Term
| Pectoral abscesses in horses ("Pigeon Fever") are a result of infection with which organism? |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis |
|
|
Term
| What are two common differential diagnoses for multiple homogenous gray-white nodules in the kidney of a cat? |
|
Definition
| Lymphosarcoma, Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP) |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 cutaneous manifestations of hepatic failure |
|
Definition
| icterus, necrolytic dermatitis, photosensitization, ecchymoses/bruising, poor wound healing |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of oral neoplasm in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A mare presents with a history of stallion-like behavior and a large ovarian mass, which on cut surface is cystic. What is the likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The the two most common pathogenic bacteria associated with canine keratomalacia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renal conjugation of bilirubin with urinary excretion is seen in which domestic species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intradermal skin testing for mycobacterium bovis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| since striated muscle cells do not replicate, physiologic enlargement is due to ___ of myocytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do dogs typically become infected by Neorickettsia helminothoeca? |
|
Definition
| Ingestion of raw fish parasitized by Nanophyteus salmincola (trematode) carrying nanophyteus helminthoeca |
|
|
Term
| Necrosis in the CNS is typically of which pathological type? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which gram-negative RBC parasite causes anemia in cats? |
|
Definition
| Mycoplasma haemofelis (Hemobartonella felis) |
|
|
Term
| Which organism is the most common cause of fungal nasal infections in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Leishmania spp. are intracellular parasites of which cell type, primarily? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upon ligation of a PDA, the aortic and carotid baroreceptors sense a rise in blood pressure, triggering the Branham reflex. What is the response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the etiologic agent associated with equine sarcoids? |
|
Definition
| Bovine papillomavirus 1 & 2 |
|
|
Term
| At rest, skin, erythrocytes, brain, skeletal muscle, and intestine all produce lactate. Which of these are the major producers of lactate during systemic tissue hypoxia? |
|
Definition
| Skeletal muscle & intestine |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of edema caused by inflammation? |
|
Definition
| Endothelial damage leading to increased vascular permeability |
|
|
Term
| In myocaridal infarction, the primary type of healing involves which type of cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Right heart failure affects which zone of the hepatic lobule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of infectious canine hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Foxglove, Lily of the valley, and Oleander plants all contain the same toxic agent. What is it? |
|
Definition
| Digitalis glycosides causing cardiac arrhythmias, anorexia, lethargy, and nausea |
|
|
Term
| What are the average RBC lifespans in circulation for the cow and the horse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a V/Q mismatch of infinity mean? In what clinical situation may this occur? |
|
Definition
| Alveoli are receiving ventillation but have no blood flow (V/Q=1/0), as many occur with a pulmonary embolus |
|
|
Term
| What effect does aldosterone have on the collecting duct of the kidney? |
|
Definition
| enhances resorption of sodium & water |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum number of weeks of oral antibiotic administration typically recommended for treatment of superficial pyodermas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hormone is most important in fine regulation of blood calcium levels, with highest levels being elicited when blood calcium levels are low? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the potential concern with combining Tramadol with a pure mu-receptor agonist opioid (e.g. morphine, hydromorphone)? |
|
Definition
| Compounding CNS and respiratory depression |
|
|
Term
| Do T lymphocytes function primarily in cell-mediated or humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which porcine virus causes disease that is characterized by SMEDI (stillbirth, mummification, early embryonic death, and infertility)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the etiologic agent for bacillary hemoglobinuria (icterohemoglobinura)? |
|
Definition
| Clostridium hemolyticum/C. novyi type D ("Red water") |
|
|
Term
| This trematode causes severe disease in sheep but often mild clinical disease in cattle and cervids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacterial etiologic agent is responsible for septic vasculitis with secondary thrombosis in the CNS of cattle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three classical histologic findings in the liver resulting from pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicosis in herbivores? |
|
Definition
| 1) fibrosis 2) bile duct proliferation 3) megalocytosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of hypomagnesemia on the cell membrane threshold potential? |
|
Definition
| decreased threshold potential (increased cellular excitability) |
|
|
Term
| Rhodococcus equi, an obligate intracellular bacterium infects which immune cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does severe hypophosphatemia cause anemia? |
|
Definition
| Hemolysis due to cell membrane deformity (also decreased ATP availability) |
|
|
Term
| One which ionic process are oxytocin-induced uterine contractions dependent? |
|
Definition
| Adequate influx of extracellular calcium |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of fungal infection of the nail in dogs? cats? |
|
Definition
| Dogs: Trichophyton mentagrophytes; Cats: Microsporum canis |
|
|
Term
| Which structure in birds is the location of B cell differentiation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 2 classes of antibiotics that act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis? |
|
Definition
| Penicillins & Cephalosporins |
|
|
Term
| Newcastle disease is caused by a virus of which family? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bromethalin rodenticide intoxication affects which body system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which component of a blood pressure measurement (systolic, diastolic, or mean) is the best determinant of organ perfusion? |
|
Definition
| Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 drugs that reduce circulating thyroid hormone levels? |
|
Definition
| sulfonamides, CS, phenobarbitol, clomipramine, NSAIDS, methimazole |
|
|
Term
| What is the intermediate host for the tapeworm Dipylidium caninum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is the major intracellular cation and ___ is the major extracellular cation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 2 domestic animal species are most susceptible to infection with Bacillus anthracis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Canine localized demodicosis most often produces lesions localized to these areas of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cephalexin is a member of which class of antibiotics? |
|
Definition
| First generation Cephalosporin |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum rate of decrease in plasma sodium levels during the treatment of chronic (>24 h) severe hypernatremia |
|
Definition
| 8-12 mEq/L/d (or 0.5 mEq/l/h); a more rapid rate of correction risks cerebral edema |
|
|
Term
| Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is a tick-borne zoonosis caused by this gram negative obligate intracellular parasite? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organ system in which livestock species is the reservoir for Brachyspira hyodysenteriae? |
|
Definition
| Porcine gastrointestinal tract |
|
|
Term
| Deficient production or lack of response to this hormone results in diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Zinc-responsive dermatosis is a zinc deficiency-induced disorder of keratinization common in this type of dog breed? |
|
Definition
| Northern (Siberian husky, Samoyed, Alaskan malamute) |
|
|
Term
| The Cushing reflex/Cushing response is activated with severe increases in intracranial pressure. What is the expected change in arterial blood pressure that occurs as a result of the Cushing reflex? |
|
Definition
| Systemic arterial hypertension |
|
|
Term
| Which phase of estrus in dogs and cats is predominantly characterized by high circulating levels of progesterone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of virus are the parvoviruses? |
|
Definition
| Single stranded, negative-sense DNA viruses |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common clinical manifestation of brucellosis in males? |
|
Definition
| Orchitits and epididymitis |
|
|
Term
| Brucellosis is a disease of worldwide importance and affects a number of animal species. What is the most common clinical manifestation in females? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Necropsy of an equine fetus aborted at 9 months of gestation reveals multifocal pinpoint hepatic necrosis and severe pulmonary edema. What is the likely etiology of the abortion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacterium is the causative agent of "circling disease" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which commonly used class of OTC human medicaitons is often associated with gastric erosive-ulcerative disease and may also cause acute renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Immune-mediated polyarthritis is the result of which type of immune reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bovine pyelonephritis and ovine posthitis ("pizzle rot") are associated with infection with which organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amoxicillin, Metronidazole, or Trimethoprim-sulfa. Which of these is the most appropriate oral antibiotic treatment for giardiasis? |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole. Fenbendazole is the treatment of choice. |
