Term
| What does an EEG measure? and where does it come from? |
|
Definition
| summation of graded potential from inside the brain. primary from the pyramidal cells of the cortex. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of abnormal EEGs? |
|
Definition
| damage, death,tumors, blood clots, hemorrhage, regions of dead tissue, and high or low blood sugar |
|
|
Term
| What shift in electrical activity is associated with epileptic seizures? |
|
Definition
| low synchronized pattern changing into high synchronized pattern |
|
|
Term
| An adult awakened state is connected to what EEG pattern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the alpha rhythm detected best? |
|
Definition
| over the parietal and occipital lobes and is associated with decreased levels of attention. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between alpha and beta rhythms? |
|
Definition
| alpha is relaxed and beta is focused on a task, alpha arcs more than beta on an EEG chart. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| EEG reading that is seen during attention focus and hard thinking. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two rhythm related to sleeping? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the rhythms seen when an adult is falling asleep? |
|
Definition
| beta rhythms turn into alpha before sleep. once asleep theta and delta rhythms are seen(slow frequency high amplitude) |
|
|
Term
| What are the four stages of NREM sleep |
|
Definition
1-theta waves replace alpha
2-theta waves are interrupted by sleep spindles and K-complex
3-delta and theta waves are seen
4-mainly delta are seen
cycle through stages |
|
|
Term
| What rhythm is related to REM sleep (paradoxical) |
|
Definition
| alpha rhythm, alert state pattern |
|
|
Term
| What is the pattern of sleep cycles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitters are used in the awake and REM state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitters are used in the awake and NREM state? |
|
Definition
| GABA, stopping brain functions |
|
|
Term
| What function is lost in ADHD or ADD? |
|
Definition
| selective attention. or focusing on one thing and blocking out other incoming stimuli |
|
|
Term
| dysfunctional catecholamines in the basal nuclei and prefontal cortex are a symptom of what disease? |
|
Definition
| ADHD, treated by Ritalin, which increase the amount of Dopamine and NE in synapses |
|
|
Term
| What is secondary motivation? |
|
Definition
| Motivation with no relationship to homeostasis, such as preferring a type of pop over another |
|
|
Term
| What is primary motivation? |
|
Definition
| action with direct effects on the homeostasis of a an organism |
|
|
Term
| The neural system subserving reward and punishment is part of what? |
|
Definition
| the reticular activating system |
|
|
Term
| The major neurotransmitter for positive incentives is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why are Amphetamines abused? |
|
Definition
| they increase the presynaptic concentrations of dopamine |
|
|
Term
| What drug blocks dopamine receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what structure is responsible for fear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What directs the emotions to approach or avoid something? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| total immobilization of body movement |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a disease in which information is not properly regulated in the brain. variety of symptoms |
|
|
Term
| what is the best explanation for schizophrenia ? |
|
Definition
| overactive dopamine pathways |
|
|
Term
| what neural functions is depression associated with? |
|
Definition
| decreased neuronal activity and metabolism in the anterior part of the limbic system and nearby prefrontal cortex |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of anti-depressant drugs? |
|
Definition
| tricyclic antidepressant drugs, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, and serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) |
|
|
Term
| what does serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) do? |
|
Definition
| the most widely used antidepressant drugs and include Prozac®, Paxil®, and Zoloft®. As their name—SSRI—suggests, these drugs selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake by presynaptic terminals. |
|
|
Term
| what does monoamine oxidase inhibitors do? |
|
Definition
| interfere with the enzyme which degrades NE and ST |
|
|
Term
| what does tricyclic antidepressant drugs do? |
|
Definition
| interfere with serotonin and/or norepinephrine reuptake by presynaptic endings |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for SADD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) do? |
|
Definition
