Shared Flashcard Set

Details

CDC 3S051 (Vol 3)
Personnel Journeyman - All Self-Test Questions & Unit Review Questions
256
Military
Professional
06/28/2018

Additional Military Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
What makes up the total force?
Definition
Air Force active duty, ARC, DAF civilians, contractors supporting the Air Force mission, and other civilian personnel not employed by the DOD who support the AF mission (e.g., Red Cross, USO, consultants) as well as the in-place force supporting contingency operations.
Term
Define total force policy.
Definition
All components that comprise the total force concept must work together and prepare to deploy at any time.
Term
Define total force accountability.
Definition
The accurate accounting for all Air Force at all times regardless of location.
Term
What does total force accountability enable planners and managers to do?
Definition
To support the commander’s concept of operations.
Term
Name and describe the six elements of total force accountability.
Definition
The six elements of total force accountability are:
(1) Total Force accountability—PERSCO maintains accountability of the deployed location’s ERMD requirements and all personnel assigned against these positions.
(2) Strength accountability—PERSCO maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies.
(3) Unit accountability—The deployed unit commander is responsible for maintaining accountability for the unit personnel assigned. This accountability includes knowing where assigned personnel are at any given time, where they live, and where they work.
(4) Replacement accountability—The AEFC is responsible for sourcing rotational requirements and initiates replacement accountability. Once the AEFC has sourced a requirement to deploy, PERSCO is responsible for tracking the status of all incoming and/or departing personnel as well as their arrival and departure plans. Arrival and departure information should be available through the AOR transportation function. If this information is not provided, contact the component command for guidance.
(5) Transient accountability—Transient forces are those that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is elsewhere. PERSCO, in coordination with deployed services (billeting), tracks arrival and departure of transient personnel as outlined by the on-site commander and/or the component command guidance.
(6) Tasked wing accountability––Tasked wing-level units and IPR element are responsible for maintaining accountability over their deployed personnel until they have returned to home station. In addition, they are also responsible for the accountability of future personnel taskings—the unit and UTC tasked, and those assigned to the UTC that will deploy.
Term
When discussing the National Guardsmen citizen-soldier relationship, what are they able to bring from their civilian jobs to their military assignments?
Definition
The broad range of talent and experience that traditional Guard members bring from their civilian jobs to their military assignments.
Term
Describe the responsibility of the reserves.
Definition
Defend the US through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting global engagement, by playing an integral role in the day-to-day Air Force mission, and are not a force held in reserve for possible war or contingency operations.
Term
Why do members of the Air Force Reserve consider themselves citizen Airmen?
Definition
Because in addition to their military duties, they are employed in the private sector in a wide variety of career fields; yet they dedicate a considerable portion of their lives to serving as a part of the total force.
Term
What is a Joint force?
Definition
A force composed of significant elements assigned or attached of two or more military departments operating under a single JFC.
Term
As a personnelist in support of a joint operation, what could you very well be responsible for?
Definition
Accounting for joint forces.
Term
Which program does the Air Force use and other DOD forces will not be accounted for?
Definition
DCAPES.
Term
What is the secondary purpose of the AEF?
Definition
To provide predictability and stability to Airmen.
Term
List the items that are vital to understand about the AEF doctrine.
Definition
The AEF doctrine is not only vital to understand how to best employ air and space power, but it is also vital to understand the proper way to organize, present, and deploy air and space forces.
Term
Describe how the AEF schedule operates.
Definition
It operates on a 24-month life cycle that aligns with two GFM cycles and coincides with fiscal years.
Term
Describe Global Force Management.
Definition
GFM is a process to align force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements, present comprehensive insight into the global availability of US military forces, and provide senior decision makers a vehicle to quickly and accurately assess the impact and risk of proposed allocation, assignment, and apportionment changes.
Term
What are air expeditionary wings capable of?
Definition
Establishing and operating an airbase and will be established using the Air Force combat wing structure with an operations group, maintenance group, medical group, and mission support group that normally have two or three aviation or operations squadrons and an associated operations support squadron.
Term
Why is the air expeditionary group normally the smallest AETF presented to a theater?
Definition
Because a single AEG rarely includes sufficient command and control and ECS to sustain it in the field.
Term
What does an air expeditionary group consist of?
Definition
One or two operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific ECS squadrons.
Term
Give a description of the air expeditionary squadron.
Definition
The AES is the basic war fighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the AETF.
Term
What is an OPLAN?
Definition
A written description of the combatant commander’s concept of operations to counter a perceived threat.
Term
What is included in an OPLAN?
Definition
All required annexes, appendices, and a supporting TPFDD.
Term
What is a CONOPS?
Definition
A verbal or graphic statement, in broad outline, of a commander’s assumptions or intent in regard to an operation or series of operations.
Term
Who is the OPR for the OPLAN personnel CONOPS?
Definition
The supported command personnel war planners.
Term
How many volumes does the WMP consist of?
Definition
Five.
Term
What does volume 1 of the WMP provide?
Definition
Provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.
Term
How many parts does WMP–3 consist of?
Definition
Four.
Term
Each WMP annex and appendix consists of how many sections? What are they?
Definition
Six. References, situation, mission, execution, administration and logistics, and command and control.
Term
Which Annex is for Operations?
Definition
Annex C.
Term
Which Annex is for communications and Information?
Definition
Annex K.
Term
What is JOPES?
Definition
Is the DOD directed single, integrated joint command and control system for conventional operation planning and execution (to include theater-level nuclear and chemical plans).
Term
What is JOPES designed to facilitate?
Definition
Rapid building and timely maintenance of plans and rapid development of effective options through adaptation of approved operation plans during crisis.
Term
What is the Air Force’s war planning system and provides an Air Force feed to JOPES automated data processing?
Definition
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment.
Term
Which agencies does DCAPES support in all phases of operations planning and execution?
Definition
HAF, major command, component, and wing/squadron level.
Term
What does the AFPAAS provide?
Definition
Valuable information to all levels of the Air Force chain of command, allowing commanders to make strategic decisions which facilitate a return to stability.
Term
What does AFPAAS allows Air Force personnel to do?
Definition
Report Accounting Status Update Contact/Location information Complete Needs Assessment View Reference Information.
Term
Regarding SORTS, what does the Air Force require the units to report?
Definition
Actual raw data percentages in each measured area within SORTS.
Term
