Shared Flashcard Set


A+ Study Questions
A+ Study Questions
Computer Networking
Not Applicable

Additional Computer Networking Flashcards




What voltage does an orange pin indicate?
❍ A. +12 V
❍ B. +5 V
❍ C. –5 V
❍ D. +3.3 V
D. Orange signifies +3.3 volts. Red indicates +5 volts, and yellow is +12 volts; –5
volts would be the white optional wire.
Which motherboard form factor measures 12 inches × 9.6 inches?
❍ A. microATX
❍ B. BTX
❍ C. ATX
❍ D. ITX
C. ATX boards measure 12 inches × 9.6 inches.
Which expansion bus uses lanes to transfer data?
❍ A. PCI
❍ B. PCI-X
❍ C. PCIe
❍ D. AGP
C. PCIe (PCI Express) uses serial lanes to send and receive data.
Which does a PCIe x16 slot connect to? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A. RAM
❍ B. Southbridge
❍ C. USB 3.0 controller
❍ D. Northbridge
❍ E. Processor
D and E. PCIe x16 connects to the northbridge on AMD systems and older Intel
systems. On newer Intel systems it connects to the processor.
Which of these are serial technologies? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. USB
❍ B. IEEE 1394
❍ C. PCIe
❍ D. PCI
A, B, and C. The only one listed that is not a serial technology is PCI, which is a
32-bit parallel technology.
Which component supplies power to the CMOS when the computer is off?
❍ A. Lithium battery
❍ C. Power supply
A. The lithium battery supplies power to the CMOS when the computer is off.
This is because the CMOS is volatile and would otherwise lose the stored settings
when the computer is turned off.
To implement a secure boot process, which device should be listed first in the
Boot Device Priority screen?
❍ A. Floppy drive
❍ C. USB
❍ D. Hard drive
D. To ensure that other users cannot boot the computer from removable media,
set the first device in the Boot Device Priority screen to hard drive.
What is the term for how the BIOS readies the computer for and initiates the
booting of the operating system?
❍ A. Bootlegging
❍ B. Booting
❍ C. Bootstrapping
C. Bootstrapping is accomplished by the BIOS. It is defined as one system readying the computer and leading to another larger system.
Which of the following is used by the CPU to communicate with system memory?
❍ A. Southbridge
❍ C. Northbridge
❍ D. PCIe
C. The northbridge is used by the CPU to communicate with system memory
(RAM). Remember that on newer Intel motherboards, the northbridge functionality
is built into the CPU.
Before installing a motherboard, what should you do? (Select the best answer.)
❍ A. Install the processor.
❍ B. Verify that it is compatible with the case.
❍ C. Employ ESD prevention methods.
❍ D. Test the motherboard with a multimeter.
C. Always employ ESD prevention methods before working with any components
inside the computer. Although A and B are correct, they are not the best answers.
1. Which of these is the speed of the CPU?
❍ A. External clock speed
❍ B. DMI transfer rate
❍ C. Internal clock speed
❍ D. Bus speed
C. The internal clock speed is the speed of the CPU, for example 2.4 GHz. The
external clock speed is the speed of the FSB (not used in newer motherboards).
The DMI data transfer rate is the amount of data transmitted between the CPU
and chipset, for example 20 Gbps. The bus speed (base clock) is what the internal
clock speed is based off. An example of a base clock system bus speed
would be 100 MHz.
Which of the following sockets work with an i7 processor?
❍ A. AM2
❍ B. 1366
❍ C. 940
❍ D. 775
B. Intel’s LGA 1366 socket can house a Core i7 CPU. (The 1155 and 1156 could
as well.) LGA 775 is an older Intel socket. AM2 and 940 are AMD sockets.
Which is the fastest cache memory?
❍ A. L2
❍ B. L3
❍ D. L1
3. D. L1 is the fastest cache memory and is located within the CPU’s core.
What does Hyper-Threading do?
❍ A. It gives you multiple cores within the CPU.
❍ B. It enables for four simultaneous threads to be processed by one CPU
❍ C. It enables for two simultaneous threads to be processed by one CPU
❍ D. It is a high-speed connection from the CPU to RAM.
