Veterinary technicians are allowed to perform a variety of tasks delegated by the veterinarian. Which of the following tasks may only be performed by a licensed veterinarian?
Definition
Prescribe medication
Term
What level of education is required for a veterinary technologist?
Definition
4-year Bachelor of Science degree in veterinary technology
Term
Controlled substances are categorized into specific classes or schedules based on what?
Definition
The drug’s capacity for addiction
Term
Who is responsible for calculating and administering preoperative anesthetic agents?
Definition
Veterinary technician
Term
When is the appropriate time for a technician to perform the initial skin preparation for surgery?
Definition
Prior to entering the operating room
Term
When did veterinary technology first have a formal university-level program for the education of animal health technicians?
Definition
1960
Term
Which of the following would be appropriate data gathered for subjective information about a patient?
Definition
Patient’s mentation
Term
As defined by the NAVTA model rules and regulations for veterinary technicians, which definition is considered to be indirect supervision?
Definition
A licensed veterinarian is not on the premises but is able to perform the duties of a licensed veterinarian by maintaining direct communication
Term
Who owns a patient’s medical records?
Definition
Veterinary practice
Term
The VTNE examination is composed of 150 multiple choice questions which cover nine primary areas or domains within the profession of veterinary technology. Which domain is covered the most on the exam?
Definition
Animal Care and Nursing
Term
The VTNE examination is composed of 150 multiple choice questions which cover nine primary areas or domains within the profession of veterinary technology. Which domain is covered the most on the exam?
Definition
Animal Care and Nursing
Term
The VTNE examination is composed of 150 multiple choice questions which cover nine primary areas or domains within the profession of veterinary technology. Which domain is covered the most on the exam?
Definition
Animal Care and Nursing
Term
The VTNE examination is composed of 150 multiple choice questions which cover nine primary areas or domains within the profession of veterinary technology. Which domain is covered the most on the exam?
Definition
Animal Care and Nursing
Term
Father of Veterinary Technology
Definition
Walter E. Collins, DVM
Term
NAVTA
Definition
National Association of Veterinary Technicians of America
Developed the Committee on Veterinary Technician Specialties (CVTS)
Term
CVTS
Definition
Committee on Veterinary Technician Specialties
Provides a standardized test of criteria and assistance for societies interested in attaining academy status
Term
Nine Domains of Veterinary Technology
Definition
Pharmacy and Pharmacology
Surgical Nursing
Dentistry
Laboratory Procedures
Animal Care and Nursing
Diagnostic Imaging
Anesthesia
Emergency Medicine/Critical Care
Pain Management/Analgesia
Term
Only veterinarians can:
Definition
Prescribe
Diagnose
Prognose
Perform surgery
Attest to health status (on certificates, or otherwise)
Term
Veterinary technician specialist (VTS)
Definition
A veterinary technician who has reached a higher level of skill and understanding in a particular field of veterinary technology
Term
What are the goals of NAVTA?
Definition
Strengthen the profession; advocate for awareness; support members
Term
What are the three classifications of membership in NAVTA?
Definition
Active, associate, and student members
Term
OVMLB
Definition
Ohio Veterinary Medicine Licensing Board
Term
Immediate supervision
Definition
Licensed veterinarian within direct eyesight and hearing range
Term
Direct supervision
Definition
Licensed veterinarian on premises and readily available
Term
Indirect supervision
Definition
Licensed veterinarian not on premises but maintaining direct communication
Term
When working in kennels for long periods of time with high noise levels, hearing protection should be worn to filter noise by at least which dB?
Definition
20dB
Term
What information can be found in Safety Data Sheets?
Definition
Precautions, instructions, and advice for handling chemical products
Term
Which of the following chemicals is used for “cold sterilization”?
Definition
Term
How many employees must a business have in order to be required to post OSHA form 300A, the summary of work-related injuries and illnesses, in a location visible to all staff? More than
Definition
10
Term
Which of the following is considered to be a zoonotic disease?
Definition
Toxoplasma
Term
Which section of SDS contains the first aid measures to take when an accident occurs with any chemicals/pharmaceuticals occur?
Definition
Section IV
Term
Flammable materials should be stored at least __ away from an ignition source?
Definition
3 feet
Term
Which of the following equipment is acceptable to plug into a surge protector?
Definition
Computer
Term
Which of the following are considered to be a human carcinogen?
