Shared Flashcard Set

Details

CH 6, 7, 8
BONE & SKELETAL TISSUES
151
Anatomy
Undergraduate 2
06/27/2016

Additional Anatomy Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood, as well as shaping the articular surfaces?

lacunae
Haversian system
epiphyseal line
epiphyseal plate
Definition
epiphyseal plate
Term
Why, or why not, is swimming recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis?

Swimming is not recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is not considered a weight-bearing exercise.
Swimming is recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is considered a weight-bearing exercise.
Definition
Swimming is not recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is not considered a weight-bearing exercise.
Term
Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.

cartilage and compact bone
chondrocytes and osteocytes
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
marrow and osteons
Definition
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Term
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

parathyroid hormone
calcitonin
estrogen
thyroxine
Definition
parathyroid
Term
Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?

compound fracture: the fractured bone ends penetrate the skin
nondisplaced fracture: the fractured bone ends are misaligned
incomplete fracture: the bone is broken through
linear fracture: the break is perpendicular to the bone's long axis
Definition
compound fracture: the fractured bone ends penetrate the skin
Term
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?

trabecular bone
irregular bone
compact bone
spongy bone
Definition
compact bone
Term
In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________.

by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
in a circular fashion
by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis
from the edges inward
Definition
by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
Term
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood?

prolactin
somatomedins
growth hormone
thyroid hormone
Definition
growth hormone
Term
Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________.

potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D
sodium, calcium, and vitamin E
calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D
vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride
Definition
calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D
Term
Which description of bone cells is INCORRECT?

Bone lining cells on the internal surfaces of bone are also called endosteal cells.
Osteogenic cells can differentiate into osteoclasts.
Osteoclasts secrete digestive enzymes and hydrogen ions.
Osteoblasts secrete collagen and calcium-binding proteins
Definition
Osteogenic cells can differentiate into osteoclasts.
Term
Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

thyroid hormone
growth hormone
calcium
parathyroid hormone
Definition
growth hormone
Term
Ossification of the ends of long bones ________.

is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation
involves medullary cavity formation
is produced by secondary ossification centers
takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification
Definition
produced by secondary ossification centers
Term
When chondrocytes in lacunae divide and form new matrix, it leads to an expansion of the cartilage tissue from within. This process is called ________.

interstitial growth
calcification
hematopoiesis
appositional growth
Definition
Interstitial growth occurs when chondrocytes divide and form new matrix, thereby expanding the cartilage tissue from within. (Note: the word inter means between, and stitial means space; these are common roots for anatomical terms.)
Term
Which hormone is produced in bone and regulates bone formation, but also protects against diabetes mellitus?

osteocalcin
leptin
calcitonin
growth hormone
Definition
osteocalcin
Term
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

elastic connective tissue
dense fibrous connective tissue
fibrocartilage
hyaline cartilage
Definition
hyaline cartilage
Term
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

houses the bone marrow which produces blood cells (hematopoiesis)
support
communication
storage of minerals
Definition
communication
Term
During infancy and childhood, the most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is ________.

estrogen
growth hormone
the thyroid hormones
testosterone
Definition
growth hormone
Term
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________.

yellow marrow and spicules
adipose tissue and nerve fibers
cartilage and interstitial lamellae
blood vessels and nerve fibers
Definition
blood vessel and nerve fibers
Term
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.

the struts of bone known as spicules
Volkmann's canals
perforating (Sharpey's) fibers
a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
Definition
perforating (Sharpey's) fibers
Term
Which of the following is UNLIKELY to affect bone remodeling?

glucagon
mechanical stress
parathyroid hormone
low blood Ca2+ concentration
Definition
glucagon
Term
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

osteoblast
osteoclast
chondrocyte
osteocyte
Definition
osteoblast
Term
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

osteoclast
stem cell
osteoblast
osteocyte
Definition
osteoclast
Term
What is endochondral ossification?

the formation of bone from pre-existing hyaline cartilage models
the formation of bone from pre-existing fibrocartilage models
the formation of bone from fibrous membranes
the formation of bone from pre-existing elastic cartilage models
Definition
the formation of bone from pre-existing hyaline cartilage models
Term
What is osteoid?

the outer surface of bone
one of the cell types found in bone
the inorganic part of the matrix of bone
the organic part of the matrix of bone
Definition
the organic part of the matrix of bone
Term
Choose the TRUE statement.