C. Hyper-Threading allows for an operating system to send two simultaneous
threads to be processed by a single CPU core. The OS views the CPU core as
two virtual processors. Multiple cores would infer multicore technology that
means that there are two physical processing cores within the CPU package. The
high-speed connection used by AMD from the CPU to RAM is HyperTransport.
What seals the tiny gaps between the CPU cap and the heat sink?
❍ A. Thermal jelly
❍ B. Peanut butter and jelly
❍ C. 3-in-1 house oil
❍ D. Thermal compound
D. Thermal compound is used to seal the small gaps between the CPU and heat
sink. Did I ever tell you about the time I found grape jelly inside a customer’s
What is the amount of power required to cool the computer?
❍ A. FSB
❍ B. TDP
❍ C. MMX
❍ D. TDK
B. TDP (Thermal design point) is the amount of power required to cool a computer
and is linked directly to the amount of heat a CPU creates.
Which kind of socket incorporates “lands” to ensure connectivity to a CPU?
❍ A. PGA
❍ B. Chipset
❍ C. LGA
❍ D. Copper
C. LGA (Land Grid Array) is the type of socket that uses “lands” to connect the
socket to the CPU. PGA sockets have pinholes that make for connectivity to the
CPU’s copper pins.
Which of these is a difference between clock speed and bus speed?
❍ A. The clock speed is the external speed of the CPU; it is the same as
the bus speed.
❍ B. The clock speed matches the RAM speed.
❍ C. The clock speed is the internal speed of the CPU.
❍ D. The bus speed is the speed of the CPU.
C. The clock speed (also known as clock rate) is the internal speed of the CPU,
for example the Core i5-2400 runs at 3.1 GHz by default.
When deciding on a CPU for use with a specific motherboard, what does it need
to be compatible with?
❍ A. Case
❍ B. Socket
❍ C. Wattage range
❍ D. PCI slots
B. The CPU needs to be compatible with the socket of the motherboard. The
case doesn’t actually make much of a difference when it comes to the CPU.
(Just make sure it’s large enough!) There is no wattage range, but you should be
concerned with the voltage range of the CPU, and PCI slots don’t actually play
into this at all because there is no direct connectivity between the two.
Which technology divides the RAM slots into colors?
❍ A. ECC
❍ B. Parity
❍ C. Double-sided
❍ D. Dual channel
D. Dual-channel memory configurations have two RAM slots of a particular color,
each one of which is placed in a different channel; these are collectively known
as banks.
Which of these is the delay it takes for a memory module to start sending data
to the memory controller?
❍ A. DDR
❍ B. Propagation
❍ C. Latency
❍ D. FSB
C. Latency is the delay between the memory module and the memory controller,
usually rated as CL and a number.
What is the transfer rate of DDR2-800?
❍ A. 6,400 MB/s
❍ B. 8,533 MB/s
❍ C. 5,333 MB/s
❍ D. 800 MHz
A. DDR2-800 can transfer 6,400 MB/s; DDR2-1066 transfers 8,533 MB/s. DDR2-
667 transfers 5,333 MB/s. MHz is sometimes used to refer to the amount of
megatransfers per second; in this case, the RAM can do 800 MT/s.
Which of these would you find internal to the CPU?
D. One function of SRAM is to act as CPU cache. L1 cache would be internal to
the CPU or in the core. L2 would be on-die.
What is the transfer rate of DDR3-1600?
❍ A. 6,400 MB/s
❍ B. 12,800 MB/s
❍ C. 14,933 MB/s
❍ D. 17,066 MB/s
B. The transfer rate of DDR3-1600 is 12,800 MB/s. DDR3-800 is 6,400 MB/s.
DDR3-1866 is 14,933 MB/s. DDR3-2133 is 17,066 MB/s.
Which chip designates where data will be stored in RAM?
❍ A. Southbridge
❍ B. Northbridge
❍ C. CPU
B. The northbridge, specifically the memory controller chip, is in charge of storing
and retrieving data to and from RAM. Even though new systems use a memory
controller that is part of the CPU, it is not the CPU that is in charge of this.
The CPU knows what bytes it wants but not the location of those bytes.
How many pins are on a DDR3 memory module?
