Term
| Name four of the principal pressure points. |
|
Definition
- Superficial Temporal Artery
- Facial Artery
- Common Carotid Artery
- Subclavian Artery
- Brachial Artery
- Radial/Ulnar Artery
- Femoral Artery
- Iliac Artery
- Popliteal Artery
- Anterior/Posterior Tibial Artery
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|
Term
| What type of shock is caused by spinal cord injury, usaully as a result of a traumatic accident or injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the objectives of first aid? |
|
Definition
| Prevent Further Injury, Prevent Infection, Prevent the loss of life |
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|
Term
| How many Principals pressure points are on each side of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
State the difference between the open and close fracture
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|
Definition
Open - A broken bone with a break in the skin with possible bone protrusion
Closed - A broken bone without a break in the skin |
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|
Term
| Ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to 32 degrees or lower is identified as what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which method of controlling bleeding should only be used as a last resort? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What type of burn is the most severe?
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|
Definition
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|
Term
| Profuse sweating is a symptom of which of the following heat related injuries? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which type of burn is characterized by red and blistered skin and severe pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of heat related injury is most severe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Another term
Open Fracture:
Closed Fracture: |
|
Definition
Compound Fracture
Simple Fracture |
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|
Term
| What type of shock is caused by severe blood and/or fluid loss such as tramatic bodily injury, which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What type of shock occurs when the heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State the four methods of controlling bleeding |
|
Definition
Direct Pressure
Elevation
Pressure Points
Tourniquet (last resort) |
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|
Term
| Which classification of burn produces redness, warmth, and mild pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Classification of burn destroys tissu and skin, and in severe cases, destroys bone? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
A victim of electrical shock will always have visible evidence of their injury |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Inability to talk, grasping and pointing to the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, and skin turning a bluish color are indication of what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which heat related injury's incude cool, moist, and clammy skin, and dialated pupils? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What heat related injury is caused by a breakdown of the sweating mechanism of the body where the victim is unable to eliminate excessive body heat buildup? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What condition is characterized by a general cooling of the whole body caused by exposuret to low or rapidly falling temperature, cold moisture, snow, or ice? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What develops when ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is a life-threatening medical condition where the body suffers from insufficient blood air flow throughout the body as a result of severe injury or illness? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What type of shock can result from a severe hypersensitivity or allergic reation to incect stings, medicine or certain foods? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What type of shock results from bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Superficial Temoral Artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anterior/posterior tibial artery |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resourses |
|
Definition
| Operational Risk Management (ORM) |
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|
Term
| Which step of the ORM process begins with an outline of chart of the major steps in the operation or operational analysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which step of the ORM process determines, for each identified hazard, the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| During which step of the ORM process are risk control options developed, starting with the most serious risk first, selecting controls that will reduce the risk to a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Engineering controls, adminstrative controls, and personal protective equipment are part of which step of the ORM process? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which step of the ORM process conducts follow-up evaluations of the implemented controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What was established as a last line of defense in the event of equipment breakdown, failure, or misuse to include hazardous environments and working conditions that would immediately expose the worker to a hazard |
|
Definition
| PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) |
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|
Term
| Name six example types of personal protective equipment used in Naval Aviation |
|
Definition
Cranials
Eye Protection
Hearing Protection
Impact Protection
Gloves
Foot Protection |
|
|
Term
| What type of mishap result in reportable material or property damage of $500,000 or more, but less than $2,000,00; or an injury or occupational illness resulting in permanent partial disability or three or more personnel are inpatient Hospitalized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 steps of ORM |
|
Definition
Identify Hazards
Assess Hazards
Make Risk Decisions
Implement Controls
Supervise |
|
|
Term
Mishap $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000;
a non fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Class of mishap results in material property damage $2,000,000 or more; death or permanent total disability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At which MOPP level do you don protective mask, secure hood, set material condition CIRCLE WILLIAM, and activate countermeasure washdown system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper can detect chemical agent vapors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of warfare uses agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness or opposing combatant forces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two basic types of Biological Agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the components of Individual protective equipment (IPE) for Chemical Biological, Radiological Warfare? |
|
Definition
- Protective Mask (MCU-2P with Canister Filter)
- Advance Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG)
- Chemical Protective Gloves and Liners
- Chemical Overboots and Laces
- Skin Decontamination Kit
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|
|
Term
| Why does a Suface Burst nuclear explosion produce the worst radioactive fallout? |
|
Definition
| Due to the fireball touching the earth's surface |
|
|
Term
