Term
| Flight Duty Period is a period that starts when an aircrew reports for a mission, briefing, or other official duty and ends |
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Definition
| when engines are shut down at the end of the mission, mission leg, or a series of missions. |
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Term
| When flying a Lazy 8, allow approximately ______ feet above and ______ feet below entry altitude |
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Definition
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Term
| The Immelmann is complete |
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Definition
| After a momentary pause in level flight following the roll out |
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Term
| Practice contact recoveries |
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Definition
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Term
| The objective of a Chandelle is |
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Definition
| Gain maximum altitude during a 180-degree turn |
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Term
| What are the ceiling and visibility requirements for a Restricted Pattern status |
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Definition
| Ceiling 1900' up to but not including 2500', minimum visibility 3 miles |
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Term
| Which of the following components is not protected from icing by the PROBES ANTI-ICE heating elements? |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Select TAS NORM in the Sheppard pattern, the radar controlled pattern and after level-off. Select TAS ABV while in a climb enroute and TAS BEL on the recovery. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Emergency flap operation is available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Joker fuel is a prebriefed fuel state that allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or an alternate, if required, using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel. |
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Definition
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Term
| The minimum altitude to begin OCF spin training is _______. Ensure spinning stops above ________. |
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Definition
| 13,500 feet MSL; 10,000 feet MSL |
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Term
| T/F: All maneuvers normally accomplished during normal daylight hours may be performed within the extended daylight window, including solo syllabus sorties. |
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Definition
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Term
| The objective of an Aileron Roll is |
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Definition
| Complete a 360-degree roll with a constant roll rate |
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Term
| Illumination of the PMU STATUS annunciator in flight indicates all but which of the following? |
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Definition
| The system is in manual mode |
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Term
| T/F: You must cancel IFR before reaching High Key when flying a PEL at Lawton/Ft Sill |
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Definition
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Term
| What description best characterizes entry to an aggravated spin? |
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Definition
| Maintaining pro-spin rudder while moving the control stick forward of the neutral position |
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Term
| Entry parameters for a Cloverleaf are |
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Definition
| 200 to 220 KIAS / 80% to MAX power |
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Term
| If climbout obstacles are a factor, rotate to _______ on takeoff and accelerate to _______ using normal procedures |
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Definition
| 15 degrees nose high; 140 KIAS |
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Term
| If PMU function is lost or deactivated, the mechanical flyweight overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to maintain Np at or below _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| When a restricted low approach is directed, do not descend below______ or below the altitude specified by the controller |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the cockpit indications after emergency extension of the landing gear? |
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Definition
| Red light in the gear handle, green nose gear indication, red and green indicators for each main gear |
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Term
| At the top of a Loop, airspeed should be approximately _____ to _____ KIAS wings level inverted. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following restrictions apply when operating at an NTA? |
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Definition
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Term
| The rudder trim aid device (TAD) computes a desired rudder trim tab position by sensing all of the following except: |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the minimum weather and visibility for a "Solos to the Pattern Only" status |
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Definition
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Term
| Entry parameters for a Barrel Roll are |
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Definition
| 200-220 KIAS / 80% to MAX power |
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Term
| Minimum runway length and width for normal single-ship T-6 operation is _____ feet long by ____ feet wide |
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Definition
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Term
| Pilots must report "gear down" before |
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Definition
| crossing the runway threshold |
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Term
| Recovery from the power-on stall is complete when |
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Definition
| you have established a positive climb |
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Term
| T/F: A Lazy 8 is complete after two 180-degree turns with the aircraft in level flight. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Normally, emergency aircraft outside of Cooter's pattern that plan to fly a straight-in approach will recover to Cooter's runway |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Objective for a Barrel Roll is to maintain coordinated flight through a 360-degree roll that describe a circle around a point near the horizon |
