Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Emergency and Critical care
Emergency and Critical care
407
Veterinary Medicine
Graduate
04/22/2013

Additional Veterinary Medicine Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
what are the five main things assessed in triage?
Definition

heart and perfusion

breathing

neuro status

abdomen (esp male cats)

bleeding

Term
what are the four triage categories?
Definition
  • Category 1: will die quickly without immediate intervention
  • Category 2: needs urgent attention within 30 min
  • Category 3: sick, needs attention within hours 
  • Category 4: not truly an emergency, treat within 24 hours
Term
DKA, stable fractures, sucking chest wounds, and broken toe nails are examples of what categories of triage?
Definition

category 2

category 3

category 1

category 4

 

Term
what should you suspect if sinus tachycardia?
Definition
hypovolemia, hypoxia, anemia, pain, anxiety, hypotension, excitement, hypercapnia, hyperthermia, visceral organ failure, sepsis, drugs, hyperthyroidism, pheochromocytoma
Term
what should you suspect if arrythmias?
Definition
ventricular tachycardia, supraventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation
Term
what should you suspect if sinus bradycardia?
Definition
drug intoxication, anesthetic drugs, intracranial disease
Term
what should you suspect if AV block?
Definition
cardiac disease, opioids, cardiac drug toxicities (e.g. diltiazem)
Term
what should you suspect if atrial standstill?
Definition
hyperkalemia, cardiac disease, hypothermia
Term
what is insinuated by hyperemic mm and rapid CRT?
Definition
compensated hypovolemia or fever
Term
what do pale mm and crt>2sec suggest? what if the crt was normal?
Definition

decompensated hypovolemia

anemia

Term

what do white mm with absent CRT suggest?

what about cyanotic mm with variable CRT?

Definition

severe anemia or cardiac collapse

hypoxia

Term
flail chest will present how?
Definition
with focal paradoxical pattern breathing
Term
how will lower airway disease present?
Definition

expiratory dyspnea, loud/harsh lung sounds, crackles, wheezing

 

Term
how would upper airway obstruction present?
Definition
inspiratory dyspnea, stridor, referred upper airway noise on auscultation
Term
what is suggested by mixed inspiratory and expiratory dyspnea, loud or harsh lung sounds, +/- crackles, and short shallow respirations?
Definition
parenchymal disease
Term
how would pleural space disease present?
Definition
inspiratory dyspnea, short shallow respirations, sometimes paradoxical respiration, quiet lung sounds on auscultation
Term
what IV catheter and placement are ideal in emergency situations in general?
Definition
short, wide bore, peripheral vein (or jugular in puppies/kittens)
Term
what is the treatment for ventricular arrhythmias?
Definition

lidocaine 2mg/kg IV

0.2mg/kg in cats

Term
what is the treatment for severe bradycardia?
Definition
atropine, warm up, fix electrolytes, emergency pacing
Term
GDV is an example of what category of triage?
Definition
category 1
Term
what MDB tests are run in triage?
Definition

PCV/TS

glucose

renal values

electrolytes (K)

Term
what is the immediate treatment for hypovolemia?
Definition
fluid therapy (crystalloids, colloids, hypertonic saline, blood products)
Term
what is the immediate treatment for severe anemia?
Definition

PRBCs, whole blood

blood typing mandatory in cats, not for first time in dogs

Term
what is the immediate treatment for severe respiratory distress?
Definition
flowby or cage O2, intubation, ventilation
Term
what is the immediate treatment for seizures?
Definition
  • diazepam 0.5mg/kg IV or rectally
Term
what class of drugs are good for severe pain? examples?
Definition

opioids

hydromorphone

morphine (risk of vomiting)

fentanyl

buprenorphine (not reversible)

Term
which opioid is not reversible?
Definition
buprenorphine
Term
a bounding pulse can indicate what?
Definition
anemia, compensated shock
Term
what sort of wounds should you look for in dog bite cases?
Definition
  • head
    • depressed skull fractures, ocular trauma
  • thorax 
    • penetrating, flail chest, lung lobe contusions, lacerations, pneumothorax, hemothorax
  • abdomen
    • penetrating wounds, organ laceration
  • orthopedic
    • open fractures
  • integument
    • body wall hernias, heavily contaminated lacerations, severe tissue injury
Term
what sort of wounds should you look for in HBC at speed cases?
Definition
  • head
    • raised ICP, jaw fractures, skull fractures, ocular injury
  • thorax
    • pneumothorax, pulmonary contusions, rib fractures
  • abdomen
    • hemoabdomen
  • orthopedic
    • long bone, pelvic, spinal fractures
  • integument
    • shearing injuries, skin lacerations
Term
what type of patient is usually affected by roll-overs?
Definition
older dogs sleeping behind the car
Term
what sort of wounds should you look for in roll-over cases?
Definition
  • thoracic
    • diaphragmatic hernia, pulmonary contusions
  • abdomen
    • urinary bladder rupture, hemoabdomen
  • orthopedic
    • severe, comminuted pelvic fractures
  • integument
    • skin lacerations, degloving wounds, body wall hernias, burn injuries (from exhaust)
Term
what sort of wounds should you look for in high-rise fall cases?
Definition
  • head
    • trauma, mandibular and hard palate fractures, ocular injuries
  • thorax
    • pneumothorax, pulmonary contusions
  • orthopedic
    • spinal fractures
Term
what are the clinical signs of hemorrhagic shock?
Definition

tachycardia (cats can be bradycardic)

weak pulses

pale mm

cool extremities

Term
what are the lab signs of hemorrhagic shock?
Definition
  • PCV: can be variable due to splenic contraction
  • PCV normal to high in very acute hemorrhage
  • TS: low due to loss of plasma protein
  • lactate: elevated due to poor perfusion and reduced O2 delivery
Term
what are the three causes of coagulopathy in the trauma patient?
Definition
  • consumptive (massive blood loss)
  • dilutional (fluid resuscitation)
  • intrinsic (sepsis-like syndrome, mechanism poorly understood
Term
what are the four types of resuscitation for hemorrhagic shock?
Definition
      1. conventional
      2. low volume
      3. hemostatic
      4. delayed (permissive hypotension)
Term
how is conventional resuscitation done? what are the benefits and drawbacks?
Definition
  • 20-30ml/kg/5-15min isotonic crystalloids bolus, repeated until resolution of clinical signs or shock dose reached. 
  • 90ml/kg (dog), 60ml/kg (cat)
  • benefits: cheap and widely available
  • drawbacks: dilutional coagulopathy and no O2 carrying capacity
Term
how is delayed resuscitation done? what are the benefits and drawbacks?
Definition
  • delay all fluid resuscitation until leak stopped
  • benefits: increased survival but only in people with penetrating thoracic trauma, no dilutional coagulopathy
  • drawbacks: requires injury to OR time <15 mins as prolonged hypotension fatal
  • not practical for veterinarians, unless intraoperative

 

Term
how is low volume resuscitation done? what are the benefits and drawbacks?
Definition
  • colloids (to prolong plasma expansion of) and hypertonic crystalloids
  • 2-5ml/kg/5min crystalloid with 3-5ml/kg colloids. 2-3 times to effect. 
  • must be slow to avoid hypernatremia
  • must follow up with isotonic crystalloids to prevent dehydration
  • benefits: significant ongoing bleeding cases, head injury, rapid even with limited venous access, readily available fluids
  • drawbacks: artificial colloids cause coagulopathy, no O2 carrying capacity
Term
how is hemostatic resuscitation done? what are the benefits and drawbacks?
Definition
  • 500-1000ml balanced electrolyte solution bolus
  • 8-10ml/kg PRBC's
  • 1unit fresh frozen plasma with first two units of PRBC's
  • after two units, infuse FFP and PRBC's at 1:1
  • benefits: replaces what is lost, especially with fresh whole blood, O2 carrying capacity replaced
  • drawbacks: no platelets in PRBC's, does not address thrombocytopenia, items not widely available
Term
what is a practical recipe for hemostatic resuscitation?
Definition

15-20ml/kg crystalloid bolus

if no CV improvement, 8-10ml/kg PRBCs

1FFP:2 PRBCs

1FFP:1PRBCs

Term
what is the worst place for an unstable animal?
Definition
radiology
Term
what five things do you look for on thoracic rads in trauma patients?
Definition
        1. pneumothorax
        2. pulmonary contusions
        3. pleural effusion (hemorrhage)
        4. diaphragmatic hernia
        5. rib fractures
Term
penicillins are: (cidal/static) (time/conc dep), (+/-), (anaerobes/aerobes), with little activity against what?
Definition

cidal

time dependent

mainly gram +, but some -.active

against most anaerobes except bacteroides

little activity against pseudomonas

Term
ticarcillin and pipercillin are good against what?
Definition
pseudomonas
Term
are cephalosporins interchangeable?
Definition

no.

gram positives more 1st generation, gram negatives more 3rd generation

Term
describe lincosamines including the most common one
Definition

clindamycin

protein synthesis binding 50S ribosome

bacteriostatic, time dependent

gram +

effective against MRSA

Term
clavamox and ampicillin are what class? describe the class
Definition

potentiated penicillins

inhibit cell wall synthesis

bactericidal

time dependent

gram +, and improved - spectrum

 

Term
describe fluroquinolones
Definition

bind to DNA gyrase and topisomerase IV, prevent gene transcription

bactericidal

conc dependent

gram - 

hi doses against pseudomonas

toxic to cats at hi doses and juvenile chondrogenesis

Term
describe aminoglycosides. include two examples
Definition
  • nephrotoxic if dosed more times a day
  • bactericidal 
  • conc dependent
  • bind to 30S ribosome, prevent protein synthesis
  • gram -, including resistant E. coli
  • synergistic with penicillins in treating gram + and MRSA
  • careful with dehydrated animals
  • amikacin, gentamycin
Term
how are head traumas treated?
Definition
  • ICP: mannitol 0.5-1g/kg IV, hypertonic saline 2-4ml/kg IV
  • hypercapnia: ventilation of PaCO2>40mmHg, but avoid hypocapnia
  • venous drainage: elevate head without occluding jugular, avoid jugular sticks
Term
describe tetracyclines
Definition

doxy, tetra, oxytetracycline

bind to 30S ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis

good penetration in lungs

gram +, lepto, mycoplasma

Term
describe carbapenems (include 2 examples)
Definition
  • imipenem, meropenem
  • inhibit cell wall synthesis
  • bactericidal
  • time dependent
  • excellent broad spectrum
  • no activity against MRSA, limited against MDR enterococcus
  • expensive, last resort
Term
describe metronidazole
Definition

causes DNA strand breaks

time dependent

excellent activity against anerobes and protozoa (GI)

at high doses, associated with vestibular signs

Term
describe chloramphenicol
Definition
  • binds to 50S ribosome inhibit protein synthesis
  • gram + and -
  • good for MDR Enterococcus and E. coli
  • risk of bone marrow suppression and anemia, so wear gloves, don't split tablets
  • oral form is cheap, good for shelter situations
Term
what are the risk factors for resistance (4)?
Definition

prior antibiotic use within last 90 days

hospital acquired infection

long standing infection

surgical implants

Term
in the case of puppy pneumonia, with likely pathogen Bordetella bronchiseptica, what is the Abx treatment plan if healthy or sick?
Definition
  • healthy
    • doxycycline as sole agent, broaden spectrum if no improvement
  • sick, outpatient
    • likely mixed infection, potentiated penicillin (consider what is easy for the owners) (clavamox)
  • sick inpatient
    • potentiated penicillins or penicillins (gram+), combined with fluroquinolones (careful of cartilage) or chloramphenicol (gram-)
  • sick inpatient, previous treatment with Abx
    • potentiated penicillins or penicillins (gram+), combined with aminoglycosides (gram -)
Term
in the case of adult pneumonia, what is the Abx treatment plan?
Definition
  • likely due to aspiration
  • mixed population including anaerobes
  • otherwise healthy, community acquired
    • potentiated penicillins
    • penicillins with fluroquinolones
  • sick, community acquired
    • penicillin with fluroquinolones
  • hospital acquired or history of recent Abx use
    • hi risk of resistance
    • penicillins plus aminoglycoside
    • carbapenems as sole agent 
Term
in the case of septic peritonitis, what is the Abx treatment plan?
Definition
  • mixed bacteria including anaerobes, E. coli
  • often very sick patients, so treat all with broad spectrum antimicrobials pending culture results
  • community acquired
    • still some risk of MDR E. coli
    • penicillin and fluroquinolone or 3rd gen cephalosporin such as cefotaxime and metronidazole
  • hospital acquired
    • MDR E. coli, pseudomonas, enterococcus
    • do NOT use fluroquinolones if previously treated
    • penicillin and aminoglycoside and metronidazole
    • potentiated penicillin and aminoglycoside
    • imipenem 
Term
in the case of recent animal bites, what is the Abx plan of treatment?
Definition

often mixed populations, skin contaminants, anaerobes (cats)

mild-penicillins (amoxicillin)

moderate to severe- potentiated penicillins

 