|
|
Term
| Plants of the genus Lantana can be toxic to cattle. Which 2 organ systems are affected? |
|
Definition
| Liver (hepatotoxicosis), Integument (photoxicosis) |
|
|
Term
| Brightly-colored ornamental beads made from tropical seed pods and used for jewelry classically contain which toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pimobendan exerts its effect via which mechanism? |
|
Definition
| PDE (phosphodiesterase inhibitor) and Calcium sensitization; increases myocardial contractility and arterial dilation |
|
|
Term
| Which physiologic stimulus leads to ADH release from the pituitary? |
|
Definition
| increased plasma osmolality |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic is best known for causing esophageal strictures in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If nystagmus changes direction with head position, is the vestibular lesion most likely peripheral or central? |
|
Definition
| central. Nystagmus due to peripheral (middle/inner ear) lesions does not change directions with changes in head position |
|
|
Term
| Does chocolate toxicosis cause an increase or a decrease in CNS activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacterium is most commonly impacted in cases of pyoderma in the dog? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cants and dogs, the presence of renal tubular necrosis with large numbers of intratubular calcium oxalate crystals on microscopic examination of the kidney is characteristicc of which chemical intoxication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A deficiency in these nutrients is associated with muscle necrosis and mineralization in calves, lambs, and foals (White Muscle Disease). Name the nutrients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many types of toxin are produced by Clostridium botulinum, and what are they? |
|
Definition
| Seven: A,B,C1,D,E,F,G. A,B,E,F cause human disease. C & D cause disease in birds and mammals. (>99% of canine cases are caused by type C) |
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of Q Fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment of adult heartworm infection in dogs now involves administration of doxycycline in addition to adulticide drugs. Why? |
|
Definition
| Wohlbachia spp. - a bacteria that live inside heartworms and without which the worms are weakened and mroe susceptible to adulticide drugs |
|
|
Term
| The anti-ulcer drug omeprazole functions by which mechanism? |
|
Definition
| proton-pump inhibitor of the gastric parietal cell (inhibits H+/K+/ATPase pump) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common histologic diagnosis in feline mammary tumors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of infectious canine thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Canine distemper virus is a member of which genus and family? |
|
Definition
| Genus: Morbillivirus; Family: paramyxoviridae |
|
|
Term
| postmortem examination of a sheep with a history of decreased appetite, diarrhea, and wasting reveals marked irregular thickening of the abomasal wall with a convoluted appearance (sometimes likened to Morocco leather). What is the most likely cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of toxicosis from ingestion of Poinsettia plants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nigropalladial encephalomalacia (necrosis of the substantia nigra) is the characteristic lesion of which plant toxicosis in horses? |
|
Definition
| Yellow Star Thistle (Russia Knapweed) |
|
|
Term
| A serum deficiency in which electrolyte causes muscular weakness and cardiac conduction disturbances due to decreased cell membrane excitability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the medication used in the treatment of hyperadrenocorticism that blocks the conversion of pregnenolone to progesterone in the adrenal gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The descending loop of Henle is: A) permeable to water but rather impermeable to solute or B) rather impermeable to water but permeable to solute? |
|
Definition
| A) permeable to water but rather impermeable to solute |
|
|
Term
| What is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Total body water makes up approximately which percentage of the total body weight in healthy, non-obese adult animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which gram-negative bacterium is the causative agent of plague?http://www.flashcardmachine.com/my-flashcards/quick-editor.cgi?topic_id=2020728&row_offset=100 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anticoagulant rodenticides inhibit the activation of all these coagulation factors with the exception of ...? II, III, VII, IX, or X |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Doramectin, milbemycin, and abamectin belong to which class of antiparasitic drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On which part of the kidney does furosemide exert its primary diuretic effects? |
|
Definition
| Thick ascending loop of Henle |
|
|
Term
| What are the mechanism and site of diuretic action of spironolactone? |
|
Definition
| Late distal tubule and Collecting duct of the nephron; Antagonize aldosterone |
|
|
Term
| Macrophages are derived from which circulating blood cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In health, approximately how long does a neutrophil stay in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A dog has seizures and hyperthermia. The owners recently "treated" their yard due to a snail infestation. What is the likely toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cytologic changes in nuclear morphology are characteristic of neoplastic cells and are criteria for malignancy? |
|
Definition
| Presence of nucleoli, anisokaryosis, clumped chromatin, high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio |
|
|
Term
| What is the most sensitive and specific blood test for the diagnosis of canine and feline pacreatitis? |
|
Definition
| Species-specific serum pancreatic lipase (pLI) |
|
|
Term
| Which urinary stones are radiopaque, and which are not? |
|
Definition
| Most radiopaque: calcium phosphate, calcium oxalate, struvite, Least: cystine and urate ("I can't CU") |
|
|
Term
| Feline asthma is characterized by which radiographic findings? |
|
Definition
| bronchial pattern, hyperinflation of lungs, increased lung radiolucency, flattened diaphragm, normal radiographs do not rule our asthma |
|
|
Term
| Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, ketonuria, and metabolic acidosis are the hallmark findings of which endocrine disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What avian blood cell (granulocyte) is analogous to the mammalian neutrophil? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A puppy with respiratory signs, conjunctivitis, vomiting and bloody diarrhea is suspected to have distemper. What is the diagnostic test of choice? |
|
Definition
| Indirect fluorescent antibody test of conjuctival swabs, or white blood cells from circulating blood, or blood searms for virus isolation |
|
|
Term
| Which type of urinary crystal is observed in normal Dalmatian dogs or dogs with liver disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a standing lateral thoracic radiograph of a horse is taken, which lung is most clearly seen: the lung field closest to the cassette, or the opposite lung field? |
|
Definition
| Lung field closest to the cassette. The opposite lung field gets distorted due to the great width of the equine chest. |
|
|
Term
| Decreased production of which substance causes non-regenerative anemia in animals with chronic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A right lateral radiograph of a dog's abdomen shows a gas distended stomach. There is a reverse C sign appearance to the stomach. What is the diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Gastric dilatation volvulus (GDV) |
|
|
Term
| At which sites in the canine stifle does osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD) occur most commonly? |
|
Definition
| Lateral and medial femoral conyles |
|
|
Term
| In dogs and cats, what is the most reliable blood test for detecting liver disease such as portosystemic shunt (PSS)? |
|
Definition
| Serum bile acids (elevated postprandial bile acid level) |
|
|
Term
| Name a circulating cardiac biomarker that indicates elevated intraventricular pressures (as seen with congestive heart failure) and another cardiac biomarker that indicates myocardial damage (as seen with myocarditis)? |
|
Definition
| Elevated intraventricular pressure: natriuretic peptides (NT-proBNP or B-type natriuretic peptide) Myocardial damage: cardiac troponins, cTn-1 and cTn-T |
|
|
Term
| Which diagnostic procedure differentiates hematuria from hemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following does polymerase chain reaction (PCR) detect: 1)antibody; 2)protein; C)nucleic acid; or d)antigen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are typical radiographic features of advanced but compensated ("asymptomatic" or "murmur only") chronic mitral valve insufficiency in dogs? |
|
Definition
| left atrial enlargement, left-sided cardiomegaly, possibly pulmonary venous enlargement; absence of an interstitial pattern (no pulmonary edema) |
|
|
Term
| An electrocardiogram shows unusually tall P waves. What structural change in the heart is suspected, and what is the Latin term that describes tall P waves associated which such a change? |
|
Definition
| Right atrial enlargement. "P pulmonale" |
|
|
Term
| In a case of septic peritonitits, is the blood glucose concentration higher or lower than the glucose level in the free abdominal fluid? |
|
Definition
| Higher, generally >20 mg/dl (>1.1 mmol/L) difference. This is attributed to anaerobic glycolysis by leukocytes in the abdominal exudate. |
|
|
Term
| In patients that suffer from Addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism), what are the two most common electrolyte disturbances? |
|
Definition
| Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia |
|
|
Term
| With hepatic lipidosis in cats, on ultrasound examination is the liver hyperechoic or hypoechoic? |
|
Definition
| Hyperechoic (fatty infiltrate). "big and bright" |
|
|
Term
| Is the ELISA test for Johne's disease more sensitive when used in clinically diseased animals or in subclinically infected animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the typical acid/base abnormality found with ethylene glycol toxicosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 3 screening tests for hyperadrenocorticism in the dog? |
|
Definition
| Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test, urine cortisol:creatinine ratio, adrenocorticopropic hormone stimulation test |
|
|
Term
| Which form of canine hyperadrenocoricism is most likely if a 4-hour serum [cortisol] <50% of baseline is reported on a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test? |
|
Definition
| Pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism, because this result indicates suppression. A primary adrenocortical tumor would be associated with [cortisol] >50% (failure to suppress) |
|
|
Term
| In the canine hemogram, which changes constitute a stress leukogram? |
|
Definition
| neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia, monocytosis |
|
|
Term
| Which diagnostic test is most likely to help determine whether the patient is truly hypothyroid or is affected by euthyroid sick syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Free T4 by equillibrium dialysis; total T4 and concurrent thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) measurements are also acceptable |
|
|
Term
| What are the radiographic signs of left-sided congestive heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary venous enlargement, unstructured interstitial pattern (right caudal lung lobe often affected first in the dog), possibly pleural effusion (cats) |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between an osteophyte and an enthesiophyte? |
|
Definition
| osteophyte: bony outgrowths caused by abnormal joint wear in osteoarthritis, seen at articular cartilage margins. enthesiophytes: bony outgrowths at an enthesis (where soft tissue inserts on bone [tendon, joint capsule, ligament or fascial]) |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 radiographic signs of osteoarthritis? |
|
Definition
| Joint effusion; widening and/or thinning of radiolucent joint space; enthesiophyte formation on non-weight bearing surfaces; remodeling of subchondral bone; mineralization of intraarticular and periarticular soft tissues; formation of subchondral cysts; sublusxation (coxofemoral) |
|
|
Term
| Which structure, producing the "sail sign" might be seen cranial to the heart on a ventrodorsal thoracic radiograph of a young dog? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Central diabetes insipidus can be differentiated from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus using which test? |
|
Definition
| ADH response test. Note that a water deprivation test does not distinguish between central and nephrogenic forms. |
|
|
Term
| When performing a thoracocentesis, should you advance the needle into the thorax off the cranial or caudal aspect of the rib? |
|
Definition
| Cranial aspect to avoid the intercostal vessels and nerves located (projected) caudal to each rib |
|
|
Term
| Which characteristic finding is seen in a fresh saline preparation of whole blood from a dog with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA), and what is its major differential diagnosis (microscopically)? |
|
Definition
| In-saline autoagglutination; not to be confused with rouleaux formation (roll-of-coins appearance) |
|
|
Term
| A mild neutrophilia, a mild monocytosis and a moderate lymphopenia in a car are most compatible with which of the following: stress (cortisol effects), excitement (epinephrine effects), or inflammation? |
|
Definition
| Stress (cortisol effects) |
|
|
Term
| Which fecal diagnostic test is optimal for identifying Cryptosporidium oocysts? |
|
Definition
| Flotation with saturated sugar (centrifugaion will improve recovery of oocysts) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most likely source of high serum gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT) levels in a 1 week-old calf? |
|
Definition
| Passive transfer through colostrum |
|
|
Term
| Would severe hemophilia A be expected to result in a prolonged prothrombin time (PT), a prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or both? |
|
Definition
| prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - factor VIII deficiency |
|
|
Term
| A normal prothrombin time (PT), prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and a normal thrombin time (TT) fits with an abnormality in which part of the coagulation cascade - common, extrinsic or intrinsic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During which season is blastomycosis most commonly diagnosed in North America |
|
Definition
| Fall, likely due to increase moisture content of soil (allowing release of fungal spores) |
|
|
Term
| Which event in the heart is represented by the T wave on an electrocardiogram? |
|
Definition
| Ventricular repolarization |
|
|
Term
| When sampling the lower respiratory tract of a horse with suspected bacterial pneumonia, which diagnostic procedure is preferred for obtaining a bacterial culture sample? |
|
Definition
| Tracheal aspiration (bronchoalveolar lavage is for cytology only) |
|
|
Term
| Patients with acute hemorrhagic diarrhea can rapidly lose large amounts of fluid from the GI tract. What is a common abnormality noted initially on a CBC in such patients? |
|
Definition
| Elevated PCV (relative polycythemia from hemoconcentration) |
|
|
Term
| On ECG, P waves occur at regular intervals, and wide, bizarre QRS complexes occur at a much slower rate, unrelated to the P waves. What is the diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Third degree (complete) AV block. The wide, bizarre QRS complexes are ventricular escape beats. |
|
|
Term
| Which test is currently the most widely used and preferred method of diagnosing rabies infection in animals? |
|
Definition
| Direct fluorescent antibody testing (DFAT) of brain tissue |
|
|
Term
| On an echocardiogram, an anechoic (black) space is apparent adjacent to the epicardium. What is the diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anal sac adenocarcinoma is commonly associated with which serum biochemical abnormality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An audible S4 gallop on auscultation is usually associated with what type of lesion of the ventricles? |
|
Definition
| Hypertrophy and stiffness. It occurs due to the resonance/vibration of ventricular walls during end-diastole (atrial contribution to ventricular filling) |
|
|
Term
| Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (formerly called Boxer cardiomyopathy) is characterized by which type of cardiac arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
| Premature ventricular complexes (right-sided) and ventricular tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| Name 2 erythrocyte features that are normal in Akitas but are not found in most other dog breeds? |
|
Definition
| Microcytosis (or low mean corpuscular volume) and very high intracellular potassium. Thus, in this breed and other Japanese breeds (Shiba Inu, Tosa Inu), in vitro hemolysis can cause marked (but artifactual) hyperkalemia. |
|
|
Term
| Does the feline leukemia (FeLV) ELISA test detect antigen, antibody, or both? |
|
Definition
| Antigen only. This is why the result is unaffected by previous vaccination. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most reliable diagnostic test for feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| An echocardiogram. Genetic testing of a blood sample for the beta-myosin heavy chain mutation is simpler but less reliable (many false negatives). |
|
|
Term
| When performing pericardiocentesis, which intercostal space should be entered, and at which landmark? |
|
Definition
| 5th ICS, at the costochondral junction (typically from the right side to minimize the risk of catheter-induced coronary artery laceration) |
|
|
Term
| Which form of Blastomyces dermatitidis is most commonly found on cytological or histopathological preparations of infected tissues? |
|
Definition
| Yeasts (classical broad-based budding). Never cultured in-house (risk of aerosol transmission causing zoonosis) |
|
|
Term
| Whcih forms of Coccidioides immitis may be found on cytological or histopathological preparations of infected tissues? |
|
Definition
| Spherules (containing endospores). Never culture in-house because aerosolization causes zoonosis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common serum biochemical abnormality in dogs with primary hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
| Fasting hypercholesterolemia |
|
|
Term
| Where would you expect to find the point of maximal intensity (PMI) of a murmur associated with tricuspid insufficiency? |
|
Definition
| Right side of thorax, over the cardiac apex (approximately 4th ICS) |
|
|
Term
| What is the diagnostic test of choice for confirming chlamydophilosis in a pet bird? |
|
Definition
| Histologic or cytologic demonstration of the organism (elementary bodies) in smears, fluids, or tissue. PCR demonstration of DNA, or specialized culture isolation, are also possible but less practical. |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the ultrasound principle that provides information on velocity and direction of blood flow? |
|
Definition
| Doppler (color or spectral [pulsed-or continuous wave]) |
|
|
Term
| Acid-fast, intranuclear inclusions in the proximal convoluting tubular epithelium are diagnostic for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which serum liver enzyme may be elevated due to normal bone growth or exposure to corticosteroids in dogs? |
|
Definition
| Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) |
|
|
Term
| On radiographs of the equine tarsus, where are the 2 most common locations of osteochondrosis? |
|
Definition
| 1) Cranial aspect of the intermediate ridge of the distal tibia, 2) lateral trochlear ridge of the talus |