Definition
Ethylene oxide
Term
What are pictograms used for in reference to chemicals?
Definition
They are symbols used to communicate specific information about the hazards of a chemical.
Term
NOT a correct form of written communication
Definition
Text talk: 'idk, cn u?'
Term
NOT part of being a professional team member
Definition
Heavy makeup with facial piercings
Term
The "hock" in hoofed animals refers to the
Definition
Back leg "ankle" or tarsal joint
Term
Your doctor orders a thoracic film of an animal that has been hit by a car. The doctor orders a Dorsal-Ventral film and left and right laterals when doing thoracic xrays. How do you position the animal on the table in order to get a Dorso-ventral film of its thorax?
Definition
On its belly on the table, with the xray beam pointed at the back above its heart
Term
The acronym for the national organization for Veterinary Technicians is:
Definition
NAVTA
Term
How do you prevent nosocomial infections?
Definition
Wash your hands
Term
Measurable information about a patient belongs in this section of the SOAP notes:
Definition
Objective
Term
How old do you have to be in order to participate in the radiation of a pet?
Definition
18
Term
Plantar is:
Definition
The bottom part of the rear foot
Term
A veterinary technician who holds a Bachelor of Science degree from a 4-year, AVMA-accredited college is considered a veterinary _________:
Definition
Technologist
Term
A Veterinary Hospital is:
Definition
Perform a physical
Term
Which is the best form of communication in veterinary practice:
Definition
Active listening
Term
A VTS is a veterinary technician who:
Definition
Has been reviewed and approved for specialist status by the academy
Term
Where should surgical preparation of an animal take place?
Definition
In the treatment room, close to the surgery room
Term
What item(s) should you be wearing when preparing to take a radiographic image?
Definition
Thyroid Protector
Dosimeter Badge
Lead Apron
Lead Gloves
Term
The administrative body that regulates the practice of veterinary medicine and technology is presided over at which level of government?
Definition
State
Term
The primary law governing the practice of the profession is called:
Definition
Practice Act
Term
Which rule is promulgated by the executive branch or independent agencies and reviewed by a variety of entities?
Definition
Regulation
Term
In Ohio, you would contact whom to register as a veterinary technician?
Definition
OVMLB
Term
How would you handle a case in which the veterinarian asks you as an RVT to euthanize a pet which the owner wants to “get rid of” because they are moving and don’t want to take it with them.
Definition
Ask the veterinarian if you could talk to the owner and see if they would consider relinquishing ownership to you so that you could re-home the pet.
Term
When it comes to professional ethics, a veterinary technician is beholden to which of the following entities?
Definition
NAVTA
State Boards
The Technician's Personal Ethics
Term
The most severe sanction the board can give is:
Definition
Revocation
Term
Disciplinary hearings are:
Definition
Public Records
Term
Define nonzoonotic disease and give an example?
Definition
Not a concern for human health, but the disease can be transmitted to other animals by humans
Parvovirus
Term
Susie Vetechio is preparing to hold an animal for an xray, what can she do so that she doesn’t have to worry about cancer in the future?
Definition
Collimate the beam
Term
David takes an animal to surgery – what should he routinely do to protect himself from Waste Anesthetic Gases?
Definition
Check the anesthesia machine for leaks
Term
The agency which provides rules and regulations in order to keep you safe in the workplace is known as:
Definition
OSHA
Term
Cytotoxic chemicals are typical of those used in _____________; and are dangerous because they ____________________.
Definition
The treatment of cancer patients; kill cells
Term
Define a zoonotic disease and provide an example?
Definition
An infectious disease that can be passed from animals to humans
Rabies
Term
WAGS
Definition
Waste Anesthetic Gases
Term
Veterinary Assistants can:
Definition
Animal restraint
Laboratory work
Prescription filling
Preparing surgical patients
Bathing animals and cleaning cages
Feeding, watering, and walking patients
Term
Outpatient Areas
Definition
Reception
Examination rooms
Pharmacy
Laboratory
Restrooms
Term
Inpatient Areas
Definition
Treatment area
Special procedure rooms for x-ray, ultrasound, and endoscopy
Patient wards
Isolation Ward
Exercise area
Kitchen, boarding, and bathing and grooming areas
Term
Surgical Area
Definition
Preparation room
Operating room (OR)
Recovery room
Term
Support Area
Definition
Professional offices
Business management office
Library
Employee lounge
Storage or inventory areas
Term
Six Aspects of Excellent Communication
Definition
1. Clarity- Be clear in speech by using correct grammar and articulation
2. Courtesy- Be courteous and respectful at all times. Avoid using words that might offend, such as curse words and unprofessional slang
3. Positive nonverbal communication- Be aware of your own nonverbal communication, and use open body postures and direct eye contact to build trust
4. Open-ended inquiry- Obtain important information from the client using open-ended inquiries
5. Reflective listening- Employ active and reflective listening to let clients know that you understand what they are saying
6. Empathy- Show sincere empathy by putting yourself in the position of others. Let them know that you understand how they must be feeling
Term
Internal Marketing
Definition
Aims at the existing client base
Term
External Marketing
Definition
Focuses on attracting new clients
Term
How often should you replace drugs?