Term
in the case of recent wounds (HBC), what is the Abx plan of treatment?
Definition

skin contaminants likely

1st generation cephalosporin 

(cefazolin/cephalexin)

Term
in the case of surgical wounds, what is the Abx treatment plan?
Definition
  • usually hospital acquired with past Abx use
  • implants increase risk of biofilm or MDR bacteria (MRSA)
  • potentiated penicillin or clindamycin + aminoglycoside
  • clindamycin or potentiated penicillin +chloramphenicol
  • TMS if MRSA suspected/cultured
Term
in the case of simple cystitis cases, what is the Abx treatment plan?
Definition

nonazotemic, otherwise healthy, no prior Abx

1st gen cephalosporin or penicillin

Term
in the case of GI disease, what is the Abx treatment plan?
Definition
  • mild: Abx rarely needed
  • moderate GE: metronidazole for clostridia
  • severe (marked compromise, very sick): potentiated penicillin or penicillin with fluroquinolone. bacterial translocation and secondary sepsis real threat
  • severe GE: broad for bacterial translocation: potentiated penicillin or penicillin and fluroquinolone
Term
what three things are you looking for in abdominal radiographs in a trauma patient?
Definition
    • evidence of free gas
    • intra-abdominal structures hard to assess for trauma, but look for bladder and detail
    • body wall hernias
Term
what are two helpful tips in doing spinal radiographs in a trauma case?
Definition
  • use a radiolucent backboard for stable transport
  • start with laterals, but take orthogonals if safe
Term
what are the four views on ultrasound in an AFAST and in what position is the animal?
Definition
  1. diaphragmatic hepatic
  2. cysto-colic
  3. spleno-renal
  4. hepatorenal
  • Right lateral
Term
what are the drawbacks of TFAST?
Definition

§  Much harder to master

§  False negatives and positives

§  Look for fluid

Term
what are the two options in a pneumothorax?
Definition
  • thoracocentesis
  • thoracostomy tube
Term
how is a thoracocentesis performed?
Definition

clip and clean

insert needle/butterfly catheter in 7-9th ICS on cranial edge of the rib

aspirate until you get air

connect extension set and 3 way tap

aspirate until end point reached

Term
what causes coughing in cats?
Definition
feline asthma and heartworm
Term
what are the signs of head trauma?
Definition
  • obtundation, stupor, coma
  • opisthothonus (full body extension)
  • cranial nerve deficits and brainstem signs
  • palpable skull fractures
  • clear external trauma
Term
what are examples of brainstem signs?
Definition

slow breathing

cheyne-stokes respiration (cyclic including apnea)

anisocoria

miosis

fixed mydriasis (uh oh.)

Term
what is the Cushing's Reflex?
Definition
  • brainstem hypoxia causes catecholamine release causing vasoconstriction and massive increase in blood pressure
  • increase in blood pressure sensed by baroreceptors which act to slow the heart
  • leads to hypertension with bradycardia
Term

which of the following require surgery rapidly following CV stabilization?

  • wounds penetrating body cavity
  • reconstructive procedures
  • ongoing hemorrhage
  • open fractures
  • diaphragmatic hernia
  • urinary tract rupture
  • spinal fracture/lesions with loss of deep pain
  • body wall hernia with GI/bladder entrapment
  • GI tract damage
Definition
  • wounds penetrating body cavity
  • ongoing hemorrhage
  • diaphragmatic hernia
  • spinal fracture/lesions with loss of deep pain
  • body wall hernia with GI/bladder entrapment
  • GI tract damage
Term
how are massive chest wounds handled?
Definition

DO NOT CLOSE. unless you can have a chest tube in, you will likely cause a pneumothorax

need to intubate and ventilate patient. 

eventually, with management, you can close these wounds, but not if they are severe.

Term
which is amenable to external coaptation: tibia/fibula, femoral, radius/ulna?
Definition

tibia/fibula

radius/ulna

Term
what type of bandage is used for contaminated wounds? what are some examples of such wounds?
Definition

wet to dry

old injuries, bite wounds, shearing/degloving, severe road rash

Term
what is the treatment for uroabdomen?
Definition

urinary catheter

temporary abdominal drain or abdominocentesis

Term
T or F:  a small tear in the bladder does not need surgical repair.
Definition
true. if the tear is small, conservative management can be successful in 5-7 days
Term
in a flail chest, lay the patient......
Definition

on the side of the flail

reduces aberrant movement of flail segment

Term
in a diaphragmatic hernia, hold the patient.....
Definition

upright

allows organs to fall through hernia into abdomen

Term
what is the Abx treatment plan for parvo puppies?
Definition
  • moderate neutropenia: broad spectrum including anaerobes (potentiated penicillins)
  • severe neutropenia: if renal values ok-->AG

 

 

Term
describe cephalosporins
Definition
  • inhibit cell wall synthesis
  • bactericidal
  • time dependent
  • 1st gen: gram + (cefazolin, cephalexin)
  • 2nd gen: (cefoxitin, cefuroxamine)
  • 3rd gen: gram - (ceftiofur, cefpodoxime, etc)
  • not interchangeable
Term
in the case of complex cystitis cases, what is the Abx treatment plan?
Definition

sick, renal disease, urolithiasis

broader spectrum: potentiated penicillin or penicillin with fluroquinolone. AG can be used, but NOT concurrent with kidney disease

Term
in the case of acute kidney injury with pyelonephritis cases, what is the Abx treatment plan?
Definition
  • AVOID AMINOGLYCOSIDES
  • if Lepto area, penicillin or doxycycline
  • if no hx of Abx use, potentiated penicillin or penicillin with fluroquinolone
  • if hx of Abx use, MDR likely, potentiated penicillin plus chloramphenicol or carbapenem
Term
what is the antibiotic of choice for neutropenic sepsis?
Definition
aminoglycosides
Term
what is important to know before CPR is needed?
Definition
DNR, DNI, closed vs open chest ok'd by owner
Term
how is arrest recognized? what do you not rely on?
Definition

o   No chest movements, or air movements

o   No heartbeat or severe bradycardia

o   Unconscious

o   Do NOT rely on pulse

Term
what are the team members in CPR?
Definition
  • leader
  • recorder
  • compressor
  • breathing
  • catheter placement/monitor
  • fetcher
Term
T or F: arrests in vetmed are generally not cardiac in origin.
Definition
true. usually vagal or respiratory
Term
what is the rate of breaths and compressions during CPR? what if you are by yourself?
Definition

6-10 breaths/min, inspiratory time 1sec

100-120 compressions/min, 30-50% compression of chest wall, 1:1 compression:recoil

by yourself: 30 compressions to 2 breaths

 

 

Term
in CPR, CO generated is usually what percentage of normal?
Definition
20-30%
Term
what is the difference between dogs <10-15kg and >10-15kg in CPR?
Definition
  • cardiac pump in smaller patients (direct compression and increased CO)
  • thoracic pump in larger animals (indirect increase in CO due to increase in intrathoracic pressure)
Term
what are the indications for open chest resuscitation?
Definition
      • unwitnessed event
      • pleural/cardiac related disease
      • trauma to chest wall/penetrating wounds
      • large breed dogs
      • abdominal surgery
      • failure of ROSC in closed CPR
      • abdominal hemorrhage
Term
how is open chest CPR performed?
Definition
  • clip, enter with sharp mayos at left 6th ICS
  • via diaphragm
  • avoid phrenic and vagus
  • aortic cross clamping or compression--> diverts to brain
  • direct cardiac compressions-2 hands
  • apex--> base
Term
what does NAVLE stand for in terms of CPR?
Definition
          • Naloxone, (opioid antagonist)
          • Atropine,
          • Vasopressin,
          • Lidocaine,
          • Epinephrine
Term
intratracheal administration of NAVLE means making what alterations?
Definition

double doses

up to 10x dose epinephrine

dilute with sterile water of 0.9%saline

catheter down trach tube

follow with PPV (positive pressure) breaths

Term
T or F: in CPR, you can use fluids to push your administered drugs
Definition
False? only give 6-10ml boluses.  and only give hypovolemic fluid rates if patient is hypovolemic
Term
what are two things you need to remember during CPR that would otherwise work against your efforts?
Definition
  • turn off anesthetics
  • reverse any drugs you can
Term
what is the protocol for epinephrine in CPR including doses?
Definition
  • Alpha and Beta effects
  • High dose (0.1 mg/kg)
    • Associated with increased ROSC
    •  Not associated with increased survival
    • Increased myocardial oxygen consumption
    •  Arrhythmogenic
    • Consider after prolonged CPR
  • Low dose (0.01 mg/kg)
    • Repeat doses every other 2 minute compression cycle
Term
what is the protocol for vasopressin in CPR?
Definition
  •  V1 mediated vasoconstriction
  •  Receptors are active in acidosis
  •  No inotropic or chronotropic effects
  •  May use instead of or in addition to epinephrine
Term
what is the protocol for atropine in CPR including dosing?
Definition
  • Parasympatholytic
  • No longer recommended routinely in people
    • No evidence of positive or negative effect
  • Our patients are different
    • High number of vagal arrests
  • Still give 0.04mg/kg every 3-5 min
Term
what are the indications for Ca Gluconate during arrest(5)?
Definition

hypocalcemia

hyperkalemia

hypermagnesemia

CaChannel Blocker toxicity (e.g. diltiazem)

possible digoxin toxicity 

Term
what is the indication for NaHCO3 during arrest? what is the dose?
Definition
  • prolonged CPR (>10-15 min) to combat acidosis
  • 1mEq/kg
Term
what are the indications for amiodarone and lidocaine during arrest, and what is the difference?
Definition

for Vtach or Vfib

Lidocaine may make defibrillation more difficult

Amiodarone may cause hypotension, hepatotoxic

 

Term
what is the practical disadvantage of vasopressin versus epinephrine?
Definition
vasopressin is very expensive vs epinephrine
Term
what therapies would you choose for fibrillation?
Definition

defibrillation is the only therapy

 