Which C-rating possesses the required resources and training to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?
Definition
C–1.
Term
UTCs are represented by how many characters?
Definition
A 5-character alphanumeric code.
Term
What do war planners use UTCs to document?
Definition
To document total Air Force manpower and logistics requirements needed to support the NMS during operational planning and execution activities.
Term
What do UTCs define?
Definition
Capabilities that are focused upon accomplishment of a specific mission that the military service provides.
Term
When is a UTC usable?
Definition
When it has been registered in DCAPES with MEF and/or equipment estimates.
Term
Once a UTC has been registered in the MEFPAK, what happens with it next?
Definition
Once the UTC has been registered in the MEFPAK, the UTC can then be postured by an organization in the UTC availability with the exception of A-UTCs.
Term
Describe the standard UTC.
Definition
A UTC in the MEFPAK and TUCHA data file that has complete movement characteristics in both files.
Term
Describe the non-standard UTC.
Definition
A UTC in the MEFPAK and TUCHA file that does not have complete movement characteristics.
Term
When is an A-UTC used?
Definition
A-UTC is used during the UTC posturing process to indicate authorizations that an organization has and cannot posture in a standard UTC or to posture above base level staff authorizations not in standard UTCs.
Term
What do UTC attributes provide?
Definition
The description, status, responsible organization, type, and transportation requirements.
Term
What is the MANFOR?
Definition
A database that lists the specific manpower required to perform the mission defined in the UTC’s MISCAP.
Term
UTCs are built to accommodate how many days of sustained capability?
Definition
30 days of sustained capability before having to be augmented with new supplies or personnel.
Term
What is the UTC development process?
Definition
UTC development is the process of adding a UTC to the MEFPAK, building the manpower and or equipment detail, and getting the UTC added to the TUCHA.
Term
Name the guidelines that will help determine when a UTC must be developed.
Definition
(1) New equipment types enter the inventory.
(2) Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission.
(3) Significant program changes occur in manpower or equipment.
(4) Significant program or operational changes occur.
(5) Air Force organization requires a change in the way an existing capability function.
Term
Where are new UTC requests created?
Definition
In the UTM module utilizing the UTM registration function in DCAPES.
Term
How is a UTC cancellation request submitted?
Definition
UTC cancellation requests are submitted to the HAF MEFPAK manager for approval and the HAF MANFOR manager for registration.
Term
Define the goal of posturing guidance.
Definition
To posture the maximum number of manpower authorizations into standard deployable UTCs that are made available in the UTC Availability database.
Term
What does posturing a UTC consist of?
Definition
Entering a UTC for a specific unit into UTC availability.
Term
Which agency determines which organizations will posture the required UTCs and the quantity?
Definition
The MAJCOM FAM, based upon Air Staff FAM guidance.
Term
When posturing an A-UTC record, what will be used to provide the LLD?
Definition
The authorized AFSC/skill level/grade of the UMD positions.
Term
How are A-UTCs postured?
Definition
In the UTC availability and aligned to the AEF libraries.
Term
As long as the individual’s AEF alignment is not changed, A-UTC can be exchanged with what to meet deployment requirements?
Definition
A-UTCs can be exchanged with authorizations linked to standard deployable UTCs to meet deployment requirements as long as the individual’s AEF alignment is not changed.
Term
What is a mobilization of the ARC considered?
Definition
Activation.
Term
Activation relates to what?
Definition
Recall, volunteerism, and call up.
Term
What type of transition is necessary to encompass a mobilization?
Definition
An orderly transition of active and ANG/USAFR forces from a peacetime to wartime posture.
Term
What does volume 6 of the War and Mobilization Plan cover?
Definition
Transitioning the industrial base from a normal state of peacetime preparedness to wartime production postures.
Term
What is the purpose of mobilization planning?
Definition
The means by which organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document procedures to complete tasks.
Term
Name the seven major types of activation.
Definition
(1) Retired members.
(2) Volunteerism.
(3) Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency.
(4) Presidential selected reserve call up.
(5) Partial mobilization.
(6) Full mobilization.
(7) Total mobilization.
Term
What is the push-pull mobilization process intended to do?
Definition
To supplement the normal requirements based mobilization process (that is, mobilization to meet requirements only as they become known) and will be employed only when determined to be appropriate by the HQ USAF/CAT.
Term
Describe how integration is achieved.
Definition
Integration is achieved through the effective use of planning and execution processes that provide for timely and thorough coordination within the chain of command and among the DOD, other federal agencies, and the civil sector.
Term
Why was the MPA man-days program designed?
Definition
To support the short-term needs of the active force when there is a temporary need for EAD personnel with unique skills or resources that cannot be economically met in the active force.
Term
Who must approve ANG member’s to perform a MPA man-day tour?
Definition
The State Adjutant General or authorized representative.
Term
Demobilization is also referred to as what term?
Definition
Deactivation.
Term
When deactivation is directed, the servicing MPS is responsible for what actions?
Definition
Reviewing each separation in relation to deactivation and assisting affected member in determining any selective alternative available to them.
Term
What are the two deactivation possibilities?
Definition
(1) The individual’s deactivation separation is correct. The MPS inputs projected separation on records identified as activated and
(2) Individual will remain on AD; tour is extended/updated as appropriate.
Term
After demobilizing, where are travel vouchers processed?
Definition
At the member’s home unit FSO.
Term
For what reasons may individuals request retention on AD?
Definition
For personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization or early deactivation demobilization.
Term
What is the purpose of the MPA man-day program?
Definition
To provide the AF with skilled manpower to support AF missions when regular component resources are not available or sufficient.
Term
Commands, staffs, and agencies will use the MPA man-day program to access capabilities within the ARCs to support what?
Definition
Operational missions.
Term
MPA man-day orders for ARC members supporting the AC in a voluntary status should be for durations of how many days?
Definition
181 days or less.
Term
Leave days will be accrued at the rate of 2.5 days per month for all ARC Airmen on tour for how many days?
Definition
30 days or more.
Term
What component command does the CCDR command?
Definition
A unified combatant command.
Term
The CCDR is recommended by the SECDEF and nominated by the president of the US; who confirms the nomination?
Definition
The Senate.
Term
What is the AFFOR staff?
Definition
The mechanism through which the COMAFFOR exercises its responsibilities across the range of military operations from steady state operations in the engagement phase through major operations and campaigns.
Term
What are the operational responsibilities of the AFFOR?
Definition
Planning, executing, and assessing operations in support of the CCDR.
Term
Which command continually supports filler/replacement requirements received from HQ AFPC?
Definition
Supporting Component Command.
Term
Which service component reports directly to the COCOM within the AOR?
Definition
Supported Component Command.
Term
Which agency provides filler and replacement requirements and is validated by the supported component command?
Definition
Operational PERSCO teams and MPSs.
Term

The accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel at all times regardless of location is defined as what element of accountability?

a. Tasked wing.

b. Total force.

c. Transient.

d. Strength.

Definition
b. Total force.
Term

Regardless of status, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations. Which element of accountability does this describe?

a. Tasked wing.

b. Total force.

c. Transient.

d. Strength.

Definition

d. Strength.

 

Term

Forces that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is elsewhere describes which element of accountability?

a. Replacement.

b. Total force.

c. Transient.

d. Strength.

Definition
c. Transient.
Term

The Air National Guard (ANG) is a very important component of the total force in these operations except

a. relief.

b. offensive.

c. defensive.

d. deterrence.

Definition

d. deterrence.

 

Term

The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

a. federal and overseas missions.

b. federal and state missions.

c. state and community missions.

d. overseas and community missions.

Definition
b. federal and state missions.
Term

What force is composed of significant elements assigned or attached of two or more military departments under a single Joint Force Commander (JFC)?

a. Combined.

b. Joint.

c. Operational.

d. Strength.

Definition
b. Joint.
Term

Which system does the Air Force use to account for joint forces?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

c. Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

d. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)

Definition
a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
Term

The air expeditionary force’s (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

a. warfighter support.

b. stability to Airmen.

c. predictability to Airmen.

d. fair share tempo band support.

Definition
a. warfighter support.
Term

The air expeditionary force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do all of these except

a. deploy.

b. sustain.

c. present.

d. organize.

Definition
b. sustain.
Term

What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?

a. Air Staff.

b. Joint Staff.

c. HQ Air Force (HAF).

d. Department of Defense (DOD).

Definition
b. Joint Staff.
Term

Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is capable of establishing and operating an air base?

a. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

b. Air expeditionary group (AEG).

c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

d. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

Definition
a. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).
Term

Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) normally consists of one or two operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific expeditionary combat support (ECS) squadrons?

a. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

b. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

c. Air expeditionary group (AEG).

d. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

Definition
c. Air expeditionary group (AEG).
Term

What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is considered the basic war fighting organization and the building block of the AETF structure?

a. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

b. Air expeditionary group (AEG).

c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

d. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

Definition
c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).
Term

An operations plan (OPLAN) includes all of these documents except

a. supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

b. annexes.

c. appendices.

d. Air Force instructions (AFI).

Definition

d. Air Force instructions (AFI).

 

Term

The War Mobilization Plan (WMP) consists of how many volumes?

a. 2.

b. 3.

c. 4.

d. 5.

Definition

d. 5.

 

Term

Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 4.

d. 5.

Definition
a. 1.
Term

Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume is governed by AFI 25–101, Air Force War Reserve Material (WRM) Policies and Guidance?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

Definition

d. 4.

