Term
What 2 drugs that inactivate sodium channels are 1st line for tonic clonic seizures?
|
|
Definition
| phenytoin, carbamazepine, and valproate |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is prophylactic for tonic clonic seizures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is 1st line for trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What seizure med is also used for peripheral neuropathy and bipolar disorders?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug for seizures is first line in pregnant women and children? |
|
Definition
| Phenobarbital (increases GABA action) |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is first line for absence seizures and what does it block? |
|
Definition
| ethosuximide, T-type Ca channels |
|
|
Term
| What is the first line drug to prevent eclamptic seizures? |
|
Definition
| MgSO4, can also use benzo's |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are 1st line for acute status epilepticus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug will irreversibly inhibit GABA transaminase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors change the effects of anesthetics? |
|
Definition
| should be lipid soluble (more so = higher potency), decreased solubility in blood means rapid induction/recovery times |
|
|
Term
| This drug has a high potency and fast induction and is therefore used for short procedures, it has a rapid redistribution back into tissues and decreases cerebral blood flow... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common drug used for endoscopy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is a PCP analog that blocks NMDA receptors and is cardiostimulatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This drug potentiates GABA and has less N+V than thiopental... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These drugs bind Na channels on the inner portion of the channel and affect smaller diameter fibers first... |
|
Definition
| local anesthetics (lidocaine, bupivicaine, cocaine...) |
|
|
Term
| What are local anesthetics usually given with (except for cocaine)? |
|
Definition
| epinephrine - increase local vasoconstriction and therefore local action |
|
|
Term
What drug is used for trauma procedures and inserting ET tubes, but can cause hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia?
What drug can be used to treat a succinylcholine overdose? |
|
Definition
succinylcholine
neostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)
|
|
|
Term
What protein in nerves transports stuff back to the cell body?
Down to the axon terminus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the neurotransmitters used in the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems?
|
|
Definition
parasympathetic pre-synaptic neuron releases ACh, post-synaptic also releases ACh on muscarinic receptors
sympathetic pre-synaptic neuron releases ACh, post-synaptic releases NE on adrenergic receptors |
|
|
Term
| What NTs are releases by post-synaptic neurons in your SNS? |
|
Definition
| ACh is releases onto muscarinic receptors in sweat glands, NE is releases onto alpha and beta receptors in the heart, lungs, vasculature, and nerve terminals, D1 is released at the kidney's vascular smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| What drug is a non-selective beta agonist that can be used for AV block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does NE effect mostly? |
|
Definition
| alpha 1 and beta 1 moreso than beta 2, so increase vasoconstriction w increased hr at first, then hr slows |
|
|
Term
| What is the net affect of labetalol? |
|
Definition
| IV alpha 1 and non-selective beta blocker, net affect decreases hr and bp |
|
|
Term
| What affect does nitroprusside have on the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What affect does nitroglycerine have on the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does phenoxybenzamine do? |
|
Definition
| alpha blocker, used for pheochromocytoma |
|
|
Term
What drug is good for pressor extravasation and ED?
