1. A message sent to a Cisco device at the start of in-band administration.
2. A Hyper Text Transfer Protocol General Echo Time request.
3. A message sent from a web client to a web server asking for a list of all available files.
4. A message sent from a web client to a web server requesting that a file be sent to the client.

1. The Data Link layer.
2. The Network Layer.
3. The Transport Layer.
4. The Session Layer.

1. The Network layer.
2. The Data Link layer.
3. The Physical layer.
4. The Transport layer.

1. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical.
2. Application, Presentation, Session, TCP/IP, Data Link, Network, Physical.
3.  Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network Access, Data Link, Physical.
4. Application, Presentation, Internet, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical.

1. Transport Layer.
2. Internet Layer.
3. Network Access Layer.
4. Network Layer.

1. Yes, always.
2. Yes, but only on non-overlapping channels.
3. No
4. Yes, but only if an 802.11b device is on the same network.

1. 802.11g mode
2. Wi-fi protected mode with wide area network.
3. Infrastructure
4. Ad-hoc

1. A port number, an IP header, and a payload.
2. An IP address, a transport layer protocol, and a port number.
3. An IP address and a port number.
4. An IP address, a MAC address, a transport layer protocol, and a port number.

1. The Application layer.
2. The Presentation layer.
3. The Security layer.
4. The Session layer.

1. An attack that prevents users from changing the settings on a PC.
2. A attack whose main purpose is to break things or prevent them from working.
3. An attack that makes a server return a No Access message to a client.
4. An attempt to compromise a PC using DoS commands.

1. Networks made of fibre-optic or copper cables that have a maximum theoretical data transfer rate of 1Gbps.
2. Networks made from equipment that is approved by the Wi-Fi Alliance.
3. Networks made from copper cable that have a maximum theoretical data transfer rate of 1Gbps.
4. Networks that comply with the IEEE 802.3u standard.

1. So that no two applications attempt to use the same port number.
2. So that application developers can set the port number up so that it is the same for all users of the application.
3. To make the server administrator's job easier.
4. So that new clients can gain access to the appropriate service without first finding out which port is allocated to the required service .

1. none
2. 7
3. 3
4. 11

1. All the Cisco-qualified network technicians in the world.
2. All the web servers in the world, plus all the web hosts that have web browsers.
3. All the devices in the world that have an IP address.
4. All the devices in the world that enable packets to be sent from one host to another (i.e., cables, routers, switches, etc).

1. It uses copper cable and runs at 10Mbps.
2. It uses copper cable and runs at 100Mbps.
3. It uses a token-ring architecture.
4. It uses copper cable and devices must always connect directly to a hub or switch.

1. It uses copper cable and runs at 10Mbps.

1. They attract and re-route packets which would otherwise be routed via hubs.
2. It is a half-duplex system so packets cannot be sent and received at the same time.
3. It requires the use of legacy equipment that cannot operate at the speed of modern media.
4. It frequently arranges for all devices to remain silent (i.e. not send or receive packets) while a random timer expires.

It is a half-duplex system so packets cannot be sent and received at the same time.

It frequently arranges for all devices to remain silent (i.e. not send or receive packets) while a random timer expires.

1. The MAC sublayer and the LLC sublayer.
2. The CSU sublayer and the DSU sublayer.
3. The physical sublayer and the binary sublayer.
4. Analog and digital sublayers.

Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.)

1. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network.
2. Scalability indicates how many nodes are currently on the network.
3. The logical topology is the arrangement of cables, network devices, and end systems.
4. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required.
5. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.

Correct Answer - 

1. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network, 
2. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required, 
3. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.

Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.) 

1. defines the network functions that occur at each layer
2. facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
3. ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
4. changes in one layer do not impact other layers

Correct Answer -

1. defines the network functions that occur at each layer,
2. facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network

Which statement about LAN switches is true?

1. LAN switches include more broadcast domains than bridges.
2. LAN switches supply each Ethernet station with deterministic shared bandwidth.
3. LAN switches are the predecessor of multiport bridges.
4. LAN switches reduce the scope of the collision domain.
   

Correct Answer -

 LAN switches reduce the scope of the collision domain.

1. 25
2. 110
3. 161
4. 143

1. It specifies a maximum cable length of 1000 metres.
2. It is a way of converting existing UTP cable so that speeds of up to 1000Mbps can be achieved.
3. It is the luxury version of 1000BASE.
4. It specifies the use of fibre-optic cable.

When you connect two or more networks via a router and configure a logical networking addressing scheme you are creating ______.

1. an internet
2. a repeater
3. a hub
4. an internetwork

_____ controller manages the wireless frames and the access points and provides the configuration and codes for access points

1. Firewall
2. Switch
3. WLAN
4. Router

Which of the following OSI layers segments and reassembles data into a single data stream?

