Term
| 1. What functions do channel banks perform? |
|
Definition
Digitally encode 24 channels, add the signaling information from each channel, demultiplex and decode
received signals at the distant end, and multiplex the digital stream onto the transmission medium (span
line). |
|
|
Term
| 2. Into what two basic groups are channel banks divided? |
|
Definition
| Channel and common equipment units |
|
|
Term
| 3. What are the two main differences between the DE–3 and DE–4 channel banks? |
|
Definition
(1) The DE–3 channel bank can only link users to standard T1 and T1C carriers.
(2) The DE–4 channel bank can link users to T1, T1C, and T2 carriers, and the DE–4 is the only D-type
channel bank capable of operating in mode 4. |
|
|
Term
| 4. In which shelf location do you find the A digroup of a channel bank? |
|
Definition
| The bottom half of the shelf. |
|
|
Term
| 5. In the transmit direction, what is the function of the TRU? |
|
Definition
Provides A/D conversion of voice and signaling information for up to 24 VF or special service 4 units. It
also provides for generation of all timing and control signals necessary for multiplexing of voice, signaling,
data, and framing bits. |
|
|
Term
| 6. What is the function of the LDU? |
|
Definition
| Provides clock generation, receives clock extraction, performs line coding, and provides a line interface. |
|
|
Term
| 7. What is the function of a channel unit? |
|
Definition
| Interface between the CO trunk circuits and the DE–3 or DE–4 common equipment. |
|
|
Term
| 1. What two components are in a dataset? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2. What side of the interface does DCE and DTE connect? |
|
Definition
| DCE is the voice network system side of the interface and DTE is the data network side of the interface. |
|
|
Term
| 3. What is the maximum number of CSUs that can be installed on a DS–6 shelf? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. What is the physical interface offered to the customer’s premises and what protocol must be
employed? |
|
Definition
| Copper (T1) or fiber transport facilities; DS1. |
|
|
Term
5. With what equipment is the LTI card in the MSL–100 capable of interfacing and what are the
transmission modes? |
|
Definition
| CPE or CSU equipment; D4 or ESF mode. |
|
|
Term
| 6. What are the parameters of the DS1 ESF transmission mode? |
|
Definition
It has 24 frames, and the 24 sync-bits are used as follows: six bits for FPS, twelve bits for FDL, and six bits
for CRC. |
|
|
Term
| 7. Why is a CSU used for line protection when it is connected to the LTI card? |
|
Definition
| The LTI card does not provide in-circuit protection against power line crosses or lightning. |
|
|
Term
8. When the second level of severity is reached (alarm level 2) in the LTI, the HMI performs all of
the same functions as alarm level 1; what additional function does it perform? |
|
Definition
| Sends a yellow alarm to the distant end CPE or CSU. |
|
|
Term
9. What protection device is used when a T1 line facility or equivalent is the main method for
passing transmission signals between the host voice network system and the OSC location? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1. What function does a modem pool perform? |
|
Definition
Allows DMS–100 digital users to communicate with analog modems or to communicate with analog
facilities by providing the required analog todigital conversion at the voice network system. |
|
|
Term
| 2. What equipment communicates with the modem pool modem? |
|
Definition
| The terminating equipment. |
|
|
Term
| 3. What is the maximum number of elements each modem pool can have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. What type of calls is each modem pool configured to handle? |
|
Definition
| Inbound calls, outbound calls, or both. |
|
|
Term
| 5. When are inbound modem pools and outbound modem pools required? |
|
Definition
An IMP is required when the analog modem side of the connection path originates the call or when an
analog facility is used at some point in the transmission path; an OMP is required when the subscriber
digital unit side of the connection path originates the call. |
|
|
Term
| 6. What types of configurations are available with the enhanced DMS–100 modem pool? |
|
Definition
| Bidirectional modem pooling with adaptive or speed buffering configurations. |
|
|
Term
| 7. What is the purpose of the adaptive mode feature in the enhanced DMS–100 modem pool? |
|
Definition
| Provides connectivity to analog modems at asynchronous speeds of 1.2 to 9.6 Kbps. |
|
|
Term
| 8. What is the purpose of the speed buffering feature in the enhanced DMS–100 modem pool? |
|
Definition
| Allows the digital users to set their DU, ISDN TA, or DIALAN for 9.6 Kbps when using the modem pool. |
|
|
Term
| 9. How is an element physically mounted? |
|
Definition
| A DU100 and V.32 modem physically mounted together providing a plug-and-use arrangement. |
