Term
| Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test? |
|
Definition
| Computer Systems Programming |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill
level? |
|
Definition
| Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission? |
|
Definition
| Communications Focal Point |
|
|
Term
| What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized |
|
Definition
| At Headquarters Air Force (HAF). |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization
and is used as a tool to manage positions? |
|
Definition
| Unit Manpower Document (UMD). |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system
or support function? |
|
Definition
| Program Element Code (PEC). |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager
(AFCFM)? |
|
Definition
| Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM). |
|
|
Term
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field
Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? |
|
Definition
| MAJCOM Functional Manager. |
|
|
Term
Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training
Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team
(STRT)? |
|
Definition
| Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop
(U&TW)? |
|
Definition
| AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer. |
|
|
Term
What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan
(CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements
Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? |
|
Definition
| Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) |
|
|
Term
| What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)? |
|
Definition
| Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC)
monitor? |
|
Definition
| Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR). |
|
|
Term
| Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center? |
|
Definition
| Job Qualification Standard |
|
|
Term
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve
Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)? |
|
Definition
Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in
the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost |
|
|
Term
| How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis? |
|
Definition
| Job Safety Training (JST) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1? |
|
Definition
| Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. |
|
|
Term
| Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)? |
|
Definition
| American National Standard Institute (ANSI). |
|
|
Term
Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E)
electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of |
|
Definition
| Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). |
|
|
Term
| Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official? |
|
Definition
| The authoring OPR’s supervisor. |
|
|
Term
What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain
through all federal and non-federal systems? |
|
Definition
| Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS). |
|
|
Term
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by
United States Code (USC) Title |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are
established in United States Code (USC) Title |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities? |
|
Definition
| Military Construction (MILCON). |
|
|
Term
What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and
Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation,
administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program? |
|
Definition
| Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally
presented? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer
(SAF/CIO) annual awards? |
|
Definition
| 1 October - 30 September. |
|
|
Term
| The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is not a type of UNIX pathname? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers? |
|
Definition
| Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). |
|
|
Term
| Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System
Interconnect (OSI) layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD
called? |
|
Definition
| Defense Information Systems Agency |
|
|
Term
| ) Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two classifications of transport protocols? |
|
Definition
| Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. |
|
|
Term
| In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients? |
|
Definition
| Connection establishment. |
|
|
Term
| What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment? |
|
Definition
| Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data |
|
|
Term
| How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250
nodes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly? |
|
Definition
| Colon Hexadecimal Format. |
|
|
Term
| The range of well-known port numbers is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The design of communications network is known as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area? |
|
Definition
| Local Area Network (LAN). |
|
|
Term
What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or
region like a city? |
|
Definition
| Metropolitan Area Network (MAN). |
|
|
Term
| Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized
component? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of
transmission rates of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| modulates and demodulates data signals |
|
|
Term
| What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and |
|
Definition
| transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork |
|
|
Term
| Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed
network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common wireless networking standard? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report
suspicious/malicious activity? |
|
Definition
| Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC). |
|
|
Term
Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in
one’s favor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary’s, and maximizing cyberspace superiority? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of the
electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer
Network Operations (CNO)? |
|
Definition
| EW concerns radiated energy. |
|
|
Term
Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of
intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is
performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a
particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk? |
|
Definition
| Authorizing Official (AO). |
|
|
Term
The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement
summarizes |
|
Definition
| full cost and recommended course of action |
|
|
Term
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises,
determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source
for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in
time of war? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training
System (SORTS)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space
Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)
reporting is AFI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational
Capability (DOC) statements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module? |
|
Definition
| Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD). |
|
|
Term
| The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are |
|
Definition
| secure communications and intelligence. |
|
|
Term
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control
force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days
after the deployed location is established? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at |
|
Definition
| Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is
established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour
rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis? |
|
Definition
| 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). |
|
|
Term
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network
(AFN) in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the
application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The five phases of Project Management are initiate, |
|
Definition
| plan, execute, close, and control. |
|
|
Term
| What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase? |
|
Definition
| Answers, guidance, and education |
|
|
Term
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability
called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a
communications system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are
termed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly,
regardless of the phase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Changes are requested during a project using an |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who implements a technical solution for a base? |
|
Definition
| Implementing organization. |
|
|
Term
| What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy, |
|
Definition
| service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. |
|
|
Term
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the
underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the
framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports
enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement
using base level support and resources? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each
major program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical
solutions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special? |
|
Definition
| Requires additional funding. |
|
|
Term
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of
operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in
support of the contingency plans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base
functional area support is placed in the |
|
Definition
| Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. |
|
|
Term
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the
communications systems under contract during peacetime? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new
construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations? |
|
Definition
| Facilities Utilization Board |
|
|
Term
| The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for |
|
Definition
| all temporary and permanent modifications. |
|
|
Term
Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance,
operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities? |
|
Definition
| T–2 temporary modification |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process? |
|
Definition
| Work center manager certification and approval. |
|
|
Term
| Support agreements are documented on |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation of
the Competition in Contracting Act? |
|
Definition
| Unit commander’s interest. |
|
|
Term
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement
for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the
extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for
supplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply? |
|
Definition
