How do Airmen volunteer for a SDA?

How are Airmen limited in volunteering for a SDA?

In addition to the electronic application, what may also be required?

When an Airman does not meet general minimum criteria for a SDA, what may become necessary?

List the reasons why an Airman will not be selected for a SDA.

Why was the humanitarian reassignment program established?

A request for humanitarian reassignment or deferment is considered based on what?

A humanitarian request may be approved when what criteria is met?

What should be the first means of easing family hardships or problems before applying for humanitarian reassignment?

A humanitarian request will not be disapproved based solely on what?

What must a member, desiring humanitarian deferment, formally submit?

What is the intent of the EFMP assignment policy?

When out processing, what system is mandatory Air Force wide?

Due to the nature of out-processing procedures, vOP is not applicable to?

Who are the active players of vOP?

How many relocation folders are prepared for several individuals being reassigned to the same location with the same reporting month?

What documents are kept in the relocation folder?

OPA was developed to sustain personnel support capability, what orders are completed within OPA?

OPA interfaces with what systems?

What office is the POC, for family member travel, that will provide guidance and administrative support to assigned personnel?

The decision to authorize dependent travel OCONUS at government expense is based on what criteria?

Who does the DTDP program apply to?

What does dependent travel to a designated place with an approved overseas follow-on assignment allow an Airman to do?

What does dependent travel to a designated place without a follow-on assignment allow an Airman to do?

What are designated place applications used to request?

What are the requirements regarding dependent student travel?

The join spouse assignment program allow military couples the opportunity to do what?

Married military couples are required to present what to their MPS Customer Support Element?

Explain the purpose of PRP.

What is the Air Force administrative qualification process designed to do?

What is the administrative qualification screening process designed to do?

What should all PRP positions be formally designated as?

Explain the PRP certification and recertification process.

How long can a member be in a temporary decertification status?

When can a CO or RO request reinstatement of a member’s PRP certification or requalification?

What is a stabilized tour?

What AAC is used for an enlisted member approved or enrolled in Bootstrap Education Program?

What AAC code is used for an officer or enlisted member who is on a control roster?

Who is responsible for updating assignment limitation codes in MilPDS?

What assignment limitation code is used for Post Delivery Deferment?

What is an IEB?

What form(s) must be verified to ensure member is eligible to receive an IEB?

The IEB contract is constructed under what assumption?

When initiating payment, what are the responsibilities of the career development element upon receipt of the computer notice?

What replaced the capability in PC-III to complete an AF Form 100, AF Form 899, and AF Form 973?

The MPS can begin drafting the PCS order at any time after the PCS notification, but the orders won’t be authenticated not earlier than what date?

Who is responsible to monitor and follow the progress of their checklist as it routes through base agencies?

Final departure is not authorized unless what actions have been completed?

When is a relocation folder created?

What is the relocation preparation checklist used for?

Why is it important for the CDE to continue to use the relocation preparation checklist throughout the separation process?

Who prepares the AF Form 100?

Where can you find a step-by-step flowchart that gives you information on how to fill out the AF Form 100?

What is a DD Form 214 used for?

Who submits a DD Form 214 worksheet?

Who is responsible for ensuring their military personnel records are current and up-to-date?

Who administers the officer promotion program?

Who issues written instructions to officer selection boards?

Who implements the promotion program approved by the SECAF through a fair and equitable process?

Who issues written notice to each eligible officer and to the local base CC of the eligibility criteria?

When is an AB eligible for promotion to the grade of Amn?

When are Amn eligible for promotion to Airman first class?

Output products associated with all enlisted promotion programs are produced and must be monitored jointly by whom?

What database is used to support WAPS?

This promotion database is an extract of what system?

Who controls promotions for Amn through SrA?

What role does HQ AFPC/DPSOE perform during the SNCO and WAPS process?

The WAPS program uses an integrated subsystem of MilPDS called the promotion file, what is it used for?

CCs need not use administrative demotions when what is more appropriate?

When should CCs begin administrative demotion actions?

If the CC has sufficient reason to initiate demotion, what should be used?

What type of documentation should the CC maintain on demotions?

What should be an uncommon occurrence?

What is PES code M used for?

What is PES code U used for?

What is the objective of the selective reenlistment program?

What Airmen receive SRP consideration?

When are career Airmen that complete 20 years TAFMS eligible for SRP consideration?

List and describe the four-part SRP roster.