❍ A. 168
❍ B. 184
❍ C. 240
❍ D. 200
C. DDR3 is a 240-pin architecture. 168-pin is the original SDRAM, 184-pin is the
first version of DDR (DDR1), and you can find 200-pin architectures in laptops;
they are known as SODIMMs.
Where can you view how much RAM you have in the computer? (Select all that
❍ A. Task Manager
❍ B. My Computer
❍ C. System Properties
A, C, and D. The BIOS displays what type of RAM you have and the amount.
Windows has several locations in which you can discern how much RAM there
is, including the Task Manager, System Properties, and System Information.
How should you hold RAM when installing it?
❍ A. By the edges
❍ B. By the front and back
❍ C. With tweezers
❍ D. With an Integrated Circuit (IC) puller
A. Hold RAM by the edges to avoid contact with the pins, chips, and circuitry.
What tool would you use to test the amount of voltage that comes from an AC
❍ A. Multimeter
❍ B. Voltage detector
❍ C. Receptacle tester
❍ D. Impedance tester
A. The multimeter is the only testing tool that can display voltage numerically.
Which of the following is a representation of potential energy?
❍ A. Wattage
❍ B. Voltage
❍ C. Impedance
❍ D. Amperage
B. Voltage is a representation of potential energy; an analogy for voltage would
be water pressure in a pipe.
Which wire when tested should display zero volts on a multimeter?
❍ A. Neutral
❍ B. Hot
❍ C. Ground
❍ D. Red
C. When testing the ground wire with a multimeter, it should display a reading of
zero volts.
Which device should you use to protect against power outages?
❍ A. Multimeter
❍ B. UPS
❍ C. FedEx
❍ D. Surge protector
B. The UPS is the only item listed that protects the computer from power outages
like blackouts and brownouts
You want a cost-effective solution to the common surges that can affect your
computer. Which device would be the best solution?
❍ A. UPS
❍ B. Surge protector
❍ C. Power strip
❍ D. Line conditioner
B. A surge protector is the right solution at the right price. A UPS is a possible
solution but costs more than a surge protector. A line conditioner also would be
a viable solution but, again, is overkill. And a power strip doesn’t necessarily
have surge protection functionality.
Which of these is an unexpected increase in voltage?
❍ A. Sag
❍ B. Blackout
❍ C. Spike
❍ D. Whiteout
C. A spike (or a surge) is an unexpected increase in voltage. A sag is a decrease
in voltage, a blackout is a power outage, and a whiteout is actually a blizzard,
which could result in a blackout!
Which device tests multiple wires of a power supply at the same time?
❍ A. Multimeter
❍ B. Power supply tester
❍ C. Line conditioner
❍ D. Surge protector
B. The power supply tester tests 3.3 V, 5 V, –5 V, 12 V, and –12 V simultaneously.
A multimeter tests only one wire at a time. Line conditioners and surge protectors
are preventative devices, not testing devices.
Which power connector would be used to power an IDE hard drive?
❍ A. Molex
❍ B. Mini
❍ C. P1
❍ D. P8/P9
A. Molex connectors power IDE devices. Mini connectors are for floppy drives,
P1 is a name used for the main motherboard connector, and P8/P9 are legacy
main power connectors for AT systems.
Which of the following uses a 24-pin main motherboard power connector?
❍ A. ATX
❍ B. ATX 12V 1.3
❍ C. ATX 12V 2.0
❍ D. ATX 5V 2.0
C. ATX 12V 2.0 combined the 20-pin and 4-pin connectors used in ATX 12V 1.3
into one 24-pin connector.
What voltages are supplied by a Molex power connector?
❍ A. 12 V and 5 V
❍ B. 5 V and 3.3 V
❍ C. 3.3 V and 1.5 V
❍ D. 24 V and 12 V
A. Molex connectors provide 12 volts and 5 volts. There are four wires: Yellow is
12 V, red is 5 V, and two blacks which are grounds.
What is the maximum data transfer rate of SATA revision 1.0?
❍ A. 1.5 Mbps
❍ B. 300 MB/s
❍ C. 150 MB/s
❍ D. 1.5 GB/s
C. SATA Revision 1.0 can transfer a maximum of 150 MB/s; though most
devices won’t ever attain that maximum. The standard specifies the transmission
of 1.5 Gbps (notice the lowercase ‘b’ for bits); 300 MB/s is the data transfer rate
of SATA Revision 2.0.
