Term
| Preclinical phase = discovering/inventing --> in vitro/vivo testing for safety, toxicity and efficacy |
|
Definition
| During the ___ phase of drug development, it is when a chemical is being discovered/invented; in vitro and in vivo testing is conducted for safety, toxicity and efficacy. |
|
|
Term
| 1st phase of drug development = 25-80 healthy volunteers for safety and limits --> open trials |
|
Definition
| During the ___ phase of drug deevelopment, 25-80 healthy volunteers are used to establish safety and probably limits of the safe clinical dosage range. = Open trials |
|
|
Term
| Second phase of drug development = 100-300 patients w/target disease to determine efficacy and limits of safe clinical dosage through single blind design. |
|
Definition
| During the ___ phase of drug development, 100-300 patients with target disease are used to determine efficacy and establish probably limits of safe clinical dosage range. This is a single-blind design. |
|
|
Term
| Third phase of drug development = 1000-3000 patients for safety/efficacy/dosage limits in double blind or crossover study |
|
Definition
| During the ___ phase of drug development, 1000-3000 patients are tested to further establish safety and efficacy and probable limits of safe clinical dosage in double blind and crossover studies. |
|
|
Term
| "Fourth" phase of drug development = approved for market w/side effects identified |
|
Definition
| During the ___ phase of drug development, the drug is approved for the market. Manufacturer must identify drug induced effect that have an incidence of 1:10,000 or less. |
|
|
Term
| generic = official/nonproprietary, brand = proprietary |
|
Definition
| The ___ name is the offical/nonproprietary name, while the ___ name is the proprietary name. |
|
|
Term
| Drug equivalency = interchangeability/identical active ingredients... aka bioequivalence |
|
Definition
| ____ ____ or interchangeability means that a generic and brand name have identical active ingredients. |
|
|
Term
1. Chemical category/class [propanioc acid]
2. Indication/intended use [anti-inflammatory]
3. Effect produced [COX1 inhibitor]
(Do you know what drug falls into these categories? IBUPROFEN!) |
|
Definition
| Explain the 3 ways that drugs may be classified: |
|
|
Term
| Pharmacokinetics = drug movement |
|
Definition
| ____ is the absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs. It involves the time course and magnitude of uptake and elimination of drugs in intact organisms. |
|
|
Term
| Pharmacodynamics = structure-activity relationships and mechanisms of action |
|
Definition
| ____ are the actions of drugs in living systems, both normal and diseased. It includes structure-activity relationships (SAR) and mechanisms of action. |
|
|
Term
| Therapeutics/Pharmacotherapeutics = clinical use of drug |
|
Definition
| ____ pertain to the clinical use of drugs dealing with indications, contraindications, dose, dosing interval, route, adverse effects, drug interactions, etc. |
|
|
Term
| Toxicology = study of poisons |
|
Definition
| ___ is the study of poisons, including treatment, acute and chronic drug toxicities. |
|
|
Term
| Pharmacodynamics = mechanisms of action |
|
Definition
| ____ describes the interaction between drugs and body at a molecular level (mechanisms of action), how drug interacts with biological system and determines indications/contraindications of drug. |
|
|
Term
| False! Propranol DECREASES heart rate. |
|
Definition
| T/F: Propranol increases heart rate. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: If a drug has a high affinity for a receptor it is very potent. |
|
|
Term
| Local anesthesia inhibits action potential |
|
Definition
| Give an example of a type of drug that inhibits an action potential. |
|
|
Term
| Epinephrine stimulates/activates receptors on heart muscles/blood vessels |
|
Definition
| Give an example of a drug that stimulates/activates receptors on heart muscles/blood vessels/etc. |
|
|
Term
| Propranol inhibits/blocks receptors on heart muscles |
|
Definition
| Give an example of a drug that inhibits/blocks receptors on heart muscles/brain cells/etc. |
|
|
Term
| Beta 1 = heart (You have 1 heart), Beta 2 = lungs (You have 2 lungs) |
|
Definition
| Beta 1 deals with the _____ while Beta 2 deals with the ____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ are specialized proteins with polypeptide structures providing diversity/specificity of shape/electrical charge located on cell membranes or within a cell. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ are molecules that play a regulatory role in biologic systems = regulatory proteins. They mediate actions of endogenous chemical signals such as neurotransmitters, autocoids and hormones. |
|
|
Term
| autocoids (such as histamine), hormones |
|
Definition
