Term
|
Definition
| Will always cause disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Needs the ground laying to cause disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Usually won't cause infection but has the potential to if host defences are compromised |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Process or mechanisms of disease development |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Capacity to kill/damage the host |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ability of organism to enter, colonise, and survive
NB - doesn't have to cause disease! |
|
|
Term
| 3 method of identifying virulence factors: |
|
Definition
1) molecular - inactivate virulence gene 2) epidemiological - presence of virulence factor correlate with disease? 3) biochemical - analyse suspected virulence factor |
|
|
Term
| Commensal flora colonise where? |
|
Definition
Skin MM's Gut
Establish doon after birth and persist through life |
|
|
Term
| How does a pathogen work - basically?! |
|
Definition
| Contact - Colonsisation - Replication - Transmit |
|
|
Term
| What is important for pathogens, especially those at mucosal surfaces? |
|
Definition
| Adhesion - prevents flushing out by fluids |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 methods of adhesion? |
|
Definition
1) bind to mucus e.g. commensals 2) bind to surface carb's - fimbriae 3) bind to/invade surface protein 4) bind ECM protein |
|
|
Term
| How does an intracellular pathogen survive? |
|
Definition
Attach - Invade - Resist destruction - Acquire nutrients
'Hide' |
|
|
Term
| How do extracellular pathogens survive? |
|
Definition
Attach - Resist phagocytosis - Resist complement - Acquire nutrients
Capsules! |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 key virulence factors of B. Anthracis? |
|
Definition
Poly-D-glutamic acid capsule which resists phagocytosis & anthrax toxin made up of: 1) protective antigen - necessary for symptoms, 'carries' EF & LF into the cytosol 2) oedema factor - increases cAMP and results in oedema 3) lethal factor - induce apoptosis |
|
|
Term
| Exotoxins (can be haemolysins in vivo), usually produced by extracellular pathogens do what at physiological levels? |
|
Definition
1) lyse phagocytes 2) affect phagocyte function - phagocytosis, chemotaxis, degranulation |
|
|
Term
| What are the two iron uptake systems? |
|
Definition
Siderophore Transferrin/Lactoferrin binding protein |
|
|
Term
| How do intracellular pathogens survive in macrophages? |
|
Definition
Prevents acidification e.g. M. Tuberculosis Escape the phagosome e.g. L. Monocytogenes Prevent fusion of the lysosome e.g. Salmonella/Brucella spp. Survive in phagolysome e.g. C. Burnetti |
|
|
Term
| Staphs appear on smears as ___ whereas streps appear on smears as ___? |
|
Definition
Staphs - clumps Streps - chains |
|
|
Term
| Differentiation between Staphs and Streps is done by…? |
|
Definition
The catalase test - Staphs are catalase +ve, Streps are catalase -ve.
Streps also don't grow on MacConkey/simple media |
|
|
Term
Staphylococcus causes these disease in what species by which strain? - mastitis - osteomyelitis - pyoderma - greasy pig disease |
|
Definition
Cattle - Aureus Dog - Aureus Dog - Pseudintermedius Pig - Hyicus |
|
|
Term
| What is the characteristic of pathogenic Staphylococci? |
|
Definition
| Digest DNA with DNAase. Used to escape NETs |
|
|
Term
| What toxins cause beta-haemolysis? |
|
Definition
| Alpha (complete) and beta (incomplete) |
|
|
Term
| Name 5 Staphylococcus virulence factors. |
|
Definition
Any of: Fibronection binding protein - Exfoliative toxins - Superantigens (TSTs) - DNAase - Lipases - Proteases - Hyaluronidase - Fe-uptake systems - Capsule - Protein A (binds antibody wrong way round) - Chemotaxis inhibitory protein of staph - Extracellular adhesion protein - Fibrinogen-binding proteins - Haemolysins |
|
|
Term
| What does MRSA stand for? |
|
Definition
| Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus |
|
|
Term
| Streptococcus can cause alpha and beta haemolysis: T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Streptococcus is typed by which grouping? |
|
Definition
| Lancefield - A-V, not I or J |
|
|
Term
| Which are the three Streps that cause mastitis in cattle? How can they be distinguised? |
|
Definition
Uberis (environmental) - splits aesculin Agalactiae (contagious) - beta haemolysis Dysgalactiae (environmental) - alpha haemolysis all on Edwards media |
|
|
Term
| What subspecies of Strep causes strangles in horses? |
|
Definition
| Streptococci Equi subsp Equi |
|
|
Term
| Streptococcus Suis is a particular concern because…? |
|
Definition
| It's zoonotic, initially causes streptococcal meningitis in pigs |
|
|
Term
| Give 5 pathogenicity factors of Streptococci: |
|
Definition
Any of: C5a peptidase - IL-8 protease - Fibronectin binding proteins - Capsule - M-protein - M-like protein - Haemolysins - DNAases - Proteases - Hyaluronidase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A pair of intertwined alpha-helices with a charged, hypervariable region at the far end from the cell wall |
|
|
Term
| Name an opportunistic Streptococci and the disease it causes. |
|
Definition
| Streptococcus Zooepidemicus (zoonotic!) causes respiratory infections, metritis, wound infections etc. Can infect cattle, sheep, dog, horse... |