Which of these is the delay it takes for the hard drive to access a particular sector
on the disk?
❍ A. Actuator
❍ B. Latency
❍ C. Lag
❍ D. Propagation
B. Latency is the delay it takes for the hard drive to access the data; it is directly
related to the rotational speed (RPM) of the disk.
What should you do first to repair a drive that is acting sluggish?
❍ A. Remove the drive and recover the data.
❍ B. Run Disk Cleanup.
❍ C. Run Disk Defragmenter.
❍ D. Scan for viruses.
C. Attempt to defragment the disk. If it is not necessary, Windows lets you know.
Then you can move to other options such as scanning the drive for viruses.
How much data can a SATA revision 3.0 drive transfer per second?
❍ A. 1.5 Gb/s
❍ B. 3.0 Gb/s
❍ C. 4.5 Gb/s
❍ D. 6.0 Gb/s
D. SATA Revision 3.0 drives can transfer 6.0 Gb/s. Revision 1.0 does 1.5 Gb/s.
Revision 2.0 does 3.0 Gb/s.
How many pins are there in a SATA drive’s data and power connectors?
❍ A. 40 and 4
❍ B. 8 and 16
❍ C. 7 and 15
❍ D. 80 and 4
C. The SATA drive uses a 7-pin data connector and a 15-pin power connector.
Ultra ATA IDE hard drives have a 40-pin data connector and 4-pin power connector.
The IDE drive’s cable might have 80 conductors or wires, but it still physically
connects through 40 pins.
What kind of cable does a floppy drive use?
❍ A. 40-pin IDE
❍ B. 80-pin IDE
❍ C. 34-pin IDE
❍ D. 168-pin IDE
C. The floppy drive uses a 34-pin ribbon cable to transfer data. IDE hard drives
use a 40-pin ribbon cable; 168-pin refers to the amount of pins in SDRAM.
What is the maximum data transfer rate of an Ultra3 SCSI device?
❍ A. 320 MB/s
❍ B. 160 MB/s
❍ C. 640 MB/s
❍ D. 300 MB/s
B. Ultra3 SCSI can transfer a maximum of 160 MB/s. Ultra-320 SCSI can transfer
320 MB/s, Ultra-640 can transfer 640 MB/s, and SAS (Serial Attached SCSI)
and SATA Revision 2.0 can transfer 300 MB/s.
In a two drive IDE configuration, drive 0 would be the __________, and drive 1
would be the ____________.
❍ A. Slave, master
❍ B. Cable select, slave
❍ C. Slave, single
❍ D. Master, slave
D. In PATA IDE two-drive configurations, drive 0 would be the master and drive 1
would be the slave. Cable select is a drive mode that autoconfigures drives as
master or slave depending on their cable position. Single means a single drive
configuration with no configuration necessary.
What is a standard connector for an external SCSI device?
❍ A. 240 pin
❍ B. 68 pin
❍ C. 40 pin
❍ D. 7 pin
B. External SCSI connections often have 68 pins. DDR2 and DDR3 have 240
pins. IDE data cables have 40 pins. SATA data cables have 7 pins.
Which of the following is hot-swappable?
❍ A. Floppy drive
❍ B. Tape drive
❍ C. Hard drive
❍ D. DVD drive
C. Hard drives can be hot-swappable. This is common in NAS devices and
advanced servers. It is not common in PCs. Tape drives, floppy drives, and DVD
drives are not hot-swappable. However, they use media that can be inserted and
removed while the computer is on. Tricky, eh? Be ready for these types of questions.
What devices would use a SCSI cable? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A. SSD
❍ B. Tape drive
❍ C. Floppy drive
❍ D. IDE drive
❍ E. Hard drive
B and E. The best answers are tape drives and hard drives. Not IDE or SATA
drives, but SCSI drives themselves.
What does the x refer to in Compact Disc technology?