| Blanket Purchase Agreement. |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation’s contract Quality Assurance Program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)? |
|
Definition
| Functional Director/Commander. |
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and
functional directors/commanders? |
|
Definition
| Quality Assurance Program Coordinator. |
|
|
Term
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil
Engineering (CE) support? |
|
Definition
| Unit plans, planning, and agreements section |
|
|
Term
| What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects? |
|
Definition
| All military construction. |
|
|
Term
The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance
(O&M) funds is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Cyberspace Support specialist’s general responsibilities? |
|
Definition
| Performing system analysis and design, programming, systems operation and maintenance, resource management and security management. |
|
|
Term
| What CompTIA certification fulfills the DODD 8570 requirement for IAT Level I only? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Knowledge Operations Management. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Computer Systems Programming |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cable and Antenna Systems |
|
|
Term
| Which career Cyberspace Support career field(s) require IAT Level II certifications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What career fields require personnel to be free from fear of heights and claustrophobia |
|
Definition
| Cable and Antenna Systems (3D1X7 |
|
|
Term
| What CFETP sections outline the required skills and progression for each assigned career field? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For personnel not in retraining status what is the minimum number of months OJT are required for upgrade to the 5- and 7-skill levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What function(s) of the unit’s operational mission does the Communications Focal Point directly support? |
|
Definition
| Voice and data network systems, radio systems, video, and all other communications/cyber equipment/systems, while maintaining visibility of performance. |
|
|
Term
| What is the first organization that AFNET users contact when they experience issues with their government provided end-user equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| To reflect the minimum essential level to accomplish the required workload. |
|
|
Term
| Which document provides formulas to calculate target manning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who provides the UMD to the organization? |
|
Definition
| Local Mission Support Squadron’s Manpower and Organization office. |
|
|
Term
| Define unfunded positions |
|
Definition
| Approved manpower authorizations that have not been funded for fill by the Air Force |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Authorized manpower awarded to the unit and funded by the Air Force. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the UPMR? |
|
Definition
| The UPMR is used to match personnel assigned within the unit to the position numbers listed on the UMD. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the PEC |
|
Definition
| It defines which pot of money will pay for a specific position |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An OCR includes which actions? |
|
Definition
| Unit activation, inactivation, redesignation, or variation to a policy, guidance, procedure or standard organization structure as depicted AFI 38–101 |
|
|
Term
| How does an OCR differ from an ACR? |
|
Definition
| It does not add, modify or change existing authorizations; it adds or removes work centers or realigns flights or work centers within the unit. |
|
|
Term
| Which strategic level position is typically manned by CMSgts assigned to HAF and is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who possesses final authority to waive CFETP requirements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who serves as the MAJCOM liaison for her/his respective AFCFM? |
|
Definition
| MAJCOM Functional Manager |
|
|
Term
| Under what circumstances is the STRT held in conjunction with the U&TW? |
|
Definition
| When it is obvious that new requirements will not drive additional sources. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary purpose of the STRT? |
|
Definition
| For the AFCFM and functional leaders to determine and present training requirements to the AETC. |
|
|
Term
| Who attends the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? |
|
Definition
| AFCFM (Co-chair), AETC/TPM (Co-chair), AETC/TM, AETC/Program Element Manager (PEM), and MFMs. Optional U&TW attendees include the AETC CDC writer and representatives from AFCDA, AETC Occupational Analysis Division, AFPC education, training, and classification, and the AETC instructional technology unit (ITU). |
|
|
Term
| What is the aim of the Occupational Survey? |
|
Definition
| To facilitate decision-making on Air Force personnel and training programs by providing objective information about Air Force occupations. |
|
|
Term
| Who is the job survey distributed to? |
|
Definition
| All eligible career field members. |
|
|
Term
| What AIS is used to track outages for computer and cyber network equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What AIS is used to document actions on any item with an assigned SRD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ESR system currently used for reporting IMDS related equipment status? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define partial mission capable |
|
Definition
| System or equipment functioning in such a way that it can perform at least one, but not all of its assigned missions or functions; system is impaired but usable |
|
|
Term
| Define inactive equipment. |
|
Definition
| Equipment not commissioned or installed to perform an operational mission or requirement. |
|
|
Term
| What is used to develop user-level master inspection schedules |
|
Definition
| Scheduled inspection intervals. |
|
|
Term
| What is an Authorized Service Interruption? |
|
Definition
| Coordinated and planned outage for preventative maintenance inspections, configuration changes and optimizations that require an AFNet component/service to be unavailable for a specified length of time |
|
|
Term
| What is the system officially used to document training? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What four items must the MTP include? |
|
Definition
| Master Task List, Current CFETP and applicable AFJQS, Local JQS (if applicable), Milestones for tasks and CDC completion. |
|
|
Term
| What types of tasks are identified in the Master Task List? |
|
Definition
| Contingency/Wartime tasks, additional duties identified by the supervisor as certifiable tasks, and mandatory core tasks identified by the AFCFM. |
|
|
Term
| Who determines when the trainee is ready for task certification? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the initial evaluation documented? |
|
Definition
| Document the completion of the evaluation with a journal entry on the TBA Website via the Air Force Portal. |
|
|
Term
| What must be done prior to conducting the initial evaluation on newly assigned personnel? |
|
Definition
| The supervisor must assign individual training requirements to the trainee’s Individual Training Plan. |
|
|
Term
| Which two factors should supervisors include when providing trainee feedback? |
|
Definition
| Include what the trainee is doing correctly (positive feedback), Provide areas for improvement (constructive feedback) |
|
|
Term
| Who are UTC Personnel Evaluations conducted on? |
|
Definition
| All 3DXXX personnel assigned to UTC-based organizations whose primary mission is to deploy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ORM is a decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation |
|
|
Term
| Name the four principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM. |
|
Definition
| Accept no unnecessary risk, Make risk decisions at the appropriate level, Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs, Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels. |
|
|
Term
| Which document would you reference to learn about the ORM program? |
|
Definition
| AFI 90–901, Operational Risk Management (ORM) Program |
|
|
Term
| What is specifically tailored to address safety concerns of the work environment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who provides job safety training to all newly assigned individuals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must be exercised to ensure personnel follow all precautions and safety measures, including the proper use of PPE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in Job Safety Analysis step? |
|
Definition
| Document the activity: Assemble those involved in the activity and then, using the JSA worksheet, write down the tasks that make up the activity, step by step |
|
|
Term
| What must be in place to ensure workers have the skills to complete the job and that there is a required level of supervision to ensure the tasks are completed as documented? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will supervisors perform to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization, work center, facility, and so forth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What enables easy filing and indexing of TOs and provides a means for users to identify and establish distribution requirements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the official Air Force system for managing TO libraries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What POC oversees TO requirements and distribution within an organization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the duties of the TODO? |
|
Definition
| Establish and maintain a TO Account in ETIMS, establish and maintain organization TODA for organization subaccounts, and maintain records of TOs required and on hand in organization physical distribution media TO libraries |
|
|
Term
| When do work centers ensure LWCs, LJGs, LPSs, and LCLs are reviewed for currency? |
|
Definition
| When source references change, or at least annually |
|
|
Term
| How are LWC Identification numbers developed? |
|
Definition
| LWC, LCL, or LJG followed by originating organization, and the TO number or designator. |
|
|
Term
| What business sectors does the ANSI influence? |
|
Definition
| Nearly every sector of business. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the Telecommunications Industry Association obtain its accreditation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What standards does the ECIA develop? |
|
Definition
| Interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI-designation of EIA standards |
|
|
Term
| What are the negative effects of inadequate research when developing publications? |
|
Definition
| Inadequate research could result in issuing more than one publication on the same subject, conflicting instructions, or publishing a nonessential or incomplete publication |
|
|
Term
| List the required activities for creating a new publication |
|
Definition
(1) Draft and collaborate with publications change manager.