Most bones in the body are formed by intramembranous ossification.
Endochondral ossification occurs within fibrous connective tissue membranes.
Endochondral ossification leads to the formation of the clavicles and cranial bones.
Endochondral ossification converts hyaline cartilage "bone" models into true bones (i.e., hyaline cartilage serves as a template for bone formation).
Definition
Endochondral ossification converts hyaline cartilage "bone" models into true bones (i.e., hyaline cartilage serves as a template for bone formation).
Term
For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?

A medullary cavity forms.
A bone collar forms around the cartilage model.
The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.
An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue
Definition
An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.
Term
What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?

decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
inadequate calcification of bone
decreased osteoclast activity
increased osteoclast activity
Definition
decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
Term
Hyaline cartilage ________.

forms "shock-absorbing" pads between the vertebrae
is the rarest of the skeletal cartilages
is found on the ends of bones that form movable joints
gives shape to the external ear
Definition
found on the ends of bones that form movable joints
Term
Which bone cells form bone?

osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts
chondroblasts
Definition
osteoblasts
Term
The resilience of bone is primarily due to which of the following?

amount of mineral salts in the bone
presence of osteoblasts in the bone
sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules
amount of mineral salt and protein in the bone
Definition
sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules
Term
Choose the FALSE statement.

Long bones include all limb bones except the patella.
Irregular bones include the vertebrae and hip bones.
The sternum is an example of a flat bone.
Sesamoid bones form within certain tendons
Definition
Long bones include all limb bones except the patella
Term
What is the final stage in the healing of a bone fracture?

formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus
bone remodeling
formation of a bony callus
formation of a hematoma
Definition
bone remodeling
Term
How can a tooth be moved in a bony socket during orthodontic treatment?

By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will reabsorb, while the bone on the reverse side will be reformed.
Teeth are avascular, allowing part of the tooth to be removed for repositioning.
By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the gums will be reabsorbed and reformed to the new position of the tooth.
By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will reformed, while the bone on the reverse side will be reabsorbed.
Definition
By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will reabsorb, while the bone on the reverse side will be reformed.
Term
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?

the scapula and the clavicle
the humerus and the clavicle
the radius and the ulna
the humerus and the radius
Definition
the radius and the ulna
Term
When you hit your elbow and say that you hit your "funny bone," you have actually hit a nerve that runs across the bone surface. Over which bone can this nerve be found?

radius
ulna
pisiform
humerus
Definition
humerus
Term
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the parietal bones?

The four largest sutures occur where the parietal bones join to other bones.
They form the bulk of the cranial vault.
They form the base of the skull.
They are paired.
Definition
hey form the base of the skull.
Term
What is the major function of the axial skeleton?

provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
give the body resilience
provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement
provide a space for the major digestive organs
Definition
provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
Term
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.

no transverse processes
transverse foramina
costal facets
no intervertebral discs
Definition
costal facets
Term
he suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________.

sagittal
lambdoid
coronal
squamous
Definition
saggital
Term
ethmoid bone
vomer
mandible
palatine bone
hyoid bone
Definition
hyoid bone
Term
The pituitary gland is housed in the ________.

vomer
sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
sinuses of the ethmoid bone
foramen lacerum
Definition
sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
Term
Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?

kyphosis
lordosis
swayback
scoliosis
Definition
scoliosis
Term
The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?

humerus-radius
humerus-ulna
femur-fibula
femur-tibia
Definition
humerus-ulna
Term
Which bone is considered to be the keystone of the cranium?