| ____ are hormones that affect areas where they are released, whereas ____ are released in one place and travel to another to act. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Ibuprofen is the nonproprietary name of the drug Motrin. |
|
|
Term
| False! OTC medications require NO doctor's prescription. |
|
Definition
| T/F: Over the counter medications require a doctor's prescription. |
|
|
Term
| True! Botox is an example |
|
Definition
| T/F: Toxins can be employed as drugs. |
|
|
Term
| Pharmacokinetics = how physiological processes handle drugs |
|
Definition
| ___ describes how the human physiological processes handles a drug. |
|
|
Term
| Pharmacodynamics = mechanism action of a drug |
|
Definition
| ___ describes the mechanism action of a drug. |
|
|
Term
| False! It can be marketed only after the expiration of the brand name patent. |
|
Definition
| T/F: A generic copy of a brand name drug can be marketed before the patent of the brand name drug is expired. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Lifand-gated channels are fast signalig receptor systems. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Antagonists have no intrinsic activity. |
|
|
Term
| False! Both agonists and antagonists have affinity. |
|
Definition
| T/F: Antagonists have no affinity for receptors. |
|
|
Term
| Agonists bond and activate |
|
Definition
| ___ binds and activates receptors. |
|
|
Term
| Covalent bonds are the strongest |
|
Definition
| The strongest drug binding forces are ___ ___. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Activation of G protein results in modulation of different second messengers. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Corticosteroids interact with intracellular receptors. |
|
|
Term
| False! Activation of Ligand-gated channels = fast response |
|
Definition
| T/F: Activation of Ligand-gated channels results in slow biological response. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Chelating agents do not act via a receptor mechanism. |
|
|
Term
| 1. acetylcholine, 2. norepinephrine |
|
Definition
| Name 2 receptors for neurotransmitters. |
|
|
Term
| Tubocurarine and polocarpine = cholinergic (ACh); propranolol and albuterol = adrenergic (norepinephrine) |
|
Definition
| Tubocurarine and polocarpine alter ___ neurotransmission while propranolol and albuterol alter ___ neurotransmission. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ stimulates saliva flow by altering cholinergic neurotransmission/acetylcholine. |
|
|
Term
| Dihydrofolate reductASE is an ENZYME |
|
Definition
| Dihydrofolate reductase is a receptor that is a(n) ____. Ex: Methotrexate |
|
|
Term
| transport protein receptors |
|
Definition
| Sodium/Potassium ATPase such as digitalis glycoside (digoxin) are ___ ___ receptors. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Colchicine destroys ___ in anticancer drugs. |
|
|
Term
| ligand = ACh, coltage = lidocaine |
|
Definition
| Ligand-gated channels are acted upon by ____. Voltage-gated channels are acted upon by ___. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cAMP, Ca2+/IP3, DAG and eicosonoids are examples of ___ ___. |
|
|
Term
| True! Something like 98% according to Dr. Foong |
|
Definition
| T/F: Most drugs act on receptors. |
|
|
Term
| Do NOT, they are all examples of receptor-less drugs |
|
Definition
| Antacids, Laxatives, Chelating agents, and osmotic diuretics (do/do not) involve receptors. |
|
|
Term
| Antacids = change pH, laxatives = oil based lube, Chelating agents = remove copper, osmotic diuretics = increase pee |
|
Definition
| ___ change pH of environment. ___ are oil based and lubricate tubes. ___ ___ take copper out of circulation. ___ ___ increase urine output by osmosis. |
|
|
Term
| True! These are optical isomers which means they are mirror images |
|
Definition
| T/F: Levo is highly active while dextro is only slightly active. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ bonding is the sharing of electrons. This type of bond is strong and irreversible. New receptors must be synthesized. Ex. alkylating anticancer agents |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ bonding is the electrostatic attraction between ions of opposite charge. They are weak associations, common and initiate drug-receptor combinations. |
|
|
Term
| Hydrogen Enter away message text here.bonds |
|
Definition
| ___ bonding is interaction between polar molecules. They are weaker bonds and drugs and receptors are capable of forming multiple of these types of bonds. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____ are weak electrostatic interactions and form the weakest type of bonds, but are the most important drug-receptor bond in that they allow a precise fit. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Van der Waals forces are weaker bonds, but are more selective. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: High affinity require less drug to produce an effect = potent. Low affinity requires high drug concentration to produce effect. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is the ability of a drug to activate a receptor following binding. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| (High/Low) intrinsic activity causes intense receptor activation and these drugs have a high maximal effect. |