(2) Formal coordination.
(3) Obtain certifying official’s endorsement.
(4) Obtain approving official’s endorsement.
(5) Submit to publications manager for final processing. |
|
|
Term
| What immediate result is expected after an AF TCNO is issued? |
|
Definition
| Patching of AFIN or DoDIN systems to minimize or eliminate exploitation vulnerabilities |
|
|
Term
| The USC is a compilation of which types of federal laws of the United States? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What USC Title includes cyber-related topics, such as cyber security research and online shopper protection? |
|
Definition
| USC Title 15, Commerce and Trade |
|
|
Term
| What is meant by the term posse comitatus and what does it enforce |
|
Definition
| “Force of the country”; civil law when not expressly authorized by the Constitution or an act of Congress |
|
|
Term
| Chapter 5 of what USC Title spells out the situations in which one can draw special pay or reenlistment bonuses |
|
Definition
| USC Title 37, Pay and Allowances of the Uniformed Services |
|
|
Term
| What is the premise of the War Power Resolution |
|
Definition
| To clarify and expand on constitutional authority to enter the U.S. Armed Forces into hostilities |
|
|
Term
| How does Air Force EIM enable mission capabilities |
|
Definition
| Through seamless integrated access to the right information anytime or anywhere |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary purpose of a chat room |
|
Definition
| To share information via text with a group of individuals |
|
|
Term
| What does the DCO portal do? |
|
Definition
| Allows for registration, authentication and scheduling connection meetings and instant messaging sessions |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of Air Force Web pages/sites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the two types of Air Force Web pages/sites |
|
Definition
| Public Webpages/sites are intended for viewing by the general public; private webpages/sites are intended for a limited audience |
|
|
Term
| Who has the overall responsibility for publishing local policy and guidance defining authorized personal use of the internet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Performance of work associated with your day-to-day responsibilities or performance of only official duties on official time |
|
|
Term
| Name four situations that can be considered unethical but not necessarily illegal. |
|
Definition
(1) Personal conflict of interest.
(2) Covered relationships.
(3) Misuse of position.
(4) Non-public information. |
|
|
Term
| What is the DoD internal methodology used to allocate resources to capabilities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the PPBE process? |
|
Definition
| To allocate resources within the Department of Defense |
|
|
Term
| What information can be used as a baseline for projecting next year’s operating costs? |
|
Definition
| Cost information from supply reports |
|
|
Term
| What does the MILCON program cover |
|
Definition
| All land acquisition; Acquiring and constructing facilities; Adding to, expanding, extending, converting, altering, or replacing existing facilities; Relocating facilities; Planning and Design; Construction overhead, supervision, and inspection; Equipment installed in and made a part of real property structures and improvements and real property installed equipment-RPIE |
|
|
Term
| While congressional appropriations committees approve individual projects, what about the amounts appropriated |
|
Definition
| They may be less than their estimated cost |
|
|
Term
| What is the main goal of the Government Purchase Card Program |
|
Definition
| To provide Air Force users a simplified, streamlined method of purchasing and paying for simple, lowdollar value, items of supply and service |
|
|
Term
| What regulation provides in-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card Program |
|
Definition
| To provide Air Force users a simplified, streamlined method of purchasing and paying for simple, lowdollar value, items of supply and service |
|
|
Term
| What does the Air Force use as the electronic tool for managing its GPC program |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do wing or equivalent commanders submit shortfalls or reclamas |
|
Definition
| When a wing or tasked unit does not possess sufficient equipment or qualified personnel to support a UTC or the tasking will shut down critical elements of the home station mission. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The lack of forces, equipment, personnel, material or capability reflected as the difference between the resources identified as a plan requirement and those apportioned to a combatant commander for planning that would adversely affect the command’s ability to accomplish its mission |
|
|
Term
| List the conditions that will make a shortfall valid |
|
Definition
| The capability is not available at the unit and the wing or tasked unit has the capability and sufficient personnel to meet requirements, but deployment of personnel and/or equipment would cause a severe mission impact on the wing or unit. |
|
|
Term
| Which agency honors the 12 Outstanding Airmen at its annual convention in Washington D.C.? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If selected as one of the 12 Outstanding Airmen, what must the nominees agree to in a signed statement of intent |
|
Definition
| Nominees must sign a statement of intent agreeing to obtain retainability to serve for 12 months on the AFA Enlisted Advisory Council beginning on their 12 OAY induction date (September). Additionally, the statement of intent requires the member to agree not to apply for a commissioning program during the year of selection. |
|
|
Term
| What achievement(s) does the Lance P. Sijan USAF Leadership Award recognizes officers and enlisted leaders for |
|
Definition
| This award recognizes officers and enlisted leaders who exude the highest level of leadership in the performance of their duties and off duty conduct |
|
|
Term
| Which document provides guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community |
|
Definition
| AFI 36–2845, Secretary of the Air Force, Chef of Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer Special Trophies and Awards |
|
|
Term
| How long must individuals be in their rank tier and duty AFSC to be nominated for the Information Dominance Award |
|
Definition
| Nominated individuals must have been in the rank tier and performed in the duty AFSC for at and for least 183 days during the award period of service |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The term “random access” refers to the method of addressing memory. With random access, the CPU can address any memory location directly and read the data contained at that memory location. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between ROM and RAM |
|
Definition
| ROM is a type of memory that normally can only be read, as opposed to RAM, which can be both read and written to. The data stored in ROM is always there, whether there is power or no power. |
|
|
Term
| What is the special type of memory used to store the BIOS settings in a PC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used for the speed enhancement resulting from a small amount of memory placed inside the CPU or between the CPU and the computer’s main memory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the “trade name” that refers to the 40-pin interface and drive-controller architecture designed to implement the ATA standard |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which connection enables data transfer speeds of 480 Mbps and can handle up to 127 peripherals at once? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much data can be stored on a CD-R |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most high-volume printers can connect to a network directly using what internal device |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At the simplest level, state the two things that an operating system does |
|
Definition
| It manages hardware and software resources of the computer system, and provides a stable, consistent way for applications to deal with the hardware without having to know all of the details of the software |