|
|
Term
| What are the specific virulence factors of Streptococcus Equi? |
|
Definition
2 fibronectin binding proteins 2 M-like proteins which are anti-phagocytic and anti-opsonic Hyaluronic acid capsule Toxins - streptolysin S-like toxin and superantigens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What feature must antimicrobial have? |
|
Definition
Be selective to the pathogen…can - Target the peptidoglycan (unique to microorg.) Target folate biosynth. (pathway not in vertebrates) Target structural differences between bacteria (prokaryotes) and eukaryotes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Kills bacteria - irreversible |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inhibits growth - reversible |
|
|
Term
| Most gram -ve are intrinsically less ___ compared to gram +ve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give 3 main sites of antimicrobial action. |
|
Definition
Any of: Peptidoglycan synthesis - Protein synthesis - Nucleic acid synthesis - DNA replication - Transcription - Cytoplasmic membrane integrity |
|
|
Term
| Gram -ve bacteria has a thick layer of peptidoglycan: T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 3 places can antimicrobials affect peptidoglycan synthesis? |
|
Definition
1) Precursor synthesis 2) Precursors being transported across membrane 3) Precursors being added to peptidoglycan 4) X-linking of peptidoglycan chains
Only work when bacteria are replicating! |
|
|
Term
| Most antibacterial protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriostatic except for which group? |
|
Definition
Aminoglycosides
This method of preventing bacterial replication works by causing misreading of proteins |
|
|
Term
| Sulphonamide and trimethoprim inhibit what? |
|
Definition
Biosynthesis of folate
Sulphonamides block PABA --> dihydropteroate Trimethoprim blocks dyhydrofolate --> tetrahydrofolate |
|
|
Term
| How can bacterial genes confer resistance to antibiotics? |
|
Definition
- Inactivate antibiotic by hydrolysis/chemical mod's - Active efflux of antibiotic esp. tetracylines & macrolides - Alter target site of antibiotic esp beta-lactams & macrolides - Metabolically bypass antibiotic esp sulphonamide and trimethoprim |
|
|
Term
| Plasmids can give rise to resistance: T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| R plasmids are transferred by: |
|
Definition
Conjugation
Gram -ve mainly |
|
|
Term
| Conjugative transposons are mainly seen in which strain of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The study of the spread of infectious disease within a community or population |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Where the infectious agent lives, multiplies or survives |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| From microflora (endogenous), animal to human (zoonosis) or an environmental source (exogenous) |
|
|
Term
| What are common bacterial geni that cause venereal disease? |
|
Definition
Campylobacter (fetus), Leptospirosis, Brucellosis, Chalamydia
Usually cause abortion or infertility |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of an organism that exhibits placental tropism. |
|
Definition
Either Listeria Monocytogenes or Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Fetus
These are transmitted by vertical transmission |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Organisms shed from infected animal to the environment
The animal doesn't have to be showing signs of disease, they may be a symptomless carrier |
|
|
Term
| How is Bovine Tuberculosis spread from animal to human? |
|
Definition
| Shed in urine, reproductive tract secretions and wound discharges, by aerosol, in milk and in carcass/offal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram +ve, large rod, produces spores |
|
|
Term
Which Bacillus species cause these disease in which species: - Anthrax (zoonotic!) - Food poisoning/mastitis - Sporadic abortion |
|
Definition
Anthracis - cattle & others Cereus - man & cattle Licheniformis - cattle & sheep |
|
|
Term
| Anthrax causes what in cattle? |
|
Definition
Septicaemia
Pigs/horses - mod. susceptible, carnivores - comparatively resistant, birds - totally resistant |
|
|
Term
| Which forms of Anthrax can humans catch? |
|
Definition
Pulmonary 'wool-sorters disease' GIT Cutaneous - most common
If isolated --> medusa head colonies on blood agar |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram +ve, large rod, anaerobic, produce spores that look like clubs |
|
|
Term
| What toxins do Clostridium make? |
|
Definition
Tetanus toxin (plasmid), botulism toxin (lysogenic phage)
Clostridium can be neurotoxic or histotoxic |
|
|
Term
| Neurotoxic Clostridia is better known as what? |
|
Definition
Clostridium Tetani
Again, poultry fairly resistant |
|
|
Term
| Outline the pathogenesis of Tetanus. |
|
Definition
Light chain - toxic Heavy chain - receptor binding and internalisation Transported to CNS by intra-axonal flow Inhibitory NT release of GABA is prevented --> spastid paralysis |
|
|
Term
| What type of paralysis does Clostridium Botulinum cause and how is this fatal? |
|
Definition
| Flaccid paralysis, death occurs by hypoxia after the respiratory muscles cease working |
|
|
Term
| Why is Botulism not zoonotic? |
|
Definition