|
|
Term
| Laminar cerebrocortical necrosis and eosinophils in the meninges and Virchow-Robin spaces are characteristic histopathological findings of which disease of swine? |
|
Definition
| Salt toxicity (sodium poisoning and water intoxication) |
|
|
Term
| Which endocrine test should be performed on an animal with gastrointestinal signs, lethargy, and the lack of a stress leukogram on its CBC? |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test (rule in or out hypoadrenocorticism) |
|
|
Term
| Which cardiac arrhythmia is most commonly noted in dogs with GDV? |
|
Definition
| Premature ventricular complexes (PVCs). some patients also develop transient atrial fibrillation, often if fluid resuscitated rapidly and treated with opioid drugs. |
|
|
Term
| Tortuous pulmonary arteries, right ventricular enlargement, and a main pulmonary artery bulge are radiographically suggestive of which infectious disease of dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an elevated serum l-lactate value indicate? How would this affect the anion gap? |
|
Definition
| Poor tissue perfusion, decreased oxygenation, anaerobic respiration. It would result in an increased anion gap. |
|
|
Term
| Approximately which percentage of the funcational hepatocytes must be lost before alteratations of hepatic function are detectable by serum biochemical testing? |
|
Definition
| 70%. Indicators of hepatic function (bilirubin, albumin, cholesterol) are distinct from hepatic damage (ALT, AST, etc.) - a common oversight. |
|
|
Term
| Besides the liver, elevations in aminotransferase (AST) may originate from which other tissue? |
|
Definition
| Muscle, and minscule amounts from the kidney, RBCs, brain, and placenta |
|
|
Term
| Adequate renal concentrating ability is presumed to exist if the urine specific gravity (USG) is greater than which value in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cats, at which approximate absolute reticulocyte count would you say regeneration is occuring? |
|
Definition
| >60,000/microliter = regenerative response, though 50,000/microliter could still be classified as a "slight" degree of regeneration |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of macrocytosis? |
|
Definition
| Reticulocytosis, typically as part of a regenerative anemia |
|
|
Term
| With a primary glomerular disease, would you expect a mild, moderate, or severe proteinuria? |
|
Definition
| Severe proteinuria with urine protein: urine creatinine ratios often >3 and usually >5 |
|
|
Term
| After approximatley how many days would you expect to see signs of regeneration following acute blood loss in a dog? |
|
Definition
| 2-3 days, and reach maximum regeneration approximately 7 days post onset of hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
| The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) breakpoint for Ampicillin is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You suspect an outbreak of Marek's disease in chickens. Name 2 diagnostic tests that can be useful for confirming diagnosis. |
|
Definition
| Histopathological examination of nerevs and tumors; PCR; Virus isolation; bird challenge experiments; serologic titers only in specific pathogen-free (SPF) flocks. |
|
|
Term
| Which percentage of dogs with appendicular osteosarcoma have pulmonary metastasis visible on thoracic radiographs at the time of diagnosis: <10%, 15-30%, 40-60%, or >75%? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a dog, what are parameters that allow you to determine whether the diameter of the small intestine is enlarged on a radiograph? |
|
Definition
| The normal diameter of the jejunum should not exceed 2x the width of a rib and not exceed the height of the central part of the vertebral body of the second lumbar vertebra |
|
|
Term
| On a cat's radiograph, the normal diameter of the jejunum should not exceed... |
|
Definition
| 12 mm, or twice the height of the central portion of L4 |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 abnormal erythrocyte morphologies are associated with canine splenic hemangiosarcoma? |
|
Definition
| Schistocytes & Acanthocytes |
|
|
Term
| Which species normally has the least prominent retinal vessels on funduscopic visualization of the optic disk: ovine, bovine, equine, canine, or feline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of gonioscopy? |
|
Definition
| To assess the iridocorneal angle for sings that could indicate predisposition to glaucoma (narrow/closed/obstructed iridocorneal angle) |
|
|
Term
| On a patient's electrocardiogram, ST segment depression becomes apparent. What does this usually indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would you expect to see reticulocytes in the blood of horses? |
|
Definition
| Never. Reticulocytes are absent in the blood of horses, both in health and regenerative anemias. |
|
|
Term
| Which is more echogenic in the dog and cat: the liver or the spleen? |
|
Definition
| The Spleen is usually slightly more echogenic (also has a finer/less coarse echotexture) |
|
|
Term
| A normal cat's abdominal ultrasound image shows 2 gallbladders within 2 livers, one of each on each side of the diaphragm. How is this observation explained? |
|
Definition
| Mirror-image artifact, a result of reflection of ultrasound waves on the concave surface of the diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| Which common fungal organism has a distinguishing polysaccharide capsule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cats with acetaminophen toxicosis can present with which hemoglobin abnormality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the simplest test for confirming patency of the nasolacrimal duct (Jones Test)? |
|
Definition
| Application of fluorescein stain on the eye, and observation for its emergence at the nasolacrimal puncta |
|
|
Term
| Why does a very deep corneal ulcer show no central uptake of fluorescein? |
|
Definition
| Descemet's membrane does not retain fluorescein stian (desmetocele). Beware of perforation at this stage - no juglar pressure, and use caution when handling the eye/administering ocular medications. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of using a Schiotz tonometer? |
|
Definition
| Measuring intraocular pressure (IOP) (glaucoma, uveitis) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the expected serum ionized calcium, parathyroid hormone (PTH), and parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP) concentrations in primary hyperparathyroidism. |
|
Definition
| Elevated ionized calcium with normal to elevated PTH, or normal ionized calcium with elevated PTH; undetectable PTHrP in either case |
|
|
Term
| Which ultrasound mode is most useful for precisely measuring the dimensions and relative movements of the left ventricle over several heartbeats: A-mode, B-mode, or M-mode? |
|
Definition
| M-mode. The name is a contraction of "Motion-mode", which is an obsolete, 1-dimensional modality from the early days of ultrasonography. |
|
|
Term
| Wood's lamp examination, direct microscopic hair examination, and culture with microscopic identification are tests used for diagnosing which zoonotic, cutaneous disease of dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Unlike dogs, which serum liver enzyme in cats is not easily affected by corticosteroid exposure? |
|
Definition
| Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) |
|
|
Term
| Which group of dog breeds has higher Hct values than established reference ranges for other breeds? |
|
Definition
| Sight hounds (greyhounds, Afghan hounds, etc.) |
|
|
Term
| In a biopsy specimen from a patient with hepatic amyloidosis, in which anatomic region does the amyloid accumulate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name two ways to confirm a suspected diagnosis of retinal detachment in a blind animal? |
|
Definition
| Fundic examination and ocular ultrasound examination. Only ultrasound is effective if there is severe hyphema, obscuring the anterior and posterior chambers. |
|
|
Term
| During echocardiography, the left atrium is usually compared to which structure for deciding whether left atrial enlargement is present? (a ratio of about 1:1 s expected in most animals) |
|
Definition
| Aorta. The proximal aortia is achored tothe fibrous cardiac skeleton and therefor almost never changes in size with any heart disease, making it an excellent reference point. |
|
|
Term
| Which bacterium is most commonly isolated in uncomplicated canine infectious tracheobronchitis? |
|
Definition
| Bordetella bronchiseptica. Mycoplasma spp. is also acceptable (though rarely cultured). Several other bacterial species may be involved later as secondary opportunists. |
|
|
Term
| In patients that suffer from Addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism), what are the two most common electrolyte disturbances? |
|
Definition
| Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. Azotemia (especially BUN elevation), hypoalbuminemia, hypoglycemia, and hypercalcemia can also occur. |
|
|
Term
| What blood type is considered the universal donor? |
|
Definition
| Dog erythrocyte antigen (DEA) 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, and 7 negative. For practical purposes, DEA 1.1 negative is considered sufficient by some clinicians. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in cats? |
|
Definition
| Idiopathic (unlike the dog, where malignancy-associated hypercalcemia is more common) |
|
|
Term
| Other than idiopathic disease, what are the 2 major causes of non-traumatic chylothorax in the cat? |
|
Definition
| Neoplasia (mediastinal lymphoma), congestive heart failure |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of canine maternal origin dystocia and how is it treated? |
|
Definition
| Uterine inertia; oxytocin, or if ineffective, caesarean section |
|
|
Term
| What type of diet may aid in reducing insulin requirements and improve clinical diabetic control in cats? |
|
Definition
| Low simple-carbohydrate, high protein, high-fiber diet |
|
|
Term
| Which four pathological conditions are associated with canine elbow dysplasia? |
|
Definition
| 1)FCP-fragmented medial coronoid process, 2) UAP-ununited anconeal process, 3) OCD-osteochondrosis, 4) elbow incongruity |