Definition
30 days
Term
Chemical Spill Cleanup
Definition
Step 1: Keep people and pets away
Step 2: Increase ventilation
Step 3: Put on protective gloves, apron, and protective eyewear if indicated
Step 4: Cover spill with absorbent materials
Step 5: Sweep saturated absorbent materials into dustpan and deposit in a plastic trash bag
Step 6: Seal trash bag, and dispose of it
Step 7: Wash contaminated area thoroughly, and allow area to air-dry
Step 8: Remove protective equipment, and dispose of single-use items
Step 9: Wash hands thoroughly, and change contaminated clothing
Step 10: Replace used materials in spill kit
Term
Ethylene Oxide
Definition
EtO
Gas Sterilization
Human Carcinogen
Term
Formalin
Definition
Used for tissue preservation
Human carcinogen
Term
Glutaraldehyde
Definition
“Cold sterilization” methods
Term
Who is internal marketing primary aimed toward?
Definition
Existing client base
Term
What does the acronym SOAP stand for?
Definition
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
Term
Which agency requires that a file of safety data sheets (SDS) be kept for all pharmaceuticals used in the hospital setting?
Definition
OSHA
Term
Which organization offers voluntary accreditation programs and is designed to help practices refine and improve their services in five areas; quality of care, diagnostics and pharmacy, management, medical records, and facility?
Definition
NAVTA
Term
During a physical examination, which person should NOT be allowed to restrain the patient?
Definition
Owner
Term
Primary purpose of the Medical Record
Definition
Support the patient’s medical care and include documentation of diagnostic procedures, diagnoses, prognoses, and treatment
Term
Secondary Purposes of the Medical Record
Definition
Purposes are not clinically based; they include evaluations of medical information for business, legal, and research purposes
Term
What does ameliorate mean?
Definition
Reducing Symptoms
Term
What does nosocomial mean?
Definition
An infection at a place of care
Term
Medical records are owned by who?
Definition
The medical practice
Term
Subjective
Definition
Performed by the veterinary technician
How the animal appears from casual observation
Term
Objective
Definition
Performed by the veterinary technician
Physiologic data such as temperature, pulse, respiration, vomitus, urination, and defecation
Laboratory data such as blood analysis
Notes on surgical site, catheter placement, swelling, and drainage
Term
Assessment
Definition
Performed by veterinarian
Determines overall status of the patient
Tentative diagnosis is developed
Term
Plan
Definition
Presented by the veterinarian
Course of action for the day
Term
How do you file medical records?
Definition
Alphabetical and Numerical
Term
Primary Records
Definition
Active over the last 3 years
Term
Storage Records
Definition
Inactive for >4 years
Term
When can you purge and shred medical records?
Definition
Inactive for >8 years
Term
After what length of time can medical records be moved to storage?
Definition
After 4 years of inactivity
Term
Who is NOT allowed to sign consent forms?
Definition
17 year old family member
Term
When can medical records legally be shredded?
Definition
After 8 years of inactivity
Term
Which of the following would NOT be considered an objective finding?
Definition
Presenting complaint
Term
In a court of law, what is the adequate way to identify the author of a notation in a handwritten medical record?
Definition
Signature on initialed entries
Term
What is the most important diagnostic procedure performed?
Definition
Physical Exam
Term
What is the MAOR sheet used for?
Definition
Completion of patient treatments
Term
Hypothermia would be recorded in which portion of the technician’s SOAP notes?
Definition
Assessment
Term
With regard to SOAP notes, all “nonmeasurable” information falls under which category?
Definition
Subjective
Term
Which of the following would be considered a secondary purpose of a medical record?