| Types C&D cause outbreaks in animals whereas types A,B&E cause outbreaks in humans so even ingesting infected meat will not transmit the disease |
|
|
Term
| Where does Botulinum toxin act? |
|
Definition
At NMJ's of cholinergic nerves and peripheral autonomic synapses
It blocks ACh fusion and release from the pre-synaptic membrane and therefore the AP isn't transmitted further |
|
|
Term
| What do Botulinum toxin and Tetanus toxin have in commong? |
|
Definition
| They are both zinc-dependant metalloproteinases |
|
|
Term
| What diseases can histotoxic Clostridium cause? |
|
Definition
Blackleg - cattle (Chauvoei) Braxy - sheep (Septicum) Necrotic enteritis/gas gangrene - chickens (Perfringens) Abomastitis - lambs (Sordellii) |
|
|
Term
| The vaccine for histotoxic Clostridia is comprised of: |
|
Definition
| Bacterin (killed bacteria) + toxoid + adjuvant |
|
|
Term
| Clostridium Perfringens has how many types? |
|
Definition
5 - A to E, each type produces a different combination of toxins: A - alpha B - alpha, beta, epsilon C - alpha, beta D - alpha, epsilon E - alpha, iota
It is an enteropathogenic and enterotoxaemic Clostridia |
|
|
Term
| Clostridium Difficile causes: |
|
Definition
| Enteritis in neonatal pigs |
|
|
Term
| What is the vaccine BCG isolated from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Tuberculosis cause? |
|
Definition
| Granulomatous legions in tissues of a wide range of domestic/wild animals and humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Aerobic, acid-fast, gram +ve rods, catalase +ve, simple growth req's, intracellular |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about Mycobacteria? |
|
Definition
| Lipid-rich cell walls - assist survival in phagolysosome (LAM - lipoarabinomannan, mycolic acids & sulphonamides), resists drying and extreme pH. |
|
|
Term
| Name 2 clinically important species of Mycobacterium. |
|
Definition
Any of: Tuberculosis - cats, humans, dogs, pigs etc etc Bovis - cattle, man, badgers, deer Avium subsp. Paratuberculosis --> Johne's disease - cattle, sheep, goats, deer Leprae --> Leprosy - man, mice, armadillo |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 possibilities of Mycobacterium infection? |
|
Definition
1) Infects, killed, no disease 2) Infects, lies dormant, no disease 3) Infects, lies dormant, re-activates, acute disease 4) Infects & causes rapid acute disease (already immunocompromised?)
Depends on immune status of the host |
|
|
Term
| How does Bovine Tuberculosis spread around the body of a cow? |
|
Definition
| To intestine via sputum and to the liver, spleen, kidney, brain etc haematogenously. Once it reaches the mammary gland/uterus, vertical spread is possible |
|
|
Term
| How do badgers transmit TB between themselves and to cows? |
|
Definition
Themselves - biting and via the respiratory route Cattle - eat pasture contaminated with badger urine, faeces or bronchial pus |
|
|
Term
| How does the tuberculin test work? |
|
Definition
2 sites, 13 cm apart, skin fold measured Upper site - SC injection of M. Avium Lower site - SC injection of M. Bovis Fold remeasured in 72 hours, if the reaction to M. Bovis is 5mm greater than to M. Avium, the animal is culled |
|
|
Term
| How is a Mycobacterial infection diagnosed? |
|
Definition
Tuberculin testing Microscopy Culture |
|
|
Term
| What the hell is Johne's disease?! |
|
Definition
Chronic wasting caused by Mycobacterium Avium subsp. Paratuberculosis
Signs: illness & weight loss followed by sever diarrhoea, emaciation and death
Intestinal tract becomes thickened with granulomas and unable to absorb nutrients |
|
|
Term
| What are 'The Arcanobacteria'? |
|
Definition
A relatated group of gram +ve organisms: Nocardia Arcanobacterium Actinomyces Corynebacterium
Cause granulomatous disease and chronic inflammation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram +ve rod with aerial hyphae, strictly aerobic, acid fast |
|
|
Term
What disease do these species of Nocardia cause in which species of animal? - Asteroides - Brasiliense - Otitidis-Cavarium |
|
Definition
SC infection - dogs Pneumonia - horses Mastitis - cattle |
|
|
Term
| What 3 ways does Nocardia infect it's host? |
|
Definition
Contact, inhalation, ingestion
Causes 3 forms of disease - cutaneous, respiratory, systemic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram + ve rod, commensal, opportunistic |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 virulence factors of A. Pyogenes. |
|
Definition
Any of: Protease - Haemolytic exotoxin - Neuraminidase - PLO (pyolysin), key in virulence
Diseases - bovine abortion, abscesses and polyarthritis in pigs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram +ve rod, non-acid fast, microaerophilic/anaerobic |
|
|
Term
| What kind of granules do Actinomyces spp. cause? |
|
Definition
Sulphur
Bovis species --> Lumpy jaw/mastitis in cattle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram +ve, small rods, 'chinese letters' on a smear, commensal |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 groups of Corynebacterium? |
|
Definition
Renale: C. Renale - C. Pilosum - C. Cystiditis Cause cystitis/pyelonephritis in cattle
Diphtheria: C. diphtheria - C. ulcerans* - C. Pseudotuberculosis* * zoonotic Cause various diseases |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 virulence factors of the Corynebacterium Renale group. |