Term
defibrillation ___________the myocardium and puts it in ______________phase. Compressions should be continued for _____min after shocking before checking ECG
Definition
  • depolarizes
  • refractory
  • 2 min
Term
what is the difference between monophasic and biphasic defibrillators? what are the J/kg for each?
Definition
  • monophasic-shock delivered from one vector. no ability to adjust for patient's impedence.
    • 4-6J/kg
  • biphasic-shock delivered from two vectors. lower current, sweeping in both directions get cells that are further away from electrodes
    • 2-4J/kg
Term
what are the 4 rhythms associated with CPA?
Definition

PEA (most common)

asystole

ventricular fibrillation

pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Term
what are two monitoring modalities other than ECG you can use to assess CPR? what are the goals? what can you change if goals are not met?
Definition
  • ETCO2
    • cats: 20mmHg
    • dogs: 15mmHg
    • new compressor, change position of hands, rate, depth
  • BP 
    • only if arterial line already in
    • 30mmHg
Term
what is interposed abdominal compression?
Definition
  •  Shown to increase venous return up to 25%
  •  Abdomen/thoracic compression opposed
  • Can cause trauma
Term
what is an impedance threshold device? what is a major drawback
Definition
  • During decompression intrathoracic pressure decreases and air moves in
  • Air being drawn into the lungs partially impairs venous return
  • Device prevents air movement into the lungs during the decompression
  • Intrathoracic pressure remains more negative
  • Improves venous return, SV, CO and oxygen delivery
  • Drawback: Movement of fluids into pulmonary interstitium and alveoli
Term
altho labwork isn't practical during CPR, what values can give you an idea of global hypoxia, and where should you get a sample?
Definition
          • Base Excess
          • Lactate
          • ScvO2
      • Venous sample better than arterial
Term
what is ROSC?
Definition

return of spontaneous circulation

increased ETCO2

perfusing heart rhythm

increased respiratory effort

Term
what is the post CPR care?
Definition

o   Watch electrolytes

§  hyperK, hypoCa

o   oxygen- not benign!

o   Ventilator support as needed

o   Pressor support

o   Inotropic support (dobutamine)

o   +/-cerebral edema therapy

§  Hypertonic saline vs mannitol

o   Mild hypothermia

o   Natural –warm slowly

Term
if a defibrilliation and and 2 min CPR cycle are unsuccessful, what should you do?
Definition

increase current by 50%, but know that increases risk of myocardial ischemia

if not effective, try amiodarone

 

Term
if there is no defibrillator available and your patient CPA's, what can you try?
Definition
precordial thump. heel of hand strikes patient directly over heart.
Term
medications and fluids with osmolalities _______ may be administered through peripheral veins. Otherwise, medications should be be administered through a central  line
Definition
 600mOsm  or less
Term

Poiseuille's law:

Q = πPr4

      8ηl

 

what does each variable mean? and overall?

Definition

Q-flow

P-pressure

r- radius

n-viscosity

l-tube length

 

flow is proportional to the radius of the catheter (tube)^4 and inversely proportional to the viscosity of the fluid and the length of the catheter

Term

which will cause the greatest decrease in flow through a catheter?

a. doubling the diameter of the catheter

b. halving the diameter of the catheter

c. doubling the length of the catheter

d. halving the length of the catheter

Definition
b. halving the diameter of the catheter
Term
what percent dextrose is the cutoff for the 600mOsm rule? what fluid is the exception to the rule?
Definition
  • anything above 5% dextrose needs a central line
  • hypertonic saline is the only exception
Term
what are the common sites of venous access?
Definition

o   Cephalic

o   Lateral and medial saphenous (also central)

o   Jugular (also central)

o   Auricular (dog)

Term
what are the most common sites for central line placement?
Definition

•Jugular vein

•Medial and lateral saphenous veins

Term
which catheter is good for blood draws but not for administration?
Definition
butterfly
Term
what are the possible complications of vascular access(6)?
Definition
    1. phlebitis
    2. thrombosis
    3. catheter embolism
    4. SC fluid infiltration into tissue surrounding vein
    5. infection 
    6. hemorrhage
Term
what is phlebitis, what are the signs, and what are the causes?
Definition

o   Phlebitis is inflammation of the vessel wall by endothelial lining damage

§  Swelling, tenderness, erythema over vessel and may be caused by following:

·         Mechanical damage

·         Admin of hyperosmotic fluids

·         Infection

Term
how can edema from catheter placement be avoided?
Definition
bandaging all the way down to the toes
Term
what is facilitative incision or a relief hole?
Definition

o   Small incision or hole made through skin with a number 11 scalpel blade or the cutting edge of a 20 gauge needle. Helps to prevent flaring of catheter tip and is especially useful in animals with tough skin. 

Term
how is a venous cutdown performed?
Definition

o   After aseptic prep, local anesthetic administered and taking care NOT to administer a local anesthetic intravenously.

o   1-2 cm skin incision is made parallel to vein taking care not to lacerate vein

o   Vein is dissected out from SC tissue and isolated using hemostats or suture

o   Catheter is placed directly through superficial vessel wall

Term
what are central venous catheters used for if they terminate in the cranial or caudal vena cava(4)?
Definition
  1. Hemodynamic monitoring such as central venous pressure
  2. Admin of meds and fluids (including those >600mOsm)
  3. Serial blood sampling
  4. Allow venous access for longer periods than peripheral catheters (>72 hours)

 

 

 

Term
what are two important maintenance items to remember with central venous catheters?
Definition

aseptic technique when connecting/disconnecting

never leave ports open. risk air embolus

Term
what is done if you want to replace existing catheters or access hollow organs?
Definition
        • Seldinger technique
  • Use of a smaller introducing catheter or trochar and guidewire to gain access to vessels or hollow organs. Used to replace existing catheter in same location.
  • Total aseptic technique (caution with guidewire)
  • Catheterize using short catheter, insert guidewire, J-tip at insertion end to help prevent inadvertent puncture of vessel wall. ALWAYS keep hold of the guidewire at ALL TIMES

 

 

Term
a catheter is inserted at what angle?
Definition
15 degrees, bevel up.
Term
what are the two contraindications for intraosseous catheterization?
Definition

fractured bones 

pneumatic bones in birds

 

Term
what are the common sites for intraosseous catheterization (3 main ones, and 3 alternatives)?
Definition
      1. flat medial surface of proximal tibia
      2. tibial tuberosity
      3. trochanteric fossa

also: wing of ileum, ischium, greater tubercle of humerus

Term
what are the indications for intraosseous catheterization?
Definition

o   Vascularly collapsed (neonates)

o   Access all capillaries in bone marrow

Term
what are the limitations to intraosseous catheterization?
Definition
  • Pretty painful
  •  Administering large amounts of fluid is very uncomfortable.
  • Mean intraosseous flow rate of crystalloid solutions under 300mmHg are limited to approx. 29mL/min in puppies
  • fluid can back into SC space if not a clean stick

 

 

Term
what are the possible complications of intraosseous catheterization (5)?
Definition

§  Fat embolism

§  Infection

§  Extravasation of fluids

§  Compartment syndrome

§  Bone fracture

 

Term
what percentage of BW is water? what percent of BW is intracellular fluid vs extracellular fluid? What percent of BW is intravascular and interstitial fluid?
Definition
  • 60%
    • intracellular: 40%
    • extracellular: 20%
      • intravascular: 5%
      • interstitial: 15%
Term
in terms of extracellular and intracellular fluid, what are the relative electrolyte distributions?  (for Na, K, Mg, P)
Definition

o   Hi Na in extracellular 

o   Hi K, Mg, P intracellular

o   Sodium conc determines IV volume

o   Total body sodium determines hydration

Term
how is daily water requirement calculated (hard and easy ways)
Definition

o   70 x BW^0.75

o   Or (30x BW) +70 for animals 3-25kg

o   Estimates

      • 30mL/kg/day for giant breed
      • 50mL/kg/day for medium dogs and cats
      • 80-100mL/kg/day for neonates
Term
what is the difference between dehydration and hypovolemia?
Definition

·         Dehydration-interstitial/intracellular fluid loss

o   Can be replaced slowly

·         Hypovolemia- intravascular fluid loss

o   Can happen quickly and needs quick correction

Term
what are the signs of hypovolemia?
Definition

o   Tachycardia

o   Prolonged CRT

o   Hypotension

o   Hypothermia, cool extremities

o   Weak pulses

o   Weakness, lethargy

Term
what is the estimated insensible loss rate? from what?
Definition

20-30mL/kg/day

sweat, saliva, excessive panting

Term
how is fluid deficit from dehydration calculated? what affects this?
Definition

BW (kg) x % dehydration = volume of fluid deficit in L

 

heart and renal disease

Term
what mOsm is considered isotonic?
Definition

·         270-350 mOsm/kg 

Term
what distinguishes moderate dehydration from mild? severe from moderate? critical from severe?
Definition
  • 5-7% mod- mildly prolonged skin tent, mm may be slightly tacky
  • 8-10% severe-prolonged skin tent, dry mm, eyes sunken, tachycardia and poor pulse quality, urine prod decreased
  • >10% critical-shock, cool extremities,  hypothermia, CRT prolonged
Term
what is a crystalloid?
Definition
solution containing electrolyte and nonelectrolyte solutes capable of entering all fluid compartments
Term
what is often added as a source of acid? and base?
Definition

acid-excess chloride

base-acetate, gluconate, lactate anions-metabolism of these lead to bicarb production

Term

in cats, what hi volume, hi pressure bolus is discouraged?

Use of what solutions are discouraged in patients with end stage liver disease?

Definition
  • Acetate containing fluids such as Normosol-R
  • lactate buffered solutions
Term

what are the isotonic balanced fluids (3)?

what are the unbalanced isotonic fluids (2)?

Definition
    • Isotonic balanced
      • Lactated Ringer's
      • Normosol R
      • Plasmalyte 148
    • Isotonic unbalanced
    • normal saline
    • 5% dextrose

 

 

Term
urine is usually low in ______ and relatively hi in ______ (electrolytes)
Definition
urine is usually low in Na and relatively hi K.
Term
what are the general characteristics/rules of maintenance fluids?
Definition
  • lower in Na and Cl
  • higher in K
  • tend to be hypotonic, but some have dextrose added
  • rarely used in veterinary medicine
  • NEVER should be bolused!!!
  • half-strength saline, Normosol M, Plasmalyte 56, homemade concoctions
Term
what are the general characteristics of replacement fluids?
Definition
  • hi in Na, Cl
  • lo in K
  • tend to be isotonic
  • may be bolused or administered at hi flow rates
  • often used as maintenance fluid as kidneys will excrete the extra sodium. 
  • 0.9% NaCl, LRS, Normosol-R, Plasma-Lyte A or 148
Term
what are hypertonic fluids used for?
Definition
  • rapid volume expansion (pull fluid from interstitial space, short-lived <20min, follow by isotonic or maintenance fluids)
  • reduction of intracranial pressure
  • mannitol for glaucoma 
  • administered as IV bolus over 5-15 min
  • e.g. big dogs in shock (GDV), HBC, head trauma
Term
what are the contraindications of hypertonic fluids (2)?
Definition
  • severe dehydration
  • hypernatremia
Term
when using hypertonic saline, what is the expected blood volume expansion? what is the percentage used in shock and head trauma?
Definition

3-3.5 times blood volume expansion

7.2-7.5% for shock and head trauma

Term
what are the benefits of hypertonic saline? possible adverse effects?
Definition
  • benefits
    • rapid IV volume expansion
    • dec cerebral edema
    • inc cardiac contractility
    • immunomodulatory effects
    • improved microcirculatory perfusion due to arteriolar vasodilation
  • proposed adverse effects
    • hypernatremia
    • bradycardia, hypotension, bronchoconstriction with rapid admin
Term
what are the benefits of mannitol? possible adverse effects?
Definition
    • benefits
      • decrease cerebral edema
      • decreases blood viscosity
      • free radical scavenger
    • proposed adverse effects
      • exacerbate edema or hemorrhage
      • dehydration

 

Term

Theoretically, ____% of saline infused stays in the vascular space, while ___% of colloid stays in the vascular space

Definition

·         Theoretically, 20% of saline infused stays in thevascular space vs 100% of colloid

Term

Jv = K [(Pc – Pi) – σ(πc – πi)]

 

Starling equation. what do the variables mean?