Definition
Serves as legal evidence of services rendered
Term
What is the proper way to make a correction in a handwritten medical record?
Definition
Draw a single line through the entry and write the word “error” next to it.
Term
Associative learning is dependent on what 2 factors?
Definition
Contiguity and Contingency
Term
What is contiguity?
Definition
Relationship between two events in both time and place
Term
What is contingency?
Definition
Predictability of the association
Most easily learned
Term
What are the 2 types of Associative learning?
Definition
Respondent and Operant Conditioning
Term
Respondent Conditioning
Definition
Classical or Pavlovian; reflexive/involuntary
Neutral stimulus comes to elicit a reflexive response
Term
Operant Conditioning
Definition
“Trial and error” learning; dependent on consequences or reinforcement and punishment
Response-stimulus relationships
Term
Positive Reinforcement
Definition
Something pleasant is added after a behavior
Two types: Continuous and intermittent
Term
Positive Punishment
Definition
Something unpleasant is added after a behavior
Term
Negative Reinforcement
Definition
Something unpleasant is taken away or avoided after a behavior
Term
Negative Punishment
Definition
Something pleasant is taken away after a behavior
Term
Continuous reinforcement
Definition
Provided every time the animal does something you want repeated
Term
Intermittent reinforcement
Definition
Given only periodically when the animal performs the desired behavior
Term
Extinction
Definition
Breaking an association between two events
Term
Systematic desensitization
Definition
Change the emotional response
Use hierarchy of stimuli from least to most stimulating
Term
Counter conditioning/counter commanding
Definition
Substitute an incompatible response to behavior
Reward a separate behavior while exposing animal to the stimulus it fears
Term
Response blocking/flooding
Definition
Prevent animal from escaping fearful stimulus until it is no longer fearful; this is a less desirable approach
Term
Many pet behavior problems are rooted in?
Definition
Anxiety or fear
Term
True or False: Flooding can be traumatic for both the animal and the owner
Definition
True
Term
Systematic desensitization
Definition
Change the emotional response
Use hierarchy of stimuli from least to most stimulating
Term
Counter conditioning/counter commanding
Definition
Substitute an incompatible response to behavior
Reward a separate behavior while exposing animal to the stimulus it fears
Term
Response blocking/flooding
Definition
Prevent animal from escaping fearful stimulus until it is no longer fearful; this is a less desirable approach
Term
What is habituation?
Definition
An animal should be exposed frequently and in a non-threatening manner to gentle handling that mimics commonly performed procedures, such as nail trimming, teeth brushing, taking rectal temperatures, examining and treating mouth and ears, and brushing
Term
Many problem behaviors occur as a result of ?
Definition
A client having chosen a pet that was not appropriate for his or her lifestyle
Term
What are 2 main uses for medication in treating behavior problems?
Definition
To relieve severe anxiety or phobias
To aid with behavior modification
Term
True or False: Medications can solve all animal behavior problems by itself
Definition
False
Term
What three drugs have been approved by the FDA for use in animals with behavioral problems?
Definition
Clomicalm [clomipramine], Reconcile [fluoxetine], and Anipryl [selegiline]
Term
What are the four stages of canine development and the age ranges?
What position does a dog do when they want to play?
Definition
Play Bow
Term
Name 3 visual cues that a fearful dog might show
Definition
Yawning
Lip Licking
Shaking
Panting
Salivating
Term
When a cat pees vertical or horizontal outside of the litter box what does it mean?
Definition
Vertical = Territory
Horizontal = Urinary Problems
Term
Whinny or neigh
Definition
Greeting or separation call
Term
Nicker
Definition
Used for caregiving, greeting, and courtship
Term
Squeal
Definition
Defense or aggression
Term
Winking
Definition
receptive mare in estrus
Term
Most human-directed aggression in dogs is the result of what?
Definition
Fear
Term
Physiologic signs such as tachycardia, tachypnea, elevated blood pressure, and dilated pupils are all signs of which of the following?
Definition
Fear
Term
Animals under chronic stress will begin to show signs consistent with constant stimulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis and the frequent release of which hormones?
Definition
Glucocorticosteroids
Term
Respondent behaviors depend on which of the following factors?
Definition
Events that occur immediately before them
Term
____ conditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus comes to elicit a reflexive response when paired with a stimulus that normally elicits that response.