sphenoid
mandible
temporal bone
ethmoid
Definition
sphenoid
Term
Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves?

to provide resilience and flexibility
to accommodate muscle attachment
to accommodate the weight of the pelvic girdle
to improve cervical center of gravity
Definition
to provide resilience and flexibility
Term
Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum?

orbital plate
perpendicular plate
crista galli
cribriform plate
Definition
perpendicular plate
Term
Which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae?

rotation
flexion and extension
lateral flexion
supination
Definition
supination
Term
Which of the following bones is a part of the appendicular skeleton?

mandible
humerus
hyoid bone
sternum
Definition
humorous
Term
If a herniated disc in the lumbar region is treated by surgically removing the intervertebral disc and doing a bone graft between the adjoining vertebrae, one of the consequences might be _________.

reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back
gradual growth of a replacement intervertebral disc in the space between the vertebrae
increased shock absorbance qualities in the intervertebral discs located immediately above and below the graft in order to compensate for the removal of the herniated disc
All of the listed responses are correct.
Definition
reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back
Term
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?

tibia
fibula
talus
femur
Definition
fibula
Term
Which bone acts as a brace to hold the arms out and away from the body?

scapula
sternum
clavicle
first rib
Definition
clavicle
Term
The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone?

ethmoid
maxilla
sphenoid
Definition
ethmoid
Term
Synovial joints are classified into six main categories based on ________.
Definition

the shape of their articular surfaces


Based on the shape of their articular surfaces, which in turn determine the movements allowed, synovial joints can be classified into six major categories: plane, hinge, pivot, condylar (or ellipsoid), saddle, and ball-and-socket joints.

Term
Which of the following is a true statement?
Definition
The anular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.
Term
The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.
Definition
prevent hyperextension of the knee
Term
Tendon sheaths ________.
Definition
act as friction-reducing structures
Term
What is the most important stabilizing factor for most synovial joints?
Definition

muscle tone


For most synovial joints, especially the knee and shoulder, the muscle tendons that cross the joint are the most important stabilizing factor. These tendons are kept taut at all times by muscle tone, constant, partial contraction of their muscles.

Term
Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements?
Definition
Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
Term
People who grind their teeth are likely to damage their ________.
Definition
Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorders often afflict people who grind their teeth, but can also result from jaw trauma or poor occlusion of the teeth. The TMJ is formed by the articulation between the temporal bone and mandible.
Term
The synovial membrane ________.
Definition
The synovial membrane lines the inside of the fibrous joint capsule and produces synovial fluid, which serves as a lubricant.
Term
Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton.
Definition
Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
Term
The origin of a muscle is attached to the movable bone.
Definition

false

The origin is attached to the immovable or less movable bone; the insertion is attached to the movable bon

Term
The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________.
 
Definition
feet
Term

[image]

what type of joints are these

Definition
cartilaginous
Term

Structure C and D collectively form which of the following?

[image]

Definition
The synovial membrane and the fibrous layer that covers it collectively form the articular capsule.
Term
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
Definition
All synovial joints are freely movable.
Term
Which of the following does NOT represent a structural classification of joints?
Definition
Diarthrosis, which refers to a freely movable joint, represents a functional classification.
Term
Which movement increases the angle between articulating bones?
 
Definition
Extension involves movement along the sagittal plane that increases the angle between the articulating bones and typically straightens a flexed limb or body part.
Term
Maggie is a 28-year-old Caucasian woman who has newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis (RA). She complains of painful, stiff hands and feet, feeling tired all the time, and reports an intermittent low-grade fever. She asks the nurse if she is going to be "crippled." How should the nurse respond?
Definition
RA is a chronic, systemic, inflammatory disorder. Inflammation occurs in the joint, and the fluid that accumulates causes swelling, stiffness, impairment of joint movement, and extreme pain.
Term
The shoulder and hip are examples of ________.
Definition
The shoulder and hip are examples of ball-and-socket joints.
Term
Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?
Definition
hinge joint
Term
Which of the following are CORRECTLY paired?
Definition

synchondrosis: a plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones


A synchondrosis is a plate of hyaline cartilage that unites the bones. Epiphyseal plates are examples of synchondroses