 

Definition

Jv - transcapillary fluid flux

K - filtration coefficient

σ - reflection coefficient (relative permeability)

Pc - capillary hydrostatic pressure

Pi - interstitial hydrostatic pressure

πc – capillary oncotic pressure

πi - interstitial oncotic pressure

 

Term
what is COP? how is it measured?
Definition
  • colloid osmotic pressure 
  • pressure exerted by large molecules
  • osmometer
Term
what is the normal COP in dogs and cats? what is the protein largely responsible?
Definition

dogs: 15.3-26.3mmHg

cats: 17.6-33.1mmHg

albumin generates 80% of COP normally

Term
what are the benefits of colloids?
Definition
  • longer intravascular effects
  • smaller volume requirements for intravascular expansion
  • less dilutional coagulopathies
  • decreased tissue edema formation

 

Term
T or F: the size of the particle is important in osmolality.
Definition

False. The size of the particle is unimportant so that a single ion (e.g. sodium) contributes as much to the serum osmolality as a single large protein molecule

 

However, large molecules persist in the circulation longer

Term
what is the Gibbs Donnan Effect?
Definition

 

  •    Electroneutrality must be maintained on either side of membrane
  • E.g. large proteins (albumin) are neg charged, non-diffusable. Draw positive ions (Na) across membrane, pulling water with it. 
  •  Increases COP by 7-8mmHg

 

 

Term
what are the natural and synthetic colloid classes?
Definition
      • natural
        • albumin (human, lyophilized canine)
        • blood products (FFP, whole blood)
      • synthetic colloids
        • hydroxyethyl starch
        • gelatin
        • dextran
Term
what are the contraindications for human albumin?
Definition
  • not for healthy patients (critically ill only)
  • not for patients who have received human albumin prior
  • both run risk fo anaphylaxis, delayed hypersensitivity reactions
Term

how do you calculate albumin deficit in a 20 kg dog with albumin of 1.5g/dL and a desired increase of 1g/dL?

what if average albumin conc in FFP is 3.0g/dL? 

 

 

Alb def (g)=10x [Albdesired-Albpateint] xBWx0.3 

Definition

10 x [2.5g/dL-1.5g/dL] x 20kg x 0.3


=60g albumin deficit. 


3.0g/dL x 10dL/L = 30 grams in 1 L FFP


need 2 liters FFP. 

Term
what are the adverse effects of colloids(5)?
Definition
  • acute renal failure
  • anaphylaxis
  • volume overload
  • coagulopathy
  • immunosuppression
Term
what is the primary synthetic colloid used in vet med? how is it described?
Definition

hydroxyethyl starch

described by molecular weight and degree of substitution

Term
what is degree of substitution?
Definition
  • proportion of glucose moieties that have been substituted with hydroxyethyl groups
  • from 0 to 1
  • higher DS correlates to greater negative effect on coagulation.
  • interferes with Factor VIII and vWF leading to platelet dysfunction
  • may also be incorporated into fibrin clot, weakening clot overall
Term
what are three hydroxyethyl starches? what is their order of MW from heaviest to lightest ? what are their DS?
Definition
    • 6% Hetastarch in 0.9% saline
      • DS = 0.75
    • 10% Pentastarch
      • DS = 0.5
    • 6% Tetrastarch (Voluven)
      • DS = 0.4
Term
what are the adverse reactions of hydroxyethyl starch?
Definition

same as colloids:

  • acute renal failure
  • anaphylaxis
  • immunosuppression
  • volume overload
  • coagulopathy
Term
what is the daily recommended max dosage of hetastarch? what is the common dose? what is the benefit/drawback of hetastarch?
Definition

20mL/kg/day (commonly divided and done CRI), or administered 2-5mL/kg IV bolus

larger molecules stay in vasculature longer, but there are fewer of them = minimal effect

higher DS =greater adverse effect on coagulation

Term
what is the max recommended daily dose of voluven? what is it? how is its half-life compared with hetastarch?
Definition

40mL/kg/day

tetrastarch

shorter half-life than hetastarch bc of smaller MW

Term

what is the COP of:

  • hetastarch 6%
  • voluven
  • human albumin 5%/25%
  • canine FFP
Definition
  • hetastarch 6%                              32.7
  • voluven                                       37.1
  • human albumin 5%/25%                23.2    
  • canine FFP                                   17.1
Term
when using hetastarch, how should total solids be measured?
Definition
COP, not refractometer.
Term

what degree of dehydration do the following suggest?

  • weak pulse
  • dry mm
  • collapse
  • skin tent
  • increased HR
Definition
  • weak pulse:            10-12%
  • dry mm:                 5%
  • collapse:                >12%
  • skin tent:               6-8%
  • increased HR:         8-10%
Term
how do you calculate maintenance fluids?
Definition

60ml/kg for dogs

40ml/kg for cats

Term
what are some traditional endpoints in shock therapy?
Definition

heart rate

urine output

respiratory rate

mm color

systolic BP

lactate

CRT

(CVP, MAP, HCT, ScvO2)

Term
what are five strategies in resuscitation in shock patients?
Definition
      1. standard/hemostatic
      2. hypertonic
      3. permissive hypotensive
      4. supra-physiologic
      5. early goal-directed
Term
describe hemostatic shock resuscitation
Definition
  • blood products
  • SEVERE hemorrhage cases
  • replace what is lost
  • avoids coagulopathy with large volume crystalloid
  • expensive
Term
describe standard shock resuscitation
Definition
  • uses traditional endpoints to maintain tissue perfusion and O2 delivery
  • crystalloids, colloids, blood products, vasopressors/ionotropes
  • most commonly practiced method regardless of etiology
  • lacks standard algorithm 
Term
how do you resuscitate a catastrophic bleeding patient?
Definition
  • crystalloids-shock dose as fast as possible
  • colloids-increment 5ml/kg doses as fast as possible
  • hypertonic saline 3-4ml/kg over 3-5 min
  • oxyglobin, blood, albumin? 1:1 PRBC:FFP
Term
describe hypertonic shock resuscitation
Definition
  • traditional endpoints
  • hypertonic agents used
  • lower volumes required for volume expansion
  • reduce endothelial and tissue edema
  • improve microcirculation
  • immunomodulatory effects
  • head trauma
  • MAP 65-70mmHg

 

 

Term
describe permissive hypotensive shock resuscitation
Definition
  • small volume resuscitation
    • admin lower than standard shock dose
    • head injury
    • pulmonary contusions
    • noncardiogenic pulmonary 
    • hypertonic saline, hetastarch
  • hypotensive resuscitation
    • small volume for lower than normal endpoints
    • uncontrolled closed body hemorrhage
    • attempt to minimize further bleeding due to fluid admin in prepping for surgery
    • hetastarch, isotonic crystalloids, hypertonic saline, blood products
Term
describe supra-physiologic resuscitation
Definition
  • CO is the endpoint
  • septic shock
  • maximize oxygen delivery to tissues
  • avoid hypoxic related organ injury
  • also, SAP 100mmHg, MAP 80mmHg, normal lactate

 

Term
describe early goal-directed shock resuscitation
Definition
predefine endpoints to help clinicians at cage-side to resuscitate shocked patients
Term
what is shock?
Definition

state in which delivery of O2 to tissues (DO2) does not meet oxygen requirement (VO2)

inadequate cellular energy

leads to decreased perfusion

Term
what are the five steps in severe sepsis?
Definition
  1. measure serum lactate
  2. obtain blood cultures prior to antibiotic administration
  3. administer broad spectrum antibiotic within 1 hour
  4. if hypotension/lactate >4mmol/L: 
    1. deliver initial minimum of 20ml/kg of crystalloid or an equivalent
    2. apply vasopressors for hypotension not responding to fluid resuscitation to MAP>65mmHg
  5. if persistent hypotension/lactate >4mmol/L:
    1. achieve CVP >8mmHg
    2. achieve central venous O2 saturation (ScvO2) >70% or mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) >65%
Term
in the case of AKD, what would be the fluid therapy?
Definition
  • rehydrate 2-3 hours
  • push MAP to <70mmHg, wait for urine
  • if no urine, try diuretics
  • if no urine, go back to insensible losses 15-20ml/kg/day
  • monitor Na and K
Term
what are the fluid therapy cautions for patients with heart murmurs, DCM, and cats, all without history of CHF?
Definition

o   Murmur

§  Mitral valve disease without a history of congestive heart failure will usually tolerate fluids well, especially if they are dehydrated.

§  Monitor resp rate and effort closely.  

o   DCM

§  Generally not tolerant to fluids, but also intolerant of hypovolemia

§  Start at lower rates, monitor closely

§  If v/d, could be digoxin toxicity

§  Replacement fluids at first, but change to maintenance fluids!

§  Consider using inotropic agent to help CO (pimo, dobutamine)

o   Cats

§  Tend to tolerate fluids fine as long as they do not have a history of CHF

§  Not quite so tolerant as dogs with MVD

Term
what are the fluid therapy guidelines for patients with CHF?
Definition

§  Overshoot

·         Stop diuretic if CHF has resolved, encourage drinking water/pass NG tube to give water

·         Severely azotemic: Isotonic crystalloids or maintenance fluid are ideal

·         Monitor breathing closely

§  If develops V/D (digoxin toxicity?)

