Term
1. Aircrew, ABM/WDs, and JTAC's are to be familiar with the capabilities and limitations of _________for mission accomplishment.
a. communications and control facilities
b. coordination requirements
c. other weapons systems employed
d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
2. According to AFI 11-214, ABM/WDs are responsible for ______.
a. knowing the states of alert, readiness, warning, and ROE within the operational command’s assigned AOR
b. knowing and complying with authentication procedures
c. knowing the characteristics and capabilities/limitations of the threat
d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
3. What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required?
a. Available Air-to-Air armament
b. Available Air-to-Surface armament
c. Fuel Status
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
4. During check-out, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with ______.
a. weather
b. callsign, location, and recovery base or recovery request
c. mission results and intelligence
d. both b and c |
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Definition
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Term
5. According to AFI 11-214, what will the ABM/WD accomplish during aircraft recoveries, as conditions permit?
a. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
b. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance
c. Pass final shots, kills, and Mode IV results
d. Log aircraft "Fence Out" on AF Form 0-96 |
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Definition
| a. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures |
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Term
6. Before the "FIGHTS-ON" call (or “vulnerability” start time) exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting ____.
a. the "VUL" time
b. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in area, block changes, altimeter setting)
c. ROE
d. RTO working frequency |
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Definition
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Term
7. During exercises, Exercise directors and mission commanders can use which of the following for Separation of Aircraft:
a. Time
b. Space (assigning specific geographical areas of flight)
c. Altitude blocks
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
8. A proper STROBE response to “THUD 11 STROBE 270” is; “THUD 11 STROBE RANGE 37 BULLSEYE 2-4-1/14 30 THOUSAND, HOSTILE, SOUTH GROUP”
a. TRUE
b. FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
9. The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a "KNOCK-IT-OFF" is _____.
a. immediately works 90 degrees out of the fight / reset CAP
b. acknowledge with callsign and cease tactical maneuvering/end scenario
c. deconflict flight paths, and address any problems/issues
d. both B and C |
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Definition
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Term
10. When is the recommended time for a LOWDOWN to be passed?
a. 10 Minutes prior to PUSH
b. 5 Minutes prior to the PUSH, and initial check-in for late players
c. 5 Minutes prior to ROLLCALL
d. 10 Minutes After CHECK-IN |
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Definition
| d. 5 minutes prior to push, and initial check in for late players |
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Term
11. When calling "TERMINATE", anchor position ______. Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type of aircraft, and geographical feature).
a. with latitude and longitude coordinates
b. with UTM coordinates
c. geographically or with a bullseye reference
d. relative to the E-3 |
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Definition
| c. geographically or with a bullseye reference |
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Term
12. Use "TERMINATE" when safety of flight is not a factor in conjunction with the following:
a. Reaching BINGO fuel
b. Exceeding area boundaries
c. Training rules or other limits met
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
13. In a Communications Jamming environment, transmissions required for safety will be prefaced with_____.
a. BREAK, BREAK
b. ALL PLAYERS, STANDBY
c. SAFETY, SAFETY
d. CEASE COMMUNICATIONS |
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Definition
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Term
14. Transmit blank when situations develop that meet KNOCK-IT-OFF criteria as a result of communication jamming.
a. TERMINATE
b. CEASE BUZZER
c. KNOCK-IT-OFF
d. FREEZE |
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Definition
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Term
15. Do not conduct communications jamming blank on frequency.
a. Primary Air-to-Air
b. Guard / any predesignated safety
c. Primary Air-to-Surface
d. SEAD VHF |
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Definition
| b. Guard/any predesignated safety |
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Term
16. According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a ____ responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) _____ responsibility.
a. joint aircrew and ABM/WD / joint aircrew and ABM/WD
b. ABM/WDs / ABM/WD
c. pilot-aircrew / ABM/WD
d. joint aircrew and ABM/WD / aircrew |
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Definition
| d. joint aircrew and ABM/WD/aircrew |
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Term
17. During air-to-air training missions, the ABM/WD will advise aircrew _____.
a. bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard
b. when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm
c. when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for non-fighters) or as directed by the ATC agency
d. Both a and c |
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Definition
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Term
18. Which of the following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live external Air-to-Air missiles for other than WSEP firing:
a. Aircrew will make a “WEAPONS SAFE” call upon initial check-in, and before each setup following a KIO or terminate
b. Do not use the terms “HOSTILE” or “KILL” at anytime
c. Maximum maneuvering category is LIMITED
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
19. During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The _____ participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category.
a. altitude of the lowest
b. flight lead of blue forces
c. altitude of the highest
d. flight lead of red forces |
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Definition
| a. altitude of the lowest |
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Term
20.______ enables the maximum use of aircrew and ABM/WD, radar and communication, andSituational Awareness to accomplish the mission.