|
|
Term
| Name an operating system’s six task categories |
|
Definition
| Processor management, Memory management, Device management, Storage management, Application interface, User interface. |
|
|
Term
| Name the Microsoft Windows family of operating systems |
|
Definition
| Windows 98, Windows NT, Windows 2000 series, Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows 7 and Windows 8. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A collection of computers defined by the administrator of a Windows Server network that share a common directory/database |
|
|
Term
| When did Bell Labs develop the UNIX operating system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you call the UNIX program that you interact with directly from your terminal or workstation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name four common UNIX shells |
|
Definition
| (1) Bourne shell. (2) Korn Shell. (3) C shell. (4) Restricted shell. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Partitions are physical areas of disk allocated with specific sizes to hold file systems |
|
|
Term
| When are partitions established |
|
Definition
| During system configuration. |
|
|
Term
| In which UNIX directory are application programs contained |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the firmware prompt called on Sun machines |
|
Definition
| ok (often called the O.K. prompt) |
|
|
Term
| Applications are what type of programs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which application allows the creation of queries, forms, reports, and macros |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What program, available as a free download from Adobe’s website, allows you to view PDF files? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Into what two groups can you divide the OSI model |
|
Definition
| Application (upper) layer and Data Transport (lower) layer. |
|
|
Term
| What is the responsibility of the Data Transport layers of the OSI model? |
|
Definition
| Define how data travels the physical media, through Internetwork devices, to the destination computer, and to the application on the destination machine. |
|
|
Term
| This layer divides into two sub layers: LLC and MAC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This layer typically includes multiplexing, virtual circuit management, and error checking and recovery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This layer defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for network communications |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A hub operates at this layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Switches and bridges operate at this layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This layer provides a variety of coding and conversion functions that are applied to application layer data |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A router operates at this layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This layer establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At this layer, common data compression and encryption schemes are used |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| DISN is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. The DISN offers a selection of integrated standards-based services to fulfill these connectivity needs. |
|
|
Term
| What unclassified IP data service provides internet connectivity and supports e-mail and web services |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What service uses a number of different satellite services to provide warfighters with worldwide access and GIG connectivity for diversity, redundancy and availability |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transport protocols have two classifications based on the way data transports, name the two classifications |
|
Definition
| Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. |
|
|
Term
| What must occur between both ends before transfer of information in a connection-oriented environment |
|
Definition
| A connection must be established between both ends. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Temporary store of excess data bursts that remain in memory of network devices until processed. |
|
|
Term
| The easiest way to break down the many protocols of the TCP/IP suite is according to where they operate within the OSI model. Each protocol in this stack operates at one of what four layers? |
|
Definition
| The Data Link layer, the Network layer (also known as the Internet layer in the TCP/IP model), the Transport layer or the Application layer. |
|
|
Term
| The protocols at the Data Link layer define the access method for the media, the architecture, and interface with the Physical layer of the network. What standards are these protocols based on |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four most important TCP/IP protocols that function within the network layer |
|
Definition
| (1) Internet Protocol (IP). (2) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). (3) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). (4) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). |
|
|
Term
| What are the fields belonging to a TCP segment |
|
Definition
| Source Port, Destination port, Sequence number, Acknowledgement number (ACK), TCP header length, Reserved, Flags (Control bits), Sliding window size, Checksum, Urgent pointer, Options, Padding, and Data. |
|
|
Term
| In the context of TCP/IP, what is a packet also known as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two main parts of an IPv4 address |
|
Definition
| Network number and network host |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main parts of an IPv4 address |
|
Definition
| Authorized representatives of IANA |
|
|
Term
| What is the reserved IPv4 address for loop back |
|
Definition
| 127 in the network field, and .any number in the host field |
|
|
Term
| What is the reserved IPv4 address for a limited broadcast |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number |
|
|
Term
| What are the two methods of subnet masking |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some benefits to subneting |
|
Definition
| Subnets ease administration, improve network performance, and security |
|
|
Term
| How long is an IPv6 address |
|
Definition
| 16 octets long, or 128 bits. |
|
|
Term
| How is an IPv6 address expressed? |
|
Definition
| In 16 byte fields using a colon hexadecimal format. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways to shorten the expression of an IPv6 address |
|
Definition
| Leading zero compression and zero compression. |
|
|
Term
| What is a unicast address |
|
Definition
| Unicast addresses identify a single interface. A packet sent to a unicast address delivers to the interface identified by that address. |
|
|
Term
| What is a multicast address |
|
Definition
| Multicast addresses (FF00::/8) identify a group of interfaces belonging to different nodes. Multicast packets send to all interfaces identified by that address. |
|
|
Term
| What is an Anycast address |
|
Definition
| Anycast addresses also identify a set of interfaces, but the packets deliver to and accept by the closest interface |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of unicast address |
|
Definition
| (1) Link. (2) Site. (3) Global |
|
|
Term
| What is the IPv6 loop back address |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a TCP/IP client use to request a particular service |
|
Definition
| Specific values called port numbers to request a particular service |
|
|
Term
| What is the range of well-known port numbers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the default port assignment for TELNET |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the default port assignment for credit card transactions on e-commerce sites |
|
Definition