what drug is good for decreasing SNS outflow specifically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cholinomimetic is a potent stimulator of tears and sweat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cholinomimetic is used in the challenge test for dx of asthma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 indirect cholinomimetic agonists are used for glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| physostigmine (crosses into the CNS) and echothiophate |
|
|
Term
| What is neostigmine used for? |
|
Definition
| postoperative ileus and urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, and reversal of succinylcholine's effects |
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote for cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning? |
|
Definition
| atropine plus pralidoxime (chemical antagonist that regenerates active cholinesterase) |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause a decrease in acqueous humor? |
|
Definition
| epinephrine (vasoconstricts), brimonidine, -olol's (beta blockers), acetazolamine (decreases HCO3) |
|
|
Term
| What prevents tetany in cardiac muscle? |
|
Definition
| action potential has longer refractory period due to slow Ca channels |
|
|
Term
| what tissue markers are associated with epithelial cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what tissue marker is associated with cancer of the muscles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tissue marker is associated with cancer of the mesenchyme? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what tissue marker is associated with cancer of the smooth and skeletal muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what tissue marker is seen in melenomas and neural tumors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Malignant neoplasms --> carcinomas usually move via _________ while sarcomas move via ___________ |
|
Definition
| lymphatics, the blood stream |
|
|
Term
| What will be seen in osteoblastic metastasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| test for mutagens by looking at effect on bacterial culture |
|
|
Term
| What do nitrosamines cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does asbestos cause? |
|
Definition
| lung carcinoma and mesothelioma |
|
|
Term
| What can arsenic lead to? |
|
Definition
| squamous cell carcinoma of the skin/lung, angiosarcoma of the liver |
|
|
Term
| What can vinyl chloride lead to? |
|
Definition
| angiosarcoma of the liver |
|
|
Term
| What do alkylating agents lead to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does napthylamine lead to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What autosomal recessive inherited disease leads to a defect in DNA repair after UV radiation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the order of correction of a thymine dimer induced by UV rads? |
|
Definition
endonuclease cuts DNA, exonuclease excises DNA peice that's f'd up, polymerase fixes it 5' --> 3'
|
|
|
Term
| What things can non-ionizing radiation lead to? |
|
Definition
| malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| What cancers is EBV associated with? |
|
Definition
| burkitt lymphoma, b-cell lymphomas in immunocompromised, hodgkin disease, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| What cells does HTLV-1 infect? |
|
Definition
| CD4+ T cells to produce T cell leukemia or lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| What cancers does H pylori lead to? |
|
Definition
| gastric carcinomas and lymphomas (can be reversed by tx b4 reaches lymphoma stage) |
|
|
Term
| What proto-oncogene and translocation are associated with CML? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What proto-oncogenes are associated with breast cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What proto-oncogene and translocation are associated with burkitt's lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What proto-oncogene is associaeted with a neuroblastoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what proto-oncogene is associated with leukemia;lung/colon/pancreatic cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what problems is seen in familial polyposis? |
|
Definition
mutation in APC leads to prevention of nuclear transcription
|
|
|
Term
| What mutation leads to breast/ovary/prostate cancer and why? |
|
Definition
| BRCA1/BRCA2 leads to less regulation of DNA repair |
|
|
Term
| What mutation leads to retinoblastoma/osteogenic? |
|
Definition
| RB - would normally inhibit G1 to S phase |
|
|
Term
| what mutation would lead to lung/colon/breast cancer and li-fraumeni syndrome? |
|
Definition
| TP53 - normally inhibits G1 - S phase and repairs DNA/activates BAX gene |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| p53 - prevents cell w damaged DNA from entering S phase, Rb prevents cell from entering S phase until appropriate signal |
|
|
Term
| what things result in familial retinoblastoma and li-fraumeni syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Rb on chromosome 13 mutation and p53 on chromosome 17 mutation |
