joints and muscles most exclusive in males very mild forms in females |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treatment of Hemophilia B |  | Definition 
 
        | Plasma transfusion Factor IX injection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Due to deficiency of factor XI nosebleeds heavy menses occurs in both males and females no treatment is needed |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Due to deficiency  of vWF and factor VIII most common hereditary bleeding disorder in world nosebleeds, heavy menses, bruising can be caused by autoimmune disorder |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treatment of Von Willebrand disease |  | Definition 
 
        | Plasma transfusion Factor VIII and vWF injections   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Can lead to excessive bleeding Vitamin K is needed to synthesize factors II, VII, IX, and X Excessive antibiotic use b/c ecoli makes Vit K Malabsorption (Crohn's) Newborns (lack intestinal flora) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treatment of Vitamin K deficiency |  | Definition 
 
        | replace lost vitamin K with diet or injections |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | causes bleeding disorder because liver makes most clotting factors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Causes of Abnormal Clot formation |  | Definition 
 
        | Stasis Disseminated intravascular coagulation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Risk factors for  Abnormal Clot formation |  | Definition 
 
        | Pregnancy being overweight smoking supplemental estrogen therapy (birthcontrol) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | slowed or halted blood flow due to: inactivity congestive heart failure aneurysms   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Disseminated intravascular coagulation |  | Definition 
 
        | Massive clotting of blood in body leads to massive bleeding   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Causes of Disseminated intravascular coagulation |  | Definition 
 
        | 1)Obstetrical complications (most common cause): -toxemia -chemicals for uterus 2)Sepsis 3)Tissue Trauma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treatment of Disseminated intravascular coagulation |  | Definition 
 
        | transfuse platelets transfuse plasma anitcoagulants (if caught early) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Antithrombin (protein that inactivates number of clotting factors) Heparin-activates antithrombin-produced by basophils and endothelial cells Prostacyclin-inhibits  platelets from releasing coagulation factors-prevents aggregation of platelets |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | body's natural protein that inactivates number of clotting factors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | body's natural anticoagulant that activates antithrombin-produced by basophils and endothelial cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | body's natural anticoagulant that inhibits  platelets from releasing coagulation factors-prevents aggregation of platelets |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Heparin Coumadin/Warfarin Plavix Aspirin   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Blood thinner competes with vit K prevents synthesis of vit K dependent clotting factors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stops platelets from sticking together blocks ADP receptors Platelets can't be activated and can not aggregate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | (81mg/day) inhibits cyclooxygenase inhibits thromboxane A2 secreted by platelets prevents platelet aggregation Lasts for days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) activates plasminogen to produce plasmin Plasmin digests fibrin Hirudin-leeches |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) |  | Definition 
 
        | Clot busting drugs: activates plasminogen to produce plasmin Plasmin digests fibrin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | clot busting drug protein from saliva of leeches Hirudotherapy-use of leeches for medicinal purposes-help with healing |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Type A blood (RBC/Plasma) |  | Definition 
 
        | RBC contains antigen A Plasma contains antibodies to antigen B AA or AO |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | RBC contains B antigen Plasma contains A antibody Genotype: BB or Bo |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | RBC contains A and B antigen Plasma contains-NO antibodies Genotype: AB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | RBC contains no antigens Plasma contains antibodies to A and B Genotype: oo |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | five Rh antigens, but D is most important Rh Postive has D antigen(DD) or (Dd) Rh negative no D antigen (dd) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Genotype: dd Plasma has no D antibodies present RBC does not have D antigen present 15% of population |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Genotype: DD or Dd 85% of population Plasma  has no antibodies to antigen D RBC does have D antigen present |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Blood Type Distribution: Most Common to Least |  | Definition 
 
        | O+, A+, B+, O-, A-, AB+, B-, AB- |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Universal plasma recipient |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Type AB plasma No antibodies |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Type O- No antigens present of surface of RBC |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Type AB+ has no antibodies in plasma because Has A, B, and D antigens on surface |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does Botox impact muscles? |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibits the release of ACh, thus paralyzing the muscle |  | 
        |  |