a.Close Control
b.Tactical Control
c.Broadcast Control
d.Advisory Control |
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Definition
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Term
21.Broadcast control is a means for ABM/WDs to support air operations in a covert or saturated environment. ABM/WDs provide _____ communications primarily to pass target information to multiple missions by referencing a designated location.
a.directive
b.comparative
c.tactical
d.informative |
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Definition
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Term
22.The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are:
a.Unlimited, restricted, non-maneuvering, limited, and controlled
b.Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous
c.Level 5, level 4, level 3, level 2, and level 1
d.Close, Tactical, Unlimited, Broadcast, Advisory |
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Definition
| b. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous |
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Term
23.Low altitude (LOWAT) is defined as _____.
a.below 5,000 ft MSL (fixed wing)
b.below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing)
c.below Minimum Safe Altitude
d.below 11-2MDS minimums |
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Definition
| b. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing) |
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Term
24.Aircraft may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless atleast one of the following conditions apply.
a.All adversaries are beyond 10 nm (15nm for F-22/F-35)
b.Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with othergroups within 10 nm exists, or Not Tally with all adversaries within 10 NM but not aconflict (i.e. no collision potential) based on SA.
c.Verbally confirms adversary's hard altitude and maintains required vertical separation
d.Any of the above are correct |
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Definition
| d. Any of the above are correct |
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Term
25. If a previously undetected groups appears inside of Targeting Depth (TD) (and outside threat criteria) and the fighter has reached meld on any other group, or when a previously undetected/unreported group is detected inside meld, this group will be labeled as _________.
a. New Group
b. Faded Group
c. Pop-up Threat
d. Pop-up Group |
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Definition
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Term
26. is defined as "[A/A] Any number of air CONTACTs within 3 nm in azimuth and range of each other" or “[AIR/MAR] Any number of surface CONTACTs within 1 nm of each other”
a. HIT
b. FLIGHT
c. GROUP
d. CONTACT |
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Definition
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Term
27. A is a briefed maneuver to minimize closure to threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage. Will be used to initiate a grinder tactic.
a. NOTCH
b. BEAM
c. PUMP
d. FLANK |
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Definition
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Term
28. When a pilot calls , he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter.
a. SEPARATE
b. SLIDE
c. BUG OUT
d. SCRAM |
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Definition
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Term
29. NAILS (direction) is a brevity term meaning: ________.
a. receiving strobes
b. [A/S] 2.75-inch flechette rockets
c. [A/A] radar warning receiver indication of AI radar in search
d. both B and C |
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Definition
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Term
30. is the code word used when an aircraft is in a defensive position and is maneuvering with reference to a threat.
a. BREAK
b. NOTCH
c. SNAP
d. OUT |
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Definition
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Term
31. ____ is a brevity term meaning "no radar warning receiver indications."
a. CLEAN
b. BLIND
c. NAKED
d. SILENT |
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Definition
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Term
33. ______is an informative call that voice deception is being employed.
a. BUZZER
b. CHATTERMARK
c. SNOOZE
d. SPOOFING |
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Definition
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Term
32. HIGH is a brevity term meaning target altitude is greater than _______.
a. 30,000 ft MSL
b. 40,000 ft MSL
c. 42,000 ft MSL
d. 45,000 ft MSL |
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Definition
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Term
34. PAINT is a brevity term meaning ____.
a. any AAI/APX interrogation return
b. any IFF/SIF return
c. a raw radar return
d. an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria. |
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Definition
| d. an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria. |
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Term
35. SLOW is a target with a ground speed of _____ - ______ knots.
a. 50 / 350
b. 50 / 150
c. 100 / 300
d. 100 / 250 |
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Definition
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Term
36. A _____call indicates an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) identification, friend or foe/selective identification feature modes and codes required for the ID criteria.
a. DIAMONDS
b. CLEAN
c. SWEET
d. SPADES |
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Definition
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Term
37. According to AFTTP 3-1. General Planning, Attachment 1 ______ is a request to provide tactical ground information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseye format.
a. STAKE
b. SKINNY
c. LOWDOWN
d. SHOPPING |
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Definition
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Term
38. _____ is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics with the intent to maneuver into the visual arena.
a. RAYGUN
b. SKATE
c. BANZAI
d. CHEAPSHOT |
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Definition
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Term
39. When a pilot uses the term ____, it is a request for information on indicated or closest GROUP in BRAA (with appropriate fill-ins).
a. PICTURE
b. BOGEY DOPE
c. CLEAN
d. BLIND |
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Definition
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Term
40. ______ is a code word meaning an aircraft will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a track of interest (TOI), attempt communications, and report all observations of activity.