❍ A. 150 KB/s
❍ B. 1.32 MB/s
❍ C. 133 MB/s
❍ D. 4.5 MB/s
A. The x in CD technology is equal to 150 KB/s. A 1x drive can read or write 150
KB/s; a 2x drive can read or write 300 KB/s; and so on. 1.32 MB/s is the 1x
speed of a DVD. 133 MB/s is the maximum data transfer rate of an Ultra ATA-7
connection, and 4.5 MB/s is the 1x speed of a Blu-ray disc.
Which of the following has the largest potential for storage capacity?
❍ A. CD-R
❍ B. CD-RW
❍ D. Blu-ray
D. Blu-ray, at a maximum of 50 GB has the largest storage capacity. CDs top out
just under 1 GB. DVDs have a maximum of 17 GB.
What is the maximum capacity of a Blu-ray disc?
❍ A. 700 MB
❍ B. 4.7 GB
❍ C. 17 GB
❍ D. 50 GB
D. Standard 12cm Blu-ray discs have a maximum capacity of 50 GB. A typical
CD capacity is 700 MB; 4.7 GB is the capacity of the common DVD-5, and 17
GB is the capacity of a DVD-18 (using both sides).
If a user wants to write information more than one time to a DVD, which type
should you recommend? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. DVD-R
❍ D. DVD+R
B and C. DVD–RW and DVD+RW are the rewritable versions of DVDs. DVD-R
and DVD+R are write-once formats.
What should you do before physically removing a USB flash drive? (Select the
best answer.)
❍ A. Turn it off.
❍ B. Shut down Windows.
❍ C. Format the drive.
❍ D. Use the Safely Remove icon.
D. In Windows you can either double-click the Safely Remove Hardware icon in
the System Tray (Notification Area) or right-click it to bring up the Safely Remove
Hardware window. From there click Stop to shut down power to the device.
Shutting off Windows is another possibility but not the best answer because it
is time-consuming.
How are most solid-state media formatted by the manufacturer?
❍ A. As FAT32
❍ B. As NTFS
❍ C. As FAT16
❍ D. As FAT12
A. FAT32 is the most common file system used on solid-state media such as
USB flash drives, SD cards, and CF cards. FAT16 is another possibility but less
common. Users have the option to reformat most of these devices as NTFS if
they want.
What is the main difference between SD and SDIO?
❍ A. SD cards are faster.
❍ B. SDIO cards incorporate input/output functionality.
❍ C. SD cards incorporate input/output functionality.
❍ D. SDIO cards can identify a user’s cell phone.
B. SDIO cards integrate I/O functionality into a standard SD card. They are basically
the same speed as SD cards. Answer D is referring to SIM cards, not SDIO
What kind of controller is built into a CF card?
❍ B. IDE
❍ C. ATA
C. An ATA controller is built into the CF card and many other solid-state technologies.
Which kinds of ports can typically be found on a laptop? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. RJ45
❍ B. USB
❍ C. IEEE 1284
❍ D. DVI
A, B, and D. RJ45, USB, and DVI ports are all common on a laptop. However,
IEEE 1284 printer ports are not common.
What kind of video technology do most laptops incorporate currently?
❍ A. TFT Active Matrix
❍ B. Passive Matrix
❍ C. CRT
❍ D. TFT Passive Matrix
A. TFT active matrix LCDs are the most common in laptops today. Passive
matrix screens have been discontinued; although you might see an older laptop
that utilizes this technology. There is no TFT passive matrix, and cathode ray
tubes (CRTs) were used only on the first laptops many years ago. Due to a CRT’s
weight and heavy power usage, it is not a good solution for laptops.
What is a common resolution on today’s laptops?
❍ A. 640x480
❍ B. 800x600
❍ C. 1280x800
❍ D. 2048x1536
C. 1280x800 (WXGA) is a common resolution used by today’s laptops. 640x480
and 800x600 are older VGA modes that can’t fit much on the screen. 2048x1536
(QXGA) is a higher resolution than most laptops’ video adapters can display. For
more information on resolutions see Chapter 12.
If a user wanted to stretch their desktop across two monitors, what Windows
technology would they look for?
❍ A. Multiple monitor
❍ B. Video replication
❍ C. SideCar
❍ D. DualView
D. DualView enables a laptop running Windows to stretch the desktop across
two monitors. It is a basic version of Multiple Monitor that is only available on
desktop PCs. SideCar is a third-party hardware/software solution that enables a
desktop PC or laptop to stretch the desktop over multiple monitors but is not
included in Windows.