| treat depression by magnetic stimulation of certain parts of the brain. |
|
|
Term
| what are two none drug treatments of depression? |
|
Definition
| Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). and Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) |
|
|
Term
| What is the major treatment of bipolar disorder? |
|
Definition
| lithium with a anti convulsive, which normalizes mood swings |
|
|
Term
| What pathway do most recreational drugs act on? |
|
Definition
| dopamine, biogenic amine pathways |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| re uptake of Dopamine at presynaptic cells |
|
|
Term
| The most addictive substance dependences come from acting on what pathway? |
|
Definition
| mesolimbic dopamine pathway . |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of memory? |
|
Definition
| declarative and procedural memory |
|
|
Term
| What is declarative memory? |
|
Definition
| facts/figures, recalling conscious experiences |
|
|
Term
| What is procedural memory? |
|
Definition
| how to do things, understanding nonconscious acts |
|
|
Term
| Where is declarative memory created? |
|
Definition
| hippocampus, amygdala, and other parts of the limbic system |
|
|
Term
| Where are procedural memories formed? |
|
Definition
| regions of sensorimotor cortex, the basal nuclei, and the cerebellum. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| turning short term memories into long term |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between working and long term memory? |
|
Definition
| working needs consist graded-action potentials. long term does not. |
|
|
Term
| what is anterograde amnesia? |
|
Definition
| lose of memory due to damage of limbic system such as hippocampus, thalamus, and hypothalamus. also can not form long term memories |
|
|
Term
| what is retrograde amnesia? |
|
Definition
| lose of memories from a variable time right before brain damage |
|
|
Term
| what does conscious sedation do? |
|
Definition
| stimulates GABA receptors |
|
|
Term
| What memory model shows forming long lasting memories? |
|
Definition
| long-term potentiation, synthesizing new proteins |
|
|
Term
| what two opioid peptides interfere with memory formation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What signalers help memory formation? |
|
Definition
| epinephrine, ACTH, and vasopressin |
|
|
Term
| What does the left hemisphere code for? |
|
Definition
| language, verbal memories and emotional understanding(both) |
|
|
Term
| why is the cerebellum needed with speaking/writing? |
|
Definition
| involves muscle contractions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| defect in language due to brain damage |
|
|
Term
| Damage to the Wernicke’s area does what? |
|
Definition
| hurts comprehension of language |
|
|
Term
| Damage to the Broca’s area does what? |
|
Definition
| damages language. expressive aphasias, cant speak the language |
|
|
Term
| what does the right side of the brain code for? |
|
Definition
| nonverbal and emotional(both) |
|
|
Term
| What is the best position of electro convulsive therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of muscle? |
|
Definition
| skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle |
|
|
Term
| What are the unique descriptions of skeletal muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the unique descriptions of cardiac muscle? |
|
Definition
| straited, mono nuclei, fat deposits around nucleus |
|
|
Term
| What are the unique descriptions of smooth muscle? |
|
Definition
| NOT straited, mono nuclei |
|
|
Term
| What structure is unique to skeletal muscles? |
|
Definition
| Transverse tubules, carries AP down to sacroplasmic reticulum releasing Calcium |
|
|
Term
| What is sarcoplasm and sarcolemma |
|
Definition
| cell membrane and cytoplasm of skeletal muscles respectively |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| straited appearance of muscles, contains myosin and actin |
|
|
Term
| What is sarcoplasmic reticulum? |
|
Definition
| ER of skeletal muscles, full of Calcium |
|
|
Term
| A group of fascicles is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is contained in a sarcomere? |
|
Definition
| between Z bands, thick and thin filaments |
|
|
Term
| The length of myosin is referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The distance between the ends of actin filaments, |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The distance between the ends of myosin |
|
|
Term
| What part of the muscle never changes length? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the M line link together? |
|
Definition
| Myosin filaments, where there are no myosin heads |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| link together actin-thin filaments |
|
|
Term
| What are the levels of Actin filaments? |