| Which type of nuclear explosion has small fireball and blast wave, however it causes large waves and water contamination? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of shipboard shielding station provides minimum shielding from nuclear radiation and allows the crew to remain close to battle stations? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which type of Shipboard shielding station provides maximum shielding from nuclear radiation, often requireing personnel to be far removed from battle stations? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is a non-self reading, high range, casuality dosimeter used to determine the total amount of gamma radiation the wearer has been exposed to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the range of Roentgens the DT-60 Dosimeter is capable of reading? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During which MOPP level is M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper distributed to designated locations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of warfare employs agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to the physiological effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of warfare employs agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to the physiological effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does MOPP stand for? |
|
Definition
| Mission Oriented Protective Posture |
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|
Term
| Which type of nuclear explosion causes the worst radioactive fallout? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of warfare is the deliberate use of weapon to produce widespread injury and death of all life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used as specific therapy for nerve agent casualties?
|
|
Definition
| Atropine/2-PAM-Chloride Auto Injector |
|
|
Term
| Which chemical agent is a liquid or solid casuality agent that can cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often results in temporary blindness and/or death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which chemical agent attacks the enzyme carrying oxygen in the blood streamer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which chemical agent is a gaseous of liquid casuality agent that cause initial symptoms such as tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of nuclear explosion occurs at an altitude in excess of 100,000 feet with ionosphere disruptions and electromagnetic pulse (EMP)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During what type of nuclear explosion will produce a greater amount of comtaminated water? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| At what MOPP level are individual Protective Equipment issued to personnel, accessible within five minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what MOPP level is the protective mask in a carrier and worn on the person? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| When ashore, at what MOPP level are canteens filled and decontamination stations activated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color? |
|
Definition
| M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper |
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|
Term
| How does Potassuim Bicarbonate (PKP) extinguish a fire? |
|
Definition
| By inhibiting the chemical chain reaction of the combustion process |
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|
Term
| What are the four elements of the Fire Tetrahedron? |
|
Definition
| Oxygen, Fuel, Heat, Chemical Chain Reaction between the other elements |
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|
Term
| What class of fire occurs in combustible materials that produce an ash such as wood product, cloth, fibrous materials, and paper products? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are the effective extinguishing agents for a Class Alpha Fire? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What Class of Fire occurs with flammable liquid substances such as gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other petroleum based products? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is not effective Extinguishing for a Class Bravo Fire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Class of Fire are energized electrical fires that are attacked by using non-conductiveagents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a effective extinguishing agent for a Class Charlie Fire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does AFFF stand for? |
|
Definition
| Aqueous Film Forming Foam |
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|
Term
| Why is important to apply water from a safe distance or from a shelter on a Class Delta Fire? |
|
Definition
| Small explosions can occur |
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|
Term
| What fire fighting agent's chemical name is Bromochlorodiflourmethane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which fire fighting agent is intended primarily for use on Class Bravo and Charlie Fires but is effective on Class Alpha fires as well? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Halon 1211 extinguish a fire? |
|
Definition
| By inhibiting the chemical chain reaction of the combustion process |
|
|
Term
| How does CO2 extinguish a fire? |
|
Definition
| by displacing oxygen from the fire tetrahedron |
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|
Term
| What are the two sizes of portable CO2 fire extinguisher? |
|
Definition
| 15 lb Portable and 50 lb wheeled extinguisher unit. |
|
|
Term
| What are the elements of the fire Triangle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color protective Flight Deck Jersey is worn by Plane Captains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provide a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to stop a landing aircraft in the shortest distance possible during in-flight emergencies to minimize the chance of injury to aircrew and damage to the aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Emergency Shore Based Recovery Equipment |
|
|
Term
| What are paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are open paved areas adjacent to hangars, fuel, and services, often called the flight line? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If there are three runways whose centerline is parallel, with a magnetic heading of 125 degrees, write the runway markings that would appear on each. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What coloe Jersey is worn by Safety Department, Transport Officer, Landing Signal Officer, Squadron Plane Inspectors, and Medical? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who wear blue colored Jersey? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft Handling and Chock Crewman |
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|
Term
| What is a paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are paralled stripes on the ends of the runways, that are 12 feet wide by 150 long, that designate the landing area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Color Jersey for Crash and Salvage, Explosive Ordnace, Disposal, and Ordance Handling Personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color jersey by aviation fuel crew? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color jersey is worn by Aircraft Handling Officer, Flight Deck Officer, Catapult Officer, Air Bos'n, Arresting Gear Officer and Plane Directors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who wears a white colored Jersey? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A runway with the handling of 180 degrees is identified as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What emergency arresting system is designed to stop aircraft with tricycle landing gear that are not equipped with tail hooks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do Threshhold markings designate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What paved areas that are used for aircraft takeoff and landing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color jersey doe catapult and arresting gear personel wear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What discharges static electricity harmlessly to the earth or deck? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft Static Grounding |
