Term
|
Definition
| Decrease in circulating RBC mass |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| increase in circulating RBC mass |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| refers to all stages of developing RBCs in ALL parts of body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the portion of the CBC (hemogram) that pertains to red blood cell parameters |
|
|
Term
RBCs
HgB
MCV
Hct
MCH
MCHC
RDW |
|
Definition
- concentration of red blood cells in x10^6/microL
- concentration of hemoglobin molecules in grams/dL
- mean cell volume in femtoliters
- red blood cells as a proportion of blood volume in %
- mean cell hemoglobin (absolute amount of HgB) in picograms
- mean cell hemoglobin concentration (average concentration of Hgb per RBC) in g/dL
- red cell distribution width (index of vairability in RBC width) in %
|
|
|
Term
| How do you correct a WBC count for nRBCs? |
|
Definition
| WBC(corrected) = WBC(automated)X [#RBC/(#RBC + #nRBC)] |
|
|
Term
| Why do we do a blood smear when we have the automated analyzer? |
|
Definition
1. Detects things analyzer cannot see
2. Cross-check the data put out by analyzer |
|
|
Term
| RBC lifespan of: dog? cat? horses/cow? |
|
Definition
| 100 days; 70 days; 150 days |
|
|
Term
| Most RBCs at the end of their life are disposed how? |
|
Definition
| EVH- they are phagocytosed by macrophages in the spleen |
|
|
Term
| 4 reasons for normal RBC turnover: |
|
Definition
1. decreased mechanical deformability
2. binding of Ig or complement
3. oxidative damage
4. exposure of phosphatiylserine on the outer membrane leaflet |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| RBCs are lysed in the bloodstream. Divides from a tetramer into two dimers. Dimers are bound to haptoglobin. Complex taken up by macrophages in the liver. |
|
|
Term
| How do hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria occur? In which type of hemolysis? |
|
Definition
| if free hemoglobin exceeds the binding capacity of haptoglobin it will be grossly detectable in blood. can also pass through glomerulus and be grossly present in urine |
|
|
Term
| Why can IVH cause hemoglobinemia but EVH cannot? |
|
Definition
| Red blood cells are broken down in the bloodstream, therefore hemoglobin is released in the bloodstream. EVH occurs in the spleen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fluid/acellular component of circulating blood- harvested after centrifugation in an anticoagulated sample-- HAS FIBRINOGEN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fluid component of blood that has been harvested after centrifugation of coagulated sample- LACKS FIBRINOGEN |
|
|
Term
| Plasma is collected in these three tubes: |
|
Definition
1. EDTA (PURPLE) for CBC & total plasma prot.
2. Heparin (GREEN) for chem profile
3. Citrate (BLUE) for coagulation tests |
|
|
Term
| Whole blood is also collected for CBC and total plasma protein in this kind of tube |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serum is collected in these two tubes: |
|
Definition
1. Clot tube (RED) for chem profile, endocrine tests
2. Serum separator (TIGER) for chem profile, endocrine tests |
|
|
Term
| Chem profile can be done with either ______ or ______. |
|
Definition
| heparinized plasma or serum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| macromolecules (proteins) that are too small to settle out due to gravity, but too large to permeate cell membranes (capillary walls) |
|
|
Term
| COP/oncotic pressure is due mostly to what protein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Principal force opposing the exit of fluid from vascular space: |
|
Definition
| colloidal osmotic pressure |
|
|
Term
| What are two sources of circulating proteins? |
|
Definition
1. hepatocytes (albumin, alpha, beta globulins, coagulation factors)
2. lymphoid tissue (b lymphocytes and plasma cells produce immunoglobulins) |
|
|
Term
| In a plasma sample, Total Proteins = _____+_____+_____ |
|
Definition
| albumin + globulins +fibrinogen |
|
|
Term
| In a serum sample, Total Proteins = ____+______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Though there are many diverse proteins circulating, they are present in __________________ . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Globulins = _____+_____+_____ |
|
Definition
| alpha glob + beta glob + gamma glob |
|
|
Term
| Three methods to measure total proteins: |
|
Definition
1. Refractometer
2. Biuret method
3. dye-binding and precipitation methods |
|
|
Term
| Lipemic plasma will result in which artifact? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the line of demarcation on the refractometer? |
|
Definition
| Interface of light and dark |
|
|
Term
| What is the biuret method of measuring total protein? |
|
Definition
| colorimetric, spectrophotometric; detects peptide bonds; highly specific for protein measurement |