When do supervisors and CCs use the AF IMT 418?

What is the computation of the TAFMSD?

What is the 1405 date?

The DIEUS is a service from what date(s)?

How is the DOR computed for lost time?

Who will update, monitor, and maintain accurate RE codes in MilPDS?

Which RE code is used when a member is eligible to reenlist, but elects to separate?

Which RE code is used when HQ AFPC denied reenlistment?

Which RE code is used when a member is separated for hardship or dependency reasons?

How many days of leave can you sell in a career?

Who reserves the authority to approve extensions of enlistment under certain conditions?

Who may approve or disapprove extension or extension cancellation requests?

Designated representatives assigned to the MPS or GSU personnel functions must possess what grade to approve or disapprove reenlistment extensions?

How many months are voluntary extensions limited to?

What action will occur if a NCS Airman chooses to remain on active duty?

MPS will not approve extensions request for what purpose(s)?

What reason(s) will an extension request not be cancelled?

What is the objective of the selective reenlistment program?

To whom does the selective reenlistment program apply?

What is the objective of the career job reservation?

What must all first term Airmen have, regardless of AFSC, in order to reenlist?

A four-year enlistee enters their CJR window on the first duty day of the month they complete?

Six-year enlistees enter their CJR window on the first duty day of the month they complete how many months?

What is the selective reenlistment bonus program?

What zone is between 10 and 14 years of service?

What is the maximum payout for a SRB?

Who is eligible for the career status bonus?

Members who qualify under service regulations for retention to 20 years of AD service have the option to do what?

When is the career status bonus effective?

When you accept the CSB, Airmen agree to remain on continuous active duty until attaining at least how many years of active service?

After taking the CSB, if an Airman is discharged or separated prior to attaining 20 years of active service, what action may Defense Finance and Accounting Service take?

How many months’ minimum time on station (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?

a. 0.

b. 6.

c. 12.

d. 24.

How many special duty application(s) may be submitted for consideration at a time?

a. One.

b. Three.

c. Five.

d. Eight.

To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which is not a criterion?

a. The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.

b. The member’s presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem.

c. A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability requirements.

d. The problem is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar problem.

Humanitarian assignment or deferment requests that usually warrant approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?

a. Problems associated with child care arrangement.

b. The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems.

c. The recent death of the member’s spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks’ or more gestation.

d. A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age.

The virtual out-processing (vOP) checklist must be completed

a. prior to purchasing a plane ticket.

b. prior to final out-processing.

c. prior to scheduling TMO pick-up.

d. three weeks after they receive the relocation notification.

Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?

a. AF Form 100.

b. AF Form 973.

c. DD Form 1610.

d. AF Form 899.

An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must meet these requirements except

a. proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.

b. a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate.

c. the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location.

d. a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents’ names and birthdates, overseas (OS) travel destination, and reason for request.

What opportunity does the join spouse assignment program allow for military couples?

a. Be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence.

b. Decide on which member gets to stay and which member has to leave.

c. Opportunity to stay at any base of your preference.

d. Decline orders if you don’t like the assignment.

If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then he or she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position?

a. Critical.

b. Restricted.

c. Controlled.

d. Responsible.

Which assignment availability code (AAC) is used to update a member who has received an Article 15?

a. 10.

b. 12.

c. 14.

d. 16.

Which assignment limitation code (ALC) is used to update a conscientious objector?

a. J.

b. K.

c. L.

d. M.

If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, what happens to the member’s bonus eligibility?

a. Member is not eligible.

b. Eligible after reclassification.

c. Eligible after completing six months.

d. Eligible when there is an increase in bonus amount.

What is the minimum skill level or civilian grade to be a funding authenticator?

a. 3-skill, GS–3.

b. 5-skill, GS–5.

c. 7-skill, GS–7.

d. 9-skill, GS–9.

The virtual out-processing (vOP) is designed to allow Airman to out-process their unit and task organizations without having to visit each office due to these reasons except

a. reassignment.

b. retirement.

c. separation.

d. emergency leave.

Whose responsibility is it to monitor and follow the progress of the out-processing checklist as it routes through the base agencies?

a. Member.

b. Supervisor.

c. First shirt.

d. Squadron commander.

When does the career development element (CDE) create a relocation folder due to a member’s separation?

a. Upon notification of an approved separation.

b. When a member first received notification.

c. 90 days before separation date.

d. 30 days before separation date.