|
Definition
| G-actin molecules, F-actin chain, and Actin filament |
|
|
Term
| What protein blocks the binding of myosin to actin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Troponin serves what purpose in muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
| once bound with Calcium it changes conformation moving tropomyosin out of the binding sites on actin |
|
|
Term
| Where does the head and tail of myosin face? |
|
Definition
| head- I band and tail-M line |
|
|
Term
| What three binding sites are present on myosin's head? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What protein anchors myosin between M and Z lines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the crossbridge cycle? |
|
Definition
| the formation and breaking of bounds between myosin and actin during contraction |
|
|
Term
| What kind of affinity does myosin have for actin when ATP is bound to the head? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is needed to have Myosin bind to action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two receptors are used in muscle contraction and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| DHP receptor, activates Ryanodine receptors which are ion gated to the sarcoplasmic reticulum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The mechanical response of a muscle fiber to a single action potential |
|
|
Term
| What are the three periods of twitch contraction? |
|
Definition
| Latent, Contraction, Relaxation |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between isotonic and isometric contractions? |
|
Definition
| isotonic shortens muscle, and moves load. isometric doesnt. |
|
|
Term
| Heavier loads move______ compared to lighter loads? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A series of AP sent to the muscle for contractions |
|
|
Term
| What is tetanus (tetanic contraction)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the three ways muscles get ATP? |
|
Definition
1.)phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate
2.) oxidative phosphorylation of ADP in the mitochondria
3.)phosphorylation of ADP by the glycolytic pathway in the cytosol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decline in muscle tension as a result of previous contractile activity |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of muscle fatigue? |
|
Definition
1.Conduction Failure
2.Lactic Acid Buildup
3.Inhibition of Cross-Bridge Cycling
4. Central Command Fatigue |
|
|
Term
| what are the classification of Skeletal Muscle Fibers based on? |
|
Definition
(1) their maximal velocities of shortening (fast or slow)
(2) the major pathway they use to form ATP—oxidative or glycolytic. |
|
|
Term
| What are the Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers? |
|
Definition
Type I-Slow-oxidative fibers
Type IIa-Fast-oxidative-glycolytic fibers
Type IIb-Fast-glycolytic fibers |
|
|
Term
| what are the 2 controls of muscle tension? |
|
Definition
1.) the amount of tension developed by each fiber
2.) the number of fibers contracting at any time. |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of atrophy in muscles? |
|
Definition
1. disuse atrophy (think arm in a cast)
2. denervation atrophy (nerve damage= loss of function) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a viral disease that destroys motor neurons, leading to the paralysis of skeletal muscle, and may result in death due to respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
| What is muscle cramps produced by? |
|
Definition
| Involuntary tetanic contraction of skeletal muscles, commonly because of ion concentrations |
|
|
Term
| What is Hypocalcemic tetany? |
|
Definition
| to little Calcium which causes membrane depolarization |
|
|
Term
| What is the degeneration of muscles? |
|
Definition
| Muscular dystrophy, defect in costameres |
|
|
Term
| What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
| defect in Dystrophin was the first costamere protein discovered to be related to a muscular dystrophy, |
|
|
Term
| What is Myasthenia Gravis? |
|
Definition
| destruction of nicotinic ACh receptor proteins of the motor end plate, mediated by antibodies of a person’s own immune system. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between smooth and skeletal muscle? |
|
Definition
| smooth has NO troponin, and divide anchored by dense bodies |
|
|
Term
| How does cross-bridging work in smooth muscles? |
|
Definition
| Calcium causes phosphorylation of myosin which then can bind with actin by myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) |
|
|
Term
| What causes smooth muscles to relax? |
|
Definition
| dephosphorylation is mediated by the enzyme myosin light-chain phosphatase (MLCP) |
|
|
Term
| What two sources of Calcium aid the smooth muscle? |
|
Definition