|
|
Term
| This is used to quantify very small protein amounts in urine and CSF |
|
Definition
| precipitation and dye-binding methods |
|
|
Term
| How is albumin measured in vet med? Human med? |
|
Definition
| Dye-binding method using bromcresol-green. In humans, bromcresol-purple/ |
|
|
Term
| In which species does albumin not bind BCG well? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What protein component can be calculated, measured by serum protein electrophoresis, or "stallside" kits |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the equation for globulin calculation? |
|
Definition
| Total proteins - albumin = globulins |
|
|
Term
| By which two methods can you measure fibrinogen? |
|
Definition
1. Thrombin time
2. Heat precipitation method |
|
|
Term
| Which test is used to determine HYPERfibrinogenemia in large animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the steps in heat precipitation method of measuring fibrinogen: |
|
Definition
1. fill two microcapillary tubes with blood
2. centrifuge both
3. measure TP of one tube using refractometer
4. incubate other tube in hot water bath for 3-9 minutes
5. recentrifuge this tube (fibrinogen, if present would be white precipitate in plasma layer)
6. measure this tube using refractometer
7. Fibrinogen = TP in tube 1 - TP in tube 2 x 1000 (mg/dL) |
|
|
Term
| Which test is the test of choice if you suspect HYPOfibrinoginemia? |
|
Definition
| Thrombin time (a timed coagulation test) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the process of protein electrophoresis. |
|
Definition
1. Electric current applied to cellulose acetate strip
2. proteins separate according to electrical charge, weight, shape
3. separated proteins appear as bands on a tracing |
|
|
Term
| Which protein represents the darkest band/tallest peak on a normal protein electrophoresis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hyperproteinemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are possible causes of hyperglobulinemia? |
|
Definition
| Infection, inflammation (will also see increased fibrinogin), neoplasia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| non-specific term referring to an increase in globulin concentration |
|
|
Term
| What is the second most common cause of hyperproteinemia? |
|
Definition
| Inflammation (infectious or noninfectious) |
|
|
Term
| Absolute increase in albumin is ____ but can be due to: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Positive acute phase reaction: |
|
Definition
| increased within hours of inflammatory stimulus and persists as long as stimulus is present |
|
|
Term
| 4 examples of acute phase proteins: |
|
Definition
1. alpha, beta -1 and -2 proteins,
2. fibrinogin
3. serum amyloid a
4. c-reactive protein (CRP) |
|
|
Term
| Negative acute phase proteins: |
|
Definition
| synthesis of these proteins are decreased in the face of a stimulus within days to weeks |
|
|
Term
| Name two negative acute phase proteins: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chronic antigenic stimulation causes production of these 1-3 weeks after inflammation onset |
|
|
Term
| Examples of delayed response proteins: |
|
Definition
1. immunoglobulins
2. complement |
|
|
Term
| How is polyclonal gammopathy characterized? |
|
Definition
| Broad based peak in the gamma-globulin region |
|
|
Term
| What does polyclonal gammopathy imply diagnostically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does monoclonal gammopathy diagnostically imply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is monoclonal gammopathy characterized? |
|
Definition
| Tall, narrow peak in the beta or gamma globulin area! because the globulin proteins are antigenically and electrophoretically identical |
|
|
Term
| Define oligoclonal gammopathy. |
|
Definition
| multiple IgG types migrate to the same space- also known as a restricted polyclonal gammpathy |
|
|
Term
| In what instances will you see oligoclonal gammopathy? |
|
Definition
There are several infectious diseases that cause this:
1. FIP
2. canine erlichiosis
3. canine leishmaniasis |
|
|
Term
| What is an important indicator of acute inflammation in horses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you expect to see in relative hypoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
| All plasma proteins diluted proportionately. Can occur with overhydration or CHF. |
|
|
Term
| Hypoalbuminemia: four means of increased loss from vascular space: |
|
Definition
| 1. hemorrhage (glob & alb) 2. Protein losing nephropathy (only alb) 3. Protein losing enteropathy (alb & glob) 4. Severe exudate of skin (alb & glob) |
|
|
Term
| Hypoalbuminemia: means of loss by decreased liver synthesis: |
|
Definition
1. hepatic insufficiency
2. cachexia
3. inflammation
4. neoplasia |
|
|
Term
Which condition is characterized by these routine lab abnormalities?