Term
The gliding motion of the wrist uses ________ joints.
Definition
plane
Term
Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones?
Definition
rotation
Term
Which of the following is NOT a muscle of the rotator cuff?
Definition
biceps brachii muscle
Term
Which ligament would one tap to generate the knee-jerk reflex?
Definition
By tapping the patellar ligament, which connects the patella (kneecap) to the tibia, one can test the knee-jerk reflex. Stretching the patellar ligament in turn stretches the quadriceps tendon and muscle, triggering the stretch reflex that results in contraction of the quadriceps and extension (jerking) of the knee.
Term
Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?
Definition
Synchondroses
Term
Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton.
Definition
Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
Term
Which of the following is NOT a structural feature of synovial joints?
Definition

bone ends united by fibrocartilage


In synovial joints, bone ends are covered, but not united with cartilage. Hyaline (articular) cartilage covers the bone ends. The fibrocartilage found in some synovial joints, such as the knee joint, provides additional cushioning between opposing bone ends.

Term
Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones?
Definition
rotation
Term
Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to joint stability?
Definition
The amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity is not a factor that contributes to joint stability. The major role of synovial fluid is to lubricate the joint surfaces of freely movable (synovial) joints.
Term
Which of the following is one difference between bursae and tendon sheaths?
Definition

Bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons.


Bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons. Both bursae and tendon sheaths are associated with synovial joints, both reduce friction between adjacent structures, and both contain a thin film of synovial fluid.

Term
Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?
Definition

osteoarthritis: chronic degenerative joint disease


Osteoarthritis is a common, chronic degenerative joint disease often called "wear-and-tear arthritis."

Term
If a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is not properly repaired, the consequences could include the inability to prevent ________.
Definition

forward sliding of the tibia on the femur


The ACL extends from the anterior intercondylar notch of the femur to the anterior intercondylar eminence of the tibia. This ligament prevents the tibia from being pushed too far anterior relative to the femur.

Term
Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________.
Definition
rare because of the ligament reinforcement
Term

Which of the following terms describes the functional classification of the illustrated joint with regard to its range of movement?

[image]

Definition
diarthrotic
Term
Extension is an example of a(n) ________ movement.
Definition
Angular movements increase or decrease the angle between articulating bones. Extension is an angular movement that increases the angle between the articulating bones. Angular movements may occur in any plane of the body and include flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction.
Term
An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is ________.
Definition
the radius and ulna along its length
Term
Which joint in the body is most susceptible to sports injuries?
Definition
Of all body joints, the knees are most susceptible to sports injuries because of their high reliance on non-articular factors for stability and the fact that they carry the body's weight. The knee can absorb a vertical force equal to nearly seven times body weight. However, it is very vulnerable to horizontal blows, such as those that occur during blocking and tackling in football and in ice hockey.
Term
Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?
Definition
They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.
Term

Which of these joints would be functionally classified as diarthrotic?[image]

Definition

none

Diarthrotic describes freely movable joints such as those formed by synovial joints.


Term

[image]

The thumb joint indicated by C mediates which of the following special movements?

Definition
Opposition is the movement which allows the touching of the thumb to the tip of each finger.
Term
Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________.
Definition
lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements
Term
Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact?
Definition
 number of bones in the joint
Term
In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.
Definition
hyaline cartilage
Term
Which type of joint allows opposition?
Definition
The saddle joint between metacarpal I and the trapezium allows a movement called opposition of the thumb-the action taken when you touch your
Term
A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.
Definition
gomphosis
Term
Isometric contraction leads to movement of a load.
Definition

false

An isometric contraction generates tension (force), but not enough to move the load. Overall muscle length does not change during iso(same) -metric(length) contractions. In contrast, isotonic contractions result in movement of the load.