|
|
Term
| agonist = binds and reacts, antagonist = binds and blocks |
|
Definition
| ___ binds receptors and brings about biological response. ___ binds receptors, preventing other things to bind to it and therefore blocking biological actions. |
|
|
Term
| epi = agonist, prop = antagonist |
|
Definition
| Epinephrine is an (agonist/antagonist) and binds to heart cells. Proponolol is an (agonist/antagonist) and blocks heart cells. |
|
|
Term
| False! That describes and ANTagonist |
|
Definition
| T/F: Agonists bind and block, have affinity, no intrinsic activity and results in no receptor stimulation. |
|
|
Term
| False! That describes agonists |
|
Definition
| T/F: Antagonist bind and activate, have affinity and high intrinsic activity and results in stimulation of receptor. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ is measured using a log-dose response curve. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ = EC50/ED50; it is expressed as effective concentration/dose required to produce 50% of maximum effect. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Log-dose response curve allows comparison to be made between drugs of same class. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Smaller the EC50 = more potent. |
|
|
Term
| Competitive antagonist binds reversibly |
|
Definition
| A (competitive/noncompetitive) antagonist binds reversibly to a receptor. Receptor blockage can be overcome by increasing agonist concentration. |
|
|
Term
| noncompetitive antagonist binds irreversibly |
|
Definition
| A (competitive/noncompetitive) antagonist binds irreversibly to receptors and blockage is insurmountable. Covalent bonds between receptor and antagonist make receptor unavailable for agonist binding. |
|
|
Term
| chemical because protamine sulphate inactivates heparin chemically |
|
Definition
| Heparin and protamine sulphate are examples of nonreceptor (physiological/chemical) antagonists. |
|
|
Term
| physiological because epinephrine (vasoconstriction) and histamine (vasodilation) have two different functions that just happen to cancel the other out physiologically. |
|
Definition
| Epinephrine and histmaine are examples of nonreceptor (physiologic/chemical) antagonists. |
|
|
Term
| antagonist of morphine, normally agonist (it is an analgesic) |
|
Definition
| Pentazocine is an ____ of morphine, but normally operates as an ____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is an index of drug safety derived from the log-dose response curve. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| low TI = kills patient, high TI = dafer |
|
Definition
| (high/low) TI = same dose that produces effect, kills patient. (high/low) TI = still has adverse effects, but is safer |
|
|
Term
| narrow therapeutic window |
|
Definition
| Warfarin, 5-fluorouracil, cyclosporine, digoxin, and phenytoin are examples of drugs with (narrow/wide) therapeutic index/window. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ was discovered at a Wisconsin agricultural research farm where it killed rats by causing profuse bleeding. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ causes gingival overgrowth and has a narrow therapeutic window. |
|
|
Term
| kinetics = movement through body, dynamics = action on body |
|
Definition
| Pharmaco____ = drug movement through body. Pharmaco____ = drug action on body. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion are how a drug gets from the gastrointestinal tract to the brain. This is called pharmaco____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Elimination of drugs is a combination of ___ and ____. |
|
|
Term
| 1. enteral (per oral), 2. perenteral (injections), 3. topical |
|
Definition
| What are the three ways a drug can be administered? |
|
|
Term
| Drugs are absorbed via the GI tract in ENTERAL administration. The absorbed drug first goes to the LIVER and then are distributed to entire body via the CIRCULATORY SYSTEM. |
|
Definition
| Drugs are absorbed via the GI tract in ____ administration. The absorbed drug first goes to the ___ and then are distributed to entire body via the ___ ___. |
|
|
Term
| 1. intravenous, 2. intramuscular, 3. intraarticular (into joint) |
|
Definition