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly diagnosed neoplasm in the cat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should a pregnant bitch's diet not be supplemented with calcium? |
|
Definition
| Excessive intake of calcium during pregnancy may predispose the bitch to puerperal tetany (eclampsia) during lactation) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hypoglycemia in the dog? |
|
Definition
| Insulinoma (beta-islet cell tumor) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common brain tumor in cats and dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which dog breeds are predisposed to development of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)? |
|
Definition
| German shepherd dog (GSD), rough coated collie, cavalier King Charles spanial, chow chow |
|
|
Term
| Your patient is a 2-year-old male castrated German shepherd dog with a chief complaint of regurgitation; the acetylcholine receptor antibody test is strongly positive. What is the diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Myasthenia gravis causing megaesophagus |
|
|
Term
| Which group of antimicrobials is recommended to treat feline hemotrophic mycoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| Tetracyclines. Doxycycline is preferred, with a recommended treatment duration of 3 weeks. |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of a rare complication of hypothyroidism characterized by nonpitting thickening of the skin, especially of the eyelids, cheeks, and forehead? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which secondary organ is most commonly affected by systemic hypertension in the dog and cat? |
|
Definition
| The eye (retinal hemorrhage, retinal detachment) |
|
|
Term
| Which algae species found in soil, sewage, and tree slime flux causes large bowel diarrhea, CNS signs, and ocular manifestations in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two theraputic agents can be used for treating cats with clinical Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection? |
|
Definition
| Fenbendazole and Ivermectin |
|
|
Term
| The Cavalier King Charles spaniel breed of dog is predisposed to which cardiac disease? |
|
Definition
| Chronic degenerative atrioventricular valve disease (endocardiosis or myxomatous valvular degeneration) |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical signalment of dogs affected by fibrocartilagenous embolism? |
|
Definition
| Adult, large and giant breed, non-chondrodystrophic breeds |
|
|
Term
| While all mammals are susceptible, generally this toxicosis is seen in cats fed a diet high in raw liver. What is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 3 treatments for hyperthyroidism in cats? |
|
Definition
| Radioactive iodine therapy, surgical removal of the gland, and antithyroid drugs (methimazole, carbimazole, ipodate) |
|
|
Term
| In everyday practice, what is the treatment of choice for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? |
|
Definition
| Castration; estrogens, progestins, 5-alpha reducatse inhibitors (e.g. finasteride), and gonadotropin releaseing hormone (GnRH) also may help reduce prostatic size |
|
|
Term
| What is the main physical examination finding in dogs with trigeminal neuritis? |
|
Definition
| Bilateral paralysis of the masticatory muscles (dropped jaw; inability to close the jaw) |
|
|
Term
| What is a common sequela of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy besides congestive heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Aortic thromboembolism; rarely syncope or sudden death |
|
|
Term
| Although not pathognomonic, myoclonus is a movement disorder most commonly associated with which specific central nervous systemic (CNS) infection in dogs? |
|
Definition
| canine distemper virus (CDV) infection |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary chronic, cumulative side effects of doxorubicin therapy in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| Cardiomyopathy mainly in dogs; nephrotoxicity in cats |
|
|
Term
| What are some emetics to consider for toxicological emergencies in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| Dogs: apomorphine, hydrogen peroxide, syrup of ipecac. Cats: medetomidine, xylazine, hydrogen peroxide, syrup of ipecac. Salt is contraindicated due to risk of severe hypernatremia if emesis does not occur. |
|
|
Term
| Which testicular tumor of dogs is known to produce estrogen? |
|
Definition
| Sertoli cell tumor (causing feminizing syndrome) |
|
|
Term
| Ingestion of garlic or onions by dogs produces which hematologic disorder? |
|
Definition
| Heinz body hemolytic anemia. This is dose-dependent, and toxicity persists even if the onions/garlic are cooked or dried. |
|
|
Term
| How is feline leukemia virus (FeLV) primarily transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Close contact, grooming, social behavior (saliva, secretions) |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the most common tick-borne disease caused by a hemoprotozoan parasite that infects red blood cells (RBCs) of dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In dogs affected with Chagas' disease (American trypanosomiasis), which organ is characteristically the site of the most life-threatening lesions? |
|
Definition
| The heart. Initially, myocarditits can occur, but in most chronic cases, a dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)-like syndrome eventually emerges and it is often difficult to treat |
|
|
Term
| In gastric dilation/volvulus, which abnormality of serum potassium is often present? |
|
Definition
| Hypokalemia. Serum potassium may further decrease with correction of acidosis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly described paraneoplastic syndrome related to thymomas in dogs? |
|
Definition
| Myasthenia gravis (including megaesophagus) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common clinical feature of feline hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
| Weight loss (>80% of cases). Newer case series report clinical signs that are less dramatic, possibly because of earlier detection or disease variation over time. |
|
|
Term
| Which flea species is most commonly associated with dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
| Ctenocephalides felis felis |
|
|
Term
| What are the four "Ps" that characterize the clinical signs seen in the distal extremities of cats with aortic thromboembolism? |
|
Definition
| Pain, paralysis, pulselessness, pallor. The footpads also are often cool to the touch. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause for hypercholesterolemia and no other complete blood count/serum biochemistry abnormalities in an adult, fasted dog? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most likely diagnosis in a Basenji dog with a history of polydipsia and polyuria, and glucosuria or urinalysis in the face of a normal blood glucose? |
|
Definition
| Fanconi syndrome, an inherited proximal tubular defect that most commonly occurs in this breed. |
|
|
Term
| Why may it be useful to distinguish between superficial and deep corneal vascularization? |
|
Definition
| Superficial suggests superfical corneal or external ocular disease; deep suggests corneal stromal or intraocular disease |
|
|
Term
| Which electrolyte disturbance is most common in cats with chronic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
| Hypokalmia (note: hyperphosphatemia is also common, but strictly speaking, phosphorous is a mineral, not an electrolyte) |
|
|
Term
| Which NSAID can be used for treating transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder in dogs? |
|
Definition
| Piroxicam (brand name: Feldene) |
|
|
Term
| Panosteitis is a disease of dogs of which age group? a)neonatal; b)juvenile; c)middle-aged adult; d)geriatric; e)no age predilection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 10 month-old mixed breed dog presents with exercise intolerance and differential cyanosis. What is your top differential diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Reversed (right to left shunting) patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is the only malformation that produces cyanosis in the caudal half of the body with normal, pink mucous membranes of the head (differential cyanosis). |
|
|
Term
| A 40 kg dog is presented witha transverese, mildly comminuted fracture of the tibia. Which option for fracture fixation will LEAST likely provide adequate return to function? A)Cerclage wire B)External skeletal fixator C)Bone plate with screws |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity in dogs results primarily form a low level of which enzyme? |
|
Definition
| Hepatic glutathione (hence the usefulness of s-adenosylmethionine (SAMe) during treatment) |
|
|
Term
| Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) is caused by a mutation in which virus? |
|
Definition
| Feline enteric coronavirus. since it is an in vivo mutation, a positive serologic titer does not distinguish between coronaviral enteritis and FIP. |
|
|
Term
| A pale, icteric dog has hemoglobinuria and hemoglobinemia. An echocardiogram reveals a mass of worms in the tricuspid valve. Which syndrome does this dog have? |
|
Definition
| Caval syndrome (class 4 heartworm disease) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is least likely to produce ventricular premature complexes (VPCs) in dogs or cats: blunt chest trauma, hypercalcemia, splenic mass, hypokalemia? |
|
Definition
| Hypercalcemia, which raises the threshold for depolarization (i.e., decreases arrhythomogenicity). The others are commonly associated with VPCs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between Hansen type I and type II intervertebral disk disease? |
|
Definition
| Hansen type I: acute extrusion of nucleus pulposus into vertebral canal; Hansen type II: slow chronic protrusion of annulus fibrosis into vertebral canal |
|
|
Term
| Where are the most common site for intussuception to occur in a small animal? |
|
Definition
| ileocolic and jejunojejunal; however they can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract |
|
|
Term