a. INVESTIGATE
b. TARGET
c. INSPECT
d. HEADBUTT |
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Definition
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Term
41. When passing a CAS 9-line briefing, which items are mandatory read back items for aircrew?
a. Line 3 (Distance), Line 4 (Elevation) and Restrictions
b. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 6 (Target Location) and Restrictions
c. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 8 (Location of Friendlies) and Remarks
d. Line 6 (Target Location), Line 8 (Location of Friendlies) and Remarks |
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Definition
| b. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 6 (Target Location) and Restrictions |
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Term
42. _____ is an inner GROUP formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader.
a. ECHELON
b. OFFSET
c. BEARING
d. SWEPT (with sub-cardinal direction) |
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Definition
| D. SWEPT (with sub-cardinal direction) |
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Term
43. Informative call that contact cannot be targeted due to EA or radar indications of jamming of A/A beyond visual range (BVR) employment.
a. METALLICA
b. MILLER TIME
c. NEGLECT
d. PACMAN |
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Definition
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Term
44. ________is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in searchmode.
a. NAILS
b. SINGER
c. MUD
d. DIRT |
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Definition
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Term
45. For air to surface missions, ______ is a directive term to verify specified element(s) of ROE, PID, CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track.
a. TARGET
b. INVESTIGATE
c. SMACK
d. INSPECT |
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Definition
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Term
46. For air to surface missions, _______is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target or track correlation, CDE, and clear field of fire must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires.
a. TARGET
b. INVESTIGATE
c. SMACK
d. INSPECT |
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Definition
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Term
47. When controlling F-16s, at “REDEC” range (45 NM or as briefed), the first to recognize the separation of 45 NM from the closest committed fighter to the closest adversary group will_______.
a. call “45 MILES”
b. REDEC each group within targeting depth
c. REDEC early enough to end transmission at 45 NM
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
48. TRUE or FALSE. If a fighter calls “SPIKED” with a magnetic bearing or sub-cardinal direction and the group spiking the fighter is within threat range, the ABM/WD will respond with a standard spike response.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
49. ______ is a near real time, text based, multi-participant means of communicating and allows for predominantly jam-free communications, similar to radio voice communications, over military networks.
a. Tactical Chat
b. Text Messaging
c. Facebook
d. USAF Google |
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Definition
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Term
50. _____provides assessments of threat capabilities and intentions to the commander, staff, and deployed personnel.
a. Intelligence support
b. Notifications and warning
c. Situational reporting
d. Battle Management Command and Control |
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Definition
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Term
51. What criteria must be met for an aircraft to enable the HFF mutation for High Fast Flyer?
a. ≥350kts and ≤40,000ft
b. ≤600kts and ≥25,000ft
c. ≥700 kts and ≤40,000ft
d. ≥600kts and ≥40,000ft |
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Definition
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Term
52. Prior to establishing radio/radar/data link/visual contact (with RPA), manned aircraft will maintain a minimum of feet vertical or NM lateral separation from RPA’s expected altitude block or orbit point.
a. 2,000 / 3
b. 4,000 / 5
c. 1,000 / 5
d. 3,000 / 10 |
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Definition
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Term
53. During , NLT 10NM (15NM for F-22/F-35), GCI/AWACS (or the RTO as long as all players are tracking), will make a “Check Blocks” call.
a. All missions
b. VFR conditions
c. IMC conditions
d. Split wars |
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Definition
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Term
54. On a Personnel Recovery (PR) 15-Line Execution Brief, which line # is the condition of the survivor?
a. Line 4
b. Line 12
c. Line 1
d. Line 15 |
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Definition
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Term
55. In a CAS 9-Line, Line 8 is location of friendlies. Which format should friendly locations be passed in?
a. MGRS
b. Lat/Long
c. From target, cardinal direction and distance in meters
d. From CP, bearing and range |
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Definition
| c. From target, cardinal directions and distance in meters |
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Term
56. Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target?
a. XFR CONT
b. WPNS FREE
c. ENGAGE
d. WPNS TIGHT |
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Definition
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Term
57. To obtain the highest fidelity data, what picture building mechanic should WD/ABMs utilize to build their picture?
a. Time Line Assess
b. Frame The Fight
c. Spot Light Zoom
d. Ranged Roll Over |
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Definition
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Term
58. What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of Class A airspace?
a. Restricted Area
b. Military Operations Area (MOA)
c. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)
d. Military Training Route (MTR) |
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Definition
| b. military operations area (MOA) |
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Term
59. Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity is conducted?
a. Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)
b. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)
c. Alert Area
d. Military Training Route (MTR) |
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Definition
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Term
60. Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)?