↓ Na and Cl
↑ K
↑ urea, creatinine, P
↓ glucose
↑ Ca
Low USG
↑ Lymphocytes
↓ RBCs, Hct, Hgb |
|
Definition
| Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's Disease) |
|
|
Term
What condition is characterized by these routine lab abnormalities?
↑ Glucose
↑Cholesterol, triglycerides
Glucosuria
Low USG
Ketonuria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What condition is characterized by these abnormal routine lab values?
↑ cholesterol, triclycerides
↓ RBCs, Hct, Hgb |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What condition is characterized by these abnormal routine laboratory findings?
↑ cholesterol, triglycerides
↑ glucose
↑ ALP (in cats)
↑ ALT (in cats)
Low USG
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What condition is characterized by the following abnormal routine lab findings?
↑ ALP
↑ glucose
↑ cholesterol, triglycerides
Low USG
↓ lymphocytes
↑ neutrophils
↑ monocytes (esp. in dogs) |
|
Definition
| Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease) |
|
|
Term
What condition is characterized by the following routine laboratory abnormalities?
↑ Ca
↓ P |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which three increased parameters on the CBC reflect erythrocytosis? |
|
Definition
1. RBCs (erythrocyte concentration)
2. PCV/Hct
3. Hgb concentration |
|
|
Term
| What are two broad causes for relative erythrocytosis? |
|
Definition
1. Hemoconcentration (dehydration, endotoxemia)
2. Redistribution of RBC (splenic contraction) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of erythrocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does endotoxic shock cause relative hemoconcentration? |
|
Definition
| Shifting of the fluid from the IV space to the EV space |
|
|
Term
| What species experiences splenic contraction and thus eythrocytosis most frequently? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Primary absolute erythrocytosis is _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Secondary absolute erythroctyosis is _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Secondary absolute erythrocytosis is further classified as ______ or ______ |
|
Definition
| appropriate or inappropriate. |
|
|
Term
| When is secondary absolute erythroctyosis apropriate? |
|
Definition
| When the increased EPO production is a compensatory physiologic response. |
|
|
Term
| Secondary absolute erythrocytosis is inappropriate when ______ |
|
Definition
| EPO production is autonomous |
|
|
Term
| HYPERVISCOSITY SYNDROME: Marked absolute erythrocytosis, either 1 or 2, causes these three changes: |
|
Definition
1. increased blood viscosity
2. impairment of blood flow
3. distended microvasculature |
|
|
Term
| HYPERVISCOSITY SYNDROME: individuals with this are at increased risk of these three things: |
|
Definition
1. thrombosis
2. hemorrhage
3. tissue hypoxia |
|
|
Term
| Clinical signs of hyperviscosity syndrome (5): |
|
Definition
1. red mucous membranes
2. prolonged CRT
3. congested retinal and scleral blood vessels
4. thrombosis or bleeding
5. secondary signs related to sprecific affected organ systems |
|
|
Term
| Conditions causing primary erythrocytosis: |
|
Definition
1. polycythemia vera (hemic neoplasia)
2. mutations to the Epo receptor |
|
|
Term
| Conditions causing secondary appropriate erythrocytosis: |
|
Definition
1. R to L shunts (poorly oxygenated blood)
2. pulmonary disease |
|
|
Term
| Conditions causing secondary inappropriate erythrocytosis: |
|
Definition
1. renal lesions secreting Epo
2. Extra-renal neoplasia secreting Epo |
|
|
Term
| Non-pathologic causes of erythrocytosis: |
|
Definition
1. Breed variation
2. physiologic (altitude, exercise)
3. doping |
|
|
Term
| How is primary erythrocytosis normally diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| By exclusion of all other causes |
|
|
Term
| Signs of polycythemia vera: |
|
Definition
marked increase in red cell mass
normal or decreased Epo plasma conc. |
|
|
Term
| Why do non-regenerative anemias develop slowly? |
|
Definition
| RBCs have long life-spans |
|
|
Term
| Most non-regenerative anemias are _______ and __________ |
|
Definition
| normocytic and normochromic |
|
|
Term
| Most non-regenerative anemias are _______ and __________ |
|
Definition
| normocytic and normochromic |
|
|
Term
| Most common form of non-regenerative anemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is anemia of inflammation associated with? |
|
Definition
| altered iron metabolism (sequestration in tissues, less serum iron) |
|
|
Term
| Key mediator of anemia of inflammation |
|
Definition
| hepcidin, an acute phase protein |
|
|
Term
| Classical iron deficiency anemia is ________ and_______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is immunologic adaptation of anemia of inflammation? |
|
Definition
| It is meant to sequester iron so that it cannot be utilized by microbes |
|
|
Term
| How does increased hepcidin expression work? |
|
Definition
| It binds to the cell surface iron efflux protein (ferroportin) and induces its internalization and degradation |
|
|
Term
| What is hepcidin intended to do with iron? |