Which AF form is used as a Request and Authorization for Separation?

a. 973.

b. 100.

c. 907.

d. 899.

Who prepares the AF Form 100?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).

b. Wing command personnel.

c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

d. Squadron command staff.

Which form is used to record qualifying active duty service?

a. DD Form 214.

b. DD Form 899.

c. AF Form 910.

d. AF Form 911.

Whose responsibility is to ensure that members’ records are current and up-to-date?

a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

b. Military personnel section (MPS).

c. Service member.

d. Supervisor.

At least how many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant?

a. 30.

b. 45.

c. 60.

d. 90.

Which agency is responsible for providing an automatic quarterly end-of-month output product to the career development element, within the first 10 days of the first months for below the zone?

a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

b. Major command (MAJCOM).

c. Total force service center (TFSC).

d. Personnel systems management (PSM) section.

Which integrated subsystem does the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) program use to make promotion selections?

a. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file.

d. Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore an Airman’s date of original grade?

a. 1 and 3.

b. 3 and 6.

c. 6 and 12.

d. 12 and 18.

The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the initial notification?

a. Third.

b. Fourth.

c. Fifth.

d. Sixth.

Which is not an ineligibility condition for promotion?

a. Absent without leave (AWOL).

b. Denied selection for reenlistment by the commander.

c. Declined promotion testing.

d. Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).

Which is not an ineligibility condition for promotion?

a. Absent without leave (AWOL).

b. Denied selection for reenlistment by the commander.

c. Declined promotion testing.

d. Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).

Promotion eligibility status (PES) codes are updated in what system to identify ineligibility conditions?

a. Personnel Concept III (PC-III).

b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

d. Joint Operation Planning and Execution system (JOPES).

The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the career force has professional noncommissioned officers (NCO) that are

a. highly qualified.

b. experienced.

c. proficient.

d. on-time.

Airmen may request a waiver to reenlist or extend if they are ineligible due to all of these reasons except

a. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) not commensurate with grade.

b. Ten or more days lost time.

c. Civil court conviction.

d. Insufficient grade.

When an Airman has been nonselected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, which code is updated in the personnel data system?

a. 1R.

b. 2X.

c. 3C.

d. 4E.

When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member’s total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflect?

a. Date of original entry on active duty.

b. Date entered into delayed enlistment.

c. Date completed basic military training.

d. Date agreed to sign up for active duty.

Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when a member is eligible to reenlist but elects separation?

a. 1A.

b. 1J.

c. 1K.

d. 1M.

Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) denies a member’s reenlistment?

a. 2A.

b. 2B.

c. 2F.

d. 2G.

What is the maximum number of days of leave can an Airman sell during his or her career?

a. 15.

b. 30.

c. 45.

d. 60.

First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment consideration?

a. 40 (64 for six-year enlistees).

b. 36 (60 for six-year enlistees).

c. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).

d. 30 (54 for six-year enlistees).

An Airman cannot reenlist in their current Air Force specialty code (AFSC) if a Career Job Reservation (CJR) has not been approved by how many months prior to their date of separation (DOS)?

a. 5.

b. 6.

c. 7.

d. 8.

The Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) program is a monetary incentive paid to Airmen serving in what type of skills?

a. Critical.

b. Balanced.

c. Overmanned.

d. Undermanned.

What is the maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone?

a. $30,000.

b. $60,000.

c. $75,000.

d. $90,000.

The career status bonus (CSB) election is effective the date the Airman reaches how many years of service?

a. 13.

b. 14.

c. 15.

d. 16.

What does the CSE create for each incoming member prior to arrival?

The Customer Support Element (CSE) normally disposes of the clearance file within how many days after the member’s report not later than date (RNLTD)?

a. 120.

b. 90.

c. 60.

d. 30.

The initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to

a. ensure accurate input of current data before the Airman arrives.

b. assist the military personnel section (MPS) in creating valid position numbers.

c. outline the MPS in-processing requirements.

d. help Defense Finance Accounting Service (DFAS) determine pay transactions.

Which form is used to document a member’s active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?

a. AF IMT 63.

b. AF Form 899.

c. AF IMT 330.

d. AF IMT 2096.

Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are

a. kept by the member and used for future travel overseas.

b. collected by the military personnel section (MPS).

c. collected by the unit deployment manager (UDM).

d. destroyed by the member.