| List three types of perenteral routes of administration. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A disadvantage of ___ administration is that it is irreversible and cannot easily remove from body. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inhalation is an example of ____ administration. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nitroglycerin is administered _____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Aspirin is a (weak/strong) acid and codeine is a (weak/strong) base. |
|
|
Term
| lipid/h2o solubility, pH of environment, concentration, blood flow to area, surface area, administration, charge/size of molecule, transporters |
|
Definition
| Name a couple factors affecting drug absorption. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Atenolol is too hydrophilic and (can/cannot) penetrate the lipid membrane. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Acyclovir is too lipophilic and (can/cannot) cross the water layer of the lipid membranes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ diffusion is the main route for most drugs. It is a passive process. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Polar and ions or molecules w/electric charge (can/cannot) penetrate the lipid membrane. |
|
|
Term
| Uncharged w/pH can, charged cannot |
|
Definition
| Uncharged molecules (can/cannot) be absorbed. Charged drugs (can/cannot) be absorbed. |
|
|
Term
| Weak 'A'cid prefers to be 'A'bsorbed in an 'A'cidic environment |
|
Definition
| Explain the "AAA" acronym concerning aspirin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Small ions such as potassium, lithium, sodium and calcium cross membranes how? |
|
|
Term
| Transport/Carrier Systems |
|
Definition
| ___ ___ are energy dependent passages that push drugs against concentration gradient and can be saturated. |
|
|
Term
| Polar molecules (no net charge) = can; ions (net charge) = cannot, but use channels; quat ammonium compounds (positive) = cannot cross most membranes |
|
Definition
| Polar molecules have no net charge and (can/cannot) be absorbed. Ions have a net charge and (can/cannot) be absorbed passively. Quat Ammonium compounds are large molecules with positive charge and (can/cannot) be absorbed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Drugs are first distributed to organs that have a rich blood supply (such as heart, liver, kidney, brain) then to organs with poor blood supply (muscles, fat) |
|
|
Term
| 1. Abscesses: they are pus-filled and have NO blood supply so antibiotic cannot reach infection; 2. solid tumors: limited blood supply so drugs cannot reach target site |
|
Definition
| What are two exceptions to the blood supply theory? |
|
|
Term
| False! Only free drugs can exit blood vessels to be active, metabolized or excreted. |
|
Definition
| T/F: The bound form of a drug is active, metabolized and excreted. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The capillary walls of the ___ ___ ___ are not leaky because they have tight junctions between the cells. Crossing this a drug must be either lipid soluble or have a transport system. |
|
|
Term
| Alcohol, cocaine, heroin, nicotine (Basically all the good things, right?) |
|
Definition
| What are a few drugs that can reach the fetus through the placenta? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lipid soluble drugs first saturate ____ ___ and are stored here. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Movement from the site of action will terminate the action of the drug. Movement from a storage site will maintain a certain level in blood/other organs. |
|
|
Term
| Biotransformation usually occurs in the liver, but sometimes in the GI tract, lungs, skin and blood (Think of these places as sites of most cancers?) |
|
Definition
| ____ is the enzymatic (biochemical) alteration of a drug molecule. It alters the pharmacoligical and chemical properties of the parent drug. This happens mainly in the ____ and sometimes in the ___ ___, ____, ____ and ____. |
|
|
Term
| Drug inactivation (procaine --> PABA) or drug activation (codeine --> morphine); toxic metabolites produced (acetaminophen --> a compound toxic to liver cels); increase/decrease in toxicity; increase H2O solubility = if a drug becomes more polar, it will be excreted faster |
|
Definition
| What are the 5 consequences of drug metabolism? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ require activation and are biochemically changed by liver enzymes. The metabolites are the active drugs and have greater activity than inactivated parent drug. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| During phase ___ of drug metabolism, oxidation reduction and/or hydrolysis occur to prepare it for conjugation. The drug may be activated, unchanged or inactivated by this process. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| During phase ___ of drug metabolism, conjugation occurs and the drug is usually inactivated. |
|
|
Term
| From more lipophilic to more hydrophilic so that is can be excreted in urine. |
|
Definition