Term
Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?
Definition
activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
Term
The smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber is ________.
Definition
The sarcomere is the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber, and the smallest functional unit of muscle. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z discs; it primarily consists of thin and thick myofilaments.
Term
Which muscle fiber type is best suited for endurance activities, such as long-distance jogging?
Definition
Slow oxidative fibers are best suited for endurance (long duration) activities because they produce ATP aerobically, and are thus, fatigue-resistant. Fast glycolytic fibers, and to a lesser extent fast oxidative fibers, rely more on anaerobic glycolysis, and thus produce more lactic acid, which is a major cause of fatigue.
Term
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
Definition
storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
Term
Excitation-contraction coupling directly requires which of the following substances?
Definition
Ca2+ and ATP
Term
Excitation-contraction coupling is a series of events that occur after the events of the neuromuscular junction have transpired. The term excitation refers to which step in the process?
Definition

Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma.


These action potentials set off a series of events that lead to a contraction.

Term
Excitation of the sarcolemma is coupled or linked to the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber. What specific event initiates the contraction?
Definition

Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction.


Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the specific name given to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. It is especially abundant and convoluted in skeletal muscle cells. It functions in the storage, release, and reuptake of calcium ions

Term
A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. How are these components connected?
Definition

A series of proteins that control calcium release


When action potentials propagate along T-tubules, a voltage-sensitive protein changes shape and triggers a different protein to open it's channels, resulting in the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae.

Term
What is name given to the regularly spaced infoldings of the sarcolemma?
Definition
T tubules penetrate a skeletal muscle fiber and provide a pathway for excitation into the interior.
Term
Which of the following is most directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction of skeletal muscle fibers?
Definition
Action potentials propagating down the T-tubule cause a voltage-sensitive protein to change shape. This shape change opens calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing calcium ions to flood the sarcoplasm. This flood of calcium ions is directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction in skeletal muscle fibers.
Term
What is the relationship between the number of motor neurons recruited and the number of skeletal muscle fibers innervated?
Definition

Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron.


There are many more skeletal muscle fibers than there are motor neurons. The ratio of neurons to fibers varies from approximately one to ten to approximately one to thousands.

Term
Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?
Definition
smooth
Term
The cross bridge cycle is a series of molecular events that occur after excitation of the sarcolemma. What is a cross bridge?
Definition

A myosin head bound to actin


As soon as the activated myosin head forms a cross bridge with actin, the power stroke begins.

Term
What structure is the functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber?
Definition
A sarcomere is a regular arrangement of thin and thick myofilaments that extends from one Z disc to the next. A myofibril consists of a series of sarcomeres.
Term
Calcium ions couple excitation of a skeletal muscle fiber to contraction of the fiber. Where are calcium ions stored within the fiber?
Definition
Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Term
After a power stroke, the myosin head must detach from actin before another power stroke can occur. What causes cross bridge detachment?
Definition

 ATP binds to the myosin head.


The binding of ATP to the myosin head weakens the bond between myosin and actin, forcing the myosin head to detach. ATP also provides the energy for the next power stroke.

Term
How does the myosin head obtain the energy required for activation?
Definition

The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP


 Myosin is a large, complex protein with a binding site for actin. It also contains an ATPase. The energy released during the hydrolysis of ATP activates the myosin head.

Term
What specific event triggers the uncovering of the myosin binding site on actin?
Definition

Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.


The shape change caused by the binding of calcium to troponin shifts tropomyosin away from the myosin binding sites on actin.

Term
When does cross bridge cycling end?
Definition

Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin.


The sarcoplasmic reticulum contains Ca2+-ATPases that actively transport Ca2+ into the SR. Without Ca2+, troponin returns to its resting shape, and tropomyosin glides over and covers the myosin binding sites on actin.