What is the most common battery used by today’s laptops?
❍ A. Double AA batteries
❍ B. Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
❍ C. Nickel-metal hydride (NiMH)
❍ D. Nickel-cadmium (NiCd)
B. There are a few different types of batteries that a laptop might use including
Lithium-ion (Li-ion), Nickel-metal hydride (NiMH), and Nickel-cadmium (NiCd),
but Lithium-ion is by far the most common. Believe it or not, some laptops
(namely children’s) can run on 4 AA batteries, but it is not common or feasible in
today’s business environments.
Where would a user go to modify the battery alarms in Windows?
❍ A. Display Properties window
❍ B. Power Properties window
❍ D. Power Options window
D. To change the thresholds for battery alarms, a user would access the Power
Options window.
Which of the following has the fastest data transfer rate?
❍ A. CardBus
❍ B. ExpressCard PCIe
❍ C. PC Card
❍ D. ExpressCard USB
B. ExpressCard in PCI Express mode (PCIe) has the highest data transfer rate at
250 MB/s. The next fastest would be CardBus, followed by ExpressCard in USB
mode, with PC Card bringing up the rear.
Which of the following are ways that a laptop can communicate with other computers?
(Select all that apply)
❍ A. Bluetooth
❍ C. Ultraviolet
❍ D. Cellular WAN
8. A, B, and D. Laptops can communicate with other computers through Bluetooth,
WLAN, IrDA, and Cellular WAN wireless connections, plus wired connections like
Ethernet (RJ45) and dial-up (RJ11).
What is the pinout for a stick of SO-DIMM DDR RAM?
❍ A. 200
❍ B. 168
❍ C. 144
❍ D. 204
9. A. DDR SODIMM modules have 200 pins. Desktop SDRAM has 168 pins.
SODIMM SDRAM has 144 pins, and DDR3 SODIMMs have 204 pins.
How many pins are in a laptop’s PATA hard drive?
❍ A. 40
❍ B. 200
❍ C. 68
❍ D. 44
D. A laptop’s PATA hard drive has a 44-pin IDE connection that includes the four
power pins.
How are SODIMMs installed to a laptop?
❍ A. By pressing straight down
❍ B. Into a ZIF socket
❍ C. On a 45-degree angle
❍ D. On a 90-degree angle
C. SODIMMs are installed to a laptop at a 45-degree angle unlike a desktop’s DDR
memory that is installed by pressing straight down. ZIF sockets refer to CPUs.
What should you do when upgrading a CPU in a laptop? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. Check documentation to see if the CPU is supported.
❍ B. Install more RAM.
❍ C. Employ antistatic measures.
❍ D. Remove the system board.
A and C. When upgrading a CPU in a laptop, check for laptop documentation to
see if the faster CPU is supported; then employ ESD prevention measures. More
RAM is not necessary when upgrading a CPU, but it could help the laptop get
the best out of the CPU if an open memory slot is available. Usually the system
board does not have to be removed to replace or upgrade a CPU.
Which level of RAID uses two disks only?
❍ A. RAID 0
❍ B. RAID 1
❍ C. RAID 5
❍ D. Striping
B. RAID 1 (mirroring) uses two disks only. RAID 0 (striping) can use two disks or
more, and RAID 5 (striping with parity) can use three disks or more.
Which level of RAID stripes data and parity across three or more disks?
❍ A. RAID 0
❍ B. RAID 1
❍ C. RAID 5
❍ D. Striping
C. RAID 5 stripes data and parity across three or more disks. RAID 0 does not
stripe parity, it stripes data only and can use two disks or more. RAID 1 uses two
disks only. Striping is another name for RAID 0.
Which level of RAID contains two sets of mirrored disks that are then striped?
❍ A. RAID 0
❍ B. RAID 1
❍ C. RAID 5
❍ D. RAID 10
D. RAID 10 contains two sets of mirrored disks that are then striped. RAID 0 is a
set of two or more disks that stripe data. RAID 1 is a mirror. RAID 5 is striping
with parity.
Which expansion bus slot is typically white in color?