|
Definition
1. inhibit GI absorption of iron
2. inhibit export of iron from hepatocytes and macrophages |
|
|
Term
| Inflammation has been shown to cause ________ RBC survival. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inflammatory cytokines are erythropoiesis inhibitors in these three ways: |
|
Definition
1. direct toxic effect on RBC precursors
2. decreased expression of hematopoietic factors (Epo, stem-cell factor)
3. Decresed Epo receptor expression |
|
|
Term
| Iron deficiency occurs most commonly because of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True iron deficiency can be either ____ or _____ |
|
Definition
| rengenerative or non-regenerative |
|
|
Term
| Causes of decreased erythropoiesis (8): |
|
Definition
1. Chronic renal failure (decreased Epo production)
2. Neoplasia
3. Endocrinopathies (hypothyroidism, hypoadrenocorticism)
4. Immune-mediated destruction of precursors
5. Infection of erythropoietic cells
6. Liver disease
7. Toxic insult to marrow
8. Nutritional deficiencies |
|
|
Term
| Three components of the minimum laboratory database |
|
Definition
1. CBC
2. Chemistry and electrolytes
3. Urinalysis |
|
|
Term
| Reference intervals should be specific to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are laboratory reference intervals established? |
|
Definition
| sampling a population of clinically normal animals, performing test of interest then analyzing the results |
|
|
Term
| What is the convention for reference thresholds? |
|
Definition
| Centel 95% of values, after exclusion of outliers |
|
|
Term
| Greater number of samples in reference group: |
|
Definition
| the more likely the samples accurately represent the larger population |
|
|
Term
| Appropriate protocols are followed to eliminate these three kinds of error: |
|
Definition
1. pre-analytical
2. analytical
3. post-analytical |
|
|
Term
| Interpret the values of the test results..... |
|
Definition
| in context of all available information |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how likely a test is to yield a positive result in an affected population |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| indicates how likely a test is to yield a negative result in an unaffected population |
|
|
Term
| Sensitivity and specificity are influenced by _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sensitivity and specificity are NOT influenced by_____ |
|
Definition
| the prevalence of the disease being tested |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| probability that a positive test result is a true positive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| probability that a negative test result is a true negative |
|
|
Term
| Predictive value of a test IS influenced by _____ and _____ |
|
Definition
| prevalence and test's diagnostic properties |
|
|
Term
| As prevalence increases, PPV ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As prevalence increases, PPV ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As prevalence decreases, NPV ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Advantages of dividing whole blood into components |
|
Definition
1. safer, more specific use
2. more efficient use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| group of inherited antigens on the surface of RBCs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| phenotypic expression of blood group |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| minimally antigenic blood (blood could be given to any other individual of the spp with minimal risk) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| has multiple blood group antigens (could receive any blood type |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| occurs when a previously naive blood recipient is exposed to the antigens they do not possess and develop antibodies against it for next time |
|
|
Term
| Which canine blood group is clinically significant? |
|
Definition
| DEA 1.1 (and also maybe DEA 1.2 and DEA 7) |
|
|
Term
| T or F: dogs are often positive for more than one antigen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the clinically significant feline blood groups? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T or F: blood typing should be performed in all cat donors and recipients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why can't AB cats recieve AB unwashed, packed RBCs? |
|
Definition
| Because the antibodies in the recipient cat will attack the antigen that it does not have UNLESS they are washed and packed |
|
|
Term
| What are the significant equine blood groups? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many equine blood groups and factors are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many bovine blood groups? |
|
Definition
| 11- very complex and transfusions not often done |
|
|
Term
| Neonatal isoerythrolysis: |
|
Definition