a. To facilitate the mass movement of aircraft or other special user requirements
b. To alert non-military and non-participating military IFR pilots to areas in which pilot training operations are occurring
c. To prevent VFR traffic from flying at specific altitudes
d. To segregate military from non-military aircraft on an as-needed basis |
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Definition
| a. To facilitate the mass movement of aircraft or other special user requirements |
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Term
61. What is a J12.6 message?
a. Mission Assignment
b. Target/Sorting
c. Controlling Unit Report
d. Free Text |
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Definition
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Term
62. Crew rest will normally begin _____ after the debrief.
a. 2 hours
b. 1.5 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 1 hour |
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Definition
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Term
63. Which form is used at the battalion level and HHQ to submit air support requests when automated systems are not available?
a. DD Form 1990, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR)
b. DD Form 1972, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR)
c. DD Form 1990, Air Strike Request (ASR)
d. DD Form 1972, Air Strike Request (ASR) |
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Definition
| b. DD Form 1972, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR) |
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Term
64. What document outlines specific Air Force guidance to compliment ALSA MTTPs on Tactical Chat?
a. OPORD
b. SPINS
c. OPTASK LINK
d. ATMO |
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Definition
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Term
65. How many ARC-210 radios are installed on the MQ-9 UAS?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4 |
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Definition
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Term
66. What is the loiter time of a MQ-9 Reaper at altitude with minimal winds?
a. 10-12 hours
b. 14-17 hours
c. 19-22 hours
d. 30-40 hours |
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Definition
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Term
67. When sending a J28.2 to an F-16C, what is the character limit per line?
a. 20
b. 28
c. 34
d. 45 |
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Definition
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Term
68. When sending a J28.2 to an F-22A, what is the character limit per line?
a. 20
b. 28
c. 34
d. 45 |
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Definition
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Term
69. When sending a J28.2 to an F-15E, what is the character limit per line?
a. 20
b. 28
c. 34
d. 45 |
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Definition
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Term
70. When sending a J28.2 to an A-10C, what is the character limit per line?
a. 20
b. 28
c. 34
d. 45 |
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Definition
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Term
71. The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of ______nautical miles and a maximum altitude of _____ feet.
a. 250 / 85,000
b. 230 / 95,000
c. 240 / 99,500
d. 340 / 95,500 |
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Definition
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Term
72. True/False. An F-15C can receive J3.5 and J28.2s?
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
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Term
73. True or False. The MQ1 AND MQ9 are Link 16 capable?
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
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Term
74. An activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades enemy air defenses in a specific area by physical attack and/or electronic warfare describes what mission?
a. Air Interdiction (AI)
b. Close Air Support (CAS)
c. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)
d. Destruction of Enemy Air Defense (DEAD) |
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Definition
| c. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense(SEAD) |
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Term
75. Which scope scan pattern process includes the leading edge of friendlies plus the leading edge of adversaries plus histories?
a. Frame The Fight
b. Timeline Access
c. Rubber Band Zoom
d. AOR Sanitization |
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Definition
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Term
76. If video recordings of missions are made, the minimum classification of the tapes is _____.
a. Classified
b. Secret
c. Top-Secret
d. For Official Use Only |
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Definition
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Term
77. Crews will ensure track symbology and present sensor data of controlled aircraft are within _____NM of each other.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5 |
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Definition
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Term
78. Who is responsible to the MC for conducting the surveillance function of the CRC?
a. Battle Management Team (BMT)
b. Section Lead (SL)
c. Sensor Operations Team (SOT)
d. Both B and C |
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Definition
| c. Sensor Operations Team (SOT) |
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Term
79. TRUE or FALSE: During routine training missions of no greater than a 4v4, the SL may conduct red air or flight follow control.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
80. This tool is used to derive precise bearing and range for BRAA calls.
a. Cursor Bearing and Range
b. Tactical Bearing and Range
c. Frame the Fight
d. Persistent Bearing and Range |
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Definition
| b. Tactical Bearing and Range |
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Term
81. All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT:
a. An external telephone line
b. STE telephone
c. AN/ARC-164 UHF radio
d. A six-channel troposcatter radio |
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Definition
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Term
82. Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but to continue to track the target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept the target?
a. CEASE FIRE
b. WPNS FREE
c. CEASE ENGAGE
d. HOLD FIRE |
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Definition
|
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Term
83. Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing, destroy missiles already in flight?
a. ASSIGN
b. CEASE FIRE
c. HEADS UP
d. HOLD FIRE |
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Definition
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Term
84. If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the code on the transmission authentication table?
a. The sum of all the numerals in the actual transmission table
b. The number that stands for the transmission time rounded up to the next even number
c. The actual transmission time plus one number
d. The actual transmission time minus one number |
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Definition
| d. the actual transmission time minus one number |
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Term
85. Which order dictates that units assume a posture where weapons systems may be fired only at targets positively identified as hostile?