|
|
Term
| 10. What is used to connect the modem pool shelf elements to their respective line cards? |
|
Definition
| A 25-pair cable with a 50-pin male Amphenol connector on one end. |
|
|
Term
11. If you use profile downloading to configure the digital units, what is recommended that you do to
provide a backup for the profile download? |
|
Definition
| Configure the digital unit using the on-board DIP switches or LED. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The process of automatically inserting an OMP element into the path of a digital call. |
|
|
Term
| 13. What function does an ATD perform? |
|
Definition
| Detects the modem answer tone. |
|
|
Term
| 14. Which type of modem pool is reserved for testing purposes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. What module provides the interface between the Meridian SuperNode system and the maintenance and billing subsystem? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. What is the message services module configuration when it is used to connect a voice mail
system to a voice network system? |
|
Definition
| A single SMDI link through a single internal modem or a redundant internal modem pair. |
|
|
Term
| 17. What function does CompuCALL perform? |
|
Definition
| Provides LAN connectivity so you can share equipment, data files, and application software. |
|
|
Term
| 18. What requirements are needed to access the Calling Number Delivery feature? |
|
Definition
Requires a CMR card, a controller card for announcements, and at least one set on the subscriber loop
capable of demodulating the digital calling information. |
|
|
Term
| 19. What is the purpose of the ADSI protocol? |
|
Definition
Allows soft key data to be downloaded to an ADSI set that displays feature-specific status, prompting, and
list information. |
|
|
Term
| 1. What is the primary use for the 291 conference/alerting system? |
|
Definition
| Base emergency reporting and alerting applications. |
|
|
Term
| 2. How many stations can a 291 conference/alerting system support? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. Name the three methods of originating a conference using the 291 conference/alerting system,
and explain how a conference is initiated in each. |
|
Definition
Automatic conference origination, manual conference origination, and combined automatic and manual
conference origination; automatic conference origination is initiated by dialing a listed emergency reporting
number that is connected to the system and causes all the stations to ring, manual conference origination is
initiated by a master station going off-hook, and combined automatic and manual conference origination
provides manual conference origination while the master station is manned and then is switched to
automatic conference origination when the master station is unmanned. |
|
|
Term
| 4. How many mounting shelves would be required for a 20 station conference network? Explain. |
|
Definition
| 3 mounting shelves; one shelf for common equipment and two shelves for the 20 conference stations. |
|
|
Term
5. Name the three types of equipment modules used with the 291 conference/alerting system and
explain the purpose of each. |
|
Definition
Internal control modules provide ring, timing, tone supply, and fusing for system operation; CO interface
modules provide switching functions to originate a conference and allow remote conference access; and
station interface modules provide the capability to interface individual stations with the conference
network. |
|
|
Term
(1) Maintains satisfactory transmission levels within network
by automatically increasing gain as additional stations
bridge the conference network. |
|
Definition
| 9194 Conference Amplifier module. |
|
|
Term
| (2) Supplies ringing tone and alerting tone to the system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(3) Provides an adjustable timeout circuit that allows you to
adjust the length of time conference stations will ring if
not answered. |
|
Definition
| 9132 Ringing Timer module. |
|
|
Term
| (4) Divides the ringing load into 2 groups. |
|
Definition
9003 Ringing Interrupter Relay
module. |
|
|
Term
(5) Provides individual fusing to each of the other modules
within a shelf. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(6) Used to initiate a conference manually from a dedicated
master station. |
|
Definition
| 9193 Conference Originate Line Circuit module |
|
|
Term
(7) Used to initiate a conference automatically with a CO
line circuit. |
|
Definition
| 9196 Loop Start Access Trunk Circuit module. |
|
|
Term
(8) Used to interface individual stations to the conference
network. |
|
Definition
| 9191 Conference Terminate Line Circuit module. |
|
|
Term
| 1. What two sources of emergency power equipment may be used in the telephone office? |
|
Definition
(1) Standby AC generators.