| hemolytic anemia occurring in neonate that acquired antibodies against its own RBCs from the dam via colostrum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sudden death, lethargy, weakness, tachypnea, tachycardia, jaundice |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| antigen (-) dam bred to antigen (+) sire --> fetus has sire's antigen --> dam exposed to fetal blood during gestation --> dam makes antibodies to antigen --> neonate born --> ingests colostrum containing antibodies --> hemolytic anemia |
|
|
Term
| Know what combos of antigen NI can occur in |
|
Definition
* A and AB kittens with a B queen
* Qa/Aa foals born to Qa/Aa negative mares
* puppies born to bitch transfused prior to whelping
* calves born to cows given RBC-membrane-containing vaccine |
|
|
Term
| Pre-transfusion history should include: |
|
Definition
1. previously determined blood type
2. transfusion hx
3. pregnancy hx |
|
|
Term
| Goals of pre-transfusion testing: |
|
Definition
1. confirm blood type
2. determine donor-recipient compatibility |
|
|
Term
| Blood typing performed using _________ blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the endpoint of bloodtyping an crossmatching? |
|
Definition
| visible agglutination of RBCs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. confirm compatibility
2. investigate cause of adverse rxn |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| compatibility of plasma (for whole blood or packed cell trans.) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| compatibility of DONOR plasma to RECIPIENT RBCs (whole blood or plasma trans) |
|
|
Term
| What are the major classifications of hematopoietic neoplasia? |
|
Definition
1. Neoplasia: a) myeloid or b) lymphoid
2. Chronic & acute leukemias |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malignant solid tissue lymphoid neoplasm arising in lymphoid tissues outside of the bone marrow |
|
|
Term
| How is diagnosis of lymphoma made? |
|
Definition
| aspiration cytology +/- biopsy and histo, then clinical staging and immunphentotyping |
|
|
Term
| Lymphoma common hematology findings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malignant neoplasm arising from hematopoietic cells in bone marrow or spleen with significant numbers of neoplastic cells in circulation |
|
|
Term
| Basic classification of leukemias: |
|
Definition
| chronic lymphoid leuk (CLL); chronic myeloid leuk (CML); acute lymphoid leuk (ALL); acute myeloid leuk (AML) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chronic leukemia transforming into a more acute form, implying an additional mutation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cell of origin easy to identify, but not often easy to tell whether cells are neoplastic or just reactive; DX typically by exclusion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| high numbers of blasts in bone marrow(more then 20-30% of nucleated cells); specific lineage cannot normally be determined by routine micropscopy bc cells are poorly differenitated; ID done by immunophenotype |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| clonal myeloid proliferation characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis |
|
|
Term
| How is MDS classically diagnosed? |
|
Definition
1. less than 20-30% blasts in bone marrow
2. cytopenia of more than one cell line
3. abnormal blood cell morphology |
|
|
Term
| Plasma cell tumors (two kinds) |
|
Definition
| Plasmacytomas, multiple myelomas |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| solid tumors that involve skin or mucous membranes- usually benign and excision is usually curative |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| arise in bone marrow and secrete large amounts of immunoglobin, so HYPERGLOBULINEMIA |
|
|
Term
| You diagnose multiple myelomas based on TWO of which abnormalities: |
|
Definition
1. markedly increased plasma cells in BM
2. Monoclonal gammopathy
3. Radiographic evidence of osteolysis (so HYPERCALCEMIA)
4. Light chain proteinuria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| use of antibodies to recognize specific molecules expressed on different cell types to determine the identity of a cell population of interest |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| indentifies clonal lymphoid proliferations based on homogeneity of antigen receptor genes |
|
|
Term
| Neoplastic cells are ____clonal and reactive cells are ______clonal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| calculated value based on the concentration and size of RBCs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| measured value based on centriguation |
|
|
Term
| Anemia causes these signs: |
|
Definition
MM pallor
lethargy
weakness
blood viscosity --> murmurs (due to changes in laminar blood flow) |
|
|
Term
| Renerative or nonregenerative anemia is classified based on an increase in circulating what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of regenerative anemia are the 2 H's or 2 L's, which stand for what? |
|
Definition
hemorrhage and hemolysis
loss and lysis |
|
|
Term
| How do reticulocytes appear on blood smear exam? |
|
Definition
| larger polychromatophilic RBcs |
|
|
Term