| Port 443-Secure Socket Layer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for networks that use the same software and protocols as the public internet, but exist as a portion of an entity’s private network? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term describes a group of computers and devices that share a common communication line and resources in a small geographical area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of network interconnects several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for a network connected between two cities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Primary addressing in WLANs is achieved by using what type of address |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the advantages to using WLAN |
|
Definition
| (1) Mobility. (2) Ease of installation. (3) Lower cost. |
|
|
Term
| List each of the IEEE wireless standards |
|
Definition
| (1) 802.11b. (2) 802.11a. (3) 802.11g. (4) 802.11n. |
|
|
Term
| The 802.11n standard operates at what frequency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What network provides a private tunnel through the Internet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of configuration does the Air Force use for most VPN traffic |
|
Definition
| The gateway-to-gateway configuration |
|
|
Term
| What is a physical topology |
|
Definition
| A description of the layout of the network media that interconnects the devices on a network |
|
|
Term
| What is a logical topology |
|
Definition
| Defines the way in which devices communicate throughout the network. |
|
|
Term
| What is the rule of thumb to distinguish physical from logical topologies |
|
Definition
| If you can see it and touch it, it is physical, if you cannot see it or touch it, it is logical |
|
|
Term
| Because a topology affects the network’s capabilities, what is the impact of choosing one topology over another |
|
Definition
| Equipment needs, equipment capabilities, network expansion, network management |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of a bus topology |
|
Definition
| Inexpensive to install, easy to expand, requires less cabling that other topologies, works well for small networks |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of a bus topology |
|
Definition
| No longer used, cable breaks causes entire network outage, limited number of devices, troubleshooting is difficult, slower access time |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of a star topology |
|
Definition
| Easy network expansion, cable failure won’t interrupt the entire network, centralized management, easy to troubleshoot, faster network speeds, most common topology so equipment options are virtually unlimited |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of a star topology |
|
Definition
| Requires more media than a ring or bus, failure of the central device can bring down the entire network, cost of installation. |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of a ring topology |
|
Definition
| Data transmits at greater speed, no collisions, easy to troubleshoot, no terminators |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of ring topology |
|
Definition
| Requires more cable than a bus network, cable break could bring the network down, difficult to add devices to active network, uncommon so equipment is not readily available |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common hybrid topologies |
|
Definition
| (1) Star-bus. (2) Star-ring. |
|
|
Term
| What data transport method grew out of the need for a worldwide standard to allow interoperability of information, regardless of the information type or “end-system”? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many bytes make up the ATM cell, header, and payload? |
|
Definition
| 53 byte cell, 5 byte header, 48 byte payload |
|
|
Term
| ISDN channels are separated into two sub-channels, list and describe the sub-channels. |
|
Definition
| Sub-channel B 56 Kbps or 64 Kbps and are used for both voice and data. Each B channel can carry a separate telephone call. The D-channel is a 16 Kbps use to carry call control (or supervisory) information. The information on the “D” channel tells the network switches what to do with the traffic on the “B” channels. |
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|
Term
| When the full bandwidth of a T1 line is not needed it can be divided in 64 Kbps increments known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Ethernet standard has supplanted Fast Ethernet in wired networks |
|
Definition
| Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A modem (modulator-demodulator) is a device that modulates signals to encode digital information and demodulates signals to decode the transmitted information |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of modems used |
|
Definition
| Dial-up and dedicated, also known as leased. |
|
|
Term
| What is one of the principal functions of a CSU? |
|
Definition
| Provides a barrier for electrical interference from either side of the unit. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of a DSU |
|
Definition
| To adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer’s equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment, and vice versa |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary use for a bridge |
|
Definition
| To decrease network congestion but also propagate a signal like a repeater |
|
|
Term
| What do LAN switches provide between network devices |
|
Definition
| Switches provide collision-free, high-speed communication between network devices |
|
|
Term
| Can a switch connect LANs of different bandwidths? If so, give example |
|
Definition
| Yes; this is accomplished with buffering |
|
|
Term
| What type of switching is required when a moving a frame from a low-speed LAN to a highspeed LAN |
|
Definition
| Store-and-forward switching |
|
|
Term
| What is the fundamental difference between Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching |
|
Definition
| The layer at which each forwarding decision is made. |
|
|
Term
| Routers operate at which layer of the OSI model |
|
Definition
| Layer three (network) of the OSI Model |
|
|
Term
| What does a typical router contain |
|
Definition
| Internal processor, an operating system, memory, input and output jacks for different types of network connectors (depending on the network type); and, usually, a management console interface. |
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|
Term
| Routers compare metrics to determine optimal routes; these methods differ depending on what |
|
Definition
| Design of the routing algorithm used |
|
|
Term
| What are routing protocols that manage traffic within an autonomous system called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name two methods for directing data on the network. |
|
Definition
| Static or dynamic routing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Static routing is a technique in which a network administrator programs a router to use specific paths between nodes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes and compiles this info in a routing table. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two methods that encryption can be applied |
|
Definition
| Encryption can be applied on either a link-by-link basis or an end-to-end basis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common telephone device used for voice encryption? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common types of all metallic cable used in networks |
|
Definition
| Twisted pair cable and coaxial cable. |
|
|
Term
| Which cable type is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List and describe the four most common coax cable types. |
|
Definition
| (1) RG–6, 75Ohms. (2) RG–58, 50Ohms. (3) RG–8, 50 Ohms. (4) RG–11, 50 Ohms |
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|
Term
| What medium is the primary carrier for voice telecommunications |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List and describe the categories of twisted pair cable |
|
Definition
| (1) CAT 1, 1 Mbps, voice only analog phone lines (not used for data communications). (2) CAT 3, 10 Mbps, Ethernet (10BaseT). (3) CAT 5, 100 Mbps, Ethernet (100BaseT). (4) CAT 5e, 1 Gbps (1000 Mbps), Ethernet (1000BaseT). (5) CAT 6 and 6a, 10 Gbps, 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE). |
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|
Term
| What three things do an optical communications system require to transport communications |
|
Definition
| (1) A light source (transmitter). (2) A transmission medium (cable). (3) A sensor (receiver). |