|
|
Term
| What does p53 normally do? |
|
Definition
| phosphorylated in response to DNa damage, which arrests cell in G1 phase of cell cycle |
|
|
Term
| What does APC normally do? |
|
Definition
| involved with the WNT pathway which keeps the cell from proliferating too much |
|
|
Term
| What is the main gene involved in regulating apoptosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cancer is bcl-2 overexpressed in? |
|
Definition
| follicular lymphomas - t14:18, prevents apoptosis when it shouldn't |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a polyclonal and monoclonal neoplasm? |
|
Definition
| polyclonal - cells from both parents, monoclonal - cell from one parent |
|
|
Term
| What are acanthosis nigricans and seborrheic keratosis associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is eaton lambert syndrome associated with (antibody against ca channel)? |
|
Definition
| small cell carcinoma of the lung |
|
|
Term
| What is hypertrophic osteoarthropathy associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is NBTE associated with? |
|
Definition
| mucus-secreting pancreatic/colorectal carcinomas |
|
|
Term
| What is superficial migratory thrombophlebitis associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of cancer is CEA associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of cancer is CA 125 associated wtih? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of cancer is AFP associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of cancer is BJ protein associated with? |
|
Definition
| multiple myeloma, waldenstroms |
|
|
Term
| the most frequent presentation of acute lymphadenitis is tender enlarged lymph nodes due to... |
|
Definition
| cortical/paracortical hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
| are the lymph nodes usually tender in chronic nonspecific lymphadenitis due to autoimmune disease/HIV/chronic infections/etc... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what do non-hodkin lymphomas usually present with? |
|
Definition
| b-cell origin, widespread lymphadenopathy, "b symptoms" - fever, weight loss, night sweats |
|
|
Term
| What are the CD markers for B cell, T cell and plasma cell? |
|
Definition
| B cell - CD19/20, T cell CD3/5, plasma cell CD 138/kappa/lambda |
|
|
Term
| What happens in follicular lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| t(14:18) translocation juxtaposes BCL2 gene which causes unregulated expression (inhibits apoptosis), increased survival of germinal center cells results |
|
|
Term
| what is the morphology of follicular lymphoma... |
|
Definition
| replacement of lymph nodes with enlarged follicles, consisting of small, cleaved lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| Infection with what can result in diffuse large B cell lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do 30% of the cells in diffuse large b cell lymphoma carry? |
|
Definition
| t(14:18)/BCL6 translocations |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of diffuse large b-cell lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| replacement of lymph node parenchyma with large, pleomorphic cells |
|
|
Term
| How do patients present in diffuse large b cell lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| older patients that have a rapidly enlarging mass at a nodal or extra-nodal site, symptoms are usually mass effect or destruction related |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of burkitt lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| medium sized cells that are mitotic or apoptotic, scattered benign macrophages - "starry sky" |
|
|
Term
| What are the three forms of burkitt lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| all extranodal - endemic usually presents in the jaw in Africa, sporadic usually in teh abdomen, and HIV-associated is the most aggressive |
|
|
Term
| What does hodgkin lymphoma usually involve? |
|
Definition
| one or adjacent lymphnodes (little extranodal), spreads contiguously, RS cells surrounded by benign reactive cells |
|
|
Term
| How does nodular sclerosis hodgkin lymphoma present? |
|
Definition
| lacunar class RS cells, bands of fibrosis in background cells, common, M = F, young adults, stage I or II, mediastinal |
|
|
Term
| How does mixed cellularity hodgkin's lymphoma present? |
|
Definition
| mononuclear classic RS, mixed background cells, uncommon, M>F, all ages stage III-IV |
|
|
Term
| How does lymphocyte rich hodgkin lymphoma present? |
|
Definition
| mononuclear classic RS cells surrounded by T lymphocytes, uncommon, older people, M>F |
|
|
Term
| How does lymphocyte depleted hodkin's present? |
|
Definition
| RS cells and variants, HIV associated |
|
|
Term
| How does nodular lymphocyte predominant hodgkin lymphoma present? |
|
Definition
| L and H popcorn cells, b cells and dendritic cells in background, uncommon, young M>F, cervical/axillary |
|
|
Term
| how does the Ann Arbor method of tumor staging break down? |