a. WPNS FREE
b. ENGAGE
c. INVES/INTRG
d. WPNS TIGHT |
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Definition
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Term
1. To support the 726 ACS wartime mission, personnel will be trained for an?
a. “Armed for time limited defense” posture
b. Convoy commander position
c. Resiliency Training Advocate
d. Evaluator |
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Definition
| a. "armed for time limited defense" posture |
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Term
2. What are some of the unit’s wartime missions?
a. Manage and direct defensive and offensive air battle management activities
b. Manage surveillance assets
c. Provide threat warning including theater missile defense warning information to aircraft control and advisory services
d. Establish and maintain data link and voice communications networks
e. All the above |
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Definition
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Term
3. A Category II exercise incorporates an external unit for coordination w/ a higher TACS element.
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
|
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Term
4. What equipment connectivity is necessary to execute Category I, II Simulation exercises?
a. OM to TPS-75 Van
b. OM or Sim Shelter
c. Sim Shelter to Tech Control Van
d. OM to Tech Control Van |
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Definition
|
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Term
5. The 726th commitment to become Mission Ready is primarily concerned with what?
a. Equipment or Vehicles
b. Equipment and Morale
c. Equipment and Personnel
d. Equipment or Experienced operators |
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Definition
| c. Equipment and Personnel |
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Term
6. A Category I exercise can be a locally generated crew oriented exercise.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
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Term
7. Which Category Exercise concentrates on both fundamentals of getting to a deployed/in-garrison location and having the personnel ready to execute the mission?
a. Category I
b. Category II |
|
Definition
|
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Term
8. Currently, which major contingency operations are CRC units tasked to support?
a. Operation ENDURING FREEDOM
b. Air Defense of the Arabian Gulf
c. Operation NOBLE EAGLE
d. All of the above |
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Definition
|
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Term
9. Operation______________ is an ongoing contingency specifically for the defense of the United States. The 726th ACS supports this contingency with personnel and equipment.
a. IRAQI FREEDOM
b. NOBLE EAGLE
c. SOUTHERN WATCH
d. DESERT STORM |
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Definition
|
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Term
10. What form should be completed by single parents & couples who are both in the military, with dependents?
a. AF Form 211
b. AF Form 357
c. DOD Form 612
d. DOD Form 355 |
|
Definition
|
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Term
11. Overall, each individual assigned to a primary mobility position has the personal responsibility to accomplish all actions necessary to ensure they are ready for contingency deployments or exercises?
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
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Term
12. What will be established for every person and be maintained on file in Combat Support?
a. A listing of your mobility issued equipment.
b. A telephone number of nearest family member.
c. A description of your death benefits.
d. A personnel Readiness Folder/ “Mobility Folder” |
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Definition
| d. A personnel Readiness Folder/ "Mobility Folder" |
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Term
13. If notified of a recall, personnel are directed to come to work as quickly as possible, without violating traffic laws. Personnel are not to delay for personal grooming, meals, etc.
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
|
|
Term
14. What is the latest time limit for personnel living on-base to report to duty station during a recall?
a. 30 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 90 minutes |
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Definition
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Term
15. Personnel living off base in Boise, report to duty stations within:
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 120 minutes |
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Definition
|
|
Term
16. “Communications Out Recall” will be used when:
a. Communications are not available or to protect OPSEC concerns
b. Personnel do not have cell phones
c. It is more effective make face-to-face contact with squadron members
d. Personnel are on leave or TDY |
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Definition
| a. Communication are not available or to protect OPSEC concerns |
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Term
17. “All 726 personnel report to unit, sign in at DIGS bay ASAP…bring ‘A’ bag with you.” This defines a/an _________________
a. Alpha Recall
b. Bravo Recall
c. Charlie Recall
d. Delta Recall |
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Definition
|
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Term
18. All 726 personnel report with all issued equipment and personal bag ASAP. Be ready to deploy as soon as you reach the squadron. This defines which recall?
a. Alpha Recall
b. Bravo Recall
c. Charlie Recall
d. Delta Recall |
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Definition
|
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Term
19. The unit recall roster will accommodate an individual’s desire and not list any unlisted numbers.
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
|
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Term
20. After a recall, when Flight Chiefs conduct safety briefs, items to be covered include, but are not limited to:
a. Remove all jewelry
b. Wear steel toe boots, gloves and hard hats
c. Wear hearing protection
d. All of the above |
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Definition
|
|
Term
21. Who is the first person you should report to regarding safety?
a. Your immediate supervisor
b. Shop supervisor
c. One of the safety NCOs
d. Command section personnel |
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Definition
| A. your immediate supervisor |
|
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Term
22. Which local flying unit flies the F-15E “Strike Eagle” interceptor/bomber?
a. 389th FS
b. 428th FS
c. 391st FS
d. Both answers A and C
e. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23. Which local flying unit is SADL capable?