(2) Storage batteries. |
|
|
Term
| 2. To where do the two primary distribution battery feeders connect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3. Where do the secondary battery feeders terminate? |
|
Definition
| The FSP in the equipment frames. |
|
|
Term
4. What is the maximum DC distribution capability of the combined A and B primary distribution
battery feeders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5. What equipment produces DC voltages other than –48 V? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6. What generates the protected AC power for cooling units and MAP equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 7. In what circuit configuration are the 24 storage battery cells connected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 8. During normal operating conditions, what function do the batteries perform? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. Approximately how many hours of reserve battery are required for an office with no standby
generator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. Approximately how many hours of reserve battery are required for an office that is equipped with
a standby generator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 11. What types of batteries are most often used in the CO? |
|
Definition
| The lead calcium and the lead antimony type. |
|
|
Term
| 12. What parameters must be determined before selecting batteries for the CO? |
|
Definition
The office power requirements such as future subscriber growth and reserve time required, the amount of
floor space available at the present time, and additional space required for future power plant growth. |
|
|
Term
| 13. What is the purpose of end cell switching and CEMF cell? |
|
Definition
| To prevent the complete discharge of the battery by extending battery voltage range. |
|
|
Term
14. What converts the commercial AC power to the electrical source needed by the voice network
system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. What determines the size and number of rectifiers required for a given voice network system
office? |
|
Definition
| The size of the CO and the amount of equipment located there. |
|
|
Term
| 16. List three functions of the power plant ground supply. |
|
Definition
(1) System operation return paths.
(2) Personnel and equipment protection.
(3) AF and RF noise sinks. |
|
|
Term
| 17. Within an equipment lineup, where can a PDC be located? |
|
Definition
| Personnel and equipment protection, system operation returns paths, and AF and RF noise sinks anywhere. |
|
|
Term
| 18. What must be observed for a PDC to serve more than one lineup? |
|
Definition
| Voltage drop limits of the feeders and the PDC distribution capability. |
|
|
Term
| 19. How many fuse blocks are installed per each PDC fuse panel, and how are they numbered? |
|
Definition
| 15 fuse blocks numbered from 00 to 14. |
|
|
Term
| 20. Where would you find a PDC fuse numbered 62F00? |
|
Definition
The fuse identified as 62F00 refers to the panel at base mounting position 62 and the contained fuse in fuse
block 00, the first fuse block from the left in the panel. |
|
|
Term
21. What serves as the interface between the internal frame loads and secondary distribution feeders
and the ABS feeders from the PDC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1. What alarm system component observes an alarm condition occurring? |
|
Definition
| Scan points located on scan detector cards. |
|
|
Term
| 2. What alarm system component operates an audible and/or visual alarm indicator? |
|
Definition
| Signal distribution points located on signal distribution cards. |
|
|
Term
| 3. What monitors and controls all the alarm system hardware? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. What controls the alarm status display in the system status area of the MAP VDU? |
|
Definition
| Each maintenance subsystem controls its own. |
|
|
Term
5. How often does the alarm system check for changes in the alarm status of the different
subsystems so that it may update its indications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6. Where are the system backup circuits located that generate an alarm if the OAU fails? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 7. How many scan detector cards can be located in one MTM shelf for a large office? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 8. How many signal distribution cards can be located in one MTM shelf for a large office? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. How are the OAU and MTM of a version 1 office alarm system connected to each other and to
the other parts of the alarm system hardware? |
|
Definition
| Via the alarm crosspoint field shelf and the distributing frame. |
|
|
Term
| 10. When is an office alarm unit alarm generated? |
|
Definition
The OAU alarm is generated when a fault is detected by the alarm circuit of the OAU, or of the associated
MTM. |
|
|
Term
| 11. What alarm results if the office alarm circuit 3 card blows a fuse? |
|
Definition
| The OAU alarm is generated. |
|
|
Term
12. At what interval does the CC send a special message concerning alarms to the peripheral
processors in the OAU and the MTM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. Specifically, what causes a dead system alarm? |
|
Definition
| A loss of communication with the CC. |
|
|
Term
| 14. What other alarm does the SD points used to generate an OAU alarm also generate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. Where are dead system alarms normally transferred to when the switching center is unattended? |
|
Definition
| A remote monitoring location (normally Job control). |
|
|
Term
| 16. What directly controls the end aisle pilot lamps for each aisle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 17. What two alarms are always accompanied by an FSP alarm? |
|
Definition
(1) ABS alarms.