| Drug metabolism takes a drugs solubility from more (lipophilic/hydrophilic) to more (lipophilic/hydrophilic). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| (Hepatic/nonhepatic) CYP450 is the most common mechanism in phase I reactions. |
|
|
Term
| Procaine = ester-type, metabolized by hydrolysis in blood |
|
Definition
| ____ is an ester-type anesthetic and is metabolized by hydrolysis in the blood. |
|
|
Term
| Prolocaine and articaine = amide type, metabolized by both intra-extra hepatic |
|
Definition
| ___ and ___ are amide type local anesthetics that can be metabolized via the hepatic and extra-hepatic mechanisms. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ is an amide-type local anesthetic that can be metabolized by hepatic mechanism only. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: The metabolite is usually inactive following phase I reactions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| (Lipo/hydro)-philic metabolites may be readily excreted. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ exists in SER of cells and is a hemoprotein that serves as the terminal oxidase with isoenzymes. |
|
|
Term
| CYP1A2 = caffeine, CYP2E1 = alcohol |
|
Definition
| ___ is the CYP450 substrate that deals with caffeine and ___ deals with alcohol. |
|
|
Term
| False! Exogenous = outside the body (drugs, toxins) and Endogenous = inside the body (steroids, vitamin D, prostaglandins) |
|
Definition
| T/F: Substrates can either be exogenous meaning coming from inside the body (steroids, vitamin D, prostaglandins), or endogenous meaning coming from outside the body (drugs, toxins). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| CYP____ is responsible for more than 60% of metabolism in the liver. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If cometidine, diazepam and lidocaine are metabolized by the same isoenzyme and cimetidine inhibits the P450 enzyme, will the blood levels of diazepam and lidocaine increase/decrease/stay the same? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Phnyoin increased the metabolism of vitamin D, leading to (an overdose/a deficiency/no change) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Phase II reactions are where endogenous substrates combine with newly established functional group to form a HIGHLY polar conjugate. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Conjugates are more water soluble and ready for excretion than their parent drug. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When a drug is metabolically changed from active to inactive before reaching the systemic circulation is the ___ ___ ___. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Administering nitroglycerin sublingually bypasses the first pass effect. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What are the two major routes of the removal of drugs from the body? |
|
|
Term
| Saliva, sweat, tears, milk, expired air |
|
Definition
| Name a couple minor routes for drug excretion. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ is the main organ involved with excretion. |
|
|
Term
| False! Renal failure will prolong the duration of a drug action with an increase in adverse effects because excretion will decrease, therefore making the drug stay in your system longer. |
|
Definition
| T/F: Renal failure will shorten the duration of drug action with a decrease in adverse effects. |
|
|
Term
| 1. Glomerular filtration, 2. active tubular secretion, 3. passive tubular reabsorption [filtration, secretion, reabsorption] |
|
Definition
| Name the 3 pathways of the kidneys drug metabolite excretion. |
|
|
Term
| glomerular filtration = hydrostatic pressure, tubular secretion = carrier mediated, tubular reabsorption = lipid soluble drugs |
|
Definition
| ___ ___ utilizes hydrostatic pressure and fenestrated epithelium. ____ ___ is carrier mediated with acids such as uric acid and bases such as choline and histamine. ___ ___ works with lipid soluble drugs and is a passive process. |
|
|
Term
| False! It IS a possible site for drug interaction. Ex: Penicillin and probenecid |
|
Definition
| T/F: Excretion is not a possible site for drug interaction. |
|
|
Term
| False! It is dependent on all those things |
|
Definition
| T/F: The rate of respiratory excretion is independent of gas exchange including diffusion, gas solubility, blood flow and lung function. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is when drugs are excreted in the bile as a parent drug or metabolite, emptied into the intestines where it is reabsorbed. Ex. steroids, pheolphthalien, benzodiazepines |
|
|
Term
| They all are drugs that go through enterohepatic cycling |
|
Definition