1. Network Layer
2. Data Link Layer
3. Transport Layer
4. Session Layer

Segmenting broadcast domains is a benefit offered by _____.

1. switches
2. routers
3. transporters
4. ethernet

_____ uses the Media Access Control that's burned into each and every Ethernet network interface card.

1. Full duplex
2. Ethernet frame
3. Ethernet addressing
4. Half duplex

Which of the following is not a case where you should use a crossover Ethernet cable?

1. switch to router connection
2. switch to hub connection
3. switch to switch connection
4. router to router connection

TCPIP requires a set of Physical layer specifications thus it can't run on any future physical network.

1. True
2. False

Which of the following important application allows us to resolve human names to IP addresses?

1. DHCP
2. APIPA
3. DNS
4. BOOTP

Which of the following is true about the Host to Host UDP layer?

1. great  for emailing and file sharing
2. connection oriented
3. connectionless
4. provides sequencing

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Internet Protocol?

1. all of these
2. it has no data recovery features
3. it operates at the internet layer of the TCP/IP stack
4. it is a connectionless protocol

Creating subnetworks is the act of taking bits from the host portion of the address and reserving them to define the subnet address instead.

1. False
2. True

True

A subnet _____ allows the device that's receiving the IP packet to distinguish the network ID portion of the IP address from the host ID portion of the IP address

1. class
2. bit
3. mask
4. DNS

Using _____. you can apply an IP Mask to a router interface using just the right amount of host bits, this prevents wasting IP addresses that are not used

1. VLSM
2. WAN
3. SSH
4. CLI

VLSM can use different masks on different segments in the network by assigning different length masks on the router interface.

1. false
2. true

Which of the following commands on the command line interfaces shows the active configuration file, how large it is, and the OS version?

1. Show config
2. copy run start
3. startup-config
4. show running-config

All interfaces on a router are enabled by default, all interfaces on a switch are shut down by default.

1. true
2. false

What command do you type on the command line interface to get to what's called global config?

1. config-all
2. configure terminal
3. config IO
4. config-if

The _____ command encrypts all current and future passwords on your router switch, host names, banners, passwords and interface descriptions.

1. service password-encryption
2. enable password-encryption
3. password-encryption
4. encrypt password

What command do you run to know which iOS version of the router you are on?

1. router -V
2. config router
3. show running-config
4. show router-version

Which of the following router's software that is stored in the microcode of the ROM is used for testing and troubleshooting when the iOS fails to load?

1. EEPROM
2. Bootstrap
3. power-on self-test
4. ROM Monitor

Which of the following commands will back up your configurations of your router to an ftp server?

1. cp_lan-config
2. back-up running-config tftp
3. copy running-config tftp
4. back-up config ttftp

Which of the following steps do you take to configure a simple DHCP server in a router?

1. all of these
2. exclude the addresses
3. create a pool for the LAN
4. add the network, default gateway, and the DNS server

Local seven is the syslog trap level by default.

1. true
2. false

If a network isn't directly connected to the router, the router can use a _____ routing to communicate with neighboring routers about all the networks they know about.

1. dynamic
2. OSPF
3. packet
4. static

When Host A sends a packet to Host B, the destination hardware address used is the default gateway's Ethernet interface.

1. true
2. false

Classful routing protocols include the subnet mask with the route advertisements and allow us to do things like VLSM.

1. true
2. false

Which of the following is not true about Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?

1. It relies on hop count as a metric to determine the best path to a remote network
2. It is a true distance vector routing protocol
3. It has a maximum allowable hop count of 16 by default
4. It doesn't even look at the bandwidth

_____ switching increases bandwidth for each user because each connection or interface into the switch is its own, self contained collision domain.

1. RIP
2. Layer 2
3. Layer 1
4. Catalyst

Which of the following is not true about port security?

1. It helps set static MAC addresses
2. It is not needed for unused ports since they're disabled by default
3. It helps limit the number of MAC addresses that are assigned to a port
4. It helps shut down unused ports because they're enabled by default

Which of the following port security violation modes drops the frames and protects the port without any administrative overhead?

1. security violation restrict mode
2. security violation protect mode
3. security violation shutdown mode
4. security violation maximum mode

A logical grouping of network users and resources connected to administratively defined ports on a switch is called a _____.

1. VLAN
2. NAT
3. IVR
4. WAN

Configuring a logical interface on the backplane of the Layer 3 switch is called _____ routing.

1. Layer 3
2. NAT
3. Inter-VLAN
4. dynamic

Simply put, an access list is essentially a list of conditions that categorize packets to be either permitted or denied.

1. true
2. false

A standard access list is much more efficient than an Extended access list because it blocks just what you want and not the whole router and packets coming in.

1. true
2. false

Which of the following commands will put an access list on a VTY line.