|
|
Term
| List the advantages of fiber optic systems over conventional cable systems |
|
Definition
| (1) Larger bandwidths. (2) Freedom from interference. (3) Low cost and lightweight |
|
|
Term
| Is fiber optic cable immune to EMI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common wireless networking standard |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three major considerations affect supporting cyber operations |
|
Definition
| (1) Policy. (2) Authority. (3) Law. |
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|
Term
| What three priorities drive the National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace |
|
Definition
| (1) Prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure. (2) Reduce national vulnerability to cyber attacks. (3) Minimize damage and recover time from cyber attacks |
|
|
Term
| Can an Air National Guardsman execute a cyber-operation |
|
Definition
| A guardsman in Title 32 status may train for Title 10 missions but cannot execute them |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary Air Force command for cyberspace missions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does OCO intend to project power |
|
Definition
| By the application of force in and through cyberspace. |
|
|
Term
| In DCO, what are reactive defenses |
|
Definition
| Measures taken to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or actions taken to terminate the ongoing intrusion |
|
|
Term
| Most exploitation activities evolve from what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On delegation authority, whose cyber tasking orders does the 624 OC relay to all Air Force units |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four agencies the I-NOSC relays cyber orders to |
|
Definition
| (1) MAJCOMs. (2) MCCCs. (3) ACCCs. (4) Installation communications units. |
|
|
Term
| Does the ATO reflect the integrated air, space, and cyberspace operations plan that supports a joint force commander’s campaign |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What weapons system provides continuous monitoring and defense of AF unclassified and classified networks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What AF weapons system offers top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four sub-discipline areas of the AFINC? |
|
Definition
| (1) Defense-in-Depth. (2) Proactive Defense. (3) Network Standardization. (4) Situational Awareness |
|
|
Term
| How would you define SCADA |
|
Definition
| The term SCADA refers to centralized systems, which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. |
|
|
Term
| How are SCADA systems typically implemented |
|
Definition
| Through a distributed database, commonly referred to as a tag database, which contains data elements called tags or points. |
|
|
Term
| Who must evaluate and certify all IT systems, including NSS, with external interfaces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a weakness in a computer system or network open to exploitation called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What security professional goal is a result of understanding that all risk cannot be removed |
|
Definition
| To eliminate or mitigate as many risks as possible. |
|
|
Term
| What passive nature attack is the first step in a replay attack |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Due to cost and imperfections, what method should not be used as the sole form of authentication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although inexpensive in implementing, what systems have the major vulnerability of being prone to brute force attacks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What actions are included in the scope of end-to-end monitoring |
|
Definition
| Monitoring, measuring, performance analysis, and optimizing networks and network systems. |
|
|
Term
| What is capacity planning |
|
Definition
| The long-trend analysis of network devices to identify future constraints with the results incorporated into future technical baselines |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The comprehensive evaluation and validation of an AF IS to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned IA controls based on standardized procedures. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The formal declaration by an AO that the information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk. |
|
|
Term
| When does the validation of computer requirements process begin? |
|
Definition
| When the user identifies a mission need and requests CSO assistance with defining the requirement and developing a technical solution for that need |
|
|
Term
| When do requirements arise |
|
Definition
| When there is a deficiency in an existing operational capability, a need for a new capability, or an opportunity to replace or modernize an existing system with improved technology when operationally and economically practical. |
|
|
Term
| What are the five phases in the DIACAP process |
|
Definition
| (1) Phase I, Initiate and plan IA and C&A. (2) Phase II, Implement and validate assigned IA controls. (3) Phase III, Make certification determination and accreditation decision. (4) Phase IV, Maintain authorization to operate and conduct reviews. (5) Phase V, Decommission. |
|
|
Term
| What is a connection approval |
|
Definition
| The formal approval for an IS to connect to the AFIN and the acceptance of risk associated with the IS connection by the Air Force Enterprise AO or delegated individual |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An approval granted by the lead AO or appointed AO to operate the system at an acceptable level of risk |
|
|
Term
| What is the temporary authorization to test a DOD IS in a specified operational information environment within the timeframe and under the conditions or constraints enumerated in the accreditation decision |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a specific fact about friendly intentions, capabilities, and activities vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively, so as to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define deployment planning |
|
Definition
| Deployment planning is a continuous, iterative and highly structured process that allows for an orderly transition from peace to war and then to post-hostilities operations |
|
|
Term
| Which type of plan is driven by current events in real time and normally occurs in emergencies and in the context of time-sensitive situations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which document details deployment execution responsibilities and procedures for crisis action and deliberate plans, as well as executing the deployment and reception of equipment and personnel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who initiates a Request for Forces in the development phase of the deployment sourcing process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What name is given to a tasking when a non-standard sourcing solution is required |
|
Definition
| Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET). |
|
|
Term
| When must MAJCOMs verify whether or not they can support a requirement |
|
Definition
| After the 10-day initial sourcing window has closed |
|
|
Term
| SORTS assesses unit status based on what two factors |
|
Definition
| (1) The mission for which it was designed and organized for. (2) The mission as tasked per the OPORD. |
|
|
Term
| What rating applies to a unit if its personnel, equipment, and supplies on hand, equipment, and condition falls between 70 to 89% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ART and its purpose |
|
Definition
| ART is a SIPRNET Web-based tool with a NIPRNET training suite that gives AEF-allocated units the ability to report timely and accurate UTC readiness and tasking status |
|
|
Term
| Which units are required to report status in ART |
|
Definition
| All Air Force units including Air National Guard and Reserve components owning standard UTCs postured in UTC availability. |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of a DOC statement |
|
Definition
| The mission for which a measured unit has been equipped, organized, or designed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of an Air Force SORTS DOC statement |