Term
Duchenne muscular dystrophy could theoretically be cured if a technique was developed that would _________.
Definition

none

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene. Without a normal copy of DNA for transcription, there can never be a normal protein translated. This genetic mutation causes the protein to be either abnormal in structure or completely absent.

Term
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
Definition
the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
Term
What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent?
Definition
the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
Term
Slow oxidative muscle fibers are best suited for ________.
Definition
 running a marathon
Term
What is the functional role of the T tubules?
Definition
enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
Term
Excitation-contraction coupling includes all EXCEPT which of the following events?
Definition
 release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction
Term

[image]

What event directly triggers the release of neurotransmitter shown in A?

Definition

 diffusion of Ca2+ into the axonal terminus

Nerve impulses arriving at the axonal terminus trigger the opening of Ca2+ channels, which allows for the diffusion of Ca2+ into the terminus. This in turn leads directly to the release of neurotransmitter by exocytosis.

Term

[image]

The smallest contractile unit within skeletal muscle would correspond to the distance between which two points in the figure?

[image]

Definition

1 and 7


The distance between points 1 and 7 spans a sarcomere, the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber.

Term
The force of a muscle contraction is NOT affected by __________.
Definition

amount of ATP stored in the muscle cells


The force of a muscle contraction is NOT affected by the amount of ATP stored in the muscle cells. Instead of relying on storage of ATP, muscle cells use ATP regenerating pathways, such as glycolysis, to meet the ATP demands of muscle contraction.

Term
Which of the following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps individual muscle fibers?
Definition
aponeurosis
Term
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?
Definition
a long, relaxing swim
Term
The term aponeurosis refers to ________.
Definition
a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
Term
Myasthenia gravis is sometimes treated medically by a treatment that involves ________.
Definition
inhibiting the action of acetylcholinesterase
Term
What is the primary function of wave summation?
Definition
produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
Term

[image]

The connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following?

[image]

Definition
tendon
Term
What special feature of smooth muscle allows it to stretch without immediately resulting in a strong contraction?
Definition

 stress-relaxation response


Stretching of smooth muscle provokes contraction; however, the increased tension persists only briefly, and soon the muscle adapts to its new length and relaxes, while still retaining the ability to contract on demand. The stress-relaxation response of smooth muscle allows a hollow organ to fill or expand slowly to accommodate a greater volume without promoting strong contractions that would expel its contents.

Term

The molecular interaction described as a "cross bridge" involves the binding of which two of the letters below?


The molecular interaction described as a "cross bridge" involves the binding of which two of the letters below?

[image]

 

Definition

A & C

Cross bridges between thin and thick myofilaments is formed by the specific interaction between actin (A) and myosin head groups (C).

Term
Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?
Definition
motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
Term
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
Definition
acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
Term
How many motor units are illustrated in the figure[image]
Definition
2
Term
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
Definition
no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
Term

Which of the following describes the neurons shown in this figure?

[image]

Definition
Contraction of skeletal muscle is controlled by somatic motor neurons.
Term
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
Definition
actin filaments
Term
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.
Definition
glycolysis
Term
The distance between Z discs ________ during muscle contraction.
Definition

DECREASES

During muscle contraction, the distance between Z discs decreases as the thin myofilaments slide across thick myofilaments, toward the M line in the center of each sarcomere. As the sarcomeres shorten, the myofibrils and, thus the myofibers shorten (contract)

Term
Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?
Definition
activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
Term
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.
Definition
 there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
Term
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.
Definition
no muscle tension could be generated
Term
The major role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is to regulate ________.
Definition

intracellular levels of Ca2+

 

The major role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is to regulate intracellular Ca2+ levels. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ionic calcium when the muscle is relaxed and releases it when the muscle fiber is stimulated to contract.

Term
In the muscles of the limbs, the origin usually lies proximal to the insertion.
Definition

true

In the muscles of the limbs, the origin generally lies proximal to the insertion.

Term
What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
Definition
bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
Term
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
Definition
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
Term
 
Definition
A band
Term
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
Definition
myofibrils
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