|
Definition
Any of: Pili - Renalin (cell lysis) - Urease (nitrogen source) - Caseinase |
|
|
Term
| There are 3 biotypes of Corynebacterium Pseudotuberculosis identified: T/F |
|
Definition
F - there are 2: ovis - non-nitrate reducing, infects sheep/goats equi - nitrate reducing, infects mainly horses |
|
|
Term
| What is CLA (caseous lymphadenitis? |
|
Definition
| Caused by Corynebacterium Pseudotuberculosis via the lymph nodes, looks like onion rings, fibrous lesions in sheep, causes significant production losses |
|
|
Term
| Give a virulence factor of Corynebacterium Pseudotuberculosis. |
|
Definition
Any of: Phospholipase D - Mycolic acid (allows survival in mac's) - Serine protease - Siderophore (Fe-uptake) |
|
|
Term
| What is most common disease causing Listeria species? |
|
Definition
Monocytogenes (gram +ve) causes meningoencephalitis (circling disease), septicaemia, abortion and pyogenic infection
Also: Ivanovii, causes abortion |
|
|
Term
| Listeria can only grow at a narrow range of temperatures: T/F |
|
Definition
| F - it can grow at anything between 4 degrees and 45 degrees |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs of meningoencephalitis? |
|
Definition
| Unidirectional circling, unilateral facial paralysis, headpressing, paralysis |
|
|
Term
| If a ruminant is pregnant and gets Listeriosis, how will with the foetus be affected? |
|
Definition
| Neonatal septicaemia/abortion - Listeria localises to the placentomes |
|
|
Term
| Listeria is an intracellular pathogen, how does it avoid killing by macrophages? |
|
Definition
Escapes the phagosome by LLO (listeriolysin - thiol activated)
They then multiply in the cytoplasm and, via ActA (actin based motility), spread to adjacent cells |
|
|
Term
| Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae causes what disease in pigs and can also infect what veterinary species? |
|
Definition
| Swine erysipelas/'diamond skin disease' - this is the smooth strain, the rough strain causes endocarditis (and chronic arthritis in sheep). The other species it can infect is turkeys |
|
|
Term
| The Pasteurellaceae family consists of which genus of bacteria? |
|
Definition
Haemophilus, Histophilus, Actinobacillus Pasteurella, Mannheimia, Bibersteinia
Common characteristics - gram -ve, cocco-bacilli, aerobic/facultative anaerobes |
|
|
Term
| What factors does Haemophilus need to grow, what does this mean? |
|
Definition
| Factor V (NAD and factor X (haemin), this mean it won't grow on blood agar but will on chocolate agar |
|
|
Term
| Which Haemophilus species causes Glasser's disease (fibrinous inflammation of serous surfaces/joints) in pigs? |
|
Definition
Haemophilus Parasuis
Virulence factor - capsule, LPS, exotoxins (somni specifically) |
|
|
Term
| Which is the Histophilus species of veterinary importance and which species of animal does it infect? |
|
Definition
| Histophilus Somni, infects cattle/sheep with a spectrum of diseases - TEME, pneumonia with pleurisy and arthritis |
|
|
Term
| Haemophilus Paragallinarum causes what disease? |
|
Definition
| Fowl Coryza, mainly of chickens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve coccobacilli, do not require factor V/X for growth, may be filamentous, facultatis anaerobes |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 species of Actinobacillus: |
|
Definition
Any of: Lignieresii (cattle/sheep, needs CO2 for culture) - Suis (pigs) - Pleuropneumoniae (pigs) - Equuli (horses) - Seminis (sheep) |
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of Actinobacillus? |
|
Definition
1) Capsule - Pleuropneumoniae 2) LPS 3) Exotoxins - extracellular RTX toxins |
|
|
Term
| Actinobacillus Ligniereii causes what in cattle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pleuropneumonia of pigs is caused by which bacteria? |
|
Definition
Actinobacillus Pleuropneumoniae and is specific for swine
Clinical signs - shaking, anorexia, fever, haemorrhage from the nose and mouth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve coccobacilli, bipolar staining, facultatively anaerobic |
|
|
Term
| What is the main species of Pasteurella and how are they split up? |
|
Definition
Multocida, capsule types A, B, D, E - mucoid colonies
Capsule type E infects pigs and contributes to Atrophic Rhinitis |
|
|
Term
| Mannheimia Haemolytica has 13 serotypes recognised but infects which species? |
|
Definition
Cattle - capsule type A1 Goats - capsule type A Sheep - capsule type A |
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of Pasteurella? |
|
Definition
Capsules LPS - protection, inflammation induction through lipid A compenent Exotoxins - type D produces dermonecrotictoxin, M. Haemolytica and B. Trehalosi produce labile leukotoxin |
|
|
Term
| Give 3 bacteria genus that come under the grouping Enterobacteriaceae: |
|
Definition
Any of: Escherichia - Salmonella - Klebsiella - Proteus - Yersinia - Shigella |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve, motile/flagellated, facultative anearobes |
|
|
Term
| How can Enterobacteriaceae species be subdivided? |
|
Definition
Seroptyping (O - somatic, H - flagellar antigens) Pathotypes Biotypes Phage typing PFGE (pulse field gel electrophoresis) |
|
|
Term