(1) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(2) extracellular Ca2+ entering the cell through plasma-membrane Ca2+ channels. |
|
|
Term
| How does the membrane activation of smooth muscle work? |
|
Definition
| graded, can be both excitatory or inhibitory |
|
|
Term
| What is the sequence to phosphorylate myosin? |
|
Definition
1.) high Calcium
2.) Calcium activates calmodulin
3.) Calmodulin activates MLCK
4.) which triggers the contraction |
|
|
Term
| What nerves trigger smooth muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
| autonomic neuron endings, which use Acetyl choline |
|
|
Term
| What is pacemaker potential? |
|
Definition
| the contraction of smooth muscles without any influencing factors (swallowing ) |
|
|
Term
| What is the advantage of Single-unit smooth muscles ? |
|
Definition
| respond to stimuli as a single unit because cells are connected by gap junctions. |
|
|
Term
| How do Multi-unit smooth muscles work? |
|
Definition
| cells that respond to stimuli independently and they contain few gap junctions. |
|
|
Term
| WHat are intercalated discs and what is there purpose? |
|
Definition
| links between cardiac cells with desmosomes and gap junctions, hold heart together |
|
|
Term
| When a cell produces its own electrochemical Action potential what is it called? |
|
Definition
| automaticity or autorhythmicity |
|
|
Term
| Where are steroids produced? |
|
Definition
| gonadal and adrenocortical glands |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of Prostaglandins? |
|
Definition
| effect blood pressure, are involved with birth, enhance blood clotting, and inflammation. |
|
|
Term
| What are 5 steroid hormones? |
|
Definition
| estradiol, testosterone, cortisol, aldosterone cholesterol |
|
|
Term
| What do The lipid-soluble hormones do? |
|
Definition
| activate transcription factors |
|
|
Term
| What hormones are produced in the hypothalamus? |
|
Definition
1.)oxytocin
2.) ADH (antiduiretic hormone)
3.) PRH (prolactin releasing hormone)
4.) PIH(dopamine)(prolactin inhibiting hormone)
5.) TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone)
6.) CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone)
7.) GHRH (Growth hormone releasing hormone)
8.) GHIH (somatostatin) (Growth hormone inhibiting hormone)
9.) GnRH Gonadotropin releasing hormone |
|
|
Term
| What connects the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland? |
|
Definition
| hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract |
|
|
Term
| What does hypophyseal portal system pertain to? |
|
Definition
| the direct blood vessel from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary gland |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of prolactin releasing hormone? |
|
Definition
| travels to ant. PG, and causes release of prolactin, which increases milk secretion |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of prolactin inhibitor hormone? |
|
Definition
| produced in the hypothalamus than travels to ant. PG, and stop release of prolactin, which increases milk secretion |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of Thyrotropin releasing hormone? |
|
Definition
| produced in hypothalamus stimulates the release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary which triggers the release of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland |
|
|
Term
| What is the path way of Corticotropin Releasing Hormone? |
|
Definition
| produced in Hypothalamus, travels to ant. p. to cause release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) which than stimulates the secretion of other hormones from the adrenal cortex |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of action for Growth Hormone releasing hormone? or Growth Hormone inhibiting hormone? |
|
Definition
made in hypothalamus travels to ant. p. causes release of of growth hormone (GH)
This acts as trophic hormone by stimulating the secretion of insulin-like growth factors (IGF) by the liver |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) ? |
|
Definition
| stimulates the release of both follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing hormone (LH) by the anterior pituitary. |
|
|
Term
| what is the effects of Luteinizing hormone (LH) ? |
|
Definition
| ovulation in females and it stimulates the production of sex hormones (estrogen, progesterone and testosterone) by the gonads |
|
|
Term
| what is the effect of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) ? |
|
Definition
| egg development in females and sperm in males. It also stimulates the secretion of estrogen in females and inhibin in both sexes |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) |
|
Definition
| produced in hypothalamus, stored in post. p. and released. causes a decrease in Diuresis |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of oxytoxin? |