1. access extended-list Save_My_VTY
2. permit standard Save_My_VTY
3. ip access-list standard Save_My_VTY
4. ip permit-list standard Save_My_VTY

Which of the following is not true about NAT?

1. it is a useful tool for network migrations
2. it is originally intended to slow the depletion of available IP address space
3. it keeps track of end to end IP traceability
4. it remedies address overlap events

Which of the following NATs is a one to one address mapping?

1. Dynamic NAT
2. PAT
3. Static NAT
4. IPv6

____ NAT really means we have a pool of addresses that we'll use to provide real IP addresses to a group of users on the inside.

1. PAT
2. static
3. IPv4
4. dyanmic

What is true about the following command? ip nat inside source list 1 interface Gi0/1 overload.

1. it uses the source port number of the host
2. all of these
3. it will not just create a dynamic NAT
4. it lets everyone use the same IP address to get out

IPv6 was originally created as the solution to IPv4's address exhaustion crisis.

1. true
2. false

In the following example of IPv6 Address, which of the following fields represent the Host? 2001:0DB8:010F:0001:0000:0000:0000:0ACD

1. 2001:0DB8:010F:0001
2. 0DB8
3. 0000:0000:0000:0ACD
4. 0ACD

Stateless autoconfiguration uses a DHCv6 server to assign IPv6 addresses and more parameters.

1. true
2. false

Which of the following is not true about IPv6 headers?

1. they have a fixed length
2. they use an extension header
3. they vary in length
4. they eliminate the checksum field that IPv4 used

ICMPv6 prevents IPv6 from doing any fragmentation through an ICMPv6 process called MTU Discovery.

1. true
2. false

1. 54Mbps
2. 2.4GHz
3. 5GHz
4. 25GHz

1. VPNs are no longer required as encryption algorithms are now so complex that they provide adequate security over a conventional network.
2. VPN is the most secure encryption method available because it uses self-signed certificates known only to the enterprise which is running the VPN.
3. VPNs authenticate endpoints and encrypt packets.
4. VPNs can only be set up between hosts running Linux or Unix operating systems.

1. The Network Layer.
2. The IPX layer.
3. The Transport Layer.
4. All the layers of the OSI model.

1. 80
2. 8
3. 160
4. 25

1. Network Access Layer.
2. The MAC and LLC layers.
3. Transport Layer.
4. IPX Layer

1. Pin 1 at one end connects to pin 3 at the other.
   Pin 2 at one end connects to pin 6 at the other.
2. Pin 1 at one end connects to pin 2 at the other.
   Pin 2 at one end connects to pin 1 at the other.
3. Pin 1 at one end connects to pin 1 at the other.
   Pin 2 at one end connects to pin 2 at the other.
4. Pin 1 at one end connects to pin 4 at the other.
   Pin 2 at one end connects to pin 5 at the other.
5. The word "crossover" is always written on the cable.

1. An area where all devices which do note require user authentication must be located.
2. An area where email servers are located.
3. An area where devices which need to be accessed from outside the network with minimal or no security can be located.
4. An area where devices which do not require a very high level of security must be located.

1. Layer 1 interaction.
2. OSI interaction.
3. Adjacent layer interaction.
4. Client/server interaction.

1. The Physical layer.
2. The Network layer.
3. The Transport layer.
4. The Data Link layer.

1. Jitter is a flickering effect sometimes seen on streaming video.
2. Jitter is a predefined settings package that provides optimal QoS for IP telephony use.
3. Jitter refers to the variation in delay experienced by packets.
4. Jitter is a clicking noise that can be heard on some VoIP calls. It is caused by loss of UDP packets.

1. A Network Interpreter Card.
2. A Network Interface Card.
3. A Network Interpolation Chiller.
4. A Network Interface Container.

1. The Internet layer.
2. The Network layer.
3. The Transport Layer.
4. The Session layer.

1. An IPS passes information about suspect packets to another device which can be programmed by an administrator to take specific actions.
2. An IPS identifies suspect packets and takes direct action against them.
3. IPS devices are considered to be slower at reacting to threats than IDS devices.
4. An IDS is not usually located in the direct path of packets and works by examining copies of packets.

An IPS identifies suspect packets and takes direct action against them.

An IDS is not usually located in the direct path of packets and works by examining copies of packets

1. Using DNS.
2. Using NTS.
3. Using NDP.
4. Using DDT.

1. Detect viruses before they are installed and become active.
2. Ensure that packets not intended for a network are sent to the default gateway.
3. Ensure that all network users have a valid username and password.
4. Prevent rouge employees from stealing data.

Will forward the frame out fa0/3 and add 0000.00bb.bbbb to the MAC address table.

When a switch receives a frame it will look up the destination mac address on its mac address table, then will forward the frame out the single port that received that mac address before.