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Definition
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Term
| The maximum airspeed for any operation at an NTA is _____ indicated |
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Definition
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Term
| When flying a Loop, allow approximately ______ feet above entry altitude |
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Definition
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Term
| Do not begin the final turn after a straight-in has reported at 2 miles unless |
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Definition
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Term
| During an Immelmann, when the aircraft reaches a point approximately ______ degree above the horizon inverted, relax back stick pressure and apply aileron with coordinated rudder in either direction to initiate a roll to level flight |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: At home station, it is permissible to perform a rolling takeoff 15 minutes before official sunrise. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: When flying a Cuban 8 you need to execute 2 coordinated half roll in the same direction |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Civilian traffic in Hacker's pattern have priority over military aircraft unless an emergency condition exists |
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Definition
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Term
| When flying a Cloverleaf, consider discontinuing the maneuver if airspeed is above approximately _____ to ______ KIAS |
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Definition
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Term
| During an unrestricted status, what is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in Cooter's and Hacker's pattern |
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Definition
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Term
| For advance aerobatics and formation training, the G-awareness exercise should be flown to G loads of __ to __ Gs for approximately __ to __ breathing cycles in order to asses full cardiovascular response |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the minimum weather and visibility for a "Solos to the Pattern Only" status |
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Definition
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Term
| Normal climb speed for the T-6 is ________. Climbout speeds below ________ are permitted by the flight manual, but are not recommended due to high pitch attitudes that limit forward visibility and minimize clearing. |
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Definition
| 140 to 180 KIAS; 160 KIAS |
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Term
| For a local sortie, what are the maximum number of cords on the tires and still be acceptable for flight? |
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Definition
| None on Nose Gear, No red on Main |
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Term
| When on departure leg in Cooter's pattern, aircraft will not climb above what altitude until departing the pattern, initiating closed, or established on crosswind and clear of traffic conflicts |
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Definition
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Term
| When a conflict develops between an aircraft in the final turn and straight in traffic, who should yield? |
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Definition
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Term
| The trim control circuits give the ________ priority if trim selection conflicts between cockpits |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: When engaged, the TAD will function continuosly without input from pilot but it will not completely trim the aircraft in yaw. |
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Definition
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Term
| For hot day operations, optimum cockpit cooling is achieved by selecting _________. |
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Definition
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Term
| If attempting an airstart or positioning to land above 150 KIAS, initiate a zoom climb using a ___ G pull up to a ____ degree climb angle until approaching the desired glide airspeed. Below 150 KIAS, the benefits of a zoom climb are negligible |
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Definition
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Term
| Oil level must be serviced within ___ minutes of engine shutdown after every flight |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following is not characteristic of poststall gyrations? |
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Definition
| fully deflected turn needle |
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Term
| What is the best response to a spiral? |
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Definition
| neutralize controls, reduce power to IDLE |
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Term
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Definition
oFlaps UP immediately after touchdown can increase weight on wheels
oTwo primary factors are ground speed and tire pressure
oTire grooves, crowned runway decrease likelihood
oAbove 85 knots for nose tire, above 115 knots for main tires) |
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Term
| Compressor Stall Recognition |
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Definition
oAbnormal engine noise, increasing ITT, decreasing N¬1 and torque (followed by fluctuations), and AUDIBLE INDICATIONS
oAudible indications, and flames/smoke represent difference between stall and uncommanded power change/loss of power
oMay be caused by damaged or degraded compressor/turbine blades, disrupted airflow, or compressor bleed valve malfunctions
oSevere stalls can cause engine damage/flameout |
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Term
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Definition
| oAdd 500 ft to all key altitudes |
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Term
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Definition
-If prop RPM exceeds PMU sensor limits, “--" might be displayed for Np