|
Definition
| made in hypothalamus, released from post. p. then triggers contraction of smooth muscles or relaxation of mammary glands |
|
|
Term
| What are the hormones released from the anterior pituitary gland? (6) |
|
Definition
1.) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
2.) Growth hormones
3.) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
4.) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
5.)Prolactin
6.)Adrenocorticotropic hormone |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of Growth Hormone? |
|
Definition
| target bones/muscles with many effects. Insulin-like growth factor causes uptake of AA and sulfur |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) ? |
|
Definition
| controls normal development of secretion of hormones by the thyroid gland |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)? |
|
Definition
| stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteriod hormones, most importantly the glucocorticoids that help the body deal with stress |
|
|
Term
| What are three controls of hypothalamic hormone release? |
|
Definition
| neural, hormonal, and Circadian rhythm |
|
|
Term
| What is gigantism caused by? |
|
Definition
| Hypersecretion of GH which causes large growth in children and acromegaly in adults |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of Pituitary dwarfism ? |
|
Definition
| hyposecretion of GH. proportions and effected when thyroid is also damaged |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause and symptoms of Diabetes insipidus ? |
|
Definition
| caused by a lack of ADH due to a damage of hypothalamus or Post. p. , symptoms are marked by a large urine output and intense thirst |
|
|
Term
| What is SIADH? and its causes? |
|
Definition
| Hypersecretion of ADH, it is syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. |
|
|
Term
What is the Pineal Gland
and its purpose? |
|
Definition
| Glandular tissue in brain, secretes melatonin |
|
|
Term
| What is the anatomy of the thyroid gland? |
|
Definition
colloid-stored in the central cavity, of thyroglobulin and iodine
follicle is lined with thyroglobulin producing cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the two forms of thyroid hormone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the hormones of the thyroid gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major effects of the thyroid on BMR? |
|
Definition
| hypo secretion causes low BMR, cold, low body temp. weight gain |
|
|
Term
| What is the major effects of the thyroid on cardiovascular system? |
|
Definition
| hyposecretion causes poor pumping efficiency, low blood rate/pressure |
|
|
Term
| What is the thyroids effects on muscles? |
|
Definition
| hyposecretion causes sluggish, poor muscle function |
|
|
Term
| Synthesis of thyroid hormone! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hypothyroidism, from a lack of iodine then the gland enlarges and it is called an endemic goiter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| severe hypothyroidism in infants leads to bad things |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hyperthyroidism, overactive thyroid, can be removed or treated causes bugging eyes |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of Calcitonin? |
|
Definition
| Calcitonin target the skeleton where is inhibits osteoclast activity and stimulates the uptake of calcium into bones |
|
|
Term
| What does the parathyroid produce? |
|
Definition
| Parathyroid hormone, is triggered by falling blood calcium levels. PTH increases osteoclast activity to increase calcium release from the bones as well as resorption of calcium from the digestive system. (opposite of calcitonin ) |
|
|
Term
| What does Hyperparathyroidism do? |
|
Definition
| severe cases lead to oseitis fibrosa cystica, minerals are leeched out of bones |
|
|
Term
| What is Hypoparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
| caused by bad surgeries on thyroid or low Mg, causes over excitability of neurons |
|
|
Term
| What does the Thymus secrete? |
|
Definition
| thymosin which Regulates T cell function |
|
|
Term
| What are the two functional glands of the adernal gland? |
|
Definition
| adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex |
|
|
Term
| What are the two functional glands of the adernal gland? |
|
Definition
| adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex |
|
|
Term
| What are the three zones of the adernal cortex? |
|
Definition
| zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis |
|
|
Term
| What does zona reticularis produce? |
|
Definition
small amounts of gonadocorticoids
EX androgens |
|
|
Term
| What does the zona fasciculata produce? |
|
Definition
metabolic hormones called glucocorticoids.