|
Definition
| I - one lymph node or group, II - two lymph nodes/groups on one side of diaphragm, III - both sides of diaphragm, IV - extralymphatic |
|
|
Term
| What are the general CD markers for hodgkin lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| CD15+, CD30+, CD45- (lymphocyte predominant - switch) |
|
|
Term
| Plasma cell neoplasms are white cell neoplasms that usually secrete... |
|
Definition
| monoclonal immunoglobulin |
|
|
Term
| What are the products secreted in multiple myeloma? |
|
Definition
| m protein (heavy IgG and IgA and light kappa and lambda chains), the free light chains are "bence-jones" proteins |
|
|
Term
| What will be seen in plasma cell myeloma? |
|
Definition
| increased abnormal plasma cells, monoclonal gammopathy, and lytic bone lesions (punched out x-ray) |
|
|
Term
| what are signs and symptoms from plasma cell myeloma? |
|
Definition
| bony infiltration (chronic pain), increased Ig production (renal failure), impaired immunity (infections) |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical patient and prognosis of plasma cell myeloma? |
|
Definition
| patient's old, bad prognosis (typical survival 3 yearS) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| solitary lesion consisting of monoclonal, neoplastic plasma cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the top sites for a plasmacytoma? |
|
Definition
| bone marrow and extramedullary (URT) |
|
|
Term
| What is the progression of bony plasmacytomas? |
|
Definition
| 10-20 years become plasma cell myeloma |
|
|
Term
| what is the progression of extra-osseus plasmacytomas? |
|
Definition
| rarely progress, surgically curable |
|
|
Term
| What is serum M protein with no other signs of myeloma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this consists of neoplastic B cells that secrete monoclonal IgM... |
|
Definition
| Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia |
|
|
Term
| what results from the IgM released in Waldenstroms? |
|
Definition
| hyperviscosity syndrome - visual, neurologic and bleeding |
|
|
Term
| What is the prognosis of Waldenstrom's? |
|
Definition
| not good - progresses and is incurable, death in about 4 years |
|
|
Term
| What does digeorge syndrome result from? |
|
Definition
| 22q11 deletion leads to abnormal development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches |
|
|
Term
| What does digeorge syndrome result in? |
|
Definition
| thymic and parathyroid hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
| What does hyperplasia of the thymus occur in? |
|
Definition
| chronic inflammatory and immunologic states, frequently accompanied by MG |
|
|
Term
| What is a tumor of your thymic epithelial cells called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical features of a thymoma resulting from? |
|
Definition
| acquired hypo-gammaglobulinemia, autoimmune disorders - MG, etc |
|
|
Term
| what component of inflammation results in pain and coughing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component of inflammation results in your fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component of inflammation results in vasodilation and bactericide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the key cell and what other features will be seen in chronic inflammation? |
|
Definition
| macrophages; decr necrosis, incr fibrosis, incr granulation tissue, incr igG |
|
|
Term
| what is required to produce and maintain granulomas? |
|
Definition
| TNF, TNF inhibitors can disrupt them - good thing |
|
|
Term
| what happens on day 1 of wound regeneration? |
|
Definition
| fibrin clot and neutrophil infiltration |
|
|
Term
| What happens on day 2 of wound regeneration? |
|
Definition
| squamous cells seal off wound and macrophages emigrate there |
|
|
Term
| what happens on days 3-6 of a wound regenerating? |
|
Definition
| granulation tissue forms, initial deposition type III collagen, macrophages replace neutrophils |
|
|
Term
| What is the tensile strength by week 2 of wound healing? 3 months? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute vs chronic inflammation - what are the primary cells, primary mediators, necrosis status, immunoglobulins, SPE, and peripheral blood status in acute vs chronic inflammation? |
|
Definition
| acute - neutrophils, histamine and necrosis are present with IgM, slight decr in albumin and neutrophilic leukocytosis, chronic - monocytes/macrophages are present with cytokines/growth factors present, no necrosis but IgG and a greater decrease in albumin are seen, monocytosis is seen |
|
|
Term
| Why do atypical lymphocytes form in mono, viral hep, CMV and toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| because antigenic stimulation and activation of T-cells causes them to take on an atypical morphology? |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of lymphopenia? |
|
Definition
| HIV infection (CD4), autoimmune disease, cytotoxic drugs, glucocorticoids, and malnutrition |
|
|
Term
Name the cancers that go along with each translocation...