-If this happens, cycle PMU switch
-If VSI greater than 1500 ft/min, increase torque up to 131% to get 1350-1500 ft/min VSI
-PCL – OFF if you can’t get 1350-1500 |
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Term
| Red and Amber Oil PX with normal oil Px reading = |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
-Mounted on RGB
-Supplies 32 VAC, which PMU converts to DC
-PMU automatically switches to 28 VDC battery bus if PMA fails or Np < 40-50% |
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Term
| Fuel Imbalance (how it auto balances, lbs and minutes) |
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Definition
-Keeps wings within 20 lbs of each other
-Greater than 20 lb imbalance detected for > 30 seconds, transfer valve closes motive flow line to light tank (keeps fuel from going to collector tank)
-If imbalance > 30 lbs for 2 minutes, “FUEL BAL” light, auto balance system shuts off
-“FUEL BAL” also illuminates for FP failure, auto balance will not be available
-To manual balance, move switch to LIGHTER tank
-L/R FUEL LO = 110 lbs in each WING TANK, independent of fuel probes and fuel gauges |
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Term
| Airstart Envelope (altitude and speeds) |
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Definition
-Useful power 40 seconds from starter engagement (1200’ altitude)
-125-200 KIAS for sea level to 15,000’
-135-200 KIAS for 15,001 to 20,000’
-If N1 doesn’t increase within 5 seconds, airstart = unsuccessful
-Wait to advance PCL until 67% N1 |
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Term
| Recommended speed for ejection |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
-Upon touchdown, smoothly lower nose gear to RWY once airspeed is below 80 KIAS unless needed to affect stopping distance
-If nose wheel shimmy occurs, apply back stick pressure to relieve weight then gently release pressure to re-establish contact with RWY |
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Term
| How does stick shaker work (knots above, etc) |
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Definition
-15-16 units AOA
-5-10 knots above stall speed
-Aerodynamic buffet occurs at 3 KIAS before stall |
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Term
| Gx before aerobatics (what is it) |
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Definition
-Perform when accomplishing maneuvers requiring 3 or more Gs
-Breathe every 2-3 seconds for 4-5 cycles
-If you gray out, return to 1 G flight, re-apply strain, and continue maneuvering
-200-220 knots (strive for 220), level to slightly descending, nose within 10° of horizon
-4 Gs (4-5 Gs for advanced aero/formation) |
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Term
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Definition
-10 knots when entering/exiting areas where jets are parked
-15 knots on ENJJPT ramp OR when making sharp turns
-25 knots on any taxiway |
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Term
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Definition
-Joker: prebriefed fuel to terminate an event and move to next phase of flight
-“Declare minimum fuel…when it becomes apparent the fuel remaining at touchdown will be less than [150 lbs, 200 lbs solo].” |
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Term
| OCF/Spin Cloud Clearances/altitudes associated with/how long to fly at 1G |
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Definition
-Need 7,000’ of airspace clear of clouds below you
-Complete all OCF/dive recoveries 3,000’ above clouds
-Min altitude to begin OCF is 13,500’ MSL, ensure spinning stops above 10,000’ MSL
-Allow 5 seconds of 1 G flight prior to spin entry |
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Term
| Hydraulic system pressures |
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Definition
-3000 +/- 120 psi for normal and emergency systems
-Over pressurization valve opens at 3250-3500
-Need 1800 psi to power landing gear, main gear doors, speed brake, flaps, NWS
-Below 1800 psi, pressure display changes from white to amber
-HYDR FL LO = less than 1 qt in reservoir
-EHYD PX LO = less than 2400 +/- 150 psi
-Fluid flow to emergency accumulator restricted to a rate below .25 GPM
-If it exceeds this, hydraulic fuse limits loss to less than 0.5 qt |
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Term
| When you can climb above 500’AGL in pattern |
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Definition
-Crosswind and clear of traffic
-Initiating closed
-Departing pattern (1 NM from departure end) |
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Term
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Definition
| -140-180, but we climb at 160 due to limited vision at speeds above this |
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Term
| ELPs into Chattanooga, NTA restrictions |
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Definition
-Minimum Wx for VFR at uncontrolled airfield is 3500’ 5NM
-Max speed for NTA ops is 150 KIAS
-Squawk 1200 operating VFR at Bowie, Chickasha, or Pauls Valley
-Minimize use of Chattanooga for ELP training from MOA
-Controlled by RAPCON until cancelling IFR or reporting “High Key”
-Prior to cancelling IFR, confirm with RAPCON there are no potential conflicts in vicinity
-Look out for IFF T-38s headed to Falcon Range
-Establish contact on CTAF
-Upon leaving, head southeast while remaining under 4,000’ MSL |
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Term
| Pattern restrictions with status worse than unrestricted |
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Definition
-Sim instruments: recover with VOR/DME-E, takeoff/land on Cooter
-Alternating instruments: “South Right (15R)” and “North Center (33C)” for takeoffs
-Can fly ELPs to low key in restricted pattern if VFR cloud clearances observed |
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Term
| Night glidepath requirements |
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Definition
-Fly night overhead patterns only at home station
-At other than home field, landings require operation glidepath guidance
-Visual guidance (VASI/PAPI) or precision (ILS) works
-Can’t go lower than MDA without it |
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Term
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Definition
-VFR: areas 1, 3, 4, 8, 9 Low – request “direct VFR entry,” cancel IFR, descend below 8000’ MSL within area and stay clear of Ranch stereo
-1 min from VFR entry point make radio call, can request St-In, don’t call 4 mile initial |
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