Term
| Of what does the ocular adnexa consist? |
|
Definition
| Eyebrows, eyelids, eyelashes, glands, and lacrimal system. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main job of the eyebrows? |
|
Definition
| Divert perspiration from the eye. |
|
|
Term
| Other than limiting light and foreign debris, what is another important job of the eyelids? |
|
Definition
| To spread tears across the cornea. |
|
|
Term
| Name the visible landmarks of the eyelids. |
|
Definition
| Lateral canthus, medial canthus, plica semilunaris, and caruncle. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two muscles that open the eyelids? |
|
Definition
(1) Levator palpebrae superioris.
(2) Muscle of Muller. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two muscles that close the eyelids? |
|
Definition
(1) Orbicularis oculi.
(2) Riolan’s muscle. |
|
|
Term
| A tough fibrous tissue that makes it possible to evert the upper lid is a description of which layer in the lid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of conjunctiva is on the eye itself? Does it cover the cornea also? |
|
Definition
| The bulbar conjunctiva; no. |
|
|
Term
| What cells does the conjunctiva contain and what do they secrete? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What defense mechanism makes the hair follicles of the eyelashes special? |
|
Definition
| They are surrounded by a network of super sensitive nerves that cause the lids to quickly close if debris touches the lashes. |
|
|
Term
| What do sebaceous glands secrete? Lacrimal glands? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of gland is in the tarsal plate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if an oil gland becomes infected? |
|
Definition
| An external hordeolum or stye can develop. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the glands of Krause and Wolfring located? |
|
Definition
| The palpebral conjunctiva. |
|
|
Term
| Name the structures of the lacrimal system beginning with the birth of a tear until it gets to the end of the system. |
|
Definition
| Lacrimal gland, lacrimal canals (ducts), conjunctival sac, puncta, canaliculi, lacrimal sac, and nasolacrimal duct. |
|
|
Term
| What is the shape of the bony orbit? |
|
Definition
| Pear-shaped—big at the anterior (front) and narrow at the posterior (rear). |
|
|
Term
| What angle do the medial walls of the bony orbit form to each other? |
|
Definition
| They are parallel to each other. |
|
|
Term
| In adults, what angle is formed between the medial wall and lateral wall of the bony orbit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In adults, what angle is formed by the lateral wall of one orbit to the lateral wall of the other orbit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the seven bones contained in each orbit of the eye? |
|
Definition
(1) Sphenoid.
(2) Ethmoid.
(3) Lacrimal.
(4) Frontal.
(5) Maxilla.
(6) Palatine.
(7) Zygomatic. |
|
|
Term
| Name the bones of the roof of the orbit. |
|
Definition
| Lesser sphenoid and frontal. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four bones of the medial wall of the orbit. |
|
Definition
(1) Maxilla.
(2) Ethmoid.
(3) Lacrimal.
(4) Lesser sphenoid. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three bones of the floor of the orbit. |
|
Definition
(1) Maxilla.
(2) Palatine.
(3) Zygomatic. |
|
|
Term
| Name the bones of the lateral wall of the orbit. |
|
Definition
| Zygomatic and greater sphenoid. |
|
|
Term
| What is the weakest orbital bone? Strongest? Smallest? |
|
Definition
| Ethmoid; zygomatic; palatine. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of openings in the bony orbit? |
|
Definition
(1) Fissures (cracks).
(2) Foramina (holes). |
|
|
Term
| What passes through the optic foramen in the lesser wing of the sphenoid? |
|
Definition
| Optic nerve (CN II) and ophthalmic artery. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the superior orbital fissure located? |
|
Definition
| Between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid. |
|
|
Term
| Which bone, or portion of bone, is the most likely to break (a blowout fracture) due to a blunt trauma to the eye? |
|
Definition
| The portion of the maxillary bone that covers the infraorbital groove/canal. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three primary fossa of the bony orbit and their locations. |
|
Definition
(1) Lacrimal sac fossa located in the lacrimal bone.
(2) Lacrimal gland fossa located behind the orbital rim of the superior, temporal portion of the frontal bone.
(3) Trochlear fossa located in the superior, nasal portion of the frontal bone. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the primary position of gaze? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
(1) SR.
(2) IR.
(3) MR.
(4) LR.
(5) SO.