You need to configure a default gateway for management access to a switch. Select the command you would type in the switch CLI to learn the ip address of an attached router.

 Show neighbor

 Show cdp neighbor detail

 Show peripherals

 Show ip neighbor

 show iptables

The network with ip address 192.168.100.0/27 is to be used on a router. If ip subnet-zero is configured, which statement describe the resulting number of available subnets and hosts?

 7 usable subnets, each with 32 host addresses

 8 usable subnets, each with 30 host addresses

 8 usable subnets, each with 27 host addresses

 7 usable subnets, each with 24 host addresses

 9 usable subnets, each with 24 host addresses

8 usable subnets, each with 30 host addresses

Because subnet zero is configured and we have a class C address (192.168.100.0) then the network portion will have 3 bits so 8 subnets will be available. The rest of the bits, 5, represent the available hosts, so 2^5=32, but only 30 are available, 0 and 31 are network and broadcast respectively.

"Which of the following are true regarding passwords on a Cisco router?

a) All passwords can be encrypted

b) All passwords can be entered using the set-up dialogue

c) A password can be set before a user can enter the privileged mode

d) A password can be set for individual lines

e) TACACS or Radius password authentication can be used."

1. a, b, and c
2. a,c,d, and e
3. a only
4. none of the above
5. b,c,d, and e

Which of the following steps is not required to reset the router to the default state?

1. erase startup -config in NVRAM
2. erase vlan database file stored in flash
3. copy running -config to startup -config
4. issue a reload command

_____ attacks are hard to detect, and can include things that you wouldn't think are dangerous, such as eavesdropping, traffic analysis, or tapping, whereby someone may be monitoring transmissions.

1. Spoofed
2. Passive
3. Active
4. Smurf

A _____ attack where there are efforts to interrupt or suspend services for any length of time.

1. Smurf
2. Spoof
3. Cache Poisoning
4. Denial of Service

A _____ is a security hole in a piece of software, hardware, or operating system that provides a potential angle to attack a system.

1. Spoof
2. Risk
3. Vulnerability
4. Threat

A standard network protocol that is used to access directories and files, and transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, reliably and efficiently.

1. ARP
2. FTP
3. ICMP
4. DNS

A switch table is used to associate _____.

1. Subnet Masks
2. Virtual LAN interface
3. IP Addresses
4. MAC address

Built within Wireshark is the Expert System. The color indicates the severity of errors, if any. _____ means Warning, such as a connection problem.

1. Yellow
2. Cyan
3. Red
4. Gray

Full duplex mode on the switch allows for incoming and outgoing traffic at the same time.

1. true
2. false

The command "enable password" automatically encrypts the chosen password.

1. true
2. false

You are working with an Internet Service Provider (ISP) as network manager. A corporate client approaches you to lease a public IP subnet that can accommodate 250 users. You have assigned him the 192.25.27.0 subnet.

What subnet mask should be assigned to this IP address so that it can accommodate the number of users required by the corporate client?

255.255.255.128

255.255.255.252

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.224

Which layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model defines an Internet Protocol (IP) address that helps in selecting the route to the destination?

Network

Transport

Application

Data Link

You are the network administrator for your company. The network at the company's office is due to be upgraded, and you have been assigned the responsibility of identifying the requirements for designing the network. You need to provide network connectivity to 200 client computers that will reside in the same sub network, and each client computer must be allocated dedicated bandwidth.

Which device should you use to accomplish the task?

switch

firewall

hub

router

Which type of Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is used to work as a trunk between two switches?

RJ-11 straight-through

RJ-45 crossover

RJ-45 straight-through

RJ-41 crossover

You have been assigned a network ID of 172.16.0.0/26. If you utilize the first network resulting from this ID, what would be the last legitimate host address in this subnet?

172.16.0.65

172.16.0.64

172.16.0.62

172.16.0.63

With the following equipment list, which of the following network scenarios could be supported?

Two IP subnets of 255.255.255.0 

Seven 48-port switches 

Two router interfaces

300 workstations in a single broadcast domain, each workstation in its own collision domain

300 workstations, with 150 workstations in two broadcast domains and each workstation in its own collision domain

600 workstations, with 300 workstations in two broadcast domains and each workstation in its own collision domain

300 workstations, with 150 workstations in two broadcast domains and all workstations in the same collision domain

Which layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model enables coding and conversion functions for application layer data?

Physical layer

Application layer

Session layer

Presentation layer

Which of these applications uses the IMAP protocol to transfer information between a server and a host?

Telnet

E-mail

Web browser

FTP

Which of the following should be a characteristic of the core layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model?

emphasis on high speed

PoE

redundant components

QoS

Which of the following topologies is used in Wide Area Networks (WANs)?

FDDI

SONET

Token Ring

CDDI