EX cortisol |
|
|
Term
| What does Zona glomerulosa produce? |
|
Definition
| mineralocorticoids involved in mineral and water balance EX aldosterone |
|
|
Term
| What is a synthetic mineralocorticoid ? |
|
Definition
| deoxycorticosterone acetate (DOCA). |
|
|
Term
| What are the major pathways of aldosterone? |
|
Definition
1. Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
2. Plasma concentrations of K+ and Na+ ions
3. ACTH
4. Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) |
|
|
Term
| What effect does a drop in blood pressure have on the kidneys? |
|
Definition
| juxtaglomerular apparatus is triggered to release renin eventually leading to the ANG II |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of renin? |
|
Definition
| cleaves a plasma protein called angiotensinogen (made in the liver) into angiotensin I. Angiotensin I then goes to the lung via the circulation and gets cleaved by Angiotensin converting enzyme to Angiotensin II (ANG II). |
|
|
Term
| What receptor signals renin release directly? |
|
Definition
| Beta-1 in response to SNS |
|
|
Term
| What converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin-I? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What converts ANG I to ANG II? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the receptors of ANG II? What do they cause? |
|
Definition
| AT1 AT2, causing aldosterone release, vasoconstriction and sodium uptake |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| endothelial cells of the lung and in other tissues that can make RAS components |
|
|
Term
| Why are ACE inhibitors used to treat hypertension and diabetes? |
|
Definition
they prevent the formation of the active hormone ANG II and in turn sodium uptake
also protecting against kidney failure |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between AT 1 and AT 2? |
|
Definition
| they do opposite jobs, AT 1 receptor antagonists are clinically considered the first line of treatment for hypertension and are given as adjunct therapy in diabetes. |
|
|
Term
| What other negative effects of ANG II are seen? |
|
Definition
Increasing levels of ROS
Altering expression of other vasoconstrictors (ET-1)
Increasing growth responses
Increasing extracellular matrix deposition
Increasing collagen deposition
Increases cardiac hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
| What does the increase in potassium do to aldosterone secretion? |
|
Definition
| increases release from zona glomerulosa |
|
|
Term
| How can increased CRH release effect aldosterone? |
|
Definition
| stress releases more ACTH and increases aldosterone release |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of ANP? |
|
Definition
| atrial natriuretic peptide is released when blood pressure is high, it inhibits RAS and blocks aldosterone release |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause and effect of Hypersecretion of aldosterone (aldosteronism) ? |
|
Definition
| result from tumors. hypertension from excessive water and Na+ retention and accelerated excretion of potassium. This can cause nervous system depression, muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias. This can lead to paralysis and death. |
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|
Term
| What is the cause and effect of Addison’s Disease? |
|
Definition
| hyposecretion of both the mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids, loss of weight, plasma glucose and sodium levels drop and potassium levels increase. Dehydration and hypotension are common |
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|
Term
| What stimulates cortisol secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause and effect of Cushing’s Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| excessive level of glucocorticoids, presents in buffalo hump, hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
| What is Pheochromocytoma? and its effects? |
|
Definition
a hypersecretion of catacholamines usually sue to a chromaffin cell tumor in the adrenal medulla,
Effect:hyperglycemia, increased metabolic rate, increased heart rate, hypertension, palpitations, intense nervousness and sweating
Prevention: Pharmacological inhibition of the adrenergic receptors is a short-term solution. Long-term treatment requires surgery |
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|
Term
| What do the acinar cells secrete? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do Islet of Langerhans also known as pancreatic islets secrete? |
|
Definition
beta cells-insulin
alpha cells-glucagon |
|
|
Term
| What does delta and F cells secrete in the pancreas? |
|
Definition
| somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide respectively |
|
|
Term
| What is the insulin cascade? |
|
Definition
| insulin binds to insulin receptor triggering IRS-1 to PI3 kinase PDK 1----AKT which phosphorylates NOsynthase or translocation of Glut 4 |
|
|
Term
| What are the three cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
polyuria (pee alot)
polydipsia (excessive thirst)
polyphagia (excessive hungry) |
|
|
Term
| What are the four side effects of hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
| osmotic diuretic, formation of advanced glycation, ROS, and alteration in cellular growth responses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| two hormones enhancing the effects of each other |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
One hormone needed for another to exert its effects
EX : TH suppressing adrenergic receptors in bronchi |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| One hormone blocks/inhibits/prevents/counteracts the effects of another hormone |
|
|
Term
| What are Hydrophilic hormones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Hydrophobic hormones? |
|
Definition