|
|
Term
| What is the procedure for grounding an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| First Hook up a ground strap to a certified static ground and then to the aircraft |
|
|
Term
| What determines the category of tie-down must be used for securing aircraft when not in use and during maintenance evolutions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initial tie down requires a minimum of how many chains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal weather tie-down requires a minimum of how many chains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Moderate weather tie-down requires a minimum of how many chains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heavy Weather tie-down requires a minimum of how many chains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initial tie-down may be used for winds up to what speed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What markings identify aircraft critical walkways that cannot be walked on? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Winds above what speed reqiure Heavy Weather tie-down? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What category of tie-down is required for winds 46-60 knots? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What method is used to communicate in the high temp, high noise environement of Naval Aviation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When Directing fixed wing aircraft, what is the only mandatory aircraft hand signal, regaurdless of aircraft type? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
When directing rotary wing aircraft, the Aircraft Hand Signals "wave off" and "hold" cannot be changed dueto platform variations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When towing an Aircraft, what is the maximum towing speed? |
|
Definition
| 5MPH or the speed of the slowest walker |
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|
Term
| Which FPCON applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exist and warrants a routine security posture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What FPCON applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which FPCON applies when an increase or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which FPCON applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which FPCON applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occured or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which FPCON's measures must be capable of being maintain indefinitely? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sustaining which FPCON's measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and relations with local authorities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which FPCON's prolonged implementation of measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and it's personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which FPCON's measures are not intended to be sustained for substantial periods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which readiness condition is an alert posture used by the United States Armed Forces? |
|
Definition
| Defense Readiness Condition (DEFCON) |
|
|
Term
DEFCON
Normal peacetime readiness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DEFCON
Normal, increased intelligence and strenghthened security |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DEFCON
Increase in force readiness above normal readiness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DEFCON
Further increase in force readiness, but less than maximum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DEFCON
Maximum Force Readiness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who ensure personnel assigned to perform QA functions receive contiuous training in inspection, testing, and quality control methods specifically applicable to their area of assignment? |
|
Definition
| Quality Assurance Officer |
|
|
Term
| Which maintenance level's mission is enhance to sustain the combat readiness and mission capability of supported activities by providing quality and timely material support at the nearest location with the lowest practical resource expenditure? |
|
Definition
| Intermediate Level (I-Level) |
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|
Term
| Which maintenance level is performed at or by FRC sites to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight system during subsequent operational service periods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of maintenance is restorative or additive work performed on aircraft, aircraft equipment, and aircraft SE at FRCs, contractors' plants, and such other industrial establishments designated by TYCOMs?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of maintenance is preventive, restorative, or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating units and aircraft SE activities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of inspection is conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth that the turnaround inspection, that is valid for 72 hours without flight or major maintenance?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of inspection is a scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval othe than daily or phase, such as 28 days, 100 hours, 100 arrestments, or 5000 rounds fired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of inspection are the results of a specific ovelimit condition, or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of inspection devides the total schedule maintenance requirement into smaller packages of the same work content, done sequentially and at specified intervals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of inspection is performed at the time a reporting custodian receives a newly assigned aircraft or support equipment form any source and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of inspection is perform at the time a reporting custodian turns over an aircraft or sport equipment to another reporting custodian? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides a systematic, coordinated method of investigating suspected or known deficiencies in specific maintenance work centers, programs, or personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is defined as "The action necessary to retain or restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with a minimum expenditure or resources? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two of the most critical aspects in Naval Aviation? |
|
Definition
Release of an aircraft Safe-for-Flight
Acceptance of the Aircraft |
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|
Term
What's purpose is to provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload, for example, inspection, transfer of acceptance or aircraft, and compliance with TDs?