❍ A. PCIe
❍ B. AGP
❍ C. PCI
❍ D. LCD
C. Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slots are usually white in color. PCIe
are often black or blue, AGP slots are often brown, and LCD is a type of monitor.
Which of the following supports digital only connections?
❍ A. DVI-A
❍ B. DVI-D
❍ C. DVI-I
❍ D. VGA
B. DVI-D supports digital-only connections, which are common on newer LCDs.
DVI-A supports analog-only. DVI-I supports both digital and analog, and VGA is
an analog connection.
When installing a video card, what should you do before inserting the card into
the slot?
❍ A. Connect cables.
❍ B. Install drivers.
❍ C. Test.
❍ D. Prepare the slot.
D. Before inserting the card into the slot, prepare the slot by manipulating any
locking mechanism and removing the appropriate slot cover(s).
Which of the following uses a TFT active-matrix display? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. LCD
❍ B. CRT
❍ C. Projector
❍ D. Laptop
A and D. Liquid Crystal Displays normally use the TFT active-matrix technology.
Laptops have LCDs so they use the same technology.
Where is the best place to get the latest driver for a video card?
❍ A. Microsoft
❍ C. A friend
❍ D. Manufacturer’s website
D. The manufacturer’s website is the best place to get the latest driver. The disc
supplied with the card is usually satisfactory, but it will not be the latest driver.
How many colors are there if the color depth in Windows is set to 24 bit?
❍ A. 16
❍ B. 65,536
❍ C. 16,777,216
❍ D. 24
C. 24-bit color is equal to 16,777,216 colors in total, otherwise known as 224
power. Sixteen colors would be 4-bit, 65,536 colors would be 16-bit, and there is
no setting that allows for 24 colors.
A computer is set to 1280x1024 resolution. Which standard is it using?
❍ A. XGA
B. Super eXtended Graphics Array (SXGA) resolution is 1280x1024.
What resolution does Windows use when started in Safe Mode?
❍ A. 800x600
❍ B. 1024x768
❍ C. 640x480
❍ D. 1280x800
C. Safe Mode boots the computer with a minimal set of drivers including the
video driver. Due to this, the resolution is set to 640x480 VGA mode.
What is a common refresh rate for an LCD?
❍ A. 30 Hz
❍ B. 60 Hz
❍ C. 200 Hz
❍ D. 60 MHz
B. A typical refresh rate for LCDs is 60 Hz.
What is the maximum amount of monitors Windows allows in a Multiple Monitor
❍ A. 10
❍ B. 2
❍ C. 4
❍ D. 1
A. The Multiple Monitor feature in Windows 7/Vista/XP supports up to 10 monitors.
A laptop supports a lesser version of Multiple Monitor known as DualView,
which supports a maximum of 2 monitors.
What types of cables are used to connect speakers/audio devices to a sound
card? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. 1/8-inch mini-jacks
❍ B. DVI
❍ D. RCA
A and C. The colored connectors on the back of the sound card are known as TRS
1/8-inch mini-jacks. S/PDIF is the optical output (and possibly input) found on the
back of the sound card. DVI is a video port, and RCA is another port that can be
used for video and audio but won’t be found on the back of a sound card; however,
RCA might be found on I/O drives that are loaded into the front of a computer in a
5.25-inch bay, enabling for greater connectivity on the computer’s front panel.
Which of the following are commonly used expansion buses for sound cards?
(Select all that apply.)
❍ A. AGP
❍ B. PCI
❍ C. PCIe
❍ D. AMR
B and C. PCI Express (x1) and PCI are common expansion buses for sound
cards. AGP is for video-only, and AMR, although it used to be utilized for combination
sound/modem cards, is rarely seen today.
What standard is followed by most sound card manufacturers for the colors of
the 1/8 mini-jacks?
❍ A. PCI
❍ B. PC 99
❍ C. PC 100
❍ D. PCIe
B. PC 99 specifies the color scheme used by all kinds of equipment including a
sound card’s 1/8 mini-jacks.
What is the total data rate of an audio CD?
❍ A. 320 kbps
❍ B. 160 kbps
❍ C. 1411 kbps
❍ D. 9.6 Mbps
C. 1411 kbps is the total data rate (or bit rate) of an audio CD. 320 kbps is the
maximum data rate for MP3, 160 kbps is a common data rate for WMA files, and
9.6 Mbps is the total data rate of DVD-Audio.
What is the data transfer rate (speed) of USB 3.0?