 

Term

The details of an operations plan (OPLAN) are found in its annexes. Each annex and appendix consists of how many sections?

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 6.

d. 8.

Definition
c. 6.
Term

What is the operations plan (OPLAN) Annex for Personnel?

a. Annex B.

b. Annex E.

c. Annex K.

d. Annex Q.

Definition
b. Annex E.
Term

What is the operations plan (OPLAN) annex for Medical Services?

a. Annex B.

b. Annex E.

c. Annex H.

d. Annex Q.

Definition

d. Annex Q.

 

Term

What is the Department of Defense (DOD) directed single integrated joint command and control (C2) system for conventional operations planning and execution?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Definition
c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
Term

The objective of which system is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution processes which include associated policy and procedures, along with organizational and technology improvements?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

c. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

d. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

Definition
a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
Term

Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) supports all phases of operations planning and execution at all of these levels except

a. wing/squadron.

b. major command (MAJCOM).

c. Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

d. numbered Air Force (NAF).

Definition

d. numbered Air Force (NAF).

 

Term

During a catastrophic event, Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) standardizes a method for the Air Force to account, assess, manage, and monitor the recovery and reconstitution process for

a. military personnel only.

b. military and civilian personnel only.

c. wing, group, and squadron commanders only.

d. all personnel and their families affected.

Definition

d. all personnel and their families affected.

 

Term

Which C-rating would the commander assign if the unit possesses the required manpower and resources and is trained to undertake the full mission?

a. C–1.

b. C–2.

c. C–3.

d. C–4.

Definition
a. C–1.
Term

Air Force manpower and logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) are used in support of all of these documents except

a. operations order (OPORD).

b. operations plan (OPLAN).

c. functional plan (FUNCPLAN).

d. concept plans (CONPLAN).

Definition
c. functional plan (FUNCPLAN).
Term

What type of unit type code (UTC) is used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistics requirements for deployment, movement planning, and plan execution?

a. Standard.

b. Associate.

c. Nonstandard.

d. No-associate.

Definition
a. Standard.
Term

What type of unit type code (UTC) is considered a placeholder for all deployable positions that cannot be described or do not fit into an existing deployable UTC?

a. Standard.

b. Associate.

c. Nonstandard.

d. Nonassociate.

Definition
b. Associate.
Term

The manpower force packaging system (MANFOR) provides Air Force planners with standardized force capability outlining manpower requirements for all of the following except

a. operations planning.

b. execution documents.

c. employment planning.

d. readiness measurement.

Definition
c. employment planning.
Term

Which is not one of the guidelines used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed?

a. New equipment types enter the inventory.

b. When new equipment needs to be replaced.

c. Significant program changes occur in manpower or equipment.

d. Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission.

Definition
b. When new equipment needs to be replaced.
Term

When a unit type code (UTC) is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be cancelled?

a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

b. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).

c. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

d. Major command (MAJCOM).

Definition
b. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).
Term

All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF); therefore, all authorizations must be postured in the

a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

b. mission capability statement (MISCAP).

c. unit type code (UTC) availability.

d. unit manning document (UMD).

Definition
c. unit type code (UTC) availability.
Term

The specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture is based on the Air Staff functional area manager (FAM) prioritization and sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the

a. AEFC AEF Online website.

b. HQ AFPC readiness website.

c. AFCSM 36–699, Military Personnel Data System.

d. AFI 10–401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution

Definition
a. AEFC AEF Online website.
Term

A-UTCs are postured in the unit type code (UTC) availability and aligned to the

a. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

b. air and space expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.

c. needs of the deployment location.

d. tempo bands.

Definition
b. air and space expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.
Term

Mobilization of the air reserve component (ARC) is also called or considered

a. initiation.

b. activation.

c. recruitment.

d. employment.

Definition
b. activation.
Term

To meet immediate requirements for augmentation of the active Air Force during emergency or contingency operations describes which type of activation?

a. Volunteerism.

b. Total mobilization.

c. Partial mobilization.

d. Presidential selected reserve call up.

Definition
a. Volunteerism.
Term

Expansion of the active armed forces by mobilization of reserve component (RC) units and/or individual reservists to deal with a situation where armed forces may be required to protect life, federal property and functions or to prevent disruption of federal activities describes which type of activation?

a. Full mobilization.

b. Total mobilization.

c. Partial mobilization.

d. Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency.

Definition

d. Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency.

 

Term

Activation that requires passage by the Congress of a public law or joint resolution declaring war or a national emergency describes which type of activation?

a. Full mobilization.

b. Total mobilization.

c. Partial mobilization.

d. Presidential selected reserve call up.

Definition
a. Full mobilization.
Term

Normally, Push-Pull activation will not be recommended unless all of these factors are present except

a. partial or full mobilization has been or is expected to be granted.

b. shortages can be predicted in terms of Air Force specialty code (AFSC), quantity, and timing.

c. large deployments of Air Force forces are required accompanied by expected personnel shortages.

d. pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources do not represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages.

Definition

d. pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources do not represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages.

 

Term

Once the deactivation process occurs, the projected separation in the personnel data system (PDS) flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from 10 to

a. 17.

b. 18.

c. 19.

d. 20.

Definition

d. 20.