Confirmation of an accession’s arrival to the permanent duty station affects which type of accountability?

a. Strength.

b. Total force.

c. Transient.

d. Unit.

The Individualized Newcomers Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) program does not provide Airman relocating to a new assignment with information on

a. housing.

b. household goods weight limitations.

c. training for new job skills.

d. concurrent and noncurrent travel for family members.

Which item is not provided by the sponsor prior to the newcomer’s arrival?

a. Travel voucher template. b

. Welcome letters.

c. City map.

d. Base guide.

Guard and reserve personnel qualify for military benefits when they are activated for a period in excess of how many days?

a. 30.

b. 60.

c. 90.

d. 120.

To avoid fraud, most customer support elements require how many forms of identification before processing an ID card?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. None.

If the member is a civilian employee, what documentation is required to get an ID card?

a. AF Form 899.

b. DD Form 363.

c. SF Form 50.

d. DD Form 214.

Who processes Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) applications?

a. Verifying official (VO).

b. Military personnel specialist.

c. Military member.

d. Supervisor.

Any questionable data with Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS) must be resolved with the

a. member.

b. supervisor.

c. verifying official (VO).

d. superintendent.

Additions, such as family member data, dependent eligibility, and residential addresses must be reported to Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS) within how many days?

a. 30.

b. 45.

c. 60.

d. 75.

Within how many days must members retrieve and surrender an ID card from dependents who are longer eligible to the nearest card issuing activity?

a. 30.

b. 45.

c. 60.

d. 90.

Family Member Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to insurable

a. spouses only.

b. children only.

c. parents of sponsor.

d. spouses and children.

Veteran’s Group Life Insurance (VGLI) policy is renewable regardless of

a. geographic location.

b. branch of service.

c. health.

d. age.

What is the maximum allowed coverage for Veteran’s Group Life Insurance (VGLI)?

a. $400,000.

b. $450,000.

c. $500,000.

d. $550,000.

When a member is covered under full time Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI), the member’s Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) coverage is

a. covered for only 120 days at a time.

b. covered only if they have a spouse.

c. full time as well.

d. not covered at all.

For foreign adoptions, all requested documentation must be submitted to Defense Finance and Accounting System (DFAS) within how many calendar days of the request?

a. 60.

b. 75.

c. 90.

d. 120.

A line-of-duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and the

a. member.

b. squadron.

c. dependents.

d. military installation.

You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at any of these locations except

a. Air Force military personnel section.

b. most veterans’ service organization.

c. Air Force Review Boards office.

d. Finance Services office.

The Air Force establishes an active duty service commitment (ADSC) for

a. E5 and E6.

b. officers only.

c. E1 through E4 only.

d. all active duty members who participate in ADSC-incurring events.

Officers usually serve indefinite active duty tours by appointment of the president. If the officer requests release or discharge from their appointment, it is approved by the

a. Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

b. Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF).

c. wing commander.

d. unit commander.

Passports are provided by the government at whose expense?

a. The state in which they pay taxes.

b. Member and government.

c. Government.

d. Member.

Who monitors the downgrade of an AFSC and withdrawal of AFSC, CEM, SDI and RI codes?

MPS.

Unit commander unless otherwise noted.

In addition to the AFSC, what else will MPS ensure the downgrade matches?

The grade and skill-level authorizations.

What will commanders and supervisors considering downgrading or withdrawal recommendations must carefully evaluate?

All the facts.

Downgrading or withdrawing will not be used as an alternative to what type of actions?

Appropriate disciplinary or quality force action.

Name the two types of conditions that would result in an AFSC disqualification?

Conditions which the individual had no control (i.e., medical disqualification) or conditions where the individual did have control (i.e., substandard duty performance).

Who will notify the member when an AFSC or withdrawal action has been taken?

Unit commander.

What form is used to downgrade or withdraw an AFSC?

AF Form 2096.

What is the purpose of the Air Force classification system?

To identify job requirements and the personnel qualified to fill those requirements.

Where are conversion instructions published?

In the CS and CIG and provide specific actions required by the MPS, HQ AFPC, and Manpower.

What does is mean when a direct AFSC conversion takes place?

The old AFSC is replaced by the new AFSC using the conversion routine in MilPDS.

What is the purpose of the Air Force classification system policy?

To retain Airmen who demonstrate the ability to successfully complete training and whose past record clearly justifies further investment.

What is the MPS responsible for when it comes to chiefs and chief selects?