| Which nontraumatic disease is the most common cause for petechiae and ecchymoses in the adult dog? |
|
Definition
| Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (not anticoagulant toxicosis, which instead produces signs of factor deficiency: overt bleeding, bleeding into body cavities, etc.) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of constipation/obstipation in the cat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the protocol for leptospirosis vaccination for dogs living in endemic areas? |
|
Definition
| Initially during puppyhood: 3 vaccinations @ 3-4 weeks apart, then at least every 6 months. Leptospira titers are present for only 3-6 months. |
|
|
Term
| An older Shetland sheepdog has had lethargy, anorexia and bone pain for weeks. Bone marrow plasmacytosis and osteolytic bone lesions are present. What is the most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This skin tumor, the most common cutaneous malignancy in the dog, cause gastric ulcers and Darier's sign. |
|
Definition
| Mast cell tumor. Darier's sign is the local erythema (due to mast cell degranulation) seen after physical manipulation of a mast cell tumor). |
|
|
Term
| Which organ system is most commonly affected when lymphoma occurs in a feline leukemia virus-negative cat? |
|
Definition
| Gastrointestinal tract (alimentary lymphoma) |
|
|
Term
| Lung lobe torsion most commonly occurs in which lobe of large breed dogs? |
|
Definition
| Right middle lobe. Afghan hounds are overrepresented; many pugs also have been diagnosed with lung lobe torsion. |
|
|
Term
| Which IV fluid would be most appropriate for resuscitation of a patient in an acute hypoadrenocortical (Addisonian) crisis? |
|
Definition
| 0.9% sodium chloride to treate hyponatremia (no potassium, because the hyperkalemia is usually present in crisis) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of death in dogs with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)? |
|
Definition
| Thromboembolism ("not" anemia) |
|
|
Term
| Which body system is mainly affected in cases of metronidazole toxicosis in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the feline blood types? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cryptorchid dogs or cats, which testicle is more likely to be retained? |
|
Definition
| Right (2x as likely to be retained as the left) |
|
|
Term
| Why is it useful to determine the immunophenotype (T cell or B cell) of canine lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| Because dogs with T cell (CD3 immunoreactive) lymphoma have been reported to have shorter remission and survival durations (memory aid: "B is bad, T is terrible"). |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia of malignancy in the dog? |
|
Definition
| Lymphoma (most common anatomic site is cranial mediastinum) |
|
|
Term
| A dog with a head tilt to the left, vertical nystagmus, ataxia, absent facial sensation ipsilaterally, and poor proprioception of the left forelimbs and hindlimbs has a neurological lesion of which specific anatomical location? |
|
Definition
| Left-sided central vestibular system (medulla, cerebellar peduncles, cerebellum, or combination) |
|
|
Term
| A middle-aged cat has upper respiratory tract infection, bilateral conjunctivitis, and a dendritic ulcer. This is most consistent with which infectious disease? |
|
Definition
| Feline herpesvirus 1 (FHV-1) |
|
|
Term
| Which 3 ingredients account for close to 90% of all adverse food reactions in cats? |
|
Definition
| Beef, dairy products, fish |
|
|
Term
| In growing dogs, the anconeal process should be fused to the olecranon within what time frame? |
|
Definition
| 150 days (~5 months) of age |
|
|
Term
| Infection with which tick-borne parasite causes cyclic thrombocytopenia in dogs? |
|
Definition
| Anaplasma platys (formerly Ehrlichia platys) |
|
|
Term
| Name the hydrophillic bile acid commonly used in the treatment of hepatobiliary disease in the dog and cat. What is the main contraindication to its use? |
|
Definition
| Ursodeoxycholic acid (urodiol or decholate). Contraindicated with gallbladder obstruction because it induces gallbladder contraction. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common adverse effect of acetaminophen? Are dogs or cats more susceptible to an equivalent dose? |
|
Definition
| Methemoglobinemia causing life-threatening hemolytic anemia. Cats are much more susceptible to toxic effects (develop toxicosis at lower doses and have more severe signs at equivalent doses). |
|
|
Term
| What type of heart disease is most common in the doberman breed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In dogs with traumatic coxofemoral luxation, what is the most common direction of displacement of the femoral head? |
|
Definition
| Craniodorsal displacement |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 disorders that cause insulin resistance in the dog. |
|
Definition
| Hyperadrenocorticism, hypothyroidism, diestrus, glucagonoma, pacreatitis, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI), congestive heart failure (CHF), and infection |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of polyuria/polydypsia in the dog with pyometra? |
|
Definition
| E. coli endotoxin interferes with antidiuretic hormone in the renal tubule |
|
|
Term
| With which canine breed is malignant histiocytosis most commonly associated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major route of infection for Coccidioides immitis in dogs and what is the name of the infectious spore stage of the organism? |
|
Definition
| Airborne infection (inhalation of arthroconidia from dry desert topsoil) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor should be suspected in a dog with unilateral thoracic limb lameness and ipsilateral Horner's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Nerve sheath tumor (T1 or T2 nerve roots are affected; deep palpation cranial to the first rib may elicit a pain response) |
|
|
Term
| Dogs (and humans) mainly acquire blastomycosis via which route? |
|
Definition
| Inhalation of conidia from the environement |
|
|
Term
| Which vaccine adjuvant has been implicated in injection-site sarcomas of cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 most common congeintal heart defects in the dog? |
|
Definition
| Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and Subaortic stenosis (SAS) |
|
|
Term
| What is the infective larval stage of Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm)? |
|
Definition
| L3, which the mosquito deposits into the animal during a bloodmeal and which travels through the host's tissues for 70-120 days on its way to the venous circulation |
|
|
Term
| An older male, intact dog is incidentally-discovered symmetrical nonpainful prostatomegaly on rectal examination. What is the top differential diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Benign prostatic hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common hereditary feline coagulation factor deficiency? |
|
Definition
| Factor XII deficiency (Hageman trait) |
|
|
Term
| During which phase of the estrous cycle does pyometra usually occur in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common etiology of canine hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
| Primary hypothoyroidism (destruction of the thyroid gland itself) by lymphocytic thryroiditis or idiopathic thyroid atrophy. Secondary (pituitary lesion) and tertiary (hypothalamic lesion) are very rare. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common etiology of hyperadrenocorticism in the dog? |
|
Definition
| Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism characterized by overproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) in the pituitary gland and secondary oversecretion of adrenocortical hormones |
|
|
Term
| Name the resiratory deformity of the older, small, and miniature-breed dogs that is classically characterized by a "goose-honk" type cough. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which ornamental flower has been implicated in the greatest number of cases of acute renal failure in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which endocrine abnormality is known to cause cataract formation in the dog? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During cranial cruciate ligament repair, the meniscal attachments often are deliberately transected. This procedure is known as: |
|
Definition
| Meniscal release. The purpose is to offer greater meniscal mobility to reduce the likelihood of meniscal injury. |
|
|
Term
| With splenectomy alone, expected median survival times for dogs with splenic hemangiosarcoma is: A)19-86 days B)103-155 day C)297-392 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Surgical reduction of a pelvic fracture typically may no longer be possible after how many days: 2, 4, or 7? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A dog hit by a car has bilateral hindlimb paralysis and forelimb extensor hypertonia, with preserved voluntary movement and proprioception in the forelimbs. What is the term for this posture? Where it the lesion? |
|
Definition
| Schiff-Sherrington psoture; thoracic or cranial lumbar spinal cord |
|
|
Term
| What are two drugs that act on sodium channels and thus have been used in the therapy for canine distemper-induced myoclonus? |
|
Definition
| Lidocaine and Procainamide. They are more commonly used for their cardiac antiarrhythmic effects, or local anesthetic effects (lidocaine) |
|
|
Term
| An adult cat has anorexia and bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge. The owner has a flock of messenger pigeons. Which infection in dogs and cats is most likely responsible? |
|
Definition
| Cryptococcosis (Cryptococcus neoformans infection) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of urolith is most likely to be found in a dog with a portosystemic shunt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stomatitis in cats can be assicated with which viruses? |
|
Definition
| Feline leukemia virus (FeLV), feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV), calcivirus, and feline herpesvirus |
|
|
Term
| Is fremitus of the middle uterine artery in the bovine considered a cardinal sign of pregnancy? At which gestational age is it first detectable? |