 

Term

On the projected effective date of deactivation, Headquarters Air Force (HAF) changes the member’s record status from 20 to

a. 81.

b. 82.

c. 83.

d. 84.

Definition
a. 81.
Term

When demobilization orders are not required, what two documents are used to verify deactivation?

a. DD Form 214 and a copy of TDY orders.

b. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.

c. Copy of activation orders and DD Form 214.

d. Copy of temporary duty (TDY) orders and paid travel voucher.

Definition
b. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.
Term

In order to be issued a DD Form 214, how many consecutive days must an activated volunteer serve?

a. 30.

b. 45.

c. 60.

d. 90.

Definition

d. 90.

 

Term

The purpose of the Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-day program is to provide the Air Force (AF) with skilled manpower to support AF missions when which component resources are not available?

a. Regular.

b. Guard.

c. Reserve.

d. Conscript.

Definition
a. Regular.
Term

Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-day orders for air reserve component (ARC) members supporting active component (AC) in a voluntary status should be for durations of how many days?

a. 60 days or less.

b. 120 days or less.

c. 150 days or less.

d. 181 days or less.

Definition

d. 181 days or less.

 

Term

Once an air reserve component (ARC) member begins an military personnel appropriation (MPA) tour, they are obligated to fulfill how much of the tour length?

a. Quarter.

b. Half.

c. Three fourths.

d. Entire.

Definition

d. Entire.

 

Term

Combatant commanders are also referred to as

a. Joint Force commander.

b. troop commander.

c. squadron commander.

d. commander in charge.

Definition
a. Joint Force commander.
Term

Who nominates appointment of a combatant commander (CCDR)?

a. President.

b. Vice president.

c. Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

d. Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS).

Definition
a. President.
Term

What staff is the mechanism through which the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) exercises responsibilities across the range of military operations from steady state operations in the engagement phase through major operations?

a. Air Force forces (AFFOR).

b. Combatant commander (CCDR).

c. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

d. Area of responsibility (AOR) commander.

Definition
a. Air Force forces (AFFOR).
Term

The Air Force forces (AFFOR) staff supports the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) in operational and what other type of responsibility?

a. Mission.

b. Taskings.

c. Service.

d. Administrative.

Definition

d. Administrative.

 

Term

Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel deploying are processed according to the reporting guidance/processing instructions?

a. Unit personnel.

b. Supporting command.

c. Supported command.

d. Unit deployment manager.

Definition
b. Supporting command.
Term

Who outlines unique reporting requirements and their submission timelines and develops and validates personnel requirements for sourcing overall approval authority for unit type code (UTC) tailoring actions?

a. Unit personnel.

b. Unit deployment manager.

c. Supported command.

d. Supporting command.

Definition
c. Supported command.
Term
Who serves as the FSS war planner for the personnel facet of all contingencies, exercises, and deployments?
Definition
IPR.
Term
Who does IPR work with to ensure the installation deployment plan covers all aspects of processing and accounting for movement of personnel?
Definition
IDO.
Term
The IPR will coordinate with the IDO on what type of issues?
Definition
All force management issues.
Term
Who helps to define the requirements and improve deployment procedures in conjunction with the installation’s responsible agencies, subordinate commanders, and functional managers?
Definition
Manpower.
Term
Who must manpower coordinate with to ensure success of deployment operations?
Definition
IPR.
Term
What is a centralized function aligned under the LRS/CC and generally located within the LRS facilities?
Definition
IDRC.
Term
Who does the IDRC consist of?
Definition
IDO, IPR, Logistics readiness flight log plans personnel, traffic management flight representative, manpower and organization flight, air transportation.
Term
Who makes up the permanent staff of the IDRC?
Definition
IDO, logistics plans, and IPR.
Term
What is a UDM?
Definition
A member assigned to a unit that manages all deployment readiness and training aspects for all deployable personnel and equipment within their unit to ensure they are deployment ready.
Term
What must UDMs have a working knowledge of?
Definition
AF planning policies and guidance.
Term
What is a DAV code?
Definition
A personnel code found in MilPDS that identifies an individual’s current medical, legal, and administrative status for deployment eligibility.
Term
What system does the IPR and MPS use to update, maintain, and correct DAV codes?
Definition
MilPDS.
Term
Before tasking individuals to deploy, what must the unit commander and UDM review?
Definition
Individual duty status and DAV codes.
Term
Who approves major disaster assistance under the Stafford Act, and what type of resources does the Act provide?
Definition
The president; available resources of states, local governments, and disaster relief organizations.
Term
What type of disaster is considered a domestic emergency?
Definition

Natural disasters created by natural causes.

 

Term
When an emergency that requires TFA occurs, what actions will the AFCAT director initiate, and how many hours will it take complete?
Definition

The AFCAT director will publish a message or email to the MAJCOM Crisis Action Team directors requiring all commanders/directors to identify personnel who reside in, are assigned to, are TDY, or on leave from their unit in the GAOI; 100 percent accountability as soon as possible but no later than 48 hours.