Ensure they are not performing out of their CAFSC for more than 270 days in a 12-month period.

How as MPS notified regarding final status for duty out of CAFSC?

Via CMS.

What is an SEI?

A three character code that identifies special experiences and training not otherwise identified in the personnel data system.

What do SEIs provide?

A quick way to identify those individuals already experienced to meet assignment requirements.

For enlisted SEIs, what is MPS’s responsibility?

(1) Update or request enlisted SEI actions.

(2) Monitor incoming and locally initiated assignment actions and consider special experience and training in determining an individual's duty position.

(3) Award SEIs during in-processing, classification interviews, or when determined appropriate by an individual's supervisor or commander.

What is an SDI?

A code and title used to identify positions and persons performing duties not clearly within a specific career field.

How many digit codes can an SDI be?

Four or five.

What is an RI?

A code and title used to identify positions or persons not identified elsewhere in the classification structure.

What do RIs normally describe?

Conditions rather than duties and do not have a full specialty description.

What is special duty assignment pay?

A monetary incentive for an enlisted member who is entitled to basic pay and are performing duties.

What is the minimum paygrade to receive SDAP?

E-3.

What is an UPMR?

A cross between an alpha roster and the UMD.

What does the UPMR highlight?

Any mismatches between what is authorized for each position and what the position incumbent has for assigned data.

What section in the MPS manages the UPMR?

Force management.

What section in the MPS does force management work with to ensure the UPMR is true and correct?

Which form is used when updating a PCA?

AF IMT 2096.

What are the two methods that apply to a PCA without a PCS?

(1) Airmen permanently reassigned from one organization to another organization located on the same permanent duty station.

(2) Airmen permanently reassigned from one permanent duty station to another (the duty location [codes] is different) is normally a PCS, except when both locations are within the corporate limits of the same city or town.

Which method requires PCS orders?

PDS changes.

Why does the SADSP exist?

To enhance total force accountability and improve crisis responsiveness.

Who relies on the information derived from strength accounting duty status reporting to fulfill mission needs?

Commanders and agencies throughout the Air Force and the DOD.

Who are eligible for consideration for a US military decoration?

All military personnel.

No individual is automatically entitled to an award upon completion of what?

How many decorations should be awarded for the same act, achievement, or period of service?

One.

If any person whose entire service period covered by the decoration is considered less than honorable, what type of recommendation should be given?

A decoration should not be recommended or presented.

What is a control roster?

A rehabilitative tool for commanders.

How long is the observation period for a control roster?

6 months.

HQ ARPC may establish longer observation periods if deemed appropriate for Reserve personnel not to exceed how many months.

12 months.

What is an Article 15 used for?

As a form of military justice to administratively discipline troops.

What type of punishment is an Article 15?

Non-judicial punishment.

Who must commanders consult before imposing punishment?

Staff Judge Advocate.

Who has the authority to issue administrative counseling, admonitions, and reprimands?

Commanders, supervisors, and other persons in authority.

What are the intentions of counseling, admonitions and reprimands?

Intended to improve, correct, and instruct subordinates who depart from standards of performance, conduct, bearing and integrity, on or off duty, and whose actions degrade the individual and unit’s mission.

What is an UIF?

Is an official record of unfavorable information about an individual.

What does an UIF document?

Administrative, judicial, or non-judicial censures concerning the member’s performance, responsibility, and behavior.

What does an UIF consist of?

Mandatory documents, optional documents (at the commanders discretion), and AF IMT 1058 and AF IMT 1137.

Who completes MilPDS updates?

Base UIF monitor.

What does Code 1 update?

UIF only.

What does Code 2 update?

Control Roster and UIF.

What is Code 3 update?

Article 15 (NJP) or court-martial.

What are evaluation ratings used for?

Selections for promotions, job and school recommendations, career job reservations, reenlistments, retraining and assignments.

When completing an evaluation, what must all evaluators prevent?

Inflation.

Who requires an evaluation?

All officers in the grade of colonel and below, all enlisted in the grade of AB through CMSgt who have at least 20 months TAFMS, and all USAFR enlisted personnel in the grade of SrA through CMSgt who have at least 20 months in service from Date Initially Entered Military Service.

What is a private and formal method of communication a rater uses to tell a rate what is expected regarding duty performance and how well the rate is meeting those expectations?

Performance feedback.