a. 389th
b. 391st
c. 428th
d. 190th |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
24. Which fighter squadron goes by the call sign BOLD TIGERS?
a. 389th
b. 391st
c. 428th
d. 190th |
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Definition
|
|
Term
25. Which fighter squadron is responsible for the Singapore training unit?
a. 389th
b. 391st
c. 428th
d. 190th |
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Definition
|
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Term
26. Which aircraft type does the 190th ANG unit in Gowen Field use for their mission?
a. F-16 Falcon
b. B-1 Lancer
c. F-15E Strike Eagle
d. A-10 Warthog |
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Definition
|
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Term
27. Who serves as the designated Military Radar Unit (MRU) for the MHRC under normal operations?
a. 726th ACS
b. Cowboy Control
c. Salt Lake City ARTCC
d. Boise International Airport |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28. Mountain Home Air Force Base Radar Approach Control is also known as?
a. RAPCON
b. Mountain Home Range Complex
c. COWBOY
d. ATCAA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29. Salt Lake City ARTCC is referred to as?
a. COWBOY CONTROL
b. HARDROCK
c. CENTER
d. RAPCON |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30. In the event that both COWBOY CONTROL and RAPCON are closed, individual aircrews may activate and deactivate the MHRC MOA/ATCAA by calling on the appropriate ______ frequencies.
a. COWBOY
b. CENTER
c. RAPCON
d. HARDROCK |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31. During COWBOY CONTROL unavailability, RAPCON will activate and deactivate the MHRC. In this event, RAPCON will not assume positive control, but will provide Air Traffic Control (ATC) services to/from the MHRC, and serve as the _______ _______ for the MHRC with the CENTER.
a. Using agency
b. ARTCC Sector
c. Controlling agency
d. Coordinating agency |
|
Definition
|
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Term
32. Which of the following are the responsibilities of the 366th Fighter Wing Commander?
a. Assume responsibility for separation between all participating aircraft while in the MHRC (MARSA).
b. Ensure that all users of the MHRC are familiar with the provisions of this LOA.
c. Be responsible for containing participating aircraft within the confines of released MHRC airspace.
d. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
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Term
33. Military Assumes Responsibility For Separation of Aircraft (MARSA): MARSA and “see and avoid” procedures must be in effect between participating aircraft or flights of aircraft and must remain in effect until standard ATC separation has been established after exiting the released airspace.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
34. All aircraft operating in the MHRC will utilize which altimeter?
a. 29.92
b. 30.10
c. 29.94
d. KMUO altimeter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35. While operating in the MHRC, participating aircraft may be assigned a Mode 3 Transponder Code of ____ through ____ by the MRU. If directed by ATC, upon exit from the MHRC, the MRU must reassign participating aircraft’s assigned Mode 3 Transponder Code.
a. 0100 – 0177
b. 7100 – 7700
c. 3211 – 3311
d. 4000 – 4100 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
36. Hardrock operates as a Tactical Monitor (TM), what is the definition of TM?
a. Operations conducted within the MHRC not working with the MRU. This situation does require contact with an ATC facility (CENTER/RAPCON) for airspace configuration changes, or ATC clearance instructions, as appropriate.
b. A service provided by MRU/ARU/AWACS during planned exercises or daily training solely to provide necessary tactical information/guidance to military aircraft operating in the SAA/ATCAA to complete mission training requirements.
c. Any fixed or mobile unit under the operational jurisdiction of the military services.
d. A condition whereby the military authority involved assumes responsibility for separation between participating military aircraft in the ATC system. |
|
Definition
| b. A service provided by MRU/ARU/AWACS during planned exercises or daily training solely to provide necessary tactical information/guidance to military aircraft operating in the SAA/ATCAA to complete mission training requirements |
|
|
Term
37. MRU must immediately notify the appropriate Air Traffic Control Facility, CENTER and/or RAPCON, of any two-way radio failure of participating aircraft operating within the MHRC. Such notification should, if possible, include:
a. Call sign and Mode 3 Transponder Code
b. Position and last assigned altitude
c. Nature of problem
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
38. The “5-Minute Notification” must include:
a. Call sign
b. Destination
c. Direction of flight
d. Approximate location the aircraft will exit the MHRC
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
39. Who must remain within the vertical and lateral limits of the particular area(s) assigned?
a. VFR traffic
b. Individual Aircrews
c. HARDROCK
d. Airliners |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
40. Which agency will serve as the secondary point of contact for activation of the MHRC?
a. HARDROCK
b. CENTER
c. RAPCON
d. COWBOY |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. ______ is a method of airspace control relying on a combination of previously agreed and promulgated orders and procedures.