1) t(8;14)
2) t(9,22)
3) t(11;14)
4) t(14;18)
5) t(15;17) |
|
Definition
1) burkitt lymphoma
2) chronic myelogenous leukemia
3) mantle cell lymphoma
4) diffuse large b cell lymphoma
5) acute myelogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
| Differentiate acute myelogenous from acute lymphocytic leukemia? |
|
Definition
acute myelogenous - disease of immature granulocytes seen in young to middle aged adults
acute lymphocytic - disease of lymphocytes seen in children |
|
|
Term
| Acute myeloid leukemia classification... |
|
Definition
MO - undifferentiated
M1 - AML w/o maturation
M2- AML w maturation
M3 - acute promyelocytic leukemia
M4 - myelomonocytic
M5 - monocytic/monoblastic
M6 - erythroleukemia
M7 - megakaryoblastic |
|
|
Term
| what are the symptoms of AML? |
|
Definition
| weakness, infection susceptibility, easy bleeding/bruising (thrombocytopenia), and bone pain |
|
|
Term
| what can M3 associated with DIC be treated with? |
|
Definition
| all-trans retinoic acid - ATRA |
|
|
Term
| What defines acute lymphoblastic leukemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What changes in immune function will be seen in CLL? |
|
Definition
| hypogammaglobulinemia, autoimmune hemolysis and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura |
|
|
Term
| What is Richter transformation? |
|
Definition
| when your CLL changes into diffuse large b cell lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| What's your pathognomic morphology for CLL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does chronic lymphoid leukemia present clinically? |
|
Definition
| older pts (>60), WBC count normal to real high, insidious onset, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly, progression is slow |
|
|
Term
| What are the ages of people in the different leukemias? |
|
Definition
| ALL - children, AML - young adults, CML - middle aged, CLL - elderly |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of the different leukemias (in general)? |
|
Definition
| acute - cytopenias, bone pain; chronic - non-specific fatigue/weakness/etc |
|
|
Term
| What is the prognosis for the different leukemias? |
|
Definition
| ALL - excellent (2/3 survive), AML - moderate (1/3 survive), CML - ok w gleevic, otherwise poor, CLL - poor |
|
|
Term
| What is hairy cell leukemia? |
|
Definition
| a mature b cell leukemia showing up in older males, presents with splenomegaly and pancytopenia, prognosis good w tx with purine nucleoside analogs and/or splenectomy |
|
|
Term
| what is pathognomic for hairy cell leukemia? |
|
Definition
| the hairy neoplastic lymphocytes seen in spleen, BM and peripheral blood |
|
|
Term
| How can one differentiate primary polycythemia vera from secondary polycythemia? |
|
Definition
| prim - trilineage expansion (polycythemia, granulocytosis, and thrombocythemia); secondary - expansion of RBCs only due to increased EPO |
|
|
Term
| Which anti-neoplastics affect nucleotide synthesis? |
|
Definition
| methotrexate and 5-FU affect thymine synthesis and 6-MP affects purine synthesis |
|
|
Term
| Which anti-neoplastics will stop proliferation at the DNA level? |
|
Definition
| alkylating agents are cisplatin, intercalating agents are doxorubicin, and etoposide inhibits topoisomerase II |
|
|
Term
| Which anti-neoplastics inhibit microtubule formation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anti-neoplastics inhibit microtubule dissassembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does methotrexate do? |
|
Definition
| folic acid analog inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, decreases thymine formation therefore decreasing DNA synth |
|
|
Term
| What effect can methotrexate have? |
|
Definition
| myelosuppression - use leukovorin to stop this |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a pyrimidine analog converted to fdump in the body, which complex folic acid and inhibits thymidilate synthetase |
|
|
Term
| a patient comes in with a fever, thrombocytopenia, schistocytes found in their blood, GFR = 45, and they can't remember where they are. They have no history of cancer, and no genetic abnormalities, what is their most likely problem? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you treat a thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? |
|
Definition
plasma exchange to remove antibodies and replace adamts-13
|
|
|
Term
What is hemolytic uremic syndrome usually caused by?