|
|
Definition
| Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) |
|
|
Term
| Name any four of the 15 sections found in the Aircraft Logbook? |
|
Definition
Non-aging Record
Flight Time
Inspection Records
Repair/Rework
Technical Directive
Miscellaneous History
Preservation and de-preservation record
installed explosive devices
inventory record
assembly service record
equipment history record
scheduled removal components card
aviation life support system records
aeronautical equipment service records |
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|
Term
| Which of the follow programs are not managed and monitored by Quality Assurance (QA)? |
|
Definition
| Tool Control Program (TCP) |
|
|
Term
| What provides a central source of up-to-date information for use by all personnel in the performance of their work, and is an excellent source of reference information to facilitate personnel training and individual improvement? |
|
Definition
| Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL) |
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|
Term
| How often are workcenter audits conducted to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is repsonsible for the overall production and material support of the Maintenance Department? |
|
Definition
| Maintenance / Material Control Officer |
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
Hydraulic fluid contamination causes hydraulic system and component failures and presents a serious threat to flight safety |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often, at a minimum, shall QA perform Program Audits? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What program's objective is to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP) |
|
|
Term
| Under which program does QA assist with the reporting of substandard workmanship, improper QA procedures, and deficiencies in material and publications? |
|
Definition
| Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program (NAMDRP) |
|
|
Term
| What doe "NAMP" stand for? |
|
Definition
| Naval Aviation Maintenance Program |
|
|
Term
| What are the three levels of aviation Maintenance? |
|
Definition
- Organizational level (O-LEVEL)
- Intermediate level (I-LEVEL)
- Depot level (D-LEVEL)
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|
|
Term
| On what day of the month is the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) prepared and distributed at an O-Level unit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which program's objection is to achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a process to ensure that assets continue to do what their users require in their present operating context? |
|
Definition
| Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM) |
|
|
Term
| What is conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of inspection is based on elapsed calendar time, flight hours, operating hours, or number of cycles or events, for example 7,14,28 days; 50,100,200 hours; 10,100 arrestments; or 5000 rounds fired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of inspection is performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft, from any source? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For each aircraft, what shall have a record of rework, major repairs, flight, and operational data and include a record or maintenance directives affecting the aircraft, its components, and accessories? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is, fundamentally, the prevention of the occurrence of defects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who are the maintenance personnel assigned to QA that certify that the work involved has been personally inspected by them, it has been properly completed and is in accordance with current instructions and directives? |
|
Definition
| Quality Assurance Representative (QAR) |
|
|
Term
| What does CDQAR stand for? |
|
Definition
| Collateral Duty Quality Assurance Representative |
|
|
Term
| Who are assigned to production work centers to inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections during all maintenance actions performed by their respective work centers? |
|
Definition
| Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI) |
|
|
Term
| What type of inspection is conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verify proper servicing, and to detect degradation that may have occured during the previous flight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What level of aviation maintenance is VQ-4 considered? |
|
Definition
| Organizational Level (O-Level) |
|
|
Term
| In what year was NATOPS established by the United States Navy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which NATOPS term is used for an operating procedure, practive, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TRUE / FALSE
in a NATOPS manual "May" and "Need Not" mean the procedure is optional |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which NATOPS term indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the Aircraft Visual Indentification system, the first character of COMNAVAIRLANT aircraft shall be what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the Aircraft Visual Identification System, the first character of CNATRA aircraft shall be what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the Aircraft Visual Identification System, how many characters are used on CNATRA aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does NATOPS stand for? |
|
Definition
| Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization |
|
|
Term
| An operating procedure that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed is identified by which of the following? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| When read in the NATOPS manual, the word "should", means what? |
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Definition
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Term
TRUE / FALSE
Aircraft engines may be started without Wheel Chocks as long as there is a pilot or designated mechanic in the pilot seat. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which NATOPS terminology has been used only when a procedure is mandatory? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which NATOPS term is explanatory information about an operating procedures practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed? |
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Definition
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Term
According to the Aircraft Visual Identification System, the first character or COMNAVAIRPAC aircraft shall be what?
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Definition
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Term
| During the battle of Guadalcanal, what ship was sunk with the Sullivan brothers aboard? |
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Definition
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Term