·         Stop diuretic, if dehydration is mild and signs resolve quickly, this may be only intervention needed

·         If fluid therapy needed, start slow and titrate to the needs of the patient

·         Remember that dogs with mitral valve disease will tolerate fluids better than patients with DCM

Term
what are the fluid therapy guidelines for a patient with DCM?
Definition
  • if fluids needed, start low (insensible loss rate)
  • if on digoxin and having azotemia/GI signs-STOP!
  • consider inotropic agents to improve CO to help CHF and hypotension (Pimobendan or Dobutamine)
Term
what are the 10 items on the critical care checklist?
Definition

1.      CV (ecg, arterial blood pressure, HR)

2.      Pulmonary (ventilation, oxygenation)

3.      Fluid, electrolytes

4.      Nutritional status (may not want to eat)

5.      Asepsis status

6.      Weight

7.      Other organ systems (GI, hematology, biochem)

8.      Central nervous system (mentation, behavior)

9.      Pain, comfort

10.  Trends or obvious changes

Term
when do you NOT use fluid therapy in cats with "lung disease"? what is the exception?
Definition
  • pneumonia is usually CHF in cats
  • any history of CHF 
  • rarely needed for feline asthma
  • pulmonary infiltrates-MUST rule out CHF
  • exception: pyothorax-hi fluid requirement.
Term
what is the benefit of fluid therapy in dogs with pneumonia? what is the dose?
Definition
  • CV support in sepsis
  • correction of dehydration
  • loosening/moistening of bronchial secretions
  • support of concurrent diseases
  • hypovolemic shock: crystalloid 20-30ml/kg bolus, correct dehydration over 24 hours
  • mildly dehydrated/stable: isotonic crystalloids 60-90ml/kg/day 
  • maintenance requirement higher in puppies 75-90ml/kg/day
  • prone ot extravasation, don't over-hydrate

 

Term
what are the causes of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema(5)?
Definition
        1. head trauma
        2. choking
        3. seizure
        4. airway obstruction
        5. chewing electrical cord
Term
what are the signs of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema? what is the strategy behind treatment
Definition
  • very severe respiratory disress
  • can require mechanical ventilation
  • fluids can worsen 
  • tend not to respond to diuretics 
  • avoid fluids if at all possible
  • dextrose supplementation may be required in puppies
  • avoid diuretics unless patient has received lots of fluids
Term
what is the fluid/drug therapy in patients with pulmonary fibrosis or other interstitial lung disease?
Definition

leaky capillaries-->extravasation

may improve with singe dose of furosemide (2mg/kg)

avoid fluids unless really needed, and stay conservative

 

Term
what are three methods for treating pulmonary contusions?
Definition
  1. conventional with isotonic crystalloids 20ml/kg and frequent reassessment, then switch to maintenance once stabilized. can worsen bleeding into lungs
  2. low volume (hypertonic saline 2-4ml/kg 5-10 min, then crystalloid maintenance plan)(avoids dilution effect)
  3. hemostatic (crystalloids 20ml/kg and fresh whole blood, PRBC, FFP)
Term
what do you not give together in fluid therapy?
Definition
fluids and diuretics (duh)
Term

CO=

oxygen transport=

oxygen content=

BP=

Definition

CO=SVx HR

oxygen transport=oxygen content x CO

oxygen content=([Hb x 1.34] x % saturation

saturation= 0.0031x PaO2 

BP=CO x SVR

Term
stroke volume is dependent on what two things?
Definition
contractility and preload
Term
how is preload assessed?
Definition

cardiac US-end-diastolic diameter of ventricles

radiographs-postcava size

CVP

Term
what are the various waves in a CVP?
Definition

[image]

§  A wave

·         PR interval

·         Right atrial contraction

§  C wave

·         Tricuspid valve closing

§  V wave

·         TP interval

·         Right atrium during ventricular contraction

 

Term
T or F: you should not use CVP if the patient is on a vasopressor. why/why not?
Definition
True. changes systemic vascular resistance
Term
what can alter CVP (5)?
Definition
  • ·         Changes with breathing
  • ·         Depends on cardiac competence
    • o   Pulmonic stenosis- increase CVP despite dehydration
    • o   Right sided hypertrophy-increase CVP
  • ·         Blood volume
    • o   when BP decreases, CVP decreases
  • ·         Intraaortic, intra peritoneal pressure
    • o   Not accurate
  • ·         Systemic vascular resistance
    • o   If on vasopressor, don’t use CVP
Term
what are 3 reasons the BP could still be low despite giving fluids?
Definition
  • vasodilated
  • hypothermia
  • didn’t give enough
Term

MAP=?

Definition

o   MAP=DP +1/3(SP-DP)

Term

[image]

arterial waveform

Definition
  1. peak systolic pressure
  2. diastolic pressure
  3. dicrotic notch

(not pictured: anacrotic notch between 2 and 1)

Term
what is damping?
Definition

for use in systemic arterial pressure:

 

·         Underdamping will result in excessive resonance in system and overestimates systolic pressure and underestimates diastolic pressure

·         Overdamping: line to long, air bubble, clot in line, kinked, etc. 

Term
what are the two methods of indirect blood pressure measurement?
Definition
  1. doppler
  2. oscillometric
Term
what are the limitations of oscillometric technology?
Definition

doesn't work well in small cats and dogs

poor correlation in hypotension

Term
what are the causes of hypotension?
Definition
  • low venous return
  • hypovolemia
  • pre-existing dehydration
  • blood loss, plasma exudation
  • positive pressure ventilation
  • gastric distention
  • iatrogenic inflow occlusion
  • poor diastolic function
  • HCM
  • pericardial tamonade
  • tachycardia
  • fibrosis
  • poor contractility/systolic function
  • DCM
  • negative inotropes
  • ventricular arrhythmias
  • AV valve insufficiency
  • outflow tract obstruction
Term
what are the parameters measured for assessing hypoperfusion?
Definition
  • HR and pulse quality
  • mm color and CRT
  • resp rate and effort
  • mentation
  • BP
  • CVP
  • lactate
Term
what are the sources of lactate?
Definition

byproduct of glycolysis from pyruvate

skeletal muscle, brain, RBC, renal medulla 

 

Term
in general, what are the differences between type A and B lactic acidosis?
Definition

§  Type A

·         Decreased oxygen delivery or increased oxygen demand

§  Type B

·         Inadequate oxygen utilization

Term
what are the causes of type A lactic acidosis?
Definition
  • decreased O2 delivery
      • volume depletion
      • fluid loss
      • cardiogenic shock
      • severe anemia
      • severe hypoxemia
      • carbon monoxide poisoning
  • increased oxygen demand
      • exercise
      • seizures
      • shivering

 

Term
what are the causes of type B lactic acidosis?
Definition
  • inadequate oxygen utilization
      • SIRS
      • sepsis
      • renal failure
      • DM
      • neoplasia
      • total parenteral nutrition
      • thiamine deficiency
      • congenital errors of metabolism
      • drugs/toxins
      • D-lactic acidosis
Term
respiratory failure is caused by what two broad categories?
Definition
  1. inability to oxygenate blood
  2. inability to eliminate CO2
Term
how is pulmonary function monitored?
Definition
  • respiratory rate and trends
  • respiratory rhythms
  • breathing effort
  • mm
  • auscultation
  • radiographs
  • blood gas
Term
what are the 3 forms of CO2?
Definition

1. Bicarbonate ion-60% to 70%

2. Bound to proteins-20% to 30%

3. Dissolved in plasma-5% to 10%

Term
where is air sampled for a capnograph?
Definition
Y connector, mask, or nasal cannula
Term
what are the two forms of capnography?
Definition

capnography (measurement and waveform)

capnometry (ETCO2 only)

Term
what are the 2 methods for obtaining gas samples for ETCO2?
Definition
  • mainstream
    • adapter
    • no gas removed
    • adds bulk
    • electronics vulnerable to mechanical damage
  • sidestream
    • aspirate gas and transport to remote analyzer
    • ability to analyze multiple gases
    • potential for leak, disconnect

 

Term
[image]
Definition

(A-B) exhalation of anatomic deadspace

(B-C) is present as sharp upstroke

(C-D) exhalation of alveolar gas

(D-E) beginning of inspiration

 

Term
[image]
Definition
  1. trach tube in esophagus
  2. increase in inspired CO2 (rise in baseline)-rebreathing, absorbent exhausted, faulty machinery
  3. decreasing ETCO2
    1. gradual-hyperventilation, decrease in metabolic rate, decrease in body temp 
    2. rapid-embolism, sudden hypotension, circulatory arrest
  4. inadequate seal
  5. loss of plateau-obstruction (asthma, COPD, bronchospasm), kinked tube
  6. normal
  7. curare cleft- inspiring during exhalation phase of mechanical ventilation, muscle relaxant levels subsitding, increasing pain
  8. increasing ETCO2-hypoventilation, increase metabolic rate, increase body temp, release of tourniquet, absorption of CO2 from peritoneal insufflation, sudden increase in blood pressure
Term
what causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
Definition

increase in pH

decrease in DPG

decrease in temperature

Term
what things can give false readings in pulse oximetry?
Definition
  •    Methemoglobin met Hb
  • Carboxyhemoglobin COHb
  • severe vasodilation
  • dyes
  • icterus
  • peripheral vasoconstriction
  • low pulse pressure
  • anemia
  • motion
  • external light sources

 

Term
which factor does not cause a bleeding phenotype? what is the significance of this?
Definition

XII. 

problem for old cascade model because it is sequential

Term
how is DIC diagnosed?
Definition

scoring system (≥5=DIC) based on: 

  • low platelet count
  • strong increase in fibrin degradation product or D-dimers
  • prolonged prothrombin time
  • low fibrinogen concentration
Term
what is the treatment for DIC?
Definition
  • treat underlying cause
  • transfusions if bleeding or invasive procedures
  • heparin therapy (?)
  • aim for early recognition and rapid, aggressive therapy
Term
what are the intrinsic factors?
Definition
contained within blood: VIII, IX, XI, XII
Term
where is Tissue factor found? what is its role?
Definition

outside the blood

if a vessel is damaged, coagulation is initiated

interacts with VIIa to stimulate common pathway

 

Term
what is required to cleave fibrinogen into fibrin? what causes its formation
Definition

thrombin (IIa)

formed from prothrombin (II) upon activation of X and V

Term
describe briefly the cell-based model
Definition
  • Initiation
    • TF and VIIa separated by vascular endothelium
    • bind upon vascular damage
    • complex with Ca (donates positive charge)
    • activates more VII, also IX, X on TF-bearing cell
    • X activates V (prothrombinase complex)
    • this cleaves II to thrombin
  • Amplification
    • thrombin leaves TF-bearing cell, binds to platelet
    • platelet releases granules and changes shape
    • XI, V, XIII activated, vWF free to facilitate platelet adhesion
    • positive feedback mech for thrombin
  • propagation
    • granules recruit more platelets, provide phospholipid surface for more coag. 
    • XI activates IX, IX binds with VIII to form Xase
    • X binds with V to form more thrombinase
    • thrombin activates fibrinogen into monomers, stabilizes.
Term
describe fibrinolysis
Definition
  • tissue plasminogen activator released by damaged endothelium 
  • activates plasminogen (free floating from liver, then incorporated into a clot) a few days after clot formation. 
  • plasmin causes release of t-PA and u-PA, which are inhibited by PAI-1 and 2
  • TAFI (thromain-activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor) inhibits plasmin-mediated fibrin breakdown to prevent immediate breakdown
Term
describe anticoagulation
Definition
  • TFPI-inhibits tissue factor pathway/initiation by inhibiting X, IX, and TF-VII
  • thrombomodulin-activates protein C when binding to thrombin, which activates TAFI (procoag)
  • protein C-inactivates V and VIII. vitamin K dependent. enhanced by protein S. inhibits PAI-1--> enhances t-PA and u-PA-->fibrinolysis
  • APC (activated protein C)- also anti-inflammatory, especially during sepsis
  • Antithrombin-inhibits X and thrombin, IX, and TF-VII, enhanced by heparin-like GAGs
Term
which coag/anticoag factors are vit K dependent?
Definition

II, VII, IX, X

protein protein C

Term
what characterizes DIC?
Definition
  • thrombin generation with depression of inhibitory mechanisms such as antithrombin and protein C. impaired fibrin degradation due to hi PAI-1
  • septic patients seem to have reduced circulating antithrombin and protein C
Term
what are the four tests for disorders of primary hemostasis?
Definition
  1. platelet count
  2. platelet function testing (aggregometry)
  3. BMBT-cannot distinguish thrombocytopathy from endothelial dysfunction
  4. vWF analysis
    1. I-reduced conc in circulation (most common)
    2. II-abnormal dysfunction
    3. III- absolute lack

 

Term
what are the signs of primary hemostasis?
Definition
  • petechiae, ecchymoses due to thrombocytopenia
  • mucosal bleeding 
Term
how do secondary hemostasis disorders present?
Definition
hematomas and cavitary bleeds
Term
what are the three tests for secondary hemostasis?
Definition

PT-VII, X, V, prothrombin/thrombin, fibrinogen/fibrin

PTT-XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, prothrombin/thrombin, fibrinogen/fibrin

ACT-

Term
what is suggested by a prolonged PT and normal PTT?
Definition

early vit K antagonist intoxication or early liver failure

(since factor VII is the only PT-specific factor and does not cause phenotypic coagulopathies)

Term
what is indicated with abnormal PT and PTT?
Definition
vitamin K antagonism, DIC, end-stage liver failure, or factor V or X deficiencies (both rare)
Term
what is indicated with normal PT and abnormal PTT?
Definition
  • check VIII (hemophilia A)
  • check IX (hemophilia B)
  • check XII (Hageman factor deficiency)
  • check wVF 
Term
what does viscoelastic testing evaluate?
Definition

global assessment of hemostasis, including platelets in characterization of clot strength

thromboelastography

Term
[image]
Definition
  1. R: time from start of test to inital clot formation
  2. K: time from initial clot formation until 20mm
  3. MA: maximum amplitude
  4. α: angle of center line and tangent
  5. LY30: rate of amplitude reduction 30 min after MA
Term

on a TEG, what do the following suggest?