Definition
Classical
Term
Respondent behaviors (those acquired by classical conditioning) are considered to be
Definition
Involuntary
Term
The term anthropomorphizing is best defined as which of the following?
Definition
Projection of human perspective onto the animal to justify the troublesome actions of a pet.
Term
What is one of the first and most important steps in treating most behavior problems?
Definition
Avoidance of the stimulus
Term
Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?
Definition
A dog sits, it gets a treat
Term
Cognitive dysfunction is a syndrome that develops as a result of which of the following?
Definition
Brain Aging
Term
Neutering a male dog is highly effective in addressing all of the following behaviors
Definition
Mounting
Marking
Roaming
Term
[image]
Definition
Cribbing
Term
Sheep and goats show affection to one another by:
Definition
muzzle-muzzle contact
Term
Ethically, information in a patient chart is:
Definition
Confidential
Term
Legal issues, research, and medical business information are all ____ medical record purposes.
Definition
Secondary
Term
______ prevent confusion of patient and client identities.
Definition
Medical Records
Term
If you work in a “paperless” office, using an off-site service to store electronic medical records means:
Definition
This service can act as a third-party agent to verify the absence of tampering
Term
Farm animal veterinarians keep _____ immunization records on large numbers of animals
Definition
Combined Herd
Term
The two most common types of paper folder systems are
Definition
alphabetical and numerical
Term
A separate inventory record must be kept for each schedule ____ drug.
Definition
II
Term
In a _____-oriented veterinary medical record, or SOVMR, recent information is kept together by subject matter.
Definition
Source
Term
The major drawback of SOVMR documentation is that:
Definition
individual medical problems may be difficult to monitor
Term
WNL is an acronym for
Definition
within normal limits
Term
The ______ problem list serves as an index to the patient’s medical history.
Definition
Master
Term
The ______ problem list helps the clinician to list clinical signs as they become apparent without offering a specific diagnosis
Definition
Working
Term
The S and O in SOAP stand for _____ and _____; the A and P in SOAP stand for ____ and ____.
Definition
subjective; objective… assessment; plan
Term
The __________ supports the advancement of research in veterinary medicine by allowing studies of national trends in various animal diseases.
Definition
VMDB
Term
Which of the following logs is helpful for technicians who wish to improve exposure techniques?
Definition
Radiologic procedures log
Term
What is a “booster” and why do we give them?
Definition
A vaccine given at a certain interval from a previous vaccine that will allow the immune system to build T-cells that will “remember” the disease better
Term
You should NEVER give an injection in ruminants in the:
Definition
Rump
Term
What bacteria causes “Strangles in horses?”
Definition
Streptococcus equi
Term
Why should a barn housing piglets be warm and draft-free?
Definition
To prevent the piglets from piling up so their rectums don’t prolapse
Term
What shape describes the cow from behind when the veterinarian is suspecting a condition called “bloat”?
Definition
Papple shape
Term
Why don’t we start vaccinating newborns at 2 weeks of age?
Definition
Maternal antibodies remove the disease from the body, but the immune system does not “remember” the disease later
Term
The _______________lymph nodes are located just under and behind the lower jaw and are the most common site for “Strangles” in the horse.
Definition
Submandibular – under the jaw
Term
Name two potentially toxic items for puppies and kittens
Definition
Chocolate and grapes
Term
Name 3 things that should be included in Lifetime Wellness Visits
Definition
Routine testing for parasites, Routine blood-work, Routine Dental cleanings under anesthesia
Term
Name 2 things that owners need to know how to do (or what to ask for) when grooming their pets
Definition
Nail trimmings, anal gland expressions
Term
Calculate how much of a 1ml vaccine a 2 lb (1kg) dog needs. ___; how much does a 40lb (18kg) dog need? ___
Definition
1:1
Term
Name 2 core vaccines for dogs________________
Definition
Distemper, Hepatitis (Adenovirus 2), Parainfluenza, and Parvovirus (DHPP); Rabies
Term
Name 2 core vaccines for cats ________________
Definition
Feline viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus and panleukopenia (FVRCP); Rabies
Term
What is the name of the vaccine given to piglets at a young age? ________
Definition
Erysepilas
Term
Describe symptoms of an adverse reaction to a vaccine.
Definition
Restlessness, vomiting and/or diarrhea
Swelling of the face
Hives or “bumps” throughout the body
Term
Name a heartworm preventive medication. __________How is it given and when?