| What do steroids, phenolphthalien and benzodiazepines have in common? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drugs that are (lipid/water) soluble can be excreted in breast milk. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ dose is the dosing rate in which the rate in equals the rate out (rate of elimination). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ dose promptly raises the concentration of drug in plasma to the target concentration. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The half-life determines the ____ ____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If the drug has a short half-life, the dosing interval is ___. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drug accumulation occurs when dosing interval is shorter than the half-life of the drug - usually ____ (#). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____ is unresponsiveness to drug after one or two doses while ____ is a slower process of unresponsiveness. |
|
|
Term
| adverse drug reactions (ADRx) |
|
Definition
| ___ ___ ____ are responses to a drug which are noxious and unintended and occur at doses that are normally used. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Type ___ (predictable) adverse drug reactions include cytotoxic reactions, drug-drug interactions, drug-food interactions and drug-disease interactions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Type ___ (unpredictable) include idiosyncratic reactions, immunologic/allergic reactions, pseudoallergic effects, teratogenic effects and oncogenic effects. |
|
|
Term
| cytotoxic reactions as adverse effects |
|
Definition
| Drug overdose and drug metabolites are examples of ____ reactions. Methemoglobinemia, hepatotoxicity and cytotoxic mucositis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ____ of a drug is defined as 1/2 the dose producing a response in 100% of treated subjects. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A drug with an ED50 of 5mg and LD50 of 40mg posesses a therapeutic index of ____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following is an example of an OTC medication? a. aspirin, b. birth control pills, c. heroin, d. tylenol 3 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The distribution of many acid drugs is slowed because of binding of the drug to which of the following components of blood? a. plasma globulin, b. plasma albumin, c. lymphocytes, d. blood platelets, e. erythrocytes |
|
|
Term
| 10 mg/mL (40/2 = 20/2 = 10) |
|
Definition
| The plasma 1/2-life of a drug is known to be 30 minutes. If the plasma concentration of this drug is found to be 40 mg/mL in a patient, what will be the plasma concentration of the drug 1 hour later? |
|
|
Term
| pharmacokinetics (how they work) |
|
Definition
| The quantitative study of the time course and magnitude of the fate of drugs in the body is termed: |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chronic kidney disease in a patient would most likely (increase/decrease/have no effect on) the response to a systemically administered drug. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The potency of a drug is: A. inversely related to dose, B. measured in terms of its ED50, C. determined by the drug's receptor affinity, D. all of the above |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A drug's efficacy is: A. determined by its intrinsic activity, B. measured as the dose producing a maximum response, C. directly related to the drug's potency, D. all of the above. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The dose that kills 1/2 of a group of patients is referred to as the drug's ____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If the LD50/ED50 ratio is the same for each drug, it means that they have the same ____ ____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Local anesthetics and epinephrine or penicillin and probenecid are (desirable/undesirable) drug interactions. Epinephrine and non-selective beta-blockers are (desirable/undesirable) drug interactions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A pharmacological interaction at (the same/a different) receptor is when an antagonist blocks an agonist. A pharmacoligical interaction at (the same/a different) receptor is when two drugs affect two different cellular mechanisms. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 80% of all drug interactions are (pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drug interactions dealing with receptors are pharmaco____, while protein binding, altered pH and decreasing gastric emptying time are examples of pharmaco____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Local anesthetics and epinephrine drug interactions are examples of a pharmacokinetic interaction of ___ ___ ___. |
|
|
Term
| Aspirin likes to be absorbed in an acidic environment, so if you take an antacid with it, aspirin will be absorbed in the small intestine instead. |
|
Definition
| Explain the interaction between antacids and aspirin. |
|
|
Term