 

Term
Who serves as the primary AF distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted/threatened personnel?
Definition
PCC.
Term
What group is considered a subject matter expert at the base level to resolve any crisis?
Definition
Base crisis action team.
Term
Who is the first and most critical link when it comes to establishing accountability?
Definition
The unit commander.
Term
In a deployed environment, who is responsible for maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground?
Definition
PERSCO.
Term
What control center reports directly to the base crisis action team during exercises, inspections, disaster control exercises and accomplishes personnel actions required to respond to natural disasters, chemical, biological, or nuclear attacks/accidents?
Definition
Personnel control center.
Term
What does the PCC provide to the on-site commanders and staff?
Definition
Capability to determine how many personnel, by skill, are available at any given time.
Term
What does the PT establish to ensure accurate accountability?
Definition
Reception and inprocessing procedures.
Term
When the PTs set up a RCC, how do they in-process forces?
Definition
In an effective and efficient manner.
Term
Who provides current force protection conditions for deployed location?
Definition
Expeditionary Security Forces Squadron.
Term
PT members must plan to meet all aircraft regardless of what?
Definition
Where there are AF members on the manifest.
Term
Accountability will be maintained in how many separate places?
Definition
Two.
Term
What will Air Force AD, AFRC, ANG, MAJCOMs, wings, groups, and units will make every effort to meet?
Definition
All taskings.
Term
What will the units immediately update to reflect the status of the UTCs?
Definition
ART.
Term
PERSCO may be responsible for providing support to whom when participating in joint operations?
Definition
Other services.
Term
Title 5 applies to whom?
Definition
Civilian employees of the United States government.
Term
Title 32 applies to whom?
Definition
Guardsmen.
Term
Who plays a large part in monitoring AFPAAS during evacuation/emergency events?
Definition
The A&FRC.
Term
In a deployed environment, who is responsible for TFA?
Definition
PERSCO.
Term
When participating in joint operations, PERSCO may be responsible for providing support to whom?
Definition
Other services.
Term
How many hours do you typically work while you are deployed as PERSCO?
Definition
60 hours per week.
Term
One technician per how many individuals are used as a guide to determine a PT size?
Definition
275.
Term
The PDFF consist of which representatives?
Definition
Distribution, force support, chaplain, medical, legal, and finance.
Term
Who will determine base requirements for standing up a PDFF line?
Definition
IDO and MPS chief.
Term
If a PDFF line is not required, what will the deploying personnel be provided to ensure they visit the required services offered in a formal PDFF line?
Definition
Out-processing checklist.
Term
Regardless of location, what does the PT establish for everyone they are responsible for?
Definition
Strength accountability.
Term
When is a force gain required?
Definition
If there is no record in the accountability system.
Term
What does the strength accountability provide?
Definition
Valuable planning and decision making information to senior leaders.
Term
Define transient forces.
Definition
Forces who spend at least one night at a location which is not their final duty location.
Term
How often will PT update DCAPES?
Definition
Daily.
Term
The DSC report will continue to be sent daily by?
Definition
2400 hours local.
Term
Define emergency leave.
Definition
Chargeable leave granted for personal or family emergencies involving the immediate family.
Term
What is a transient movement?
Definition
An individual who arrives at a location that is not their final destination and stays in AF lodging.
Term
What form is used to account for transient personnel to update DCAPES?
Definition
AF Form 245.
Term
To whom does the rotation and redeployment concepts apply?
Definition
Onward or forward deployments as well as returns to home station.
Term
During the redeployment phase, how does the outgoing PT transfers accountability?
Definition
Transfers accountability according to the component commend A1 guidance or to the incoming PT.
Term
Why would a redeployment assistance team be established?
Definition
To facilitate redeployment.
Term
Why would individuals or entire UTCs be required to forward deploy?
Definition
To support a tasking.
Term
The losing PT uses what function within the PERSCO module of the GCCS-AF system to update the new requirement information in DCAPES?
Definition
Forward deployment function.
Term
What agency does the component command coordinate with to update new tasked PAS?
Definition
HQ AFPC/DPW.
Term
What should be stated on CED orders?
Definition
When original TDY starts, ends, and identify the fund cite to be used for each TDY.
Term
What does an ERMD provide?
Definition
A list of in place and employment requirement authorizations for the deployed location.
Term
What can an ERMD be used to identify?
Definition
Force build up, unfilled positions, and replacement actions.
Term
When personnel are returned because of mission completion, what happens to the replacements?
Definition
Replacements are not authorized and will not be provided.
Term
What is an unfilled requirements report?
Definition
A preformatted report identifying all unfilled requirements within 60 calendar days of their RDD.
Term
What can a TFSC provide?
Definition
24/7 operations and provide deployed commanders and their troops with general information or respond to specific inquiries across the entire spectrum of personnel programs.
Term
What can the TFSC cannot fully replace?
Definition
Servicing MPS.
Term
If a member changes their SGLI/FSGLI election while deployed, PTs will fax the signed form to the TFSC for update into what system?
Definition
MilPDS.
Term
Deploying members must have what to cover the duration of the deployment?
Definition
Retainability.
Term
What web-based application that is managed by HQ AFPC?
Definition
DPDRT.
Term
PTs will annotate discrepancies in DPDRT within how many hours after the arrival of an Airman?
Definition
72 hours.
Term
Define a dMPF.
Definition
A MPS that has the capability to update personnel actions while deployed.
Term
When does PT have dMPF access?
Definition
When they are deployed.
Term
What are the casualty services program objectives?
Definition
To closely track all casualty reports and notifications in accordance with procedures set by HQ AFPC.
Term
What will the CAR send, email, or fax to HQ AFPC and how often?
Definition
The original AF IMT 1075 listing MPS personnel responsible for casualty standby duties; whenever a change occurs and annually on 1 October to HQ AFPC/DPFCS.
Term
What is the DCIPS?
Definition
Is the department’s functional information system of record for the DD Form 1300 or civilian death certificate.
Term
Who must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual?
Definition
The installation commander or on scene commander.
Term

Who serves as the force support squadron (FSS) war planner for the personnel facet of all contingencies, exercises, and deployments?

a. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Airmen and Family Readiness.

d. Customer Support.