(6) IO. |
|
|
Term
| Which muscle does not originate at the annulus of Zinn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the SR muscle attach to the eye? |
|
Definition
| To the sclera on top of the eye, anterior to the equator, approximately 7.7 mm from the limbus. |
|
|
Term
| Which nerve innervates the IR muscle? |
|
Definition
| Oculomotor nerve (CN III). |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary function of the LR muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What traits do the rectus muscles share? |
|
Definition
| They pull the eye in the direction the muscle name implies, attach anterior to the equator, and begin at the annulus of Zinn. |
|
|
Term
| What structure does the SO pass through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary action of the SO? Secondary action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the 4th CN? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which EOM is the longest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the IO originate? |
|
Definition
| The anterior, medial floor of the bony orbit. |
|
|
Term
| From its origination point, what is the path the IO takes to get to its attachment point? |
|
Definition
Wraps under the eye and travels rearward and temporally, passing over the IR muscle, and up under the LR
muscle, and attaches posterior to the equator on the temporal side of the eye. |
|
|
Term
| What is the shortest EOM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary action of the IO? Secondary action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the oblique muscles have in common? |
|
Definition
| Both wrap around the eye to some extent; twist or rotate the eye; attach posterior to the equator; and have a secondary action of pulling the eye in the opposite direction of what their names would imply. |
|
|
Term
| What does (LR6SO4)3 mean? |
|
Definition
| It is a formula to remember which CNs innervate which muscles. LR6 means the LR is innervated by the 6th CN, the abducens nerve; SO4 means the SO is innervated by the 4 th CN, the trochlear nerve; and 3 means all the other EOMs are innervated by the 3rd CN, the oculomotor nerve. |
|
|
Term
| What are saccades and what are they responsible for? |
|
Definition
Quick, voluntary, simultaneous movements of both eyes in the same direction; fixation, refixation, and
rapid eye movements. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Slow, involuntary, parallel movements of both eyes that allow us to follow moving objects. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The muscle that is the prime mover for a desired direction of gaze. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Muscle in the same eye as the agonist that works directly against the agonist. |
|
|
Term
| What would be the agonist in the left eye for it to look to the left? Which muscle would be the antagonist to this muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What muscle is in the same eye as the agonist and helps the agonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do yoked muscles allow our eyes to do? |
|
Definition
| Parallel, conjugate (conjunctive) movements often referred to as version movement. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of movement is vergence of the eyes considered to be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What muscle is yoked to the LMR? The LIO? The RIR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What structures make up the fibrous tunic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How big is an adult’s cornea? |
|
Definition
| 12 mm wide (horizontally) and 11 mm tall (vertically). |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary job of the cornea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cornea is avascular. What does this mean? |
|
Definition
| It does not contain any blood vessels. |
|
|
Term
| Which CN innervates the cornea? |
|
Definition
| 5th, the trigeminal nerve. |
|
|
Term
| Name the corneal layers from anterior to posterior. |
|
Definition
| (Corneal) epithelium, Bowman’s layer, stroma (substantia propria), Descemet’s membrane, and endothelium. |
|
|
Term
| How long does it usually take before a scratched epithelium heals? Will it be scarred? |
|
Definition
| Usually within 24 hours; no. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It is acellular (without cells), very thin, and made up of collagen fibers; very resistant to trauma and acts as
a barrier to microorganisms; and scars if damaged. |
|
|
Term
| Which corneal layer(s) does the substantia propria rely on to keep it at the proper hydration level? |
|
Definition
| The epithelium and endothelium. |
|
|
Term
| What happens if the stroma starts to absorb too much fluid? |
|
Definition
| Its fibers swell and get cloudy, decreasing VA. |
|
|
Term
| How thick is the endothelium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the endothelium’s function? |
|
Definition
| To pump waste from the stroma and maintain the cornea’s normal, dehydrated, state. |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take the endothelium to regenerate new cells when the old ones are damaged or destroyed? |
|
Definition
| Endothelial cells don’t regenerate; the neighboring cells move over and enlarge to fill in the empty space. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gives the eye support needed to maintain the structures within it, and provides an insertion point for the six
EOMs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the weakest point in the sclera? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tissue is described as surrounding the sclera? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List another name, or term, for the vascular tunic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the color of our eyes based on? |
|
Definition
| The amount of pigmentation built up on the front of the iris. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary function of the iris? |
|
Definition
| Controls pupil size, regulating the amount of light entering the eye. |
|
|
Term
| What two muscles are in the iris? |
|
Definition
(1) Dilator (longitudinal).