a. Tactical Control
b. Procedural Control
c. Positive Control
d. Electronic Control |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. ______ is a method of airspace control relying on the positive identification, tracking and direction of aircraft within a given airspace.
a. Tactical Control
b. Procedural Control
c. Positive Control
d. Electronic Control |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. The is the primary control agency of the theater air control systemfor execution of air power in direct support of land operations.
a. AOC
b. ASOC
c. CRC
d. AWACS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. The is the senior element of TACS and includes personnel and equipment of necessary disciplines to ensure the effective planning and conduct of component air and space operations.
a. AWACS
b. JSTARS
c. AOC
d. CRC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. The ______ is a ground-based mobile radar while ________is an airborne radar system.
a. AWACS, CRC
b. JSTARS, CRC
c. AOC, AWACS
d. CRC, AWACS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all link capable players are assumed to be TIMBER SWEET.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. ______ is a time line adjustment in minutes, always referenced from the original preplanned mission execution time line.
a. Rolex
b. Slip
c. Words
d. AWOL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. C2 altitude capability can be off by feet or more.
a. 3,000
b. 4,000
c. 5,000
d. 6,000 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. ______ is defined as a contact identified as enemy upon which clearance to fire is authorized in accordance with theater rules of engagement.
a. Hostile
b. Bandit
c. Bogey
d. Neutral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. ______ is defined as positively identified as an enemy in accordancewith theater identification criteria. The term does not necessarily imply direction or authority to engage.
a. Hostile
b. Bandit
c. Bogey
d. Neutral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. ______ is defined as an air CONTACT whose identity is unknown.
a. Hostile
b. Bandit
c. Bogey
d. Neutral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. _______ is used to cease all tactical maneuvering when safety of flight is a factor or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) are met or unattainable for an entire scenario.
a. TERMINATE
b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
c. PITBULL
d. BEADWINDOW |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. Use Terminate procedures when safety of flight is not a factor and in the following cases EXCEPT:
a. Reaching BINGO fuel
b. DLOs are met or unattainable for a local engagement within a larger scenario
c. Exceeding area boundaries
d. Communications Jamming occurs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. ______ ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario.
a. TERMINATE
b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
c. PICTURE
d. BEADWINDOW |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. The _______ phase is comprised of Joint and multinational operations inclusive of normal and routine military activities.
a. Shape
b. Deter
c. Seize Initiative
d. Dominate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. The intent of the ________ phase is to deter undesirable adversary action by demonstrating the capabilities and resolve of the joint force.
a. Shape
b. Deter
c. Seize Initiative
d. Dominate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. During the _________ phase the Joint Force Commanders (JFCs) seek to seize the initiative through the application of appropriate joint force capabilities.
a. Shape
b. Deter
c. Seize Initiative
d. Dominate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. The __________ phase focuses on breaking the enemy’s will for organized resistance or, in noncombat situations, control of the operational environment.
a. Shape
b. Deter
c. Seize Initiative
d. Dominate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
19. The _________ phase is required when there is no fully functional, legitimate civil governing authority present.
a. Deter
b. Seize Initiative
c. Dominate
d. Stabilize |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
20. Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency?
a. 7400
b. 7500
c. 7600
d. 7700 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
21. Which mode 3 code indicates a loss of radiocommunications?
a. 7400
b. 7500
c. 7600
d. 7700 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
22. A Mode 3 code of 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies.
a. Loss of Communications emergency
b. Hijack emergency
c. General emergency
d. Fire emergency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23. Which piece of equipment provides a 3-dimensional, 360 degree view of the airspace?
a. AN/TYQ-23A
b. AN/TSC-147 JM
c. AN/MJQ-1612 TQG
d. AN/TPS 75 Radar Set |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
24. Which piece of equipment uses long haul communications equipment to route information between Link 16 terminals and other MIL-STD 3011 Link 16 protocols?
a. AN/TSC-179 GMT SATCOM
b. Joint Range Extension(JRE)
c. TheaterDeployableCommunications (TDC)
d. AN/TRC-215 Remote Radio Secure Voice System (RRSVS) |
|
Definition
| b. Joint Range Extension(JRE) |
|
|
Term
25. Which of the following links is a frequency-hopping, jam-resistant, high- capacity link?
a. Link 11
b. Link 11 B
c. Link 16
d. Link 22 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
26. Which of the following links is a half-duplex, netted, secure data link that requires a Net Control Station (NCS) and Participating Units (PUs) to operate?
a. Link 11
b. Link 11B
c. Link 16
d. Link 22 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27. Which Joint Range Extension Application Protocol (JREAP) uses communication links that are multi-participant satellite communication networks?