❍ A. 12 Mbps
❍ B. 400 Mbps
❍ C. 480 Mbps
❍ D. 5 Gbps
D. 5 Gbps is the data rate for USB 3.0; 12 Mbps is the data rate for USB version
1.1; and 400 Mbps is the data rate of IEEE 1394a (FireWire 400). USB 2.0 has a
maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps.
What is the maximum amount of USB devices a computer can support?
❍ A. 4
❍ B. 63
❍ C. 127
❍ D. 255
C. USB can support up to 127 devices on one computer. However USB hubs
will be necessary to go beyond the amount of USB ports (usually 4 or 6) commonly
found on a system. FireWire supports up to 63 devices.
Which type of USB connector is normally found on a desktop PC or laptop?
❍ A. Type A
❍ B. Type B
❍ C. Type C
❍ D. Type D
A. Type A connectors are almost always included on desktop PCs and laptops.
What is the maximum data transfer rate of IEEE 1394a?
❍ A. 400 Mbps
❍ B. 800 Mbps
❍ C. 1,600 Mbps
❍ D. 3,200 Mbps
A. IEEE 1394a specifies a maximum data transfer rate of 400 Mbps. IEEE 1394b
specifies 800 Mbps, 1,600 Mbps, and 3,200 Mbps.
You just installed a bar code reader to a laptop. What should you do next?
❍ A. Adjust the light wavelength.
❍ B. Test the reader by reading bar codes.
❍ C. Program the reader to recognize codes.
❍ D. Point the bar code reader at someone.
C. After physical installation and installing the driver for the device, program the
reader to recognize the codes.
What does a KVM do?
❍ A. Connects a computer to Bluetooth-enabled devices
❍ B. Allows multiple users to share a single computer
❍ C. Networks multiple computers together
❍ D. Connects multiple computers to save resources
D. A KVM connects multiple computers to a single keyboard, mouse, and monitor.
This way, fewer resources in the way of peripherals (input/output devices) are
necessary to use the computers.
You are installing a wireless keyboard to a PC. What does the PC require?
❍ A. Bluetooth dongle
❍ B. Infrared connection
❍ C. Ethernet connection
❍ D. USB port
A. Wireless keyboards and mice often use Bluetooth to transmit to a PC or laptop.
The computer must either have a built-in Bluetooth antenna or a Bluetooth
dongle connected to a USB port for the keyboard to function.
Which of the following is the best type of custom computer for use with ProTools?
❍ A. CAD/CAM workstation
❍ B. Audio/Video Workstation
❍ C. Gaming PC
B. The audio/video workstation is the type of custom computer that would use
ProTools, Logic Pro, and other music and video editing programs.
What do CAD/CAM workstations require most?
❍ A. Liquid cooling and RAM
❍ B. TV tuner and silent hard drive
❍ C. Surround sound card and joystick
❍ D. Powerful CPU and RAM
D. A CAD/CAM workstation most requires a powerful CPU and RAM. Liquid
cooling, surround sound cards, and joysticks are required by gaming PCs. TV
tuners and silent hard drives are needed by HTPCs.
Your organization needs to run Windows 7 in a virtual environment. The OS is
expected to require a huge amount of resources for a powerful application it will
run. What should you install Windows 7 to?
❍ A. Type 2 hypervisor
❍ B. Gaming PC
❍ C. Type 1 hypervisor
❍ D. Thin client
C. If the virtual operating system needs a lot of resources, the best bet is a “bare
metal” type 1 hypervisor. Type 2 hypervisors run on top of an operating system
and therefore are not as efficient with resources. Gaming PCs have lots of
resources but are not meant to run virtual environments. Thin clients have the
least amount of resources.
What are some of the elements of a home server PC? (Select the two best
❍ A. Liquid cooling
❍ B. Fast network adapter
❍ C. The best CPU
❍ D. RAID array
❍ E. Gamepad
B and D. Home server PCs require a fast network adapter for the quick transfer of
files over the network and a RAID array to offer fast and reliable access to data.
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