| Other than O and H antigen, what are the other 2 surface antigens of Enterobacteriaceae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Salmonella is a non-lactose fermenter and usually infects by what route? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Enteritis (zoonotic!) Septicaemia |
|
|
Term
| The common Salmonella species is Enterica and has no capsule but how is this species subdivided? |
|
Definition
I, II, IIIa, IIIb, IV, VI
The other species is S. Bongori |
|
|
Term
| How does the antigen grouping system of Salmonella Enterica work? |
|
Definition
O antigens are identified using sera agonist again LPS - 1,2,3 etc Similar O types are put into serogroups - A,B,C etc Therefore, for example, all Salmonella with O4 antigen are in group B Flagella have only two antigenically distinct forms - Phase 1 and Phase 2 |
|
|
Term
| Give 3 Salmonella serotypes: |
|
Definition
Any of: Typhimurium (O group - B) - Cholerasuis (C) - Enteritidis (D) -Dublin (D) - Gallinarum (D) - Typhi (D) - Pullorum (D) |
|
|
Term
| Salmonella (Enterica subsp. I serotype) Typhimurium can infect which species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 2 Salmonella serotypes have a preferential host? |
|
Definition
Dublin - cattle Cholerasuis - pigs |
|
|
Term
| Pathogenicity Islands of Salmonella code for which virulence genes? |
|
Definition
Toxins Adhesins Invasins Secretion systems
These are acquired horizontally |
|
|
Term
| SPI 1 and SPI 2 code for which virulence factors? |
|
Definition
SPI 1 - type III secretion system, invasion of epithelial cells, enteritis
SPI 2 - type III secretion system, survival and replication in macrophages |
|
|
Term
| Salmonella is an intracellular pathogen, which of the 4 survival techniques does it employ? |
|
Definition
Prevents phagolysosome fusion Can survive in the phagolysosome |
|
|
Term
| Which phage type of Salmonella Enteritidis is responsible for food poisoning from eggs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve, lactose fermenting, indole +ve |
|
|
Term
| Give three 4 letter acronyms that can be used to describe E. Coli. |
|
Definition
Any of: ETEC - enterotoxigenic E. Coli EPEC - enteropathogenic E. Coli VTEC - verotoxigenic E. Coli EAEC - enteroaggrative E. Coli (humans only) DAEC - diffusely adherent E. Coli (humans only) EIEC - enteroinvasive E. Coli (humans only) ExPEC - exteraintestinal pathogenic E. Coli |
|
|
Term
What are: 1) heat labile enterotoxins 2) heat stable enterotoxins 3) shiga-like toxins |
|
Definition
All are toxins of E. Coli 1) activated at high temperatures, it raises cAMP, stimulates the secretion of Cl- ions and water into the gut lumen and produces watery diarrhoea 2) binds to guanylate cyclase and increases intracellular cGMP 3) aka vero-toxin, inhibit protein synthesis to kill cells |
|
|
Term
E. Coli causes what in these animals: - Cattle - PIg - Dog - Cat |
|
Definition
Mastitis/septicaemia Mastitis/septicaemia UTI/pyometra/septicaemia UTI/pyometra septicaemia |
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of extraintestinal E. Coli? |
|
Definition
Capsule Fimbriae Toxins - haemolysins/CNF-1 Siderophore |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Non-inflammatory, watery diarrhoea |
|
|
Term
| ETEC is not zoonotic, why? |
|
Definition
Fimbriae, each strain has a different type of fimbriae which are specific for certain hosts: K88 - pigs K99 - pigs, sheep, calves 987p - pigs, calves F41 - pigs, calves |
|
|
Term
| Which heat toxin of E. Coli is highly immunogenic? |
|
Definition
Labile - made up of A+B subunits
NB. genes for both toxins are on plasmids |
|
|
Term
| How is E. Coli caused diarrhoea different to Salmonella? |
|
Definition
E. Coli stays outside the cell and, therefore, the diarrhoea is non-inflammatory Salmonella invades the cell and causes inflammatory diarrhoea |
|
|
Term
| How does EPEC cause diarrhoea? |
|
Definition
| Destroys the absorbative membrane |
|
|
Term
| EHEC causes what diseases? |
|
Definition
Haemorrhagic collitis Haemolytic uraemic syndrome Hamburger disease |
|
|
Term
| Give the 3 Campylobacter species of veterinary importance. |
|
Definition
Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Fetus/Venerealis Campylobacter Jejuni |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve, 'gull-wing' appearance, spirochete, 2 polar flagella, microaerophilic, oxidase +ve |
|
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Term
| How does Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Fetus cause abortion? |
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Definition
It is transmitted by the faecal oral route, causes bacteraemia which spreads to the placenta and kills the foetus
Causes abortion in sheep in the 3rd trimester, cattle, goats, pigs and horses sporadically |
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Term
| What makes Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Fetus so resistant in the bloodstream? |
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Definition
| High molecular weight protein S-layer on the surface of the bacterium which won't bind C3b, therefore, prevents phagocytosis by neutrophils |
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Term
| What causes bovine venereal campylobacteriosis? |
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Definition
Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Venerealis through normal breeding. Isolated from the glans penis of infected bulls Spreads in the cows from the vagina to the oviducts causing temporary infertility |