| Which species does not ever release appreciable #'s of retics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cats, which more mature form of RBC is not counted as a reticulocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In ruminants, what accompanies reticulosytosis in the face of regenerative anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long after a stimulus does it normally take to see reticulocytosis on CBC? |
|
Definition
| several days and several more days until the regenerative response PEAKS |
|
|
Term
| How can you confirm regenerative response in "preregen" cases? |
|
Definition
| evidence of erythroid hyperplasia in BM, or emergence of reticulocytosis on subsequent CBCs |
|
|
Term
| Strong regenerative response can cause what anemia pattern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most regenerative anemias follow what pattern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can cause artifactual hypochromia and macrocytosis? |
|
Definition
| Prolonged storage of blood in routine EDTA tubes |
|
|
Term
| EVH often results in this condition of the spleen: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Three laboratory findings common in BOTH IVH and EVH: |
|
Definition
1. regenerative anemia
2. hyperbilirubinemia
3. bilirubinuria |
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Term
| This laboratory finding is strongly associated with EVH only: |
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Definition
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Term
| These findings are strongly associated with IVH only: |
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Definition
hemoglobinemia
hemoglobinuria |
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Term
|
Definition
| patient's own antibodies react against it's eryhtrocytes- predominant mechanism is EVH (severe and strongly regenerative anemia) |
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Term
| Common laboratory abnormalities in INHA pts |
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Definition
* spherocytosis
* autoagglutination (bc of cross linking antibodies bound to RBC)
* Inflammatory leukogram (immune complex formation is inflammatory) |
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Term
| Two tests available for IMHA |
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Definition
1. Coombs test
2. Flow cytometry |
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Term
| Causes of secondary IMHA: |
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Definition
1. infection
2. neoplasia
3. drug administration
4. vaccination |
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Term
| Infectious Hemolytic Anemia: agents: |
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Definition
1. Mycoplasma
2. Anaplasma marginale
3. Piroplasmosis (Babesia, Cytauxzoon, Theileria)
4. Equine infectious anemia |
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Term
| Oxidative Hemolytic Anemia |
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Definition
| normal oxidative pathways that generate reducing agents are compromised/overwhelmed (may result IVH, EVH or both) |
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Term
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Definition
| foci of denatured hemoglobin due to oxidative damage (round, blue inclusions) |
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Term
| Two toxins that can result in Heinz body formation |
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Definition
1. Maple leaf tox
2. Garlic/onion tox |
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Term
| Which healthy species will have low numbers of Heinz bodies?` |
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Definition
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Term
| How does Heinz body formation cause anemia (2): |
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Definition
1. increased clearance of RBCs by the spleen/ immune mediated mechanisms
2. increaed fragility --> IVH |
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Term
|
Definition
| RBCs that have one side of the cell with increased pallor- represent oxidative damage |
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Term
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Definition
| conversion of iron from the Fe 2+ to the Fe3+ state, which cannot bind to oxygen --> also result of oxidative damage |
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Term
| What can you grossly detect with methemoglobin? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which three conditions will cause a positive "blood protein" reading? |
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Definition
1. hematuria
2. hemoglobinuria
3. myoglobinuria |
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Term
| What can artifactually increase the total protein measurement and/or hemoglobin measurement? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| quantification and characterization of all leukocytes in circulation at one time |
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Term
| Granulocytic hyper/hypoplasia |