 

  • shortened R or k, or increased alpha or MA
  • increased alpha, MA, prolonged R, or k
  • increased LY30
Definition

hypercoagulability

hypocoagulability

hyperfibrinolysis

Term
what is virchow's triad?
Definition
  • hypercoagulatibilty
  • vascular endothelial dysfunction
  • blood stasis/turbulence
Term
what is the #1 disease concurrently diagnosed with thrombosis in vetmed? why?
Definition

cancer

inflammation-->endothelial dysfunction

malaise-->immobility (stasis)

Term
what is a major cause of mortality in IMHA?
Definition
thrombosis
Term
what diseases (6) are associated with inappropriate thrombosis?
Definition

neoplasia

IMHA

PLE, PLN

liver disease

SIRS

iatrogenic (catheters, corticosteroids)

Term
what is SIRS, when is it seen, and why does it lead to thrombus formation?
Definition

systemic inflammatory response syndrome

§  Risk factor for thrombosis

§  Sepsis

§  Pancreatitis (not infection, but inflammation)

§  Hi temp, hi HR, leukocytosis, etc.

§  Proinflam mediators, endothelial injury, tissue factor expression, thrombin production. increase coag and inflammation.

§  Increased PAI-1, increased TAFIα, reduced protein C. decreased fibrinolysis

Term
what are three examples of thrombosis commonly seen in vet med?
Definition
  1. pulmonary thromboembolism (silent killer)
  2. large vein thrombosis (ascites, CV collapse) portal, splenic, caval
  3. arterial thromboembolism (cats with HCM-hindlimb paralysis with aortic trifucation thrombus)
Term
what is the treatment for a thrombus?
Definition
  • prevent furhter clot accumulation with anticoags and antiplatelet drugs
  • enhance fibrinolysis
  • surgical thrombectomy
Term
what are the risk factors for venous thromboembolisms?
Definition

surgery

trauma

immobility

cancer

increasing age

acute medical illness

obesity

IMHA, Cushing's, sepsis, parvo

Term
what drugs are a part of thromboprophylaxis?
Definition
  • anticoagulants-target secondary hemostasis, prevent thrombin/fibrin formation
    • unfractioned heparin-potentiate antithrombin
    • low MW heparins-inhibit factor X
    • warfarin-vit K antagonism, prevents prothrombin, VII, IX, X, proteins C and S
  • antiplatelet drugs (aspirin, ADP-receptor antagonist, GP IIb, IIIa receptor antagonists)
  • mechanical-early and frequent ambulation, passive range of motion, massage
Term

name the muscles of inspiration

 

Definition
  • diaphragm
  • external intercostals (ribs pulled cranioventrally)
  • scalene, sternomastoids, alae nasi
Term
name the muscles of expiration
Definition
  • should be needed during normal tidal breathing!
  • elasticity of lung and chest wall should naturally recoil
  • when needed: abdominal wall 
Term
what is dyspnea?
Definition
sensation of breathlessness
Term
what is the first choice for sedation in respiratory emergencies? why?
Definition

·         Butorphanol is 1st choice

o   Rapid onset

o   Multiple routes of admin

o   Minimal cardiac or resp effects

o   Reversible

 

Term
what are five examples of upper airway disease?
Definition

·         Laryngeal paralysis

·         Tracheal collapse

·         Foreign bodies

·         Polyps

·         Brachycephalic airway syndrome

Term
what are two examples of lower airway disease?
Definition

·         Feline bronchial disease (asthma)

·         Chronic bronchitis

Term
how are parenchymal diseases categorized, what are the characteristics/signs, and what is the treatment?
Definition

·         Primary cardiac disease

o   Very young and very old

o   Small breed dogs

o   Maine coon cats

o   Presence of murmur or arrhythmia (more obvious in dogs)

o   History of coughing (dogs)

o   Give furosemide

·         Non-cardiac disease       

o   Any age or breed

o   History of vomiting or recent anesthesia

o   Coughing (cats or dogs)

o   Severe, concurrent disease

o   Give bronchodilators

Term
name three radiographic lung patterns
Definition
  • alveolar (air bronchograms)
  • bronchial (circles and lines)
  • interstitial (cottony, indistinct)
Term
what can be given if there is severe airway edema?
Definition
single-dose short-acting corticosteroids
Term
what are the signs, and what should you do with a cat in status asthmaticus?
Definition
  • expiratory dyspnea, wheezes, open-mouth breathing, cyanosis.
  • oxygen rich environment, terbutaline, aminophylline, or theophylline, or albuterol
  • if those do not work, corticosteroids can be administered
Term
what is the radiographic sign distinguishing cardiogenic pulmonary edema from non-cardiogenic?
Definition
pulmonary venous distension on radiographs=cardiogenic
Term
T or F: never intubate a respiratory emergency patient for fear of stressing them.
Definition
False. if all else fails, better to intubate than have a dead patient
Term
what are three examples of pleural space disease?
Definition
  • pleural effusion
    • d/t: hemothorax, pyothorax, chylothorax, neoplastic effusions, FIP, heart disease, lung lobe torsion, diaphragmatic hernia
  • pneumothorax
  • diaphragmatic hernia
    • listen for borborygmi heard over lung fields, take rads if possible
Term
in a hemothorax case, what should be done to drain the blood?
Definition
  • nothing. if stabilized and sedated, cage-rest and the blood components should be resorbed
  • if not stable, can drain partially
  • Check clotting profile since rodenticide toxicity is a common cause
Term
what are three broad categories of causes of shock?
Definition
  1. decreased effective circulation volume
  2. ineffective heart pumping
  3. loss of vasomotor tone
Term
what are the 4 classifications of shock?
Definition
    1. hypovolemic
      1. large amount of IV fluid loss due to hemorrhage or protracted v/d
    2. cardiogenic
      1. systolic failure-dec. contractility
      2. diastolic failure-alterted filling
      3. bradyarrhythmia-dec. rate
    3. distributive
      1. loss of vasomotor tone
      2. maldistribution of blood volume (sepsis, anaphylaxis)
    4. obstructive
      1. impedance of major vessels
      2. decreased blood flow (pericardial effusion, GDV)
Term
what are the markers of perfusion?
Definition

mentation

mm

CRT

heart rate

pulse quality

temperature

urine production

lactate

BP (tho may seem normal d/t increased SVR)

Term
what are the three stages of shock?
Definition
  1. compensatory
  2. early decompensatory
  3. late decompensatory
Term
what occurs during the compensatory stage of shock(3)?
Definition
  1. increased sympathetic tone (positive inotropy, chronotropy, vasocontriction, RAAS activation)
  2. RAAS activation
  3. ADH release
Term
what is involved in the RAAS system?
Definition

Renin release

• B1 receptor

• Baroreceptors

• from juxtaglomerlular cells, triggered by prostaglandins from Macula Densa

• trigger Angiotensinogen-->ANGI in liver

• ANG I

ANG I --> ANG II by ACE in lungs

ANG II

• Vasoconstriction

• Water and salt retention

• Norepinephrine release

ADH release stimulated by:

• Hypovolemia

• Osmolality

• ANG II

• Effects

• Water retention (V2 receptor)

• Vasoconstriction (V1 receptor)

Term
what is involved in the early decompensatory stage of shock (3)?
Definition
  1. anaerobic metabolism
  2. redistribution of blood flow
  3. oxygen consumption becomes delivery dependent
Term
[image]
Definition
[image]
Term
what is involved in late decompensatory shock?
Definition
    1. metabolic needs can no longer be met
    2. autoregulatory escape
    3. cell death
    4. organ dysfunction
    5. reversal is much for difficult to impossible
Term
[image]
Definition
[image]
Term
what is the triad of shock for cats?
Definition

·         Bradycardia

·         Hypotension

·         Hypothermia

Term
what is the treatment for shock in general if cardiogenic?
Definition

inotropic support

vasodilation

NO fluids

Term
in using fluids for treating shock, what is a good way to use shock doses? and colloids?
Definition

calculate them, but only administer 1/4 volume as isotonic crystalloid and immediately reassess

 

colloids:  5-15 (dog) or 2-5 (cat) ml/kg increments

go slooooowly in cats

20ml/kg total dose

Term
what is the dose for hypertonic saline in shock?
Definition

4-7 ml/kg dogs

2-4 ml/kg cats

Term
why is hypothermia so detrimental in shock? who is most at risk?
Definition
  • α-1 responsiveness is decreased
  • can contribute to bradycardia, which won't be responsive to atropine
  • cats especially at risk
Term
define septic shock and sepsis
Definition
  • septic shock: sepsis with hypotension in the face of adequate volume replacement 
  • sepsis: systemic inflammatory response to infection
Term
why might PLE and PLN contribute to thrombosis?
Definition
loss of anti-thrombin bc it's the size of albumin (altho recent studies may suggest that this is not a contributing factor)
Term
define MODS
Definition

multiple organ dysfunction syndrome:

dysfunction of >2 organ systems secondary to SIRS

Term
what is on the sepsis continuum?
Definition
  1. infection
  2. SIRS
  3. sepsis
  4. severe sepsis
  5. septic shock
  6. MODS
Term
what are the SIRS criteria for a dog? how many are required?
Definition

2/4 required for SIRS diagnosis

        • HR              >120
        • resp rate     >20
        • Temp          <100 OR >102.6
        • WBC           <6000 OR >16,000
Term
what are the SIRS criteria for the cat? how many are required?
Definition