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Term
| What does Campylobacter Jejuni cause in what animal? |
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Definition
| Acute diarrhoea in puppies, may be part of a mixed infection |
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|
Term
| Where does human Campylobacter infection arise from? |
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Definition
| Food - poultry, raw meat, unpasteurised milk, untreated water, shellfish |
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Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve, large spirochetes, aerobic |
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|
Term
| What is the cause of Lyme disease in man? |
|
Definition
Borrelia Burgdorferi - tick-borne Can infect dogs too, primary signs not seen due to fur and is, therefore a potentially fatal disease due to treatment/identification too late |
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Term
|
Definition
| Gram-ve, fine, tightly coiled spirochetes, aerobic |
|
|
Term
| Leptospira Interrogans is zoonotic: T/F |
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Definition
| T - rodents and domestic animals spread it to humans |
|
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Term
| Give 2 serovars of Leptospira Interrogans. |
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Definition
Any of: Canicola - Icterohaemorrhagiae (Weil's Disease…) - Pomona - Hardjo |
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Term
| What is the difference between a host adapted serovar of Leptospira Interrogans and a non-host adapted serovar? |
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Definition
| Host adapted: mild disease, venereal transmission Non-host adapted: catastrophic infections - abortion storms death |
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Term
| Which serovars of Leptospira Interrogans do cattle, pigs and horses commonly get? |
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Definition
Cattle - hardjo (host-adapted) and pomona (non-host adapted) Pigs - pomona (non-host adapted) and bratislava (host adapted) Horses - bratislava (host adapted) and pomona (non-host adapted) |
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Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve, anaerobic, large spirochetes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve, small coccobacilli, oxidase +ve, complex media needed for growth - enhanced by CO2, zoonotic! |
|
|
Term
| Give 3 species of Brucella. |
|
Definition
Any of: Abortus - Melitensis - Ovis - Canis - Suis - Neotomae |
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|
Term
| Brucella Abortus causes what in what species? |
|
Definition
Contagious bovine abortion in cattle Sporadic abortion in sheep, pigs, goats Undulent fever in humans |
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|
Term
| Brucella Melitensis causes what in what species? |
|
Definition
| Orchitis and abortion in sheep and goats |
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|
Term
| Brucella Suis causes what in what species? |
|
Definition
| Abortion and infertility in pigs |
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|
Term
| Brucella are intracellular pathogens, how do they resist killing? |
|
Definition
| Prevent fusion of the phagolysosome |
|
|
Term
| Once Brucella has cause bacteraemia, where does it disseminate to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virulence systems does Brucella Melitensis not have? |
|
Definition
Type III secretion systems Fimbriae Toxins Capsule
BUT, does have siderophores |
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|
Term
| What kind of vaccine is the Brucella vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Live - rough and smooth (long O side-chain) strains |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve, coccobacilli, small, aerobe, oxidase +ve, respiratory tract pathogens, non-lactose fermenting |
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|
Term
Bordatella Brochiseptica causes what diseases in these animals: - Dogs - Cats - Pigs |
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Definition
- Kennel cough - Respiratory infections - Atrophic rhinitis with Pasteurella Multocida |
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|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of Bordatella infection? |
|
Definition
1) attachment to ciliated cells 2) tight adhesion to cilia, produces toxins, paralyse cilia 3) cilia are lost, mucus accumulates |
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|
Term
| Give 4 virulence factors of Bordatella. |
|
Definition
| Any of: Fimbriae - Filamentous Haemagglutinin - Pertactin - Adenylate cyclase toxin - Tracheal cytotoxin - Dermonectrotic toxin |
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|
Term
| Give 2 anaerobic, non-sporing gram-ve bacteria. |
|
Definition
Any of: Fusobacterium Necrophorum - Dichelobacter Nodosum - Bacteroides - Prevotella - Porphyromonas
Usually second or third bacteria to infect |
|
|
Term