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Definition
| increase/decrease in number of granulocytic precursors in BM |
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Term
|
Definition
| # of leukocytes per microliter of blood |
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Term
|
Definition
| # nucleated cells/microliter blood |
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Term
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Definition
| percentages of different leukocyte types present that add up to 100% |
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Term
| ALWAYS USE THE (absolute/relative) COUNT TO INTERPRET. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the five basic components of leukogram? |
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Definition
1. neutrophils
2. monocytes
3. lymphocytes
4. eosinophils
5. basophils |
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Term
| Neutrophil concentration in the blood reflect what three processes? |
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Definition
1. bone marrow production and release
2. distribution in vessels
3. tissue demand for neutros |
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Term
| Which immature cells comprise the proliferation pools (neutro): |
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Definition
myeloblasts
progranulocytes
myelocytes |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
| Which species generally has the largest storage pool? |
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Definition
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Term
| Circulating storage pool: |
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Definition
| cells moving freely in blood stream |
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Term
|
Definition
| adhered to adhesion molecules on the endothelial surface of vessels |
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Term
| Once neutrophils are in tissue they can return to the blood (t/f) |
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Definition
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Term
| Toxic change- definition and examples: |
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Definition
visible cytoplasmic changes in neutrophils that result from inflammatory stimulus
1. Dohle bodies
2. increased cytoplasmic basophilia
3. cytoplasmic vacuolations
4. toxic granulation |
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Term
|
Definition
| irregular, blue-grey focal cytoplasmic inclusions (normal in low numbers in cats) |
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Term
| What are the four patterns of neutrophilia? |
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Definition
1. Physiologic (epinephrine mediated)
2. Stress (glucocorticoid mediated)
3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
4. Acute/chronic inflammation |
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Term
| What kind of neutrophilia will you see in physiologic? |
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Definition
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Term
| What sort of neitrolphilia will you see in a Stress neutorphilia? |
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Definition
| mature (less than 2X the reference interval) |
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Term
| What are common concurrent Stress Leukogram findings? |
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Definition
SMILED
Segs, monos increased; lymphs eos decreased |
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Term
| Chronic myelogenous leukemia: |
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Definition
| rare, but can see a degenerative left shift |
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Term
| Which pattern of neutrophilia represents an issue of supply and demand? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
| increased numbers of only segs- means bone marrow is fully meeting tissue demand |
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Term
|
Definition
presence of increased numbers of immature neutrophils incirculation (bands mostly)
LEFT SHIFT ALWAYS INFLAMMATION |
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Term
|
Definition
| increased immature neuts,but mature still outnumber the immature |
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Term
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Definition
immature neutros outnumber the mature ones (segs)
PROGNOSTICALLY WORRISOME |
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Term
|
Definition
decreased numbers of segmented neutros (also often left shift)
ALSO PROGNOSTICALLY WORRISOME |
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Term
| Why do cattle often have neutropenia with left shift in initial inflammation? |
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Definition
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Term
| Extreme neutrophilia "leukemoid response" |
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Definition