How does it present? |
|
Definition
sepsis esp w E coli
like ttp, only with more severe renal failure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| elevated PT, PTT, and INR; thrombocytopenia; microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (schistocytes); elevated d-dimers |
|
|
Term
| What happens in HIV associated thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
| gp120 binds gpIIb/IIIa on platelets which leads to clearance in the spleen |
|
|
Term
| When you have a defect in GPIb, which won't allow platelets to bind vWF, what do you have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it called when you have a deficiency in GPIIb/IIIa which won't allow platelets to aggregate? |
|
Definition
| Glanzmann's thrombasthenia |
|
|
Term
| While aspirin will decrease your bleeding time and leave everything else normal, thrombocytopenia will decrease your... and increase your..., and VWD will inrease your __________ and ____________ |
|
Definition
platelet ct, bleeding time; bleeding time, PTT
|
|
|
Term
While hemophilia A only increases your _______, DIC changes all of theses...
|
|
Definition
| PTT; pt decreased, BT, PT, and PTT increased |
|
|
Term
| Warfarin/heparin will increase these two times... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thrombosis is more likely when you have... |
|
Definition
| Virchow's triad! Vessel injury, blood stasis and hyper-coagulable state |
|
|
Term
| What syndrome involves anticardiolipin antibody, lupus anticoagulant, anti-beta2 glycoprotein 1 antibodies, and will have a pt with repeated spontaneous abortions and thrombosis? |
|
Definition
| antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS) - associated with SLE |
|
|
Term
| The is the most common hereditary thrombosis and blocks cleavage by proteins C and S |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What deficiency will involve no prolongation of PTT after injectino of heparin? |
|
Definition
| antithrombin III defiency - activity ENHANCED by by heparin |
|
|
Term
| Protein C and S deficiency makes it so you can't... |
|
Definition
| inactivate factors V and VIII |
|
|
Term
| What should protein C and S defiency be treated with? |
|
Definition
| heparin and very low dose warfarin to reduce hemorrhagic skin necrosis risk |
|
|
Term
| What factors cause vasoconstriction and vasodilation at the local level? |
|
Definition
| TXA2 and endothelin cause vasoconstriction, PGI2 and nitric oxide cause vasodilation |
|
|
Term
| while systolic bp depends on... diastolic bp depends on... |
|
Definition
| SV and compliance; TPR of arterioles |
|
|
Term
| how does increased sodium in the blood lead to vasoconstriction? |
|
Definition
| increased Na leads to increased Ca in smooth muscle cells - more contraction |
|
|
Term
| What happens in malignant nephrosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| malignant hypertension leads to glomerular arteriole/capillary rupture, fibrinoid necrosis of glomerular arterioles, renal cortex with flea bitten appearance, and untreated leads to renal failure |
|
|
Term
| How can one decrease htn? |
|
Definition
| decrease CO with diuretics and ACE inh/ARB, decrease contractility and HR with beta and ca blockers |
|
|
Term
| This aut rec disorder involves a deficiency of LPL and defect in apoC2, leading to serum triglycerides > 1000, eruptive skin xanthomas and pancreatitis. |
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Definition
| type I hyperlipoproteinemia |
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Term
| This LDL receptor deficiency leads to an LDL > 190, TRIGs < 300, tendon xanthomas and xanthelasma... |
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Definition
| type IIa hyperlipoproteinemia |
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Term
this hyperlipoproteinemia is aut dom and involves both an LDL receptor def in the liver and increase in ApoB, leading to increased VLDL and LDL and LDL >190 and TRIG <300
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Definition
| type IIb hyperlipoproteinemia, familial combined hyperlipidemia |
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Term
| this hyperlipoproteinemia involves palmar xanthomas, LDL < 190, TRIGs >300, defect in APOE2 synth, and increase in IDL |
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Definition
| Type III, familial dysbetalipoproteinemia |
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Term
| Type IV hyperlipoproteinemia is also called... |
|
Definition
| familial hypertriglyceridemia, increase in VLDL, TG > 300 and <1000, eruptive xanthomas, aut dom |
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Term
| This hyperlipoproteinemia involves trig's > 1000. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the characteristics of a syphilitic aneurysm? |
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Definition
| tertiary syphilis, vasculitis of vasa vasorum, aortic regurg, bounding pulses |
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|
Term
| Describe a berry aneurysm... |
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Definition
| in circle of willis, assoc with congenital polycystic kidney diseaes and htn, worst headache of life, rupture --> subarachnoid hemorrhage |
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Term
| What things cause increased intraluminal pressure which leads to varices? |
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Definition
| venous valve incompetence (legs), hepatic portal hypertension (esophageal varices), constipation/pregnancy (hemorrhoids) |
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Term