| What does Fusobacterium Necrophorum cause in pigs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve, obligate anaerobe. non-sporing, rods |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Aerobic eukaryotes, sexual or asexual reproduction, uni/multicellular organisms, slow growing in culture |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Unicellular, reproduce by budding |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Multicellular, produce hyphae/mycelium/spores |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Can produce both hyphae (env.) and yeast-like (host) forms |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common infection with fungi? |
|
Definition
| Cutaneous, other types of infection are SC and systemic |
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|
Term
| How do you diagnose a fungal infection in the lab? |
|
Definition
Microscopy Culture on sabarauds dextrose agar Identify morphology of hyphae PCR |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Oval cells, gram +ve, yeasts, creamy white 2mm colonies, smells like bread |
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|
Term
Candida Albicans causes what in these animals: - Cattle - Pigs - Dogs - Birds |
|
Definition
- Mycotic abortion - Dermatitis - Chronic enteritis - Crop infections |
|
|
Term
| CHROMagar is used to do what? |
|
Definition
Differentiate using colour between different Candida species: Blue - Tropicalis White - Parapsilosis Pink - Glabrata Green - Albicans |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Bottle shaped, lipase, urease, gram+ve |
|
|
Term
| Which is the most common species of Cryptococcus? |
|
Definition
| Neoformans - an opportunistic pathogen, causes nasal, neural and occular disease in cats |
|
|
Term
| In a lab culture of Dermatophytes, what can you expect to see? |
|
Definition
| Microconidia and macroconidia - shape will confirm diagnosis |
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|
Term
| When fungi infects hair, what two forms can if take? |
|
Definition
Ectothrix - around hair Endothrix - within hair |
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|
Term
| Microsporum causes what historically misconceived disease? |
|
Definition
| Ringworm (ectothrix) - may flouresce under Wood's light - diagnostic |
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|
Term
| Trichophyton has what characteristically shaped macroconidia? |
|
Definition
Club-shaped, also has spiral hyphae
Ectothrix on hair |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Separate branching hyphae, sporing heads in oxygen |
|
|
Term
| What is the main infection of Aspergillus? |
|
Definition
Respiratory - guttoral pouch mycosis in horses but mycotic abortion in cows
When cultured - dark green and densely fluffy |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a dimorphic fungi. |
|
Definition
| Histoplasma Capsulatum - notifiable |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fast growing in culture, pin-head fruiting bodies, cause mycotic abortion |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 characteristics of an antifungal. |
|
Definition
| Any of: Cell wall inhibitors e.g. glucan synthesis Cell membrane inhibitors e.g. ergosterol synthesis Direct membrane damage Disruption of microtubules Nucleic acid synthesis disruption Protein synthesis inhibitors |
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Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve rods, motile (not Pestis), non-lactose fermenting, bipolar staining in Giemsa |
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|
Term
| Yersinia Enterocolitica causes what in ewes? |
|
Definition
Sporadic abortions
As does Yersinia Pseudotuberculosis in cattle, sheep and goats |
|
|
Term
| Plague is caused by what pathogen? |
|
Definition
Yersinia Pestis
Bubonic/speticaemic/pneumonic - humans Sylvatic - rodents Feline - cats |
|
|
Term
| Yops are what and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| Yersinia outer proteins, actually anti-phagocytic proteins, help survival in the host macrophages |
|
|
Term
| What two cycles does the plague have? |
|
Definition
| Sylvatic in wild rodents and urban in domestic rodents |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 virulence factors specific to Yersinia Pestis. |
|
Definition
Any of: F1 antigen - plasmid encoded capsule HPI - Fe acquisition Ymt protein - phospholipase D required for survival in flea Hms locus - transmission to SC sites Pla - dissemination from SC site to lymph nodes |
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|
Term
| Outline the treatment protocols for Yersinia Pestis. |
|
Definition
| Isolation, IV tetracycline for bubonic plague, treat fleas and keep rodent populations down |
|
|
Term
| Pseudomonas Aeruginosa and Burkholderia: |
|
Definition
| Gram -ve rods, obligate aerobes, oxidase/catalase +ve, motile |
|
|
Term
| Give 3 common diseases caused by Pseudomonas Aeruginosa. |
|
Definition
Any of: Mastitis in cattle/sheep Ulcerative keratitis in horses Otitis externa in dogs/cats |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 virulence factors of Pseudomonas Aeruginosa. |
|
Definition
Any of: Fimbriae - Endotoxin - Flouscein - Exotoxin A - Exotoxin B - Elastase - Phospholipase C - Alkaline protease - Cytotoxin |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes Glanders? |
|
Definition
Burkholideria Mallei - rare!