| Steroids, thyroid hormones bound to carrier proteins |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between primary and secondary secretion disorders? |
|
Definition
1- defect in endocrine organ
2- Abnormality in in either the anterior pituitary or the hypothalamus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a mineralocorticoid antagonist |
|
|
Term
| What are the three granular leukocytes? |
|
Definition
| neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils |
|
|
Term
| What is Erythropoiesis responsible for? |
|
Definition
| red blood cell formation. Triggers by Erythropoietin released from kidney |
|
|
Term
| What are the two differentiating steps towards blood cells? name the cell types? |
|
Definition
1-lymphoid stem cell goes to lymphocyte
2-myeloid stem cell goes to everything else |
|
|
Term
| What are the Agranulocytes? |
|
Definition
| lymphocytes and monocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| phagocytic, increased to kill infection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| defend against parasitic worms, contain toxic molcules |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| allergic reation, non-phagocytic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| phagocytic, migrate to tissues and become macrophages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| turn into T and B cells for immune system |
|
|
Term
| What is required for erythrocyte production? |
|
Definition
| Iron, Folic Acid and B 12 |
|
|
Term
| What is required for erythrocyte production? |
|
Definition
| Iron, Folic Acid and B 12 |
|
|
Term
| What happens to old erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
| filtered by spleed and digested in liver, iron is recycled once bound to transferrin in blood and ferrin in liver storage |
|
|
Term
| What is the heme group converted into? |
|
Definition
| bilirubin, which is broken down and turned into bile by liver |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of anemia ? |
|
Definition
| loss of oxygen carrying capacity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is hemorrhagic anemia? |
|
Definition
| loss of F(X) due to blood loss |
|
|
Term
| What is hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| kidney dysfunction causes no EPO release |
|
|
Term
| What is pernicious anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are platelets derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do platelet granules contain? |
|
Definition
ADP-increase stickiness (+ feedback)
Serotonin-vasoconstriction
Epinephrine-vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| What are the three stages of clotting? |
|
Definition
1. Vascular spasm
2. Formation of platelet plug
3. Blood coagulation |
|
|
Term
| What is produced once a plug is forming? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What prevents platelet aggregation? |
|
Definition
| Nitric oxide and prostocyclin (PGI2) |
|
|
Term
| Why do NSAIDs prevent blood clotting? |
|
Definition
| they block the cyclooxygenases that creates thromboxane A2 |
|
|
Term
| What are the names of clotting factor I II III? |
|
Definition
| fibrinogen, prothrombin and tissue factor |
|
|
Term
| Where are clotting factors produced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| defect in Factor VIII often. |
|
|
Term
| What clotting factors are NOT made in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic blood clotting? |
|
Definition
in-vessel rupture
ex-trauma to tissue (bruises) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs 30 minutes after clot formation? |
|
Definition
| clot retraction, clot compresses closing wound and releasing serum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| starts the wound healing immediately so fibroblasts are dividing to rebuild the wall |
|
|
Term
| What are the two anticlotting systems? |
|
Definition
| plasminogen and thrombomodulin |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway for plasminogen? |
|
Definition
| tissue plasminogen activator plasminogen to activators and turns into plasmin which breaks down fibrin to fragments |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of thrombomodulin ? |
|
Definition
| thrombomodulin is turned into thrombin, cleaving protein C which inhibits factor VIIIa and Va |
|
|
Term
| what is recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) used for? |
|
Definition
| to dissolve clots in stroke patients |
|
|
Term
| What is Von Willebrand’s disease? |
|
Definition
Reduced levels of vWf
Decreases platelet plug formation |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of low vitamin K on clotting factors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between low and high doses of aspirin? |
|
Definition
| low prevents thromboxane a2 high prevents prostocyclin (PGI2) |
|
|
Term
| What happens to free thrombin in blood? |
|
Definition
| is inactivated by antithrombin III and protein C |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| anti-coagulant released from mast cells and basophils, increases antithrombin III also inhibits intrinsic pathway |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can be used to prevent clots? |
|
Definition
| aspirin, heparin and warfarin (coumadin) |
|
|
Term
| What is Embolus or emboli ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between Pulmonary embolisms and cerebral embolisms ? |
|
Definition
| stops oxygen in lungs or causes strokes |
|
|
Term
| A blood clot lodged in a body's vein it is called what? |
|
Definition
| deep vein thrombosis or DVT. |
|
|
Term
| What is Thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
| lack of platelet formation |
|
|
Term
| How can you treat liver dysfunction? |
|
Definition
| vitamin K injections, if severe it needs transfusions |
|
|
Term
| What is hemophilia A, B, C ? |
|
Definition
| lack of factor VIII, IX and XI(mild defect cant be bypassed) |
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