| Opioids (morphine/codeine) decreases gastric emptying time preventing acetaminophen from entering the small intestine as quickly. Acetaminophen is a weak base is is absorbed in the small intestine. |
|
Definition
| Explain the interaction between codeine/morphine and acetaminophen. |
|
|
Term
| Aspirin displaces warfarin from it's protein binding sites, increasing the blood concentration of warfarin by 100%. |
|
Definition
| Explain the interaction between aspirin and warfarin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If drug A increases the metabolism of drug B, the action of drug B is terminated (quicker/slower). |
|
|
Term
| stimulate = enzyme inducers, inhibit = enzyme inhibitors (duh) |
|
Definition
| Drugs that stimulate the synthesis of CYP isoenzymes are called ___ ___ and drugs that inhibit the action of CYP isoenzymes are called ___ ___. |
|
|
Term
| Alcohol is metabolied by acetraldehyde dehydrogenase and metronidazole inhibits this enzyme. The metabolism of alcohol is altered, resulting in confusion, convulsions and severe nausea. This is a DISULFRAM reaction, much like alcohol and antabuse. |
|
Definition
| Explain the interaction between metronidazole (an antibiotic) and alcohol. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Renal filtration is dependent on cardiac output and drugs that decrease cardiac output will delay excretion. |
|
|
Term
| False! If the pH of the lumen is altered, reabsorption will be changed. |
|
Definition
| T/F: Reabsorption will not change if the pH of the lumen is altered, such as with aspirin's interaction with sodium bicarbonate. |
|
|
Term
| They compete for carrier mechanisms in renal secretion and create uric acid crystals in the knee joints = Gout. |
|
Definition
| Explain the reaction between Probenecid and Penicillin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ effect is an uncommon adverse drug reaction that can occur to all drug groups and usually due to a genetic predisposition. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ effects are caused by drugs that result in birth defects. Ex: Thalidomide and tretinoin (Vitamin A acid) |
|
|
Term
| A: no risk to fetus in any trimester; B: no adverse effect in animals, no human studies; C: Only given after fetal risks considered, animal studies show adverse effects, no human studies; D: definite fetal risk, may be given in spite of risk if need is life-threatening; X: absolute fetal abnormalities, may not be used at any time during pregnancy |
|
Definition
| Explain the 5 FDA pregnancy risk categories. |
|
|
Term
| A: levothyroxine (for thyroid problems); B: NSAIDs (ibuprofen); C: codeine; D: diazepam/benzodiazepines (cause cleft lip/palate); F: warfarin, benzodiazepines |
|
Definition
| Give an example of a drug for each of the 5 FDA pregnancy risk categories. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ effects are caused by drugs that result in either primary or secondary cancer. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| (Primary/Secondary) oncogenic effects are usually caused by drugs that induce immunosuppression such as transplant drugs like cyclosporin A and corticosteroids. These cause a reactivation of oncogenic viruses. (Primary/Secondary) oncogenic effects include those causing DNA damage. |
|
|
Term
| They all can cause the body to develop a dependence for the drug. |
|
Definition
| Opioids, alcohol, amphetamines, barbiturates and benzodiazepines all have what effect in common? |
|
|
Term
| They all have a narrow therapeutic window |
|
Definition
| Digoxin, Lithium, phenytoin and theophyline all have what in common? |
|
|
Term
| Anticholinergic, antidepressants, antihypertensive, antipsychotic, and antihistamine |
|
Definition
| Name 3 of the 5 drug classes that cause xerostomia. |
|
|
Term
| They are major examples of drugs that cause gingival overgrowth. |
|
Definition
| What do phenytoin (dilantin for anticonvulsants), cyclosporine (antirejection drug for transplants) and calcium channel blockers (antihypertensive such as verapamil, nefedipine and diltiazem) have in common? s |
|
|
Term
| 1. Which drug 2. Dose 3. Frequency 4. Instructions to patient |
|
Definition
| What 4 things must a prescription include? |
|
|
Term
| controlled drugs such as opiates. |
|
Definition
| By law, pharmacists must record who prescribed and who receives ___ drugs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| non-controlled drugs are also known as ___ drugs. |
|
|
Term
| Schedule III, 30 mg codeine (III... 3... 30) |
|
Definition
| Schedule ____ drugs include tylenol III which contains ___mg of codeine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ rule is used most in denistry and it deals with dosages in relation to weight in lbs or kg. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____ rule is not advisable to use for pediatrics, but it deals with dosages in relation to the age of a patient. |
|
|