3/4 required for SIRS diagnosis

        • HR              <140 OR >225
        • resp rate     >40
        • Temp          <100 OR >104
        • WBC           <5000 OR >19,000
Term
what actually leads to sepsis in the body, especially in gram negative bacterial infections?
Definition
  • bacterial LPS binds to macrophages
  • CD-14 helps bind to TLR's and other adhesion molecules
  • leads to production of inflammatory mediators (TNF-α, IL-1, 6, etc). 
  • overwhelming production of these mediators leads to sepsis and inflammation overwhelms anti-inflammatory processes. 
  • leads to coag, CV instability, vasc permeability, vasodilation, and MODS
Term
what are the steps in recognizing sepsis?
Definition
      • signs of systemic inflammation
      • Hx, PE
      • blood gas, CBC, chem
      • UA with sediment and culture
      • imaging
      • cytology/biopsy
      • culture!
Term
what would be seen on bloodwork that suggests sepsis?
Definition
      • CBC
        • leukocytes with left shift
        • anemia
        • thrombocytopenia
      • Chem
        • changes reflect underlying cause
        • hyperbilirubinemia
        • hyperglycemia-->hypoglycemia
        • hypoalbuminemia
Term
what is the most common cause/source of sepsis?
Definition

·         GI tract leakage in 30-70% of these cases

o   Neoplasia

o   Foreign bodies

o   Post operative leak

o   NSAID induced ulcers

o   Translocation

Term
besides GI, what are the other sources of infection leading to sepsis?
Definition

§  Urinary

§  Respiratory (aspiration)

§  Wounds

§  Catheters

§  Hospital vs community acquired

Term
how can abdominal fluid aspirate be used to help diagnose septic peritonitis (3)?
Definition

§  Cytology

·         Intracellular bacteria

§  Glucose

·         >20mg/dl lower in effusion vs blood (used up nutrition for bacteria)

§  Lactate

·         2mmol/l higher in effusion vs blood (waste product)

Term
List Kirby's rule of twenty
Definition

1.      Oxygenation and ventilation

2.      Cardiac function and rhythm

3.      BP and perfusion

4.      RBC

5.      Fluid balance

6.      Albumin

7.      Oncotic pressure

8.      Immune function/WBC coutn

9.      Mentation

10.  Electrolytes

11.  Acid base

12.  Blood glucose

13.  Nursing cre

14.  Coag

15.  Renal function and UOP

16.  Bandage/wound care

17.  Drug metab and doses

18.  Pain med

19.  GI motility and nutrition

20.  TLC

Term

how is the alveolar-arterial gradient calculated?

(A-a gradient)

Definition

pAO2~5x 21%

 

PAO2=PaO2

normal A-a gradient<20

 

simplified: PAO2≈5xFiO2

Term
what is the normal pH, pCO2, pO2, and HCO3 range for dogs?
Definition

pH 7.38-7.4

pCO2 31-35

pO2 90-100

HCO3 22-24

Term
what could be the causes of respiratory acidosis?
Definition

opioid toxicity

anesthesia

cold patient

respriatory disease

weakness (CNS or muscular)

Term
what could be the causes of respiratory alkalosis?
Definition

stress

pain

hypoxia

sepsis

liver disease

Term
room air is assumed to by what percent oxygen? (at sea level)
Definition
21%
Term
what are the potential causes of metabolic acidosis?
Definition

lactic acidosis (deplete HCO3)

DKA (deplete HCO3)

acute renal failure (uremia)

toxicity (aspirin)

diarrhea, RTA (loss of HCO3)

 

Term
what are the potential causes of metabolic alkalosis?
Definition

iatrogenic (added bicarb)

gastric suctioning/vomiting (loss of HCl)

diuretics

steriods/Cushing's

severe hypokalemia

Term
in metabolic acidosis, how can you use the pH to tell you more?
Definition
Last two digits of pH = PCO2 =SIMPLE metabolic acidosis
ƒƒ If PCO2 >last two digits of pH= concurrent resp acidosis
ƒƒ If PCO2<last two digits of pH= concurrent resp alkalosis
Term
in anion gap, what contributes to cations and anions?
Definition

cations-Na, K , (also Ca, Mg)

anions-Cl-, HCO3-, (also proteinate, organic acids)

Term
in terms of blood gas analysis, a significant increase in anion gap (>5mEq/L) suggests:
Definition
metabolic acidosis
Term

the most life-threatening concern of crotalid venom is ________ and an example of a crotalid is _______.

the most life-threatening concern of elapid venom is ________ and an example of an elapid is _______.

Definition

the most life-threatening concern of crotalid venom is hemorrhage and an example of a crotalid is a rattlesnake.

the most life-threatening concern of elapid venom is paralysis and apnea and an example of an elapid is a coral snake.

Term
what are the general physio effects of crotalid venom (5)?
Definition
  • Alter integrity of blood vessels.
  • Changes in blood cells and coagulation.
  • Direct or indirect changes on cardiac dynamics.
  • Alterations in the nervous system
  • Depression of respirations
Term
what are the specific venom characteristics for C. Adamanteus?
Definition
  • Causes localized and systemic muscle damage and cardiac conduction dysfunction.
  • CK level can increase >20 fold.
  • Blood becomes uncoagulable.
  • Looks like DIC, but it isn't with C.adamanteus.
  • Many deaths can occur.
  • fibrinogen, plasminogen inhibitor, alpha-2 plasminogen inhibitor are below normal
  • plasminogen activator 20x above normal
  • ANTICOAGULATION
Term
what are 4 types of coagulation abnormalities seen with crotalic venom?
Definition
  1. Combined fibrinogenolysis and venom-induced thrombocytopenia – most common.
  2. Isolated fibrinogenolysis with hypofibrinogenemia.
  3. Isolated venom-induced thrombocytopenia
  4. DIC - rare
Term
what is the treatment for rattlesnake bites?
Definition
 
  • IV crystalloid
  • ANTIVENOM, IF SYSTEMIC SIGNS
  • IV plasma, if needed. No hetastarch
  • Analgesics (opioids), if needed**
  • Antibiotics optional
  • Cardiac antiarrhythmics, as indicated.
  • NO NSAIDS FOR PIT VIPER BITES
  • monitor CK
  • no glucocorticoids and antihistamines
Term
antibiotics should be considered in what snake bites? what kind of antibiotics?
Definition

water moccasin, otherwise rare due to dilution from hemorrhagic lymphedema

gram negative spectrum

Term
what are the three types of antivenom product proteins and what is their order of duration, tissue penetration, and hypersensitivity?
Definition

duration IgG>Fab2>Fab

tissue penetration  Fab>Fab2>IgG

hypersensitivity IgG> Fab2>Fab1

Term
the optimum antivenom Rx window is:
Definition
within 4 hours, but still effective after 24 hours
Term
4 products against pit vipers in NA are:
Definition
  1. ACP- Antivenin Crotalidae Polyvalent – Ft. Dodge- BI – equine –Lyphilized- IgG
  2. Crofab - Fab1- ovine – BTG - Lyphilized 
  3. Antivipmyn – Fab2- equine – Bioclon(MEX)- Lyphilized
  4. PoliVet-ICP – polyspecific antivenom –Costa Rica- Liquid- IgG.
Term
the drawback of IgG whole antivenom is:
Definition
most allergic reactions
Term
what species is Antivenin (Fort Dodge) NOT effective against? what can you use instead?
Definition

mojave

Crofab

Term
how is antivenom prepared?
Definition
  • Add diluent to desiccant
  • -Swirl under warm tap water
  • -Shortens dissolution time.
  • -First vial administered into IV tubing or over period of 5 minutes/vial.
  • ****Best to administer complete dosage over the first 1-2 hours after admission.
Term
when should antivenom for crotalids NOT be given?
Definition
  1. Presumptive bite with no signs
  2. No signs after 2 hours- if Eastern US geographic 
  3. Minimal focal swelling without progression after 2 hr
  4. Most Pigmy Rattlesnake bites
Term
what are the top concerns with eastern diamondback/water moccasin envenomations/treatment?
Definition
  • Hypovolemia initially
  • Fibrinogenolysis and bleeding
  • Necrosis
  • Death
  • Type 1 hypersensitivity from antivenom
  • Possible type 3 hypersensitivity after 3-5 days after antivenom Rx
Term
what are two main clinical signs/tests that suggest coral snake bite?
Definition

acute onset LMN paralysis

coexisting hemolytic anemia

Term
what is the treatment for coral snake bites?
Definition
  • Close observation for 24 hours.
  • Observe for onset of muscular weakness and respiratory impairment.
  • Give antivenin ASAP; best within 4 hrs.
  • Measure blood gases if respirations become rapid and shallow.
  • PCO2 > 65 mm Hg - calls for assisted ventilation and meticulous patient care.
Term
what are the physio changes in a coral snake bite?
Definition

hemorrhage due to blood vessel destruction

inflammation and tissue necrosis

fibrinogenolytic

potentiated hypotension and paralysis

neurotox, myocardiotox, myotoxicites

 

Term
acetylcholinesterases are found in which family of snakes? what does it cause?
Definition

elapids

causes flaccid or tetanic paralysis

Term
in snake bites, when can a hyperbaric O2 chamber help?
Definition
day 2-3 when swelling plateaus and resorbs.
Term
what is the most common cause of hypoglycemia?
Definition
unless it's a neonate, insulin overdose
Term

when are hypocalcemia signs seen?

what happens if you treat and the patient vomits?

Definition

not before below 4.0 or ionized 1.0 Ca

treated too far. 

Term
what is the treatment for insulin oversdose?
Definition
  • Glucose 0.5 gm/kg
  • Karo Syrup Orally (1ml = 1gm=½ ml/kg)
  • Dextrose 50% = 0.5 gm/ml = 1ml/kg IVpush
  • Glucagon – 0.25 to 1.0 mg IM or 0.03 mg/kg IM
Term
what is the treatment for hypocalcemia?
Definition

calcium gluconate 10% 0.5-1.5ml/kg/IV over several min

maintain 2ml/kg slowly over 6-8 hours or 5ml/kg over 24 hours

vit D, DHT, calcitriol

Term
what are the signs of apathetic hyperthyroidism?
Definition
  • Tachycardia
  • Dyspnea
  •  Abnormal lung sounds
  •  ± Palpably enlarged thyroidgland(s)
  •  Rarely seen because of earlier Dx
Term
what is the non-surgical Rx for hyperthyroidism?
Definition

propranolol or atenolol

amlodipine if hypertensive

methimazole (tapazole)

radioiodine

Term
what are the toxic effects of methimazole?
Definition
  • anorexia
  • vomiting
  • lethargy
  • facial pruritus
  • bleedind diathesis
  • icterus
  • eosinophilia, lymphocytosis
  • leukopenia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia-->must stop drug
Term
what are the four objectives in hypercalcemia?
Definition
    1. correct dehydration (0.9% NaCl)
    2. promote calciuresis 
    3. inhibit accelerated bone resorption (glucocorticoids, calcitonin)
    4. treat underlying disorder
Term
what are the top two causes of hypercalcemia? and a toxic cause?
Definition

malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism

(also cholecalciferol-containing rodenticides) 

Term
what can suggest that hypoglycemia is due to an insulin secreting tumor and not some other underlying disorder?
Definition
episodic signs
Term
how/when does hypothyroid myxedema present?
Definition
  • usually discovered when anesthesia required and has difficulty waking up
  • obtundation
  • hypothermia
  • hyporeflexia
  • bradycardia
  • low amp R wave on ECG
  • anemic
  • hyperlipidemia
  • hyponatremia
  • elevated CK
  • very low T4
Term
what is the treatment for myxedema coma(4)?
Definition
      1. slow rewarming
      2. give thyroxine IV or PO
      3. glucocorticoids
      4. low-dose fluids without overloading
Term
what is classic lab presentation of an Addisonian crisis?
Definition
Hi K, low Na
Term
what are examples of orthopedic emergencies?
Definition

fracture

joint luxation

synovial infection

tendon rupture/laceration

laceration and puncture wound

sole abscess or laminitis

any acute-onset, severe lameness

Term
what is the primary goal in fractures and catastrophic traumas in horses?
Definition

stabilize for transport

physical, sedation, immobilization

Term
what is rule #1 when using a twitch?
Definition
NEVER LET GO.
Term
what is the usual sedation protocol for horses with orthopedic emergencies?
Definition

xylazine or detomidine +/- butorphanol.

hint: never use xylazine by itself. the horse will still bite.