| >50,000 in dog/cat; >30,000 in horse or bovine; indicated chronic stimulation of granulopoiesis with granulocytic hyperplasia |
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Term
| Two most common causes of leukemoid response: |
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Definition
1. non-draining pyogenic infections (bag of pus_
2. hemolytic disease (esp IMHA) |
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Term
| Inflammation DOES NOT EQUAL.... |
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Definition
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Term
| Indications for bone marrow sampling: |
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Definition
1. hemic abnormalities
2. Cancer staging
3. Reasonable suspicion of infection/neoplasia affectin marrow (fishing) |
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Term
| Changes is bone marrow can be relative or absolute. Define these. |
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Definition
Relative: BM responding to disease somewhere else in body
Absolute: primary disease of BM |
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Term
| List mechanisms of altered BM cellularity: |
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Definition
1. hypoplasia
2. aplasia
3. hyperplasia
4. dysplasia
5. neoplasia
6. myelphthisis
7. necrosis
8. inlammation |
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Term
|
Definition
| bone marrow failure secondary to replacement/displacement of hematopoietic tissue by abnormal tissue |
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Term
|
Definition
| bone marrow failure secondary to replacement/displacement of hematopoietic tissue by abnormal tissue |
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Term
| Common areas to take BM sample: |
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Definition
| iliac crest, proximal humerus, sternum |
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Term
| What is the main contraindication to BM sampling? |
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Definition
| It is not needed diagnostically |
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Term
| Complications of BM sampling: |
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Definition
* hemorrhage
* infection
* damage to adjacent soft tissue
* needle breakage
*bone fracture |
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Term
| Ideally, biopsy and aspirate should be taken together, but if you can do only one, which one? |
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Definition
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Term
| If you perform both, which should you take first? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the "full monty" as described by Flatland? |
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Definition
1. CBC
2. Core biopsy
3. Cytology smear |
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Term
| How to help the pathologist (with respect to BM sampling) |
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Definition
1. indicate reason for BM sample
2. concurrent CBC data
3. good quality cyto smears
4. keep smears away from formalin |
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Term
| At a minimum what CBC data does pathologist need? |
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Definition
| PCV total WBC count platelet count |
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Term
| How many spicules should a good quality smear contain? |
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Definition
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Term
| How many good quality BM smears should you have? |
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Definition
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Term
| Marrow Cellularity must be interpreted in light of which two things? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| M:E ratio normals in canines |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
| refers to the fact that marrow contains more late-stage precursors than early-stage precursors |
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Term
|
Definition
| cessation of cell maturation at a particular stage of development |
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Term
| Ineffective hematopoiesis |
|
Definition
| death or destruction of hematopoietic cells within the BM so that such cells are not seen in circulation |
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Term
| Hypercellular marrow with concurrent cytopenia- |
|
Definition
| ineffective hematopoiesis |
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Term
|
Definition
| defect in hemic cell production AND presence of cellular atypia |
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Term
|
Definition
| due to a clonal disorder of BM stem cellsand resulting in ineffective hematopoiesis, dyshematipoiesis, and and susceptibility to acute myeloid leukemia |
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