|
Definition
| To summarize the unit’s mission using the DRRS core Mission Essential Task List and provide units with a single document referencing all that determine the pool of resources and training to measure and report in SORTS. |
|
|
Term
| What does the LOGDET define |
|
Definition
| The standard passenger and equipment movement requirements for each UTC. |
|
|
Term
| What is the objective of MANFOR |
|
Definition
| To provide joint and AF planners with standardized force capabilities documenting manpower requirements for execution, operations and planning documents |
|
|
Term
| Provided there is no need for extensive operational landing strip preparation, how soon after arrival of forces should the Open the airbase force module reach IOC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the C2 force module estimated to be able to declare IOC |
|
Definition
| 16 hours from arrival at the deployed location |
|
|
Term
| How many subordinate force modules comprise the Generate the mission force module |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which subordinate force module contains aviation and direct aviation support |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Operate the airbase force module includes mission support forces necessary to achieve what capability level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the Robust the airbase force module, how many days do support forces generally arrive after the deployed location is established |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two Contingency Response Force mission sets |
|
Definition
| (1) Contingency response. (2) Mobility advisory missions |
|
|
Term
| What is the deployable CRG’s primary mission |
|
Definition
| To open and/or operate airfields or airbases after seizure, or whenever needed to assess, open, and initially operate airbases in support of the Air Force component of the COCOM |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| To support the efficient transfer of command and control, intelligence, logistics, and administrative data between fixed sites and deployed locations, multiple functional areas at each deployed location, and/or CONUS gateway locations and deployed locations |
|
|
Term
| Which units are the largest users of TDC equipment |
|
Definition
| Combat Communications units |
|
|
Term
| Which TDC package is established within 48 hours and supports 50-150 users in a café |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ASOC’s overall mission |
|
Definition
| Provide tactical C2 of Close Air Support (CAS) assets to support Army, joint, and/or coalition ground force commanders. |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about an ASOS |
|
Definition
| It is comprised primarily of Air Force personnel and attached to various U.S. Army units |
|
|
Term
| UASs were primarily developed for what purpose |
|
Definition
| For use in reconnaissance and intelligence gathering |
|
|
Term
| What are EI units responsible for designing, engineering, and installing |
|
Definition
| The full range of cyberspace equipment and components typically found at a fixed site and other specialty systems unique to expeditionary forces |
|
|
Term
| Which unit is assigned as the Engineering Installation Governance Structure Secretariat, and centrally manages and implements AF-wide cyberspace requirements and projects (not including ANG bases)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the timeframe Air Force installations have to disseminate emergency information after incident notification and verification |
|
Definition
| Immediately, but no longer than 10 minutes after incident notification and verification |
|
|
Term
| Where is the AFN broadcast center located, and what services does it provide |
|
Definition
| Riverside, California; provides programming for military radio and television outlets overseas. |
|
|
Term
| What MPTO defines project management as “the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?” |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the five phases of project management |
|
Definition
| Initiate, Planning, Execute, Close, Control |
|
|
Term
| What are some items to consider when defining requirements |
|
Definition
| Current Infrastructure, Radio Frequencies, Training Security, Space Tools/Equipment, Electrical Power, and HVAC Man hours |
|
|
Term
| What information is required when submitting Cyber Systems requirements? |
|
Definition
| Requirement Description (Required Capability), Justification, Funding Availability, Mission Impact, Required Implementation Date. Priority |
|
|
Term
| What are some common actions during the planning phase |
|
Definition
| Requirement review/validation, Site Survey Development/Validation of Technical Solution and Costing, Identify logistic support requirements, Development of Project Support Agreement/Project Support Plan, Development of Project Package, Project material acquisition, accountability and storage, Allied support completion, Schedule development. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of site surveys? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What formally documents communications and information systems requirements and approval for base support |
|
Definition
| The Project Support Agreement |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to remain involved in the execute phase |
|
Definition
| To minimize or eliminate any problems that may occur |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The desired outcome, product, or service of a project. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of change requests |
|
Definition
| Corrective action, Preventive action and Defect repairs |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important document to have signed during the close phase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is accomplished before a system or facility is turned over |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All IT systems require what |
|
Definition
| A security vulnerability assessment |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of exceptions that can affect a system from meeting inspection criteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must be used to formally transfer all real property to Base Civil Engineering |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What phases does the control phase overlap |
|
Definition
| The Plan, Execute, and Close phases |
|
|
Term
| What is used during the control phase to organize project documentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an Implementing Organization |
|
Definition
| Implements a technical solution to a base, or requiring organization, with funds from a lead command |
|
|
Term
| Who assists project managers with the technical aspects of a project? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the IT Infrastructure Library |
|
Definition
| A framework that provides structure and best practice guidelines for implementing and maintaining IT Service Management. |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of the Continual Service Improvement stage |
|
Definition
| To ensure that services are aligned with changes. |
|
|
Term
| Which AFI provides the roles and responsibilities required to ensure all architectures are built for purpose; built to quality standards; and enable analysis that can be used to support decision making and guide transformation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define federated architecture |
|
Definition
| It is a collection of information assets that accommodates the uniqueness and specific purpose of unlike architectures and allows them to remain autonomous while enabling the enterprise to benefit from their content |
|
|
Term
| What is the current online repository of IT standards that mandates the minimum set of standards and guidelines for the acquisition of all DOD systems that produce, use, or exchange information |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Air Force’s authoritative source for enterprise standard IT products, computer configurations, platform and service profiles, technical solutions, and standard configurations of software and hardware |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Air Force unit provides oversight for the Cyberspace Systems Integrator |