(2) Sphincter (circular). |
|
|
Term
| What are the sections of the ciliary body? Which has the majority of structures in it? |
|
Definition
| Pars plicata and pars plana; the pars plicata. |
|
|
Term
| What produces aqueous humor? |
|
Definition
| The ciliary processes (small projections just behind the iris). |
|
|
Term
| What must the ciliary muscle be doing if the Zonules of Zinn are being pulled tightly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the eye accommodates (focuses), what is happening with the ciliary muscle, zonules, and crystalline lens? |
|
Definition
| The ciliary muscle contracts (works), relaxing the zonules, allowing the lens to thicken in the middle, getting more curved. |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the eye disorder where the pars plana becomes inflamed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What structures does the choroid supply blood to? |
|
Definition
| Iris, ciliary body, retina, and inner sclera. |
|
|
Term
| What is the anterior termination point of the choroid called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What structure makes up the nervous tunic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what two points is the nervous tunic firmly attached? |
|
Definition
(1) Optic disc.
(2) Ora serrata. |
|
|
Term
| If the center of the retina is the macula, what is the depressed area in the center of the macula called? |
|
Definition
| Fovea centralis (foveola). |
|
|
Term
| What retinal layer is closest to the choroid? To the vitreous? |
|
Definition
| RPE; internal limiting membrane. |
|
|
Term
| How many retinal layers are there? How many are transparent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the RPE’s function? |
|
Definition
| Absorb excess light and serve as a nourishing and garbage collection layer for the rods and cones. |
|
|
Term
| What is the photoreceptor layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the shortest wavelength the photoreceptors can see? The longest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many rods are in the retina? How many cones? |
|
Definition
| Approximately 125 million; approximately 6 million. |
|
|
Term
| What is the visual pigment in rods called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the best conditions for cones to function in? |
|
Definition
| Photopic or fully illuminated conditions (daylight). |
|
|
Term
| What is the visual pigment in the red cones? Green cones? Blue cones? |
|
Definition
| Erythrolabe; chlorolabe; cyanolabe. |
|
|
Term
| What does the bipolar layer of the retina do? |
|
Definition
| Passes on the electrochemical message produced by the rods and cones to the retinal ganglion layer. |
|
|
Term
| What part of the ganglion cells act like telephone cables for retinal messages going to the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two structures deliver the retina its blood supply? |
|
Definition
(1) CRA.
(2) Choriocapillaris. |
|
|
Term
| What structures form the ocular media? |
|
Definition
| Cornea, aqueous humor, crystalline lens, and vitreous humor. |
|
|
Term
| What is a continuous process that maintains the IOP within the eye? |
|
Definition
| Aqueous production and outflow. |
|
|
Term
| How big is the crystalline lens? How much refractive power does it have? |
|
Definition
| About 10 mm in diameter; about +16.00D. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three parts of the lens. |
|
Definition
(1) Capsule.
(2) Cortex.
(3) Nucleus. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vitreous encased in? |
|
Definition
| A thin vitreous membrane. |
|
|
Term
| What function does the vitreous serve? |
|
Definition
| Provides internal support, helping the eye maintain its shape and keeping the retina in contact with the choroid. |
|
|
Term
| If lost, how long does it take for vitreous to regenerate? |
|
Definition
| Vitreous does not regenerate or reproduce itself. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of pathway is the visual pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the optic nerve consist of? |
|
Definition
| Ganglion cell axons from the retina. |
|
|
Term
| What fibers does the optic tract have? |
|
Definition
| Temporal ganglion cell axons from one eye and the nasal ganglion cell axons from the other eye. |
|
|
Term
| Because the LGB passes on the visual messages from the optic tract to the optic radiations, to what is it often referred? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another name for the optic radiations? |
|
Definition
| Geniculo-calcarine tract. |
|
|
Term
| What area of the brain contains the visual cortex? |
|
Definition
| The occipital lobe (Brodmann’s area 17). |
|
|
Term
| The rods and cones make up which order neuron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many orders of neurons are in the visual pathway and where do the synapses occur? |
|
Definition
Three orders; synapses occur when rods and cones send their electrochemical message to the retinal
ganglion cells (within the retina), and from the LGB to the optic radiations (within the LGB). |
|
|
Term
| What is a neuron composed of? |
|
Definition
| Dendrite, cell body, and axon. |
|
|
Term
| Name the six structures in the afferent pupillary pathway. |
|
Definition
(1) Retina.
(2) Optic nerve.
(3) Optic chiasm.
(4) Optic tract.
(5) Pretectal nucleus.
(6) Edinger-Westphal (accessory CN III). |
|
|
Term
| What is an efferent message? |
|
Definition
| A motor message that exits the brain. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three structures in the efferent pupillary pathway. |
|
Definition
(1) CN III.
(2) Ciliary ganglion.