Active duty Airmen seeking a correction to or a removal of an evaluation report may initiate an appeal to the ERAB through what type of system?

vMPF.

What type of documentation should a member provide to appeal a decision from the ERAB?

Convincing documentation.

What type of documentation should a member not submit when appealing a decision from the ERAB?

Letters of appreciation, character reference statements, nonspecific inspection reports, and so forth.

What is the most effective evidence?

Statements from the evaluators who signed the report.

What is an overseas duty selection date used for?

Used to place Airmen in the proper sequence for selection for long OS tours and for short OS tours for Airmen not credited with an OS tour.

What is the minimum number of months can long tours can be accompanied or unaccompanied?

18 months.

What is a short tour return date?

A date used to place Airmen in the proper sequence for selection for short OS tours.

Short tours are usually unaccompanied with a tour of how many months less?

18 months.

How is a DEROS established?

Based upon the airman’s tour election.

How is a DEROS computed?

By adding the OS tour length to the date departed CONUS.

If errors are discovered by Airmen, then MPS must thoroughly research and verify the errors prior to submitting a correction of records to whom?

HQ AFPC.

The MPs must use a combination of what documents to conduct a records audit to verify OS tours or completed TDYs?

Travel voucher, PCS orders, decoration citations, EPR/OPR, IDAs, or a record review RIP.

Which is not a reason for downgrade/withdrawal of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC), special duty identifier (SDI), reporting identifier (RI), or chief enlisted manager (CEM) code?

a. Inability to perform at skill/qualification level.

b. Lack of recent job performance.

c. Reduction/demotion in grade.

d. Commander’s preference.

At which grade will commanders initiate withdrawal action when a member is unable to perform tasks associated with his or her skill/qualification level?

a. Only officers.

b. Only enlisted.

c. Officers or enlisted.

d. E1 – E6 only.

The purpose of the Air Force classification system is to identify job requirements and the personnel who are

a. available.

b. unqualified.

c. qualified.

d. available and qualified.

What is the first character of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that is associated with medical or dental?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

What is the three-character code that identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified in the personnel data system?

a. Special experience identifier (SEI).

b. Rules of engagement (ROE).

c. Unit line number (ULN).

d. Course of action (COA).

Special experience identifiers (SEI) provide a quick way to identify those individuals who

a. are looking for a new assignment that does not require extensive technical knowledge in any field.

b. are wanting to gain specialized experience in a new field and need extensive training.

c. already have the experience to meet assignment requirements.

d. do not have experience, but can fill the critical manning requirement with training.

The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for monitoring and updating the following data except?

a. Report identifiers (RI).

b. Special experience identifiers (SEI).

c. Special duty identifiers (SDI).

d. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) scores.

Reporting identifiers normally describe conditions rather than

a. duties.

b. specialty.

c. qualification.

d. special duty assignment.

To ensure a member is qualified for a special duty assignment pay (SDAP), the unit commander

a. delegates his or her authority to identify members who are qualified and eligible.

b. counsels unit members on changes in SDAP ratings and initiates and certifies the changes.

c. produces the monthly SDAP roster and sends it to the wing commander for certification.

d. announces the date when SDAP decreases or ends.

On the unit personnel manning roster (UPMR), how many incumbents are authorized on each position?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

Within the military personnel section (MPS), who is responsible for managing the unit personnel management roster (UPMR)?

a. Customer service.

b. Customer support element.

c. Career development element.

d. Force management operations element.

Which form is used to track all permanent change of assignment (PCA) moves?

a. AF IMT 2096.

b. DD Form 2096.

c. AETCI 2096.

d. SF Form 2096.

When an inter-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) occurs, what action does the military personnel section (MPS) complete?

a. Forwards the AF IMT 2096 to the losing unit commander.

b. Initiates the PCA actions with information provided by the gaining unit.

c. Updates the duty information in Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

d. Notifies the finance office that funds are needed.

The Air Force Strength Accounting Duty Status Program (SADSP) duty status information is used to assist commanders with all of these except

a. allow the selection for assignment of deployed personnel who are non-volunteers for assignment.

b. document the utilization of Guard and Reserve personnel, which affects man-day funding.

c. identify personnel who are projected to deploy or already deployed to support combatant commander requirements.

d. identify the availability of personnel to meet combatant commander requirements.

Award of a specific decoration should be based on an individual’s

a. grade.

b. retirement.

c. reassignment.

d. level of responsibility and manner of performance.