|
Definition
| The 38th Engineering Squadron |
|
|
Term
| Which publication governs the use of CIPS and applies to all 3D Air Force Specialties working on communications systems/equipment unless exempted by the appropriate career field functional managers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the approved automated information system for planning, installing, and managing the Air Force’s cyberspace infrastructure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Using the Requirements process flow chart from TO 00–33D–3003, what step takes place after validating a requirement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a trouble ticket or work order that exceeds its scope become in CIPS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the integrated tool permitting users to create, track, and process work orders within CIPS at both the base and MAJCOM levels, while keeping work orders and infrastructure requirements as separate business objects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the AF enterprise application, not available with the Legacy CSIRs that provides real-time situational awareness and analytical tools consisting of interim installation records, engineering drawings, and reference drawings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three parts of the CSIR |
|
Definition
| Administrative records, Drawing records, Maintenance records |
|
|
Term
| Who serves as the focal point for processing data for updating CSIR drawings and for receiving new drawings |
|
Definition
| Base IT/NSS Installation Records Manager/CSIR Manager |
|
|
Term
| What system does a requesting agency use as the method for submitting requests |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a minimum who is required to review and validate technical solutions |
|
Definition
| Affected Work Centers, CSIs, Project Managers, and the base CSO |
|
|
Term
| Define special communication requirements |
|
Definition
| Requirements that need additional assistance from agencies outside of the normal communications squadron to develop the complete technical solution for the requirement |
|
|
Term
| What authorization is required to connect communications systems and equipment to one of the host country’s communications media |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of completion reports |
|
Definition
| In-Effect Report,Exception Report, Delayed Service Report |
|
|
Term
| What is the objective of concept planning? |
|
Definition
| To develop rapidly expandable sound operational and support concepts |
|
|
Term
| Which type of plan is written using JOPES procedures and formats specified for a CONPLAN without a TPFDD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which plan outlines the details on how to respond to an emergency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which plan covers events like an aircraft crash recovery, snow removal, or hurricane condition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the communications squadron focal point for all plans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What attachment to an OPLAN covers all communications aspects required to support an operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In most cases, which flight maintains administrative responsibilities to assist the OPR in the upkeep of any plans pertaining to the communications squadron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of planning meeting identifies Civil Engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities and relocations of organizations |
|
Definition
| Facilities Utilization Board |
|
|
Term
| Which type of modification changes the configuration of an item in order to satisfy short-term operational mission requirements by adding, modifying, or removing hardware and/or software components or capabilities in a manner that provides an immediate operational benefit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of modification is a permanent modification that corrects materiel or other deficiencies that could endanger the safety or health of personnel, or cause the loss of, or extensive damage to systems or equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which document normally initiates temporary modifications and permanent sustainment modifications for fielded systems and equipment |
|
Definition
| AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal |
|
|
Term
| When does the span of configuration control begin |
|
Definition
| Begins once the first configuration document is approved and base lined. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of support agreements |
|
Definition
| Identify the specific support and responsibilities of the supplying and receiving activities |
|
|
Term
| What form are intra-service and inter-service support agreements documented on |
|
Definition
| DD Form 1144, Support Agreement |
|
|
Term
| What four categories of support does the DD Form 1144 document |
|
Definition
| Intra-service agreements, Inter-service agreements, Intra-governmental agreements, Other non-Federal activity agreements |
|
|
Term
| What type of memorandum defines general areas of conditional agreement between two or more parties? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which instruction governs the preparation of international support agreements |
|
Definition
| AFI 51–701, Negotiating, Concluding, Recording and Maintaining International Agreements |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for developing and maintaining an index of all support agreements in the Communications Squadron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of contract covers situations when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of contract is not subject to any adjustable fees |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which contract is made when only one viable source exists and no other supplies or services will satisfy the requirement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the transfer of control of target business activity and associated assets to a public or private sector entity called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of contract is prepared for a specific quantity of supplies or services for a fixed period? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define blanket purchase agreement |
|
Definition
| A BPA is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply |
|
|
Term
| Who delegates responsibilities to the base contracting office to enter into legal negotiations and commit the government to pay for products or services? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for training CORs on their duties, contract surveillance techniques, and standards of conduct within 90 days of appointment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which work center acts as the unit focal point when interacting with BCE to provide design support to and/or obtain BCE support |
|
Definition
| Unit plans, planning, and agreements section. |
|
|
Term
| Which CE work center is the centralized area that all CE or equivalent agency work requests pass through? |
|
Definition
| CE customer service desk. |
|
|
Term
| Who plans all of the work for the various BCE work centers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who reviews and validates major construction projects, then prioritizes it among other base facility requirements? |
|
Definition
| Facilities Utilization Board |
|
|
Term
| In addition to authorization, what is required for a MILCON project to go from paper to breaking ground? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the threshold dollar amount for minor construction projects when using O&M funds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What meetings are conducted by BCE to review the drawings and specifications related to a MILCON project |
|
Definition
| Construction Design Reviews. |
|
|
Term
| Name the law that governs our nation’s environmental concerns and ensures we carefully consider any undertakings having the ability to harm the environment or impose risks upon others. |
|
Definition
|
|