Definition
b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
Term

Who does the installation personnel readiness (IPR) work with to ensure the installation deployment plan covers all aspects of processing and accounting for movement of personnel?

a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

Definition
a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
Term

Which organization helps define the requirements and improve deployment procedures in conjunction with the installation’s responsible agencies, subordinate commanders, and functional managers?

a. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Logistics Plans.

d. Manpower.

Definition

d. Manpower.

 

Term

Which organization must Manpower coordinate with to ensure success of deployment operations?

a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

b. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

c. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

Definition
a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
Term

What is a centralized function aligned under the logistics readiness squadron/commander (LRS/CC) and generally located within the LRS facilities?

a. Logistics plans.

b. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

c. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

d. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

Definition
c. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).
Term

The permanent staff of the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) consist of all of these organizations except

a. logistics plans.

b. installation deployment officer (IDO).

c. installation personnel readiness (IPR).

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

Definition

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

 

Term

Who is a member assigned to a unit that manages all deployment readiness and training aspects for all deployable personnel and equipment within their units to ensure they are deployment ready?

a. Manpower commander.

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR) personnel.

c. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC) chief.

Definition
c. Unit deployment manager (UDM).
Term

Before tasking individuals to deploy, the unit commander must review not only duty status codes but also the

a. member’s mental state.

b. deployment availability (DAV) codes.

c. last three enlisted performance reports (EPR).

d. results of the member’s physical training (PT) test.

Definition
b. deployment availability (DAV) codes.
Term

Who uses Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) to update, maintain, and correct deployment availability (DAV) codes?

a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR) and Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

b. IPR and military personnel section (MPS).

c. A&FRC only.

d. IPR only.

Definition
b. IPR and military personnel section (MPS).
Term

During a disaster, commanders must take all prudent measures to apply guidance to account for

a. all personnel.

b. enlisted only.

c. officers only.

d. active duty only.

Definition
a. all personnel.
Term

Who is the first and most critical link when it comes to establishing accountability of forces?

a. Unit commander.

b. Unit control center.

c. Personnel control center.

d. Force support squadron commander.

Definition
a. Unit commander.
Term

Which type of accountability is maintained of all deployed locations employment requirements manning document (ERMD) requirements and personnel against those positions?

a. Unit.

b. Strength.

c. Total force.

d. Replacement.

Definition
c. Total force.
Term

Which type of accountability do deployed commanders use to account for the personnel assigned to them?

a. Replacement.

b. Total Force.

c. Strength.

d. Unit.

Definition

d. Unit.

 

Term

Installation personnel readiness (IPR) also serves as what organization that reports directly to the Base Crisis Action Team during exercises, inspections, disaster control exercises and accomplishes personnel actions required to respond to natural disasters, chemical, biological or nuclear attacks?

a. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

b. Personnel control center (PCC).

c. Reception control center.

d. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

Definition
b. Personnel control center (PCC).
Term

To whom does the personnel control center (PCC) provide the capability to determine how many personnel, by skill, are available at any time?

a. Military personnel section (MPS).

b. Supervisors only.

c. Commanders only.

d. Commanders and staff.

Definition

d. Commanders and staff.

 

Term

To ensure accurate accountability, what must the PERSCO team (PT) establish?

a. Reception and inprocessing procedures.

b. Order and control.

c. Pressure tactics.

d. In-processing only.

Definition
a. Reception and inprocessing procedures.
Term

How many copies of contingency/exercise/deployment (CED) orders must PERSCO teams (PT) must collect from each member?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 5.

Definition
b. 2.
Term

When members in-process, the PERSCO team (PT) must review all of these documents for accuracy except

a. Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).

b. AF Form 623.

c. Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI).

d. ID tags.

Definition
b. AF Form 623.
Term

Accountability will be maintained in how many separate places by the PERSCO team (PT)?

a. 0.

b. 1.

c. 2.

d. 3.

Definition
c. 2.
Term

Air Force active duty (AD), Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC), Air National Guard (ANG), major commands (MAJCOM), wings, groups, and units will make every effort to meet all

a. requests.

b. goals.

c. deployments.

d. taskings.

Definition

d. taskings.

 

Term

Once a disaster has been officially declared, all Department of Defense (DOD) components shall report personnel accountability utilizing which system?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Personnel Accountability Reporting System (PARS).

Definition

d. Personnel Accountability Reporting System (PARS).

 

Term

Who plays a large part in monitoring Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) during evacuation/emergency events in order to track the personal needs of personnel and their family members?

a. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

Definition

d. Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

 

Term

Who is responsible for total force accountability (TFA) in a deployed environment?

a. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

b. Wing commander.

c. Unit commander.

d. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

Definition
a. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).
Term

Which team is the basis for forming an Expeditionary Force Support Squadron (EFSS) and includes a commander, superintendent, and the basic PERSCO accountability team?

a. RFPF2––PERSCO Augmentation Team.

b. RFPF3––PERSCO Sustainment Team.

c. RFL01––Command and Control Team.

d. RFL02––Manpower and Personnel Force Management Team.