Nodules on horses in respiratory tract and skin
Treatment - slaughter, once cured will still be carriers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram -ve rods, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase +ve |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Small genome, highly fastidious, lacks cell wall, sterols present in cell membrane |
|
|
Term
| How would you diagnose an infection with Mycoplasma? |
|
Definition
Pathology Isolation and identification Serological response Antigenic/genomic detection |
|
|
Term
| Give 3 virulence factors of Mycoplasma. |
|
Definition
Any of: Adhesins - Degredative enzymes - Cytotoxic metabolites - Endotoxicity - Antigenic variation - Intraphagocytic survival - Lymphocyte suppression - Superantigenicity |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 types of disease that Mycoplasma can cause. |
|
Definition
Any of: Pnemonia - Mastitis - Pleuropneumoniae - Arthritis - Conjunctivitis - Reproduction infections |
|
|
Term
| How do Mycoplasma's cause respiratory infections? |
|
Definition
| Inhalation -> adherence to cilia -> ciliostasis -> immune invasion -> lymph node enlargement -> consolidation |
|
|
Term
| Contageous pleuropneumonia is a notifiable disease: T/F |
|
Definition
| T - can infect cattle or goats |
|
|
Term
| Mycoplasma are the little blue dots seen on blood smears in anaemia cases: T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can Mycoplasmas be controlled? |
|
Definition
Test & slaughter Keep disease free herds Selective breeding for immunity Antibacterial therapy e.g. tetracyclines Vaccines |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 genera of obligate intracellular bacteria. |
|
Definition
Any of: Chlamydia Coxiella Anaplasma Lawsonia Rickettsia Ehrlichia |
|
|
Term
| How would you detect and intracellular bacteria? |
|
Definition
Co-culture with eukaryotic cells Microscopy Ab responses PCR |
|
|
Term
| What is the main Chlamydia species of veterinary importance? |
|
Definition
| Chlamydophila Abortus affecting ruminants - EAE/OEA - enzootic abortion of ewes |
|
|
Term
| Outline the process of a Chlamydia infection. |
|
Definition
| Adherence to cell membrane -> entry by endocytosis -> prevention of phagolysosome fusion -> formation of 'inclusion' -> differentiation of elimentary body -> host cell lysis |
|
|
Term
| What is an elimentary body/EB? |
|
Definition
| The infective stage of Chlamydia - spore-like |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tetracyclines Disease free flocks Vaccines e.g. Enzovax |
|
|
Term
| Cats can also be infected with Chlamydia, what form does this take? |
|
Definition
| Mucopurulent conjunctivits & rhinitis caused by Chlamydophila Felis |
|
|
Term
| Chlamydophila Psittaci affecting young, stressed birds is zoonotic: T/F |
|
Definition
| T - in humans it manifests as chills, fever, headache, muscle aches etc |
|
|
Term
| TBF of tick-borne fever is caused by what pathogen? |
|
Definition
| Anaplasma Phagocytophilum |
|
|
Term
| Q fever, caused by Coxiella Burnetti is zoonotic, but in sheep, what disease symptoms does it cause? |
|
Definition
Abortion storms
Humans - Flu-like symptoms, pneumonia and endocarditis |
|
|
Term
| Outline the pathogenesis of PE/porcine proliferative enteropathy. |
|
Definition
| Ingestion -> invasion of ileal crypt enterocytes -> epithelial hyperplasia -> intestinal thickening -> diarrhoea/sudden death |
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|