(2) PDC alarms. |
|
|
Term
| 18. Where is the alarm equipment (scan and signal distribution points) for the remote voice network line equipment located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 19. What data table must be completed to include miscellaneous alarms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
20. What precaution must you take before removing and replacing faulty terminal or distribution
frame protectors? Why? |
|
Definition
| Measure the voltage across them; dangerous voltage can be present on the line. |
|
|
Term
| 21. Name two precautions you must take when replacing fuses and circuit breakers. |
|
Definition
(1) Replace fuses and circuit breakers with the type specified by the manufacturer.
(2) Use insulated fuse pullers. |
|
|
Term
| 22. What type of protective equipment do you wear when servicing lead-acid filled batteries? |
|
Definition
| Eye protection with side protection (face shield) and an acid resistant apron and gloves. |
|
|
Term
| 1. What is the mission of TDC? |
|
Definition
To provide secure and non-secure telephone service, message switching, high capacity Internet data service,
and connectivity for VTC and VoIP at each deployed site. |
|
|
Term
| 2. What are the two TDC network types? |
|
Definition
(1) Switched circuit.
(2) Datagram switched networks. |
|
|
Term
| 3. What type of connectivity do the data and voice backbones provide? |
|
Definition
The data backbone connection provides 10 Mbps Ethernet connectivity and the voice backbone connection
provides 1.544 Mbps ISDN PRI connectivity. |
|
|
Term
| 4. Does TDC replace basic radio equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1. What are the three SHF frequency bands in which an LMST can operate? |
|
Definition
(1) C-band.
(2) X-band.
(3) Ku-band. |
|
|
Term
| 2. What is the primary purpose of the CAN? |
|
Definition
To provide integrated voice, data, and video service connections directly to a customer’s immediate work
area. |
|
|
Term
| 3. How is the voice network implemented? |
|
Definition
| By a set of circuit switches at the nodes and hubs interconnected by backbone digital trunk lines. |
|
|
Term
| 4. What is the difference between the Red Hub Module and the Red Router Module? |
|
Definition
The Red Router Module has an additional router for direct connection to external networks through high
speed bulk encryption devices. |
|
|
Term
| 5. How is the Data Configuration Kit used? |
|
Definition
| It is used to reconfigure data modules to meet mission requirements. |
|
|
Term
| 6. Name at least three ICAP network management modules. |
|
Definition
(1) Firewalls.
(2) File servers.
(3) Voice manager.
(4) MUX manager.
(5) Data network managers. |
|
|
Term
| 1. What type of capability must arriving communication forces have to connect to the DISN? |
|
Definition
| They must have a multi-channel STEP or reachback communications capability. |
|
|
Term
| 2. How does the LMST provide a link to the JTF or other service provided hubs? |
|
Definition
| It provides a backward compatible interface to GMF earth terminals. |
|
|
Term
| 3. During sustained operations, how is the deployed network made more survivable? |
|
Definition
The host-nation network, commercial satellites, and terrestrial communications systems can provide
multiple transmission paths at critical locations. |
|
|
Term
4. During sustained operations, how is satellite bandwidth increased beyond the limitations of the
DSCS space segment? |
|
Definition
| Planners may redeploy LMST assets in the theater to provide links to commercial satellite networks. |
|
|
Term
| 1. Which GMF terminals can interface up to four independent links with the TDC network? |
|
Definition
| The TSC–85B and TSC–100A. |
|
|
Term
| 2. What kind of capability does STAMPS equipment provide the user? |
|
Definition
It gives the user an automated message distribution node that supports up to eight circuits and allows
backside subscribers. |
|
|
Term
| 3. Does TDC permit legacy secure voice installations such as the KY–68? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. When connecting customer equipment to the TDC network, why must the user adhere to various
standard and interfaces such as Ethernet? |
|
Definition
| They speed customer connections and reduce network costs. |
|
|