Definition
c. RFL01––Command and Control Team.
Term

The component command personnel planner determines the PERSCO team (PT) requirements at each location based on a variety of factors. The formula of one personnel per how many individuals is used as a guide?

a. 275.

b. 290.

c. 375.

d. 390.

Definition
a. 275.
Term

The personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) is a multifunctional entity consisting of representatives from all of these agencies except

a. legal.

b. chaplain.

c. finance.

d. communications.

Definition

d. communications.

 

Term

The installation deployment officer (IDO) in conjunction with whom determines base requirements for standing up a personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) line?

a. FSS commander.

b. MPS commander.

c. MPS chief.

d. OIC.

Definition
c. MPS chief.
Term

Whenever a personal deployment facility (PDF) line is not required, what will the deploying personnel be provided to ensure they visit the required services offered in a formal personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) line?

a. They are exempt.

b. Out-processing checklist.

c. Numbers of the out-processing agencies.

d. Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED) updates.

Definition
b. Out-processing checklist.
Term

Strength accountability provides valuable planning and decision making information to senior leaders at all levels concerning all except

a. deployed force closure.

b. force sustainment.

c. force structure.

d. force availability.

Definition
c. force structure.
Term

How often will PERSCO teams (PT) update Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)?

a. Daily.

b. Twice a week.

c. Three times a week.

d. Bi-weekly.

Definition
a. Daily.
Term

Duty status change (DSC) reports will continue to be sent by what local time?

a. 1400 hrs.

b. 1700 hrs.

c. 2000 hrs.

d. 2400 hrs.

Definition

d. 2400 hrs.

 

Term

Promotion selection results for enlisted/E5 and above are released simultaneously through which system?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

c. AF Portal.

d. Email.

Definition
c. AF Portal.
Term

What will deployed PERSCO teams (PT) have access to as “read only”?

a. PT scores.

b. Bank accounts.

c. Military records.

d. Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).

Definition

d. Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).

 

Term

What is an individual considered when he/she arrives at a location that is not their final destination and stays in AF billeting?

a. Deployer.

b. Transient.

c. Coalition force.

d. PERSCO team member.

Definition
b. Transient.
Term

Which AF form and system is used to account for transients?

a. 910 and installation personnel readiness (IPR).

b. 245 and Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

c. 245 and Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

d. 910 and Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

Definition
c. 245 and Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
Term

The rotation and redeployment concepts apply to onward or forward deployments as well as returns to

a. home station.

b. home of record.

c. the area of responsibility (AOR).

d. contingency/exercise/deployment (CED) orders.

Definition
a. home station.
Term

A redeployment assistance team (RAT) may be established to facilitate

a. redeployments.

b. travel vouchers.

c. family separation pay.

d. airline tickets.

Definition
a. redeployments.
Term

What provides the PERSCO team (PT) a list of in-place and employment requirement authorizations for the deployed location?

a. Duty status change (DSC).

b. Unit manning document (UMD).

c. Employment requirements manning document (ERMD).

d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

Definition
c. Employment requirements manning document (ERMD).
Term

Which agency can provide deployed commanders and their troops with general information or respond to specific inquiries across the entire spectrum of personnel programs?

a. Military personnel section (MPS).

b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

c. Total force service center (TFSC).

d. AF Portal.

Definition
c. Total force service center (TFSC).
Term

A member must respond within how many days of assignment selection notification of intent to separate or retire?

a. 3 duty days.

b. 3 calendar days.

c. 7 duty days.

d. 7 calendar days.

Definition

d. 7 calendar days.

 

Term

If a deployed member is separating/retiring you should include how many additional days to complete out-processing actions?

a. 30.

b. 60.

c. 90

d. 120.

Definition
a. 30.
Term

Who is the focal point for personnel readiness within AF USAF/A1XO?

a. AFPC/DPWOR.

b. AFPC/ROW.

c. HAF.

d. HAF/XP.

Definition
a. AFPC/DPWOR.
Term

Which web-based application is managed by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Deployment Processing Discrepancy Reporting Tool (DPDRT).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Employment requirements manning document (ERMD).

Definition
b. Deployment Processing Discrepancy Reporting Tool (DPDRT).
Term

Which agency is able to update personnel actions while deployed?

a. PERSCO team (PT).

b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

Definition
a. PERSCO team (PT).
Term

In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)

a. Senior master sergeant (SMSgt) and Chief master sergeant (CMSgt) only.

b. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.

c. Staff sergeant (SSgt) through CMSgt.

d. CMSgt only.

Definition
b. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.
Term

What is the department’s functional information system of record for the DD Form 1300?

a. Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS).

b. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

d. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

Definition
a. Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS).
Term

Which Hasty Report is a follow-up report to the Hasty Report (Initial)?

a. Civilian.

b. Medical Progress Report.

c. Deceased.

d. Missing.

Definition
b. Medical Progress Report.
Term

All duty status whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN) casualties require search progress reports every

a. 24 hrs.

b. 48 hrs.

c. 72 hrs.

d. 96 hrs.

Definition
a. 24 hrs.
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