| This autosomal dominant disorder involves dilation and convolusion of capillaries and venules of the skin and mucous membranes... |
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Definition
| Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome |
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|
Term
| What is seen in sturge-weber syndrome? |
|
Definition
| port wine stain on face, with venous angiomas and neuro probs - mental deficiency and seizures |
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|
Term
| What are cavernous lymphangiomas associated wtih? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are angiosarcomas found and what are they associated wtih? |
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Definition
| liver; polyvinyl chloride, arsenic and radioactive contrast |
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|
Term
| What bacteria is bacillary angiomatosis associated with? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What should one do with a capillary hemangioma? |
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Definition
| leave it alone -spontaneously resolves |
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|
Term
| What is the most common cancer in aids and what is it associated with/ |
|
Definition
| kaposi sarcoma - HHV-8 (vascular malignancy) |
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|
Term
| When are spider telangiectasias seen? |
|
Definition
| pregnancy/hyperestrinism/cirrhosis |
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|
Term
| What test shows necrotizing vasculitis without immune complex deposition? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What tests specifically show systemic inflammation |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe Churg-Strauss Syndrome... |
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Definition
| Eosinophilia, lung involvement, pANCA, asthma like symptoms |
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|
Term
What is the main difference between fe def anemia nad anemia of chronic disease
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|
Definition
| chronic disease - incr ferritin |
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|
Term
| What clinical signs come along with B12 deficiency anemia? |
|
Definition
| megaloblastic anemia sx along with neuro sx due to demyelination of posterior columns and lateral corticospinal tracts --> wide based gait, loss of proprioception and vibratory sensation, positive babinski sign |
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Term
| A patient found unconscious on the street is later awaken and seems agitated and confused. She has ataxia and can't gaze laterally, so she is given thiamine to fix her problem. Where is the problem most likely? |
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Definition
| Mamillary bodies - Wernicke's Encephalopathy |
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|
Term
| What is the most well tolerated anti-fungal for infections of the tonails? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| during low oxygenation what happens to hemoglobin in sickle cell? |
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Definition
| hydrophobic interactions cause deformed hemoglobin leading to sickled red blood cells |
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|
Term
| What happens to the spleen in sickle cell? |
|
Definition
| functional asplenia leading to increased risk of infections |
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|
Term
| The fetal blood vessels that directly return deoxygenated blood to the placenta are... |
|
Definition
| two umbilical arteries that branch off the internal iliac arteries |
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|
Term
| What disease involves maternal meiosis instability and myotonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the exotoxin that causes a pseudomembrane on the tonsils and pharynx involves inactivation of... |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What do maternal diabetes and premature birth lead to? |
|
Definition
| decreased level of surfactant (major component is phosphatidylcholine, secreted by type ii pneumocytes) |
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|
Term
| What can treatment for infant respiratory distress syndrome lead to? |
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Definition
| oxygen is the treatment which can lead to oxygen free radicals damaging the retinal arteries --> blindness |
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|
Term
| What is de Quervain's disease? |
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Definition
| self limiting hypothyroidism following a viral illness that causes jaw pain |
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|
Term
| levoscoliosis (sidebending of the spine to the RIGHT) at L2, when lies flat on the exam table it evens out... |
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Definition
| short left leg - (dextroscoliosis would be sidebending of the spineto the left, which could be caused by a short r leg) |
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|
Term
| K complexes and sleep spindles are seen in... |
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Definition
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|
Term
| REM sleep is characterized by... |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Zollinger Ellison syndrome is associated with... |
|
Definition
| MEN1 - tumors of the pituitary, parathyroid and pancreas |
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