a. JREAP A
b. JREAP B
c. JREAP C
d. JREAP D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28. Joint Range Extension Application Protocol (JREAP) ____ is commonly used with full-duplex serial data communications. The communication networks can be local, or they can use long haul transmission media such as secure telephone circuits.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29. Which Joint Range Extension Application Protocol (JREAP) that transmits Tactical Data Link messages over Internet Protocol networks such as Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET)?
a. JREAP A
b. JREAP B
c. JREAP C
d. JREAP D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30. This J-series message is used to exchange information on air tracks.
a. J0.0
b. J2.2
c. J3.2
d. J3.5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31. This J-series message is used to exchange tactical information on land points and land tracks.
a. J2.2
b. J3.2
c. J3.5
d. J12.0 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
32. This J-series message is used by JUs to assign mission, designate targets, and provide target information to non C2 platforms.
a. J2.2
b. J12.0
c. J3.5
d. J28.2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33. This J-series message provides the location and type of an emergency that requires search and rescue.
a. J2.2
b. J3.5
c. J12.0
d. J3.1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
34. This J-series message is used by airborne JUs to provide network status, identification, positional information, and relative navigation information. This message also provides air surveillance Precise Participant Location and Identification (PPLI).
a. J2.2
b. J3.5
c. J12.0
d. J28.2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35. What is used as the official record of events that occurred during either in-garrison or real world contingency operations. ?
a. Operations Logbook
b. Operations Read File
c. AF Form 4146, Mission Briefing Guide
d. Mission crew briefing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
36.The ICT is responsible to the for establishing and maintaining TDLs and monitoring data linkeffectiveness.
a.Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
b.Joint Interface Control Officer (JICO)
c.Mission Commander (MC)
d.Section Lead (SL) |
|
Definition
| a. Air Surveillance Technician(AST) |
|
|
Term
37.Site Support is responsible for all of the following duties EXCEPT:
a. Ensures personnel services to include medical, food/water, fitness, billeting are met
b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC
c.Facilitates protocol, public affairs, criminal investigations, administrative supply and transportation issues
d. Facilitates the unit transition to steady state operations |
|
Definition
| b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC |
|
|
Term
38.Which CRC duty certification ensures the maintenance complex, mission crew, support staff and DR(s) are aware of site configurations and current threat information pertinent to the site (Force Protection Conditions (FPCON), Alarm Condition status, MOPP levels, etc.)?a.Commander
b.Interface Control Technician (ICT)
c.Operations Coordinator (OC)
d.Air Surveillance Technician (AST) |
|
Definition
| c. operations coordinator |
|
|
Term
39.The _____ recognizes and controls the effects of EA while maintaining the radar’s presentation and emissions using the AN/TPS-75 system displays, EP functions, and switch actions.
a.Electronic Protection Technician (EPT)
b.Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
c.Interface Control Technician (ICT)
d.Surveillance Technician (ST) |
|
Definition
| a. Electronic Protection Technician(EPT) |
|
|
Term
40.The read file portion of thecentralizes significant, time sensitive issues and procedures that are disseminated to operations personnel.
a.Operations Logbook
b.Operations Information File (OIF)
c.4145, Daily Activity Log
d.4146, Mission Briefing Guide |
|
Definition
| b. Operations information file (OIF) |
|
|
Term
41. The CRC is the single point of contact for planning, tactical level coordination, and briefing/debriefing of tasked/completed missions.
a. Commander
b. Mission Planning Cell(MPC)
c. Director of Operations (DO)
d. Battle Staff Coordinator(BSC) |
|
Definition
| b. Mission Planning Cell(MPC) |
|
|
Term
42. The ____ is responsible for detection, initiation, identification, and maintenance for all tracks within the BMA?
a. Electronic Protection Technician (EPT)
b. Interface Control Technician(ICT)
c. Air Surveillance Technician(AST)
d. Surveillance Technician (ST) |
|
Definition
| d. Surveillance Technician(ST) |
|
|
Term
43. The _____ ensures AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log or locally generated equivalent forms are readily available to meet training and operational requirements in support of CRC daily operations.
a. Commander
b. Battle Staff Coordinator(BSC)
c. Director of Operations (DO)
d. Assistant Director of Operations (ADO) |
|
Definition
| c. Director of Operations (DO) |
|
|
Term
44. Parent/Deployed Operations Group Commander may waive all or any part of a crew rest period.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
45. The_______ will ensure personnel are trained, and procedures in place when required to provide immediate forensic reconstruction of media related to flight safety or critical mission events.
a. Mission Commander (MC)
b. Director of Operations (DO)
c. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
d. Operations Coordinator (OC) |
|
Definition
| b. Director of Operations (DO) |
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