Definition
Heartgard Plus, tablet, every month
Term
Name a flea preventive medication. _________________How is it given and when?
Definition
Vectra or Firstshield, topically, monthly
Term
What blood test is required for the movement of a horse from stable to stable or state to state?
Definition
Coggins Test, or test for Equine Infectious Anemia
Term
Lockjaw” is a disease caused by the ________produced from Clostridium tetani.
Definition
Toxin
Term
What must each newborn get within 24 hours of birth to ensure their health and a normal immune system?
Definition
Colostrum
Term
When recording or relaying information about the pet, what should you always address first?
Definition
Signalment of the pet
Term
What information does the signalment consist of?
Definition
Breed, sex, age (of pet)
Term
What is the most important problem to address in order for the client to feel the visit was valuable?
Definition
The problem that is most important to the client
Term
What are you using your stethoscope for when examining a horse or a ruminant?
Definition
Cardiac exam
Gastrointestinal exam
Respiratory exam
Term
How many sections is the dog or cat chest divided into when you are performing respiratory auscultation?
Definition
9
Term
What 3 basic things are parts of the minimum database for your exam?
Definition
Temperature, Pulse, Respirations
Term
Which of these is the name of an abnormal heart sound?
Definition
A murmur
Term
Where is the best place to put your stethoscope to listen to a cat heart?
Definition
On the sternum
Term
On abdominal palpation, the bladder is found in the
Definition
Caudal-ventral quadrant
Term
The rumen of the cow can be seen protruding under the skin on the
Definition
Left side
Term
This exam must be performed on all intact male dogs
Definition
Rectal
Term
The _______________lymph nodes are located just under and behind the lower jaw and are the most common site for “Strangles” in the horse.
Definition
Submandibular
Term
Limping indicates that the animal most likely needs (and should always be offered):
Definition
Pain relief
Term
Conscious proprioception refers to the ability of the animal to:
Definition
Know where it’s feet are in relation to the ground and it’s body
Term
When taking history on an individual cow from a herd of milkers, what other information do you need to have in order to proceed with a treatment plan?
Definition
The history of recent or chronic disease in the herd
What is the value of this cow to the farmer?
Who will be making the decisions on the treatment of the cow?
Term
Explain how you would perform a Capillary Refill Time (CRT):
Definition
Press your finger into the mucous membranes in the mouth of an animal and count the seconds until the white spot becomes pink again
Term
Rumen function is important to determine when examining a ruminant. How would you verify that the rumen is performing its function?
Definition
Place one or two fists on the left side of the animal near the rib cage and count the contractions as the rumen moves toward and away from you
Term
What specific examination(s) might be done on a horse prior to the purchase of the horse by a new owner?
Definition
Lameness exam
Pre-purchase exam
Term
The spleen is normally found
Definition
On the right side
Term
An endoparasite lives:
Definition
Inside the body of the host
Term
An intermediate host:
Definition
Harbors the larval, asexual or immature stages of the parasite and acts as transport
Term
A trematode is commonly referred to as:
Definition
Any flatworm
Term
“Swimmer’s itch” is seen when:
Definition
Cercaria, or motile swimmers, are produced from ciliated miracidium in the snail; then enter aquatic birds or humans
Term
Bloody diarrhea and pale mucous membranes in very young puppies are signs of:
Definition
Ancylostoma caninum
Term
______________ is a unicellular parasite:
Definition
A protozoan
Term
A test for gastrointestinal parasites, ________ requires that the solution used in the test must have a higher specific gravity than that of the parasitic material.
Definition
Fecal flotation
Term
A modified Knott test is used to identify:
Definition
Microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis and Dipetlonema reconditum
Term
Proglottids of Dipylidium caninum are often found:
Definition
in pet beds and/or hanging on hairs around the anus.
Term
To avoid infection from _____, pregnant women must avoid contact with soil, cat litter, raw meat, and cats excreting oocysts.
Definition
Toxoplasma gondii
Term
This is the common name of the horse parasite that is transmitted to the horse after a fly lays it’s eggs on the hairs of the legs or near the mouth – it is the larval form of the fly which causes stomatitis or gastritis in the horse.