|
Definition
| It is not considered a cardinal sign of pregnancy (too variable), but when it is present, it is first detectable from 110-150 days of gestation |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 body systems are most commonly affected in the crhonic form of infection with Erysipelothrix rusiopathiae in pigs? |
|
Definition
| Musculoskeletal (arthritis) and cardiovascular (endocarditis) |
|
|
Term
| Which breed of cattle is most commonly affected by ocular squamous cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anatomical structure prevents urinary catheterization of bulls? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bovine ulcerative mammilitis is caused by which virus? |
|
Definition
| Bovine herpesvirus type 2 |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common clinical sign of Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae infection in pigs? |
|
Definition
| Chronic, persistent, non-productive cough |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal range of urine pH in ruminants? |
|
Definition
| 6.0-9.0. A pH > 8.0 can cause a flase-positive reading on protein dipstick squares, which should not be misinterpreted as indicated proteinuria. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of viral diarrhea in foals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immune-mediated ocular disease is one of the most common causes of blindness in horses? |
|
Definition
| Equine recurrent uveitis (ERU, "moon blindness") |
|
|
Term
| Name the causative agent of equine ehrlichiosis? |
|
Definition
| Anaplasma phagocytophilum |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 systemic infectious diseases associated with ulcerative and/or erosive lesions in the gastrointestinal tract of ruminants? |
|
Definition
| bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV), rinderpest, malignant catarrhal fever (MCF) (AHv1/OvH2) |
|
|
Term
| Which gross lesion is characteristic of Glasser's disease in pigs? |
|
Definition
| Fibrinous polyserositis and meningitis (cause is Haemophilus parasuis infection) |
|
|
Term
| What are two common viral etiologies of respiratory disease in pigs? |
|
Definition
| Swine influenza (SIV) and Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome (PRRS) |
|
|
Term
| Horses of which breed appear to be predisposed to congenital cardiac defects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which parasite that causes diarrhea in 5 to 15 day-old calves is a potential zoonosis? |
|
Definition
| Cryptosporidium parvum (cryptosporidiosis is one of the most common causes of protozoal diarrhea in people) |
|
|
Term
| Which vesicular disease causes oral mucosal lesions in pigs, ruminants, and horses? |
|
Definition
| Vesicular stomatitis. Foot and mouth disease (FMD) is not infectious to horses. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common adnexal ocular tumor in the horse, typically seen in breeds such as Belgian, Clydesdale, Appaloosa, and Paint? |
|
Definition
| SCC. It occurs commonly on unpigmented/white skin. |
|
|
Term
| Insidious onset but progressive clinical signs of apprehensive behavior, aggressiveness, hyperesthesia, and incoordination, which are mainly seen in older dairy cows, and are indicative of which infectious disease first reported in 1986? |
|
Definition
| Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE). The most important differential is rabies, due to its zoonotic potential. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of equine coital exanthema? |
|
Definition
| Equine herpesvirus 3 (EHV-3) |
|
|
Term
| Which tick-borne disease of cattle is associated with high fever, intravascular hemolysis, neurologic signs, and death? |
|
Definition
| Babesiosis (also known as "red water" or "tick fever") |
|
|
Term
| In horses, chronic lower respiratory disease characterized by periods of reversible airway obstruction and neutrophilic pulmonary inflammation is termed: |
|
Definition
| Recurrent airway obstruciton (RAO), formerly known as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and commonly referred to as "heaves" |
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for enterolith formation in horses include decreased daily access to pasture grasses and a diet high in which type of hay? |
|
Definition
| Alfalfa (due to high protein content) |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is commonly used for treating cows that have follicular cysts? |
|
Definition
| Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH), which causes release of FHS and LH fromt he anterior pituitary |
|
|
Term
| Which statement is false regarding Brucella abortus infection? A)Infected horses can develop fistulous withers B) Uterine infection occurs during the second trimester C)Bison and elk are considered a reservoir D)It is highly prevalent in North American cattle |
|
Definition
| D) is false. Bovine brucellosis has been nearly eradicated in North America. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 known definitive hosts for Neospora caninum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Within how many hours of birth should a neonatal foal be able to stand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atrophy of which laryngeal muscle leads to laryngeal hemiplegia in the horse? |
|
Definition
| Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis, innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common skin tumor of horses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which heritable muscle disease of quarter horses is characterized by episodes of muscular fasciculations and weakness? |
|
Definition
| Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most likely direction of a femoral head dislocation in a cow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bog spavin is the common term for chronic distension of which joint? |
|
Definition
| Tibiotarsal (joint capsule of the hock) - causing a swelling of the dorsomedial aspect of the hock joint |
|
|
Term
| Which coccidian parasite is associated with post-weaning diarrhea in 5-6 week-old piglets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which statement is false regarding equine viral arteritis? A)It is an RNA virus. B)Mortality is high. C)Standardbreds are particularly susceptible. D)It is diagnosed by virus isolation or serology. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In layperson's terms, congenital erythropoietic porphyria in calves is known as: (The name is also helpful in making this diagnosis) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A newborn foal is considered premature if it is delivered prior to which gestation age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common testicular neoplasm in the aged stallion is: A)teratoma, B)sertoli cell carcinoma, C)seminoma, D)interstitial cell carcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the mare, the embryo is mobile during early pregnancy. The embyro becomes fixed (implanted) by day: !)16-17, B)12-14, C)8-10, D)5-7 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The expected rate of growth for an ovarian follicle in the mare is: A)11-12 mm/day, B)8-9 mm/day, C)6-8 mm/day, D)3-5 mm/day |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is meant by "drying off" a cow, and when is it done? |
|
Definition
| Cessation of milk production, at least several weeks prior to parturition. Thus, milking cows typically are pregnant but not lactating for 2 months prepartum, lactating but not pregnant for 2 months postpartum, and both pregnant and lactating for the rest of the year. |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimal gestational age for viability in sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the adverse effect associated with a cow's consumption of Ponderosa pine tree needles in the last trimester of pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which parasite can cause respiratory distress in cattle, similar to bacterial infections such as those caused by Pasteurella multocida and Mannheimia haemolytica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which telltale medication history often preceeds the diagnosis of right dorsal colitis in horses? |
|
Definition
| NSAIDS, especially Phenylbutazone |
|
|
Term
| Ingestion of which toxic plant can cause arthrogryposis in foals? |
|
Definition
| Locoweed (also possibly hybrid Sudan pasture) |
|
|
Term
| Which body systems are affected in horses with white snakeroot poisoning? |
|
Definition
| Mainly skeletal and cardiac muscle, which explains the muscle tremors, weakness, choke, and cardiac arrhythmias observed clinically. |
|
|
Term
| A pregnant cow's calf is dead in utero and you are about to perform a fetotomy. Which additional piece of equipment do you need: Krey hook, Gigli saw/wire, wire introducer, wire handles, threader and brush, and disposables (gloves, lubes, etc). |
|
Definition
| You need a fetotome, through which to run the saw wire safely inside the cow |
|
|
Term
| Deficiency in which trace mineral is best known for causing muscle weakness and dysphagia in crias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is stringhalt an excessive flexion or an excessive extension of the limbs in a horse? Forelimbs or hindlimbs? |
|
Definition
| Flexion, hindlimbs. The hallmark sign is spasmodic myoclonus, most pronounced when the horse is made to walk backwards. |
|
|
Term
| Which disorder of sheep is commonly caused by Dichelobacter (formerly Bacteroides) nodosus and is treated topically with copper sulfate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If trephination of the maxillary sinus in a horse exceeds the dorsal boundary for this procedure, which important structure can be lacerated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the 3 site for venipuncture in an awake pig. |
|
Definition
| Pinna (convex surface, near lateral border: lateral auricular vein), jugular groove (internal jugular, external jugular, and/or brachiocephalic veins), and orbital venous sinus |
|
|
Term
| In a cow with mastitis, the mammary lymph nodes may be enlarged. Where are these nodes located? |
|
Definition