| When did the Battle of Coral Sea take place? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the official birthday of Naval Aviation? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the name of the first Aircraft Carrier? |
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Definition
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Term
| What was the first jet powered Naval Aircraft |
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Definition
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Term
| Who was the civilian pilot that was the first to take off from a ship? |
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Definition
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Term
| What was the name of the ship from with Eugene Ely performed the first take off from a ship? |
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Definition
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Term
| What major event took place from 3-5 June 1942? |
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Definition
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Term
| What was the first aircraft in Naval Aviation? |
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Definition
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Term
| On what date did Eugene Ely first take off from a ship? |
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Definition
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Term
| What former collier or coal carrier was converted to become the first Aircraft Carrier? |
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Definition
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Term
| When was the USS LANGLEY (CV-1) re-commissioned? |
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Definition
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Term
| On what ship did the FJ-1 Fury make it's first carrier landing? |
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Definition
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Term
| What was the first carrier versus carrier battle? |
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Definition
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Term
| The Battle of Coral Sea Prevented what planned Japanese Invasion? |
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Definition
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Term
| What was the key element for the US Navy's success at the Battle of Midway? |
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Definition
| The US breaking of the Japenese Naval Code |
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Term
| How many days did it take the US Marines to secure the island of Guadalcanal? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the Navy's Birthday? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which flight control surface's purpose is to reduce the landing speed? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the primary flight control surfaces that cause and control movement or rotation about the three axis for a fixed wing aircraft? |
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Definition
| Ailersons, Elevators, Rudder |
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Term
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Definition
| The force that tends to hold an aircraft back |
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Term
| Which flight control surface is used to decrease wing lift? |
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Definition
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Term
| What term is defined as, the rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time? |
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Definition
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Term
| What states, "an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside force"? |
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Definition
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Term
| Bernoulli's Principle states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the contriction is _________________________and its pressure_________________. |
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Definition
1. Increases
2. Decreases |
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Term
| Which aeronautic term counteracts the effects of weight? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which flight control surface introduces high-energy air into the Boundary Layer over the top of the wing know as Boundary Layer Control Air? |
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Definition
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Term
| What aeronautic term is the force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which Flight Control surfaces is used to decrease wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces, and creates a more prodictable landing glideslope? |
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Definition
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Term
| What must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is used to eliminate torque reaction in a single main rotor helicopter? |
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Definition
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Term
| What term is use to eliminate torque reaction in a single main rotor helicopter? |
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Definition
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Term
| What term is defined as: The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow or air? |
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Definition
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Term
| What term describes a method that allows a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which main landing gear component's purpose is to absorb the shock that would otherwise be sustained by the airframe? |
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Definition
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Term
| What term is defined as, the rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time? |
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Definition
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Term
| What states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved? |
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Definition
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Term
| What term means, the quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction? |
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Definition
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Term