Definition
Stomach worm
Term
The most effective way to manage gastrointestinal management in a herd of cattle is to:
Definition
Deworm at 3-6 months of age; and rotate through pastures, allowing parasite loads to decrease by resting pastures between groups of animals
Term
The zoonotic parasite of the pig is
Definition
Trichinella spiralis
Term
You are examining a fecal specimen microscopically. The initial plane of focus should be that of air bubbles because
Definition
Most helminth eggs are found in this plane
Term
Mites of the genus Demodex reside primarily in the:
Definition
hair follicles
Term
Fleas are
Definition
Ectoparasites
Term
Mites of the genus Trombicula (chiggers) reside primarily in (on) the
Definition
surface of the skin
Term
Indications for Restraint
Definition
To control an animal so that it can receive medical care
To protect the animal from injury during treatment procedures
To protect personnel
To protect practice owners from liability
Term
When approaching an animal, what behaviors might you interpret?
Definition
Fear
Aggression
Postural changes and warnings
Mixed signals
Term
True or False: When restraining sheep or goats you should always grab the wool
Definition
False
Term
True or False: Dark rooms can help capture and/or restrain avians
Definition
True
Term
True or False: When carrying rabbits you can use the scruff technique by itself
Definition
False: Never carry by scruff alone because an improperly restrained rabbit can kick forcefully with its hind legs and can subluxate or fracture thoracolumbar vertebrae, resulting in paralysis
Term
You should never obstruct the nares on a rabbit, why?
Definition
Rabbits are obligate nasal breathers, meaning that they do not breathe through their oral cavity, only through their nose. Care must be taken to ensure that the nares are not obstructed during restraint
Term
True or False: Your should never grasp a gerbil by the tail
Definition
True
Term
True or False: You should never hold the chest when restraining avians
Definition
True
Term
Which of the following is considered to be a diversionary restraint used on horses?
Definition
Twitch
Term
When using chemical restraint, which of the following is NOT able to be performed during an examination?
Definition
Neurological Exam
Term
What is the age range of juvenile horses?
Definition
6 months to 2 years
Term
Which area of the horse is considered to be the near side?
Definition
Left Side
Term
In the proper restraint of a rabbit, why is it important to restrain the hind legs?
Definition
To prevent the animal from subluxating or fracturing the thoracolumbar vertebrae
Term
Horses have which type of vision?
Definition
Binocular
Term
What is the typical flight distance of most horses?
Definition
10-30 feet
Term
When using a muzzle on a dog, the muzzle should be loose enough to allow visualization of the dog’s __ in order to assess its color.
Definition
Tongue
Term
While restraining avian patients, care must be taken to not restrict normal movement of which area?
Definition
Thoracic Wall
Term
What is the point of balance for cattle?
Definition
Shoulder
Term
What should you NEVER grasp when restraining a sheep or goat?
Definition
Wool or Hair
Term
How would you restrain a ferret if you need to do an oral exam?
Definition
Scruff it
Term
Which animal can lose it's tail if you grasp it during restraint?
Definition
Gerbil
Term
True or False: It is important to gain the client's trust during an emergency
Definition
True
Term
Signalment
Definition
Age
Breed (or dominant breed if mixed)
Color
Sex and reproductive status
Term
When gathering pet history from the client, it is important to ask what kind of questions
Definition
Open-ended
Term
The history may include:
Definition
Background Information
Diet History
Preventive Medicine
Behavioral Information
Household Information
Allergy History
Reproductive History
Pertinent Past Medical History
Term
Anisocoria
Definition
One eye is dilated while the other stays the same
Term
When animals have trouble breathing in is usually a:
Definition
Upper Respiratory Tract
Term
When an animal has trouble breathing out is a sign of:
Definition
Lower Respiratory Tract
Term
Hyperemia
Definition
too pink/red
Sign of toxicity
Term
What is sinus arrhythmia?
Definition
The heart rate increases slightly during inspiration and decreases slightly during expiration. This signals normal cardiac function.
Term
Alopecia
Definition
Loss of Hair
Term
When dealing with large animals you need to make sure you find out what the owners ?
Definition
the intent is with the animals
Term
When going on a farm call to look at some cows it is important to know?
Definition
Herd Health
Term
Horse Temperature
Definition
99.0-101.5
Term
Cattle Temperature
Definition
101.5-103.0
Term
What is heart rate?
Definition
It refers to the number of heart beats per minute. The rate is taken by auscultation of the heart
Term
What is pulse rate?