AVOID ataxia and acepromazine  (causes hypotension)

 

e.g. for 500kg horse

200mg xylazine and 5 mg butorphanol

5mg detomidine and 5 mg butorphanol

Term
if a horse has an open fracture is suspected, what should be done?
Definition
  • clean carefully
  • keep exposed flesh moist
  • start broad spec Abx immediately
  • tetanus toxoid booster if vx was >6 months ago
Term
what are two common materials used in splinting techniques?
Definition
wood and PVC
Term
what are the six potential puncture wound sites in the equine hoof? what underlying structures are potentially penetrated?
Definition
  1. tip of sole-->P3
  2. dorsal 1/3 of frog--> insertion of DDFT
  3. middle of frog--> DDFT, impar ligament, DIPJ (distal interphalangeal joint)
  4. palmar 1/3 of frog --> DDFT, P3, DIPJ, navicular bursa and bone
  5. palmar aspect of frog-->digital cushion, DDFT, DFTS (digital flexor tendon sheath)
  6. most palmar aspect of frog--> digital cushion 
Term
what can be used to immobilize distal fractures?
Definition

light compression bandage, can use board or PVC

neutralizes bending forces at fetlock and fracture

e.g. Kimzey leg saver for forelimb

Term
what can be used in breakdown injuries and loss of palmar/plantar support?
Definition

e.g. SDFT, DDFT, suspensory ligament rupture

sesamoid bone fracture

kimzey splint

palmar/plantar board splint

Term
what bandage can be used for mid-forelimb injuries?
Definition

robert-jones

caudal and lateral splints

Term
the final diameter in a robert jones bandage should be :
Definition
3x diameter of the limb
Term
how are mid and proximal metatarsus injuries immobilized?
Definition

use calcaneal tuberosity as extension of as functional extension

apply lateral and plantar splints over bandage

 

Term
how are mid and proximal radius injuries immobilized?
Definition

prevent abduction

lateral pull of antebrachial muscles distal to fracture site

Robert-jones with caudal splint (elbow to ground), lateral splint (from withers to ground)

Term
how are tarsus and tibia injuries immobilized?
Definition

rober jones from stifle to ground

lateral splint from tuber coxae to ground

wide wooden board or metal rod

prevent abduction

Term
how are injuries proximal to the elbow or stifle immobilized?
Definition
no need, humerus and scapula well protected by muscle
Term
how are olecranon fractures immobilized?
Definition

align bones, fix carpus in extension, allow weight bearing

padded bandage (not RJB)

caudal splint

olecranon to fetlock or to ground

Term
what analgesia is provided in an equine ortho emergency?
Definition

always provided

1.1mg/kg flunixin meglumine or 4.4mg/kg phenylbutazone IV

Term
what fluids are provided in equine ortho emergencies?
Definition
isotonic (normR, plyte) bolus
Term
what determines fracture prognosis?
Definition

type, number, location of fractures

open/closed

soft tissue damage/vasc injury

age

weight

nature of patient

time between injury and repair

effectiveness of first aid before referral

Term
which bones are adverse to repair (7)?
Definition

radius

humerus

scapula

calcaneus

tibia

femur

pelvis

Term
what are the 4 criteria for repair in equine ortho emergencies?
Definition
  1. minimal comminution
      1. 180 degrees of cortex
      2. weight bearing strut
  2. closed
      1. open have reduced long-term success
      2. higher cost
  3. equipment and technique
      1. appropriate implants
      2. reduce surgery time
  4. technically sound repair
      1. recovery technique
      2. knowledeable team, recovery pool, sling, head and tail ropes
Term
T of F: synovial infections in horses are life threatening emergencies
Definition
true
Term
what are the common etiologies of synovial infections?
Definition
  1. penetrating injury
  2. iatrogenic
  3. hematogenous in foals
  4. unknown (probably unseen penetrating injury)
Term
what are the signs of septic arthritis?
Definition
  • severe lameness
  • heat
  • swelling
  • effusion
  •  +/- fever
Term
the best way to avoid false negatives in synovial sample culture besides good technique is to use what?
Definition

enrichment medium

still gold standard

Term
what are the parameters on synovial sample cytology that suggest septic arthritis?
Definition
  • >5000 cells/uL suspicious
  • >80% neutrophils, non-degenerate
  • total protein >3-4g/dL
  • pH decreases with infection
  • glucose decreases with infection
  • elevated lactate
  • gram stain
Term
what are the steps in approaching wounds involving synovial structures?
Definition
  1. Hx
  2. PE
  3. sedate, restrain
  4. clip, clean
  5. radiograph
  6. US
  7. Arthrocentesis
  8. joint distention/pressurization
  9. joint lavage
  10. intra-synovial antibiotic before withdrawing needle

 

 

Term
when is arthroscopy indicated?
Definition

synovial wounds, especially if:

old

dirty

refractory to treatment

Term
what is a common antibiotic used intrasynovially in joint infections?
Definition
amikacin
Term
why should a sole bruise be treated?
Definition
blood culture medium for growth of bacteria that would normally enter horn tubules.
Term
what is the treatment for hoof abscesses?
Definition
  • open abscess by superficial pairing
  • if not found, soak hoof in warm epsom salt/betadine solution
  • protect and keep clean with bandage
  • NSAID
  • systemic Abx not necessary
  • tetanus prophylaxis
  • stall confinement
  • may need to do rads, contrast study, surgery
Term

In hysteresis, most of the work is done at ____lung volumes where pressure changes are  _______. During the latter part of inspiration, ______changes in pressure lead to ______changes in volume

 

Definition

In hysteresis, most of the work is done at low lung volumes where pressure changes are large. During the latter part of inspiration, small changes in pressure lead to large changes in volume

 
Term

failure of oxygenation is ______characterized by ______.

failure of ventilation is ______ characterized by _______.

Definition

failure of oxygenation= hypoxemia PAO2<60mmHg, SAO2<90%

 

failure of ventilation=hypercarbia PaCO2>60mmHg

Term
what are the 5 mechanisms of hypoxemia? which one is NOT helped by mechanical ventilation?
Definition

low FiO2

hypoventilation

V/Q mismatch

shunting (according to book)

diffusion impairment (according to lecture)

 

Term
when transporting a horse with a ortho emergency, which way should the horse face during transport?
Definition

a) HINDLIMB – FACE FRONT

b) FRONTLIMB – FACE BACK

Term
what are the indications for mechanical ventilation (7)?
Definition

•Hypoventilation “ventilatory failure”

•Hypoxemia “failure of oxygenation”

•Severe respiratory distress or effort

•Post cardiac arrest

•Following painful surgeries

•Refractory raised intra cranial pressure

•Welfare considerations

Term
what are 6 common causes of hypoventilation?
Definition
      1. drug intoxication
      2. coral snake bite
      3. brain disease
      4. cervical disc disease
      5. neuromuscular disease
      6. thoracic surgery
Term
what is the goal of therapy in treating hyperventilation? (one number)
Definition
PACO2<50mmHg
Term
what are the 5 common causes of hypoxemia?
Definition
        1. pulmonary contusions
        2. pneumonia
        3. CHF
        4. Pulmonary thromboembolism
        5. ARDS/ALI
Term
what is the goal of therapy in treating hypoxemia? (one number)
Definition
PAO2 >60mmHg or SAO2>90%
Term
what are the goals of therapy in severe respiratory distress? (two numbers and a reason)
Definition

PAO2 >60mmHg or SAO2>90%

PACO2<50mmHg

 

alleviate severe distress out of concern for respiratory fatigue

Term
why use mechanical ventilation on post CPA animals?
Definition
most are often apneic or have hypoventilation and respiratory compromise is a common cause for cardiac arrest in the first place
Term
what are the goals of mechanical ventilation therapy in refractory raised intra-cranial pressure?
Definition

control CO2 to lower ICP

allows use of propofol and barbiturates without compromising ventilation

Term
what are the prognoses for mechanical ventilation cases?
Definition

lung disease: 25-30% will come off ventilator

neuro-muscular disease: 60% will come off ventilator

coral snake envenomation: 75% come off ventilator

Term
the two types of ventilation are:
Definition
  1. volume controlled
  2. pressure controlled
Term
what are the modes of ventilation?
Definition
  • pressure controlled only:
    • pressure support ventilation
    • continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
  • pressure or volume controlled:
    • controlled
    • synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
    • assist control
Term
what is controlled ventilation and its drawbacks?
Definition
  • breath delivered to preset pressure or volume
  • for patients with no ventilatory drive (under full anesthesia, sedation, absent brain function)
  • no synchronization
  • heavy sedation
  • difficult for patient to breathe thru circuit
Term
what is SIMV? what are its benefits?
Definition
  • delivers breath to preset volume or pressure which is synchronized with patients breathing efforts
  • patients can breathe freely between delivered breaths. 
  • avoids stacking and hyperinflation
Term
what is assist control breathing? what is its main use and  limitations?
Definition
  • each spontaneous patient effort is supplemented to preset volume or pressure by ventilator
  • mainly weaning mode
  • panting limits its usefullness, results in hyperventilation
Term
what is pressure support ventilation?
Definition
  • breath initiated by patient
  • ventilator controls peak pressure
  • lessens work of breathing
  • good for maintenance or weaning
Term
what is PEEP?
Definition
  • positive end expiratory pressure
  • provides positive pressure in airways at end of expiration
  • avoids complete loss of positive pressure during exhalation
  • keeps alveoli open and encourages alveolar recruitment
  • can be used in any ventilator mode
  • called continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)  when patient is spontaneously breathing
Term
what are the 7 complications of mechanical ventilation?
Definition
  1. volutrauma
  2. barotrauma- can lead to pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum
  3. atelectrauma-reduced by use of PEEP
  4. ventilator acquire pneumonia-tubing/circuit provides route for bacteria (gram neg)
  5. muscle atrophy-weaning made difficult
  6. oxygen toxicity-by free radicals
  7. hemodynamic alterations-increased positive pressure leads to reduced venous return and CO. leads to SIRS and MODS
Term
if a ventilator patient is crashing, what do you do?
Definition
        1. is patient alive?
        2. increase to 100% O2
        3. check circuit disconnect
        4. check tube for occlusions/suction
        5. check for pneumothorax
        6. CV instability or arrest
        7. waking from sedation?
Term
what is suggested if there is severe acidemia, low HCO3, and hi pCO2?
Definition
respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis. undercompensated
Term
what is suggested by variable acidity, low HCO3, and low PCO2?
Definition
respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis, overcompensated. need more information.
Term
what is the cutoff for O2 saturation in arterial vs venous/mixed blood samples?
Definition
>88%=arterial
Term
what are two classes of conc. dependent antibiotics?
Definition
fluroquinolones and AG
Term
what are two conc. dependent antibiotic classes?
Definition
fluroquinolones and AG
Term

label the following CPA rhythms

[image]

Definition
        1. pulseless ventricular tachycardia
        2. asystole
        3. ventricular fibrillation
        4. PEA
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