| Dorsal to the udder, between the medial and lateral laminae of the suspensory apparatus of the udder and cranial to the thick, fat-filled connective tissue in the perineum below the ischial arch. |
|
|
Term
| A herd of pigs shows acute thirst, constipation, and sporadic seizures, characteristically beginning with a sitting position and progressing to opisthotonus. Histologically, there ais cerebral polioencephalomalacia. What is the most likely cause? |
|
Definition
| "Salt poisoning" (actually, water deprivation causing hypernatremia; true ingestion of excessive salt causing vomiting and diarrhea) |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiologic agent of equine protozoal myelitis (EPM)? |
|
Definition
| Sarcocystis neurona (+/- rarely Neospora hughesii) |
|
|
Term
| Hematuria after exercise in the horse is most likely cause by: |
|
Definition
| Cystic calculi (urolithiasis) |
|
|
Term
| Bacterial pneumonia in adult horses is most commonly associated with which organism? |
|
Definition
| Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus |
|
|
Term
| A 3-month old foal is presented in respiratory distress, with a WBC of 23,500 cells/ul and a fibrinogen of 600 mg/dl. What is the most likely etiology in this case? |
|
Definition
| Rhodococcus equi pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| Normal foals consume approximately what percentage of their body weight in milk per day? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which infectious disease of cattle typically can occur after contact with wildebeest or sheep? What is the causative agent? |
|
Definition
| Malignant catarrhal fever (MCF); alcelaphine herpesvirus type 1 (AlHV-1, African strain), ovine herpesvirus type 2 (OvHV-2, sheep isolate |
|
|
Term
| At a hobby farm, a cows and 2 sheep have a 2-day history of sever pruritis and self-trauma. On exam: weakness, recumency, hypersalivarion. These animals have been exposed to feral pigs. What is the most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Aujeszky's disease (pseudorabies) |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the nasal bot of sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a sheep with chronic copper toxicosis, massive release of copper from the liver can trigger which life-threatening event? |
|
Definition
| Sever, acute intravascular hemolysis |
|
|
Term
| In horses, which endocrinopathy is associated with hirsutism due to failure of seasonal haircoat shedding? |
|
Definition
| Pituitary pars intermdia dysfunction (e.g., adenoma) |
|
|
Term
| This disease of sheep and goats is seen in Africa, India, and the Middle East. Characteristic signs include purulent ocular discharge and erosive stomatitis. |
|
Definition
| Peste des pestits reminants |
|
|
Term
| You are living in the mid-Atlantic region of the US and are presented with a six year old Quarter Horse gelding with acute, severe diarrhea, depression and high fever in August. What is the primary initial rule-out? |
|
Definition
| Neorickettsia risticii infection (Potomac horse fever) |
|
|
Term
| Which antimicrobial drug is most commonly used for treatment of suspected anaerobic bacterial involvement in horses with pleuropneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of equine strangles? |
|
Definition
| Streptococcus equi subspecies equi |
|
|
Term
| Which horse breed is best known for having a gentic defect leading to severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the retinal pattern of the equine fundus? |
|
Definition
| Paurangiotic. That is, it has blood vessels that radiate only a short distance from the optic disk. |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 coccidia species are responsible for hemorrhagic diarrhea in cattle? |
|
Definition
| Eimeria bovis and Eimeria zuernii |
|
|
Term
| Bovine trichomoniasis is caused by which organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of blackleg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In horses, laryngeal hemiplegia/roaring typically is an idiopathic condition affecting which nerve on which side? |
|
Definition
| Left recurrent laryngeal nerve. It is longer than the right and thus thought to be more prone to damage. |
|
|
Term
| Differential diagnoses for vesicles on the lips, nostrils, and coronary bands of pigs consist of which 4 disease? |
|
Definition
| Foot and mouth disease (FMD), swine vesicular disease (SVD), vesicular exanthema (VE), and vesicular stomatitis (VS) |
|
|
Term
| What is omphalophlebitis, and how is it best prevented in calves? |
|
Definition
| Infection of the umbilical veins (usually ascending). Prevention mainly requires optimal hygiene and sanitation (e.g., clean bedding) at the time of birth; application of such antiseptics as chlorhexidine to the umbilicus may also be beneficial |
|
|
Term
| Which drug can cause unwanted (and potentially long-lasting) penile prolapse int he horse? What is the synonym for penile prolapse? |
|
Definition
| Acepromazine; paraphimosis |
|
|
Term
| Which additive in a cow's diet alters rumen metabolism and improved feed efficiency, but can cause cardiotoxicosis in horses? |
|
Definition
| Ionophores (e.g., monensin) |
|
|
Term
| Which disease in cattle is thought to be related to Crohn's disease (a chronic enteropathy in humans) |
|
Definition
| Johne's disease (Mycobacterium paratuberculosis infection, which produces a granulomatous enteritis similar to Crohn's disease) |
|
|
Term
| The most common ovarian neoplasm in the mare is: A)cystadenoma, B)dysgerminoma, C)granulosa tecal cell tumor, D)teratoma |
|
Definition
| C)granulosa thecal cell tumor |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a commercially available leutenizing hormone agonist that can be used for hastening ovulation in the mare? A)altrenogest, B)epineprhine, C)follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), D)humane chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) |
|
Definition
| D)human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) |
|
|
Term
| Pneumovagina in the mare is associated with chronic inflammation and infection of the reproductive tract. It is associated with: A)the long vaginal tract in large mares, B)a wide pelvis, C)excessive body condition, D)poor perineal conformation |
|
Definition
| D)poor perineal conformation |
|
|
Term
| A viral disease of mice which can result in late gestation pregnancy loss and disease in nursing piglets in swine herds is: A)encephalomyocarditis virus, B)Japanese B encephalitis virus, C)porcine parvovirus, D)porcine rubulovirus |
|
Definition
| A)encephalomyocarditis virus |
|
|
Term
| Pigs in modern, intensive, produciton units are weaned at approximately which age: A)3 weeks (range 3-4 weeks), B)4 weeks (range 4-5 weeks), C)5 weeks (range 5-6 weeks), D) 6 weeks (range 6-7 weeks)? |
|
Definition
| A)3 weeks (range 3-4 weeks) |
|
|
Term
| In horses, which body system is affected in cases of Arabian fading syndrome? |
|
Definition
| The integument. It is an idiopathic, acquired loss of pigmentation of the skin, or vitiligo (the name refers to fading color, not loss of stamina). |
|
|
Term
| Pasteruziation requires heating milk to 161oF (71.7oC) to kill this ubiquitous zoonotic organism, which also causes neurologic disease when it infects cattle and sheep. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of abomasal impaction? |
|
Definition
| Poor quality/coarse roughage as the sole feed (typically used in overwintering beef cows) |
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause of ataxia and proprioceptive deficits in horses that can be found worldwide? |
|
Definition
| Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy ("Wobbler syndrome")(CSM) |
|
|
Term
| Match the species of Brucella to the principal host: abortus, melitensis, suis; pig, cow, sheep. Only 1 does not also infect bison. Which one? |
|
Definition
| B. abortus: cow. Be melitensis: sheep. B suis: pig. B. melitensis does not infect bison. |
|
|
Term
| What causes transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) in pigs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You are presnted with a depressed, two day-old colt; bloodwork reveals profound azotemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. What is the primary rule-out? |
|
Definition
| Uroperitoneum secondary to urinary bladder rupture; this can occur during parturition or as a result of excessive handling of the foal, especially if the foal is lifted from under the abdomen, which should be avoided |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for ketosis in dairy cattle? |
|
Definition
| Parentral glucose administration; oral propylene glycol; possibly insulin; possilby corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology of equine motor neuron disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 2 species of mites that can infect horses. |
|
Definition
| Sarcoptes scabei, Chorioptes equi, Psorptes equi, Pyemotes tritici |
|
|
Term
| Lymphoma associated with bovine leukemia virus occurs most often in which of the following age groups: a)<6 months; B)1-2 years; C)>5 years |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the porential outcomes of toxoplasmosis in a pregnant ewe? |
|
Definition
| Embryonic death & resorption, fetal death & mummification, abortion, stillbirth, and neonatal death (~SMEDI) |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the condition in which a calf has female external gentalia but male gonads and reproductive tract? |
|
Definition
| Male pseudohermaphrodism. A true hermaphrodite has both male and female reproductive organs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the major route of transmission for Neospora caninum in cattle? |
|
Definition
| Transplacental (vertical) transmission |
|
|
Term
| Infection with Streptococcus equi equi can result in pharyngeal obstruction after abscessation of which lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
| Medal and lateral retropharyngeal |
|
|
Term
| What is the common mineral compsition of an equine enterolith? |
|
Definition
| Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate cyrstals (struvite) |
|
|
Term
| What is the mean gestation length of the mare? |
|
Definition
| 340-342 days (based on data in Thoroughbreds; range 325-357 days) |
|
|