Definition
It refers to number of palpable arterial pulse waves per minute. The rate is taken by palpation of the arteries
Term
Eructation
Definition
Considered normal to hear occasional low-pitched fluttering sounds when standing near a ruminant
Eructation rates are approximately 18/hour in cattle and 10/hour in sheep and goats
Term
Ballottement
Definition
Press both fists firmly into left paralumbar fossa (use one fist for sheep and goats)
Fists remain against the body wall for 1 minute
Each rumen contraction is felt as a wave passing under the hands, pushing the hands slightly outward
Normal animal has one to two contractions per minute
Term
Most common location for bloat
Definition
Rumen
Term
When a cow exhibits bloat, what shape does it resemble?
Definition
Papple
Term
Normal cow shape is?
Definition
Pear
Term
The rumen is located on what side
Definition
Left side
Term
Every physical examination should begin with which assessment?
Definition
Subjective assessment, observing the animal in the environment prior to approaching
Term
Bluish coloring to the gums of a dog indicates which of the following?
Definition
Cyanosis
Term
What does pulse pressure represent
Definition
The difference between systolic and arterial pressures.
Term
Using a/an _____ thermometer is the optimal way to measure a patient's body temperature
Definition
Rectal
Term
Absence of a palpable pulse with an audible heartbeat is referred to as what?
Definition
Pulse Deficit
Term
With regard to capillary refill time in a normal horse, the original color should return within how many seconds?
Definition
2.5 seconds
Term
Capillary refill time is a reflection of which of the following?
Definition
Cardiac Output
Term
Obtaining the date of the most recent heat cycle of intact female dogs is important because pyometra typically occurs during what time period?
Definition
2 weeks to 2 months following a heat cycle
Term
Mild elevations of body temperature can indicate which of the following?
Definition
Stress
Term
Where is the most common location for bloat to occur in the abdomen of cattle, the rumen, appears as an enlargement to which area?
Definition
The left paralumbar fossa
Term
Which peripheral artery is typically palpated to obtain the pulse rate and pulse quality?
Definition
Femoral Artery
Term
What are the 6 life stages in cats?
Definition
Kitten
Junior
Adult
Mature
Senior
Geriatric
Term
Kitten age range
Definition
0-6 months
Term
Junior age range in cats
Definition
7 months- 2 years
Term
Adult age range in cats
Definition
3-6 years
Term
Mature age range in cats
Definition
7-10 years
Term
Senior age range in cats
Definition
11-14 years
Term
Geriatric age range in cats
Definition
14 years and older
Term
How old are puppies and kittens when they come in for their initial visit?
Cats can have severe reactions that may be resolved by amputation
Term
What legs do you give Distemper, Rabies, Lepto/FeLV
Definition
Front Right - Distemper
Back Right - Rabies
Back Left - Lepto/FeLV
Term
What legs do you give Distemper, Rabies, Lepto/FeLV
Definition
Front Right - Distemper
Back Right - Rabies
Back Left - Lepto/FeLV
Term
What do you need to measure, record, and monitor when you give a cat an injection?
Definition
Lumps/ Masses
Term
Canine core vaccines
Definition
Rabies
Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)
Canine Adenovirus Type 2 (CAV-2=Hepatitis)
Canine Parvovirus Type 2 (CPV-2)
Term
Noncore Canine Vaccines
Definition
Canine Parainfluenza Virus (CPiV)
Leptospirosis
Bordetella bronchiseptica (Lyme Disease)
Borrelia burgdorferi
Canine Influenza
Canine Coronavirus (CCoV)
Term
Rabies Vaccination
Definition
Caused by a rhabdovirus
Pathogenesis (nervous system symptoms)
Reportable disease
Monitor local or regional requirements
Ø(q 2 or 3 years?)
Term
Canine Distemper Vaccine
Definition
Caused by paramyxovirus (like measles)
Pathogenesis of disease (respiratory and nervous system symptoms)
Core vaccine
Vaccination choices
Measles vaccination – temporary immunity
Term
Canine Parvovirus (CPV-2)
Definition
Pathogenesis of disease
Core vaccine
Virus shedding after vaccination
Canine parvoviral enteritis is a serious, highly contagious disease. The virus is resistant to many disinfectants and is able to survive in the environment for weeks to months. Infected patients must be housed in designated isolation areas during hospitalization.
Term
Canine Parainfluenza
Definition
Part of kennel cough complex
Noncore vaccine (but may be combined with distemper and adenovirus type 2 core vaccines to create DA2PP)