A control roster (CR) provides an observation period for how many months?

a. 3.

b. 6.

c. 9.

d. 12.

Which form is used to initiate a control roster (CR) action?

a. SF 1058.

b. DD Form 1058.

c. AETCI 1058.

d. AF IMT 1058.

Who may impose non-judicial punishment (NJP) on members of their command for minor offenses?

a. First sergeant.

b. Any commissioned officer.

c. Commanders who are commissioned officers.

d. Any military member with a higher rank than the member who committed the minor offense.

When issuing letter of admonition (LOA) actions, commanders should use the "preponderance of the evidence" standard, which means

a. the evidence of the allegation is beyond a reasonable doubt.

b. one-third of credible evidence points to the offense committed.

c. less than 50 percent of the credible evidence points to the offense committed.

d. the greater weight of credible evidence points to the offense committed.

When establishing an unfavorable information file (UIF), which side(s) of the folder do you mark with "For Official Use Only"?

a. Front and back.

b. Inside the folder.

c. Back only.

d. Front only.

Who is responsible for the accuracy and validity of unfavorable information file (UIF) data?

a. Commander.

b. Supervisor.

c. Military personnel section (MPS).

d. Both supervisor and commander.

Which unfavorable information file (UIF) code is used to update Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) when a member has a UIF only?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

One purpose of the officer and enlisted evaluation systems is to provide a

a. program that consolidates all enlisted performance reports (EPR) and officer performance reports (OPR) so the commander can see, at a glance, who is best suited for promotion.

b. reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance.

c. way for Airmen to submit an appeal to remove a letter of admonition (LOA) from their file.

d. means to punish individuals by deflating ratings.

Which AF form is used to document performance feedback for AB–TSgt?

a. 931.

b. 932.

c. 724A.

d. 724B.

Which AF form is used to document performance feedback for 2LT - CAPT?

a. 931.

b. 932.

c. 724A.

d. 724B.

What system is used for active duty Airmen seeking correction to, or removal of, an evaluation report?

a. Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS).

b. Case Management System (CMS).

c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).

What date is used to place Airmen in the proper sequence for selection for long overseas tours?

a. Short tour return date.

b. Long tour return date.

c. Overseas duty selection date.

d. Total active federal military service date.

Long tours can be accompanied or unaccompanied and are for how many months or more?

a. 6.

b. 12.

c. 18.

d. 24.

Credit is given for overseas service performed in which branch of service?

a. Army and Air Force only.

b. Navy and Marines only.

c. Air Force only.

d. All branches.

If errors are discovered on any of the documentation for an overseas tour, then the military personnel section (MPS) must thoroughly research and verify the errors prior to submitting a correction of records to

a. finance.

b. the legal office.

c. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

d. Headquarters, Air Force (HAF).

Which components support MilPDS?

All Air Force active duty, retired, Guard, and Reserve components.

When it comes to MilPDS, what does the PSM ensure?

Implementation, maintenance, and operation.

Why were the MAP and MPS management tools designed?

To help identify potential errors and assist with database integrity issues.

What is the intent of the MAP and MPS products?

Is to serve as tools to help identify potential database errors, and it should not be the only database management accuracy verification.

Who are suggested changes and or improvements coordinated through?

PSM, who will forward the requested changes to their appropriate MAJCOM for review.

What information is listed on MAP 3?

All enlisted personnel who have raters in the grade of SrA that have not attended ALS.

What should MAP 4 be used for?

To ensure the civilian supervisor meets the minimum grade requirement to supervise military personnel.

What is date tracking?

One way to help the personnelist ensure the integrity of MilPDS.

When a member enters active duty by means other than MEPS, what happens in the MilPDS system?

The member is not part of the MilPDS system or finance files. Specific, tedious updates must be made to gain the member in our system.

Why are DJMS actions generated?

When the information generated from an update in the PDS is compared to the information in the MMPA record and an error is detected.

Once the paperwork is received, what is conducted by the career development element?

A quality check.

Every transaction that a personnelist completes has what effect on a service member?

Can positively or negatively affect a service member’s benefits and entitlements.

Why is it imperative to observe extreme caution when processing updates?

To ensure all manual actions are updated quickly and accurately to help prevent any unnecessary recoupment and delays in pay for the member.

What happens when you ignore a reject code?

The reject code will continue to appear and the member’s personnel record and MMPA record will continue to be incorrect.