| What must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag for flight to begin or be sustained? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which flight control surface is a hinged or movable control surface used for reducing the speed of an aircraft? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| What two aircraft motions does a helicopter cyclic stick control? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which Aircraft motion does a helicopter Tail Rotor control? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does a helicopter's Tail Rotor Counteract |
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Definition
| The torque of the Main Rotor. |
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Term
| TRUE / FALSE Newton's First Law states that " for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction." |
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Definition
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Term
| Which flight control surface are movable control surfaces that creates a slot between the slat and wing leading edge to introduce high-energy air into the boundary layer over the top of the wing, improving lateral control characteristics? |
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Definition
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Term
| What states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the collective flight control of a helicopter controls? |
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Definition
| The angle of attackor pitch of the rotor blades |
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Term
| In a basic aircraft hydraulic system, which component holds a supply of hydraulic fluid? |
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Definition
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Term
| In a basic aircraft hydraulic system, which component provides a flow of fluid? |
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Definition
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Term
| In a basic aircraft hydraulic system, which component transmits the fluid? |
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Definition
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Term
| In basic aircraft hydraulic system, which component directs the flow of fluid? |
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Definition
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Term
| In a basic aircraft hydraulic system, which component converts the fluid pressure in to useful work? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which main landing gear component allows the aircraft to roll easily and provides traction during takeoff and landing? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which Flight Control surface creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing resulting in maximum lift to reduce takeoff runs and landing rollout? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does acrynym NALCOMIS stand for? |
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Definition
| Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System |
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Term
| What does the acronym OOMA Stand for? |
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Definition
| Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity |
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Term
| What does the acronym OIMA stand for? |
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Definition
| Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity |
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Term
| OOMA resides on a computer server referred to as what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name Three of the modules that comprise the OOMA foundation Tier. |
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Definition
Maintenance Subsystem
Material Subsystem
Flight Subsystem
Platform Software Inteface
CM/LOGS and Records Subsystem |
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Term
| What is a management tool that provides essential, real time information on a continuing basis through the online Visual Electronic Displays (VEDs) and MAINT 1 through 6 reports as well as Adhoc data extraction? |
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Definition
| Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) |
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Term
Name Three of the items that OOMA tracks that allows maintenance managers to carry out their duties more effectively and efficiently?
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Definition
NMCS/PMCS Status
Flyable Discrepancies
Non-aircraft Related Discrepancies
ALSS Status
SE Status
Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) Status |
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Term
| Who must be in control of maintenance to ensure successful operation or repair of critical assets? |
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Definition
| Maintenance / Production Control |
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Term
| How many characters comprise a JCN (Job Control Number)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following is NOT required in the "worker hours" data field of a WO (work order) in NALDOMIS and OOMA? |
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Definition
| Workcenter Supervisor's Name |
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Term
Name four of the common types of Work Orders (WO).
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Definition
DM-Discrepancy Maintenance
TS-Troubleshooting
CM-Canibalization Maintenance
AD-Assist Maintenance
FO-Facilitate Other Maintenance
CL-Conditional Look Phase
SX-Special Inspection one workcenter
SC-Special Insection Control
TD-Technical Directive |
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Term
| What provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and process at the intermediate level by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review and report information required by the maintenance activity? |
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Definition
| Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity (OIMA) |
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Term
| What are the six basic core capabilities? |
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Definition
Forward Presence
Deterrence
Sea Control
Power Projection
Maritime Security
HUmantarian Assistance/Disaster Relief |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Helicopter Maritime Strike |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Tactical Electronic Warfare |
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Term
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Definition
| Carrier Airborne Early Warning |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Aircarft Logistics Support |
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Term
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Definition
| Carrier Logistics Support |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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