(3) Iris sphincter muscle. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Measure of the eye’s ability to distinguish object details and shape, and assessed by the smallest identifiable object that can be seen at a specified distance (usually 20 feet for distance acuity and 16″ for near acuity). |
|
|
Term
| What does visual efficiency refer to? |
|
Definition
| How comfortably one sees. |
|
|
Term
| Name the 10 factors that influence VA. |
|
Definition
(1) Region of the retina stimulated.
(2) Illumination.
(3) Spectral quality of the light.
(4) Contrast.
(5) Pupil size.
(6) Time of exposure.
(7) Patient’s age.
(8) Condition of the ocular media.
(9) Presence of ametropias.
(10) Individual variations. |
|
|
Term
| What is the nm range of the electromagnetic spectrum the eye can generally see as light? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the VA of a newborn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Refractive error (e.g., hyperopia, myopia, or astigmatism). |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the light rays that enter an emmetropic eye? |
|
Definition
| They are focused perfectly on the retina without the need for accommodation or corrective lenses. |
|
|
Term
| What two problems can cause hyperopia? |
|
Definition
(1) Axial problems (length of eye is too short).
(2) Curvature problems (curve of the cornea or crystalline lens is too flat). |
|
|
Term
| What does a facultative hyperope do naturally to correct for their ametropia? |
|
Definition
| Accommodate (focus) enough to bring the light rays to a focus on the retina. |
|
|
Term
| What is a facultative hyperope likely to complain of? |
|
Definition
Complaints of eye fatigue or blurriness toward the end of the day, or their eyes fatigue quickly while
reading. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of vision does an absolute hyperope have in the distance? At near? |
|
Definition
| Decreased distant vision and even worse near vision. |
|
|
Term
| Where do the light rays focus in the eye of a myope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of lenses do myopes need? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is considered to be high myopia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An optical defect in which refractive power is not uniform in all meridians of the eye. |
|
|
Term
| What is simple astigmatism? |
|
Definition
Where one meridian of the eye focuses the light rays correctly on the retina, and the meridian 90° away
focuses the light rays too soon (SMA) or too late (SHA). |
|
|
Term
| What does CMA stand for? CHA? |
|
Definition
| Compound myopic astigmatism; compound hyperopic astigmatism. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of Rx is –2.00 –4.00 × 001 an example of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the mixed astigmatic eye do with light rays? |
|
Definition
| Focuses one meridian in front of the retina and focuses the meridian 90° away beyond the retina. |
|
|
Term
| What does the axis of the Rx tell you? |
|
Definition
| Where patients needed the blur in their vision corrected by cylinder power. |
|
|
Term
| What do myopes complain of? |
|
Definition
| Decreased DVA, decreased night vision, or needing to squint to see objects. |
|
|
Term
| Are ametropias correctable with CLs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A decrease in accommodative ability that occurs with age. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of glasses does a presbyope need? |
|
Definition
| Reading glasses to replace the lost plus (+), or accommodative, power of the eye when looking at near objects. |
|
|
Term
| How much usable accommodation does a 70-year-old person have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does presbyopia usually become noticeable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much refractive power does a person need to see clearly at 16″? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an uncorrected presbyope usually do with reading material? |
|
Definition
| Hold it farther away as it takes less accommodative power to see objects farther from the eyes. |
|
|
Term
| Can a person avoid presbyopia? |
|
Definition
| No, unless death occurs before age 40. |
|
|
Term
| Does presbyopia affect distant vision? |
|
Definition
| Yes, in facultative hyperopes. |
|
|
Term
| Name the six cues to depth perception. |
|
Definition
(1) Magnification (relative size).
(2) Confluence of parallel lines to a point (perspective).
(3) Interposition of shadows (overlay).
(4) Blue-gray mistiness of objects at a great distance (distant haze).
(5) Parallax.
(6) Stereopsis. |
|
|
Term
| Are monocular cues to depth perception considered primary or secondary cues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary cue to depth perception? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the greatest level of depth perception (i.e., smallest amount of separation) the human eye has been able to distinguish? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which patients can only use monocular cues for depth perception? |
|
Definition
Patients with suppression, amblyopia, tropias, or other eye problems that limits them to only one functional
eye. |
|
|
Term
| Can a person with heterotropia have stereopsis? Explain. |
|
Definition
| No; they don’t have binocularity (SBV). |
|
|
Term
| What three elements does color depend on? |
|
Definition
(1) Hue.
(2) Saturation.
(3) Brightness. |
|
|
Term
| What is hue determined by? |
|
Definition
| The wavelength of the light emitted or reflected from an object. |
|
|
Term
| What does saturation refer to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you have one fire engine red object and a pink object, which is considered to be a more saturated color? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is a color desaturated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the brightness of a color related to? |
|
Definition
| The rate of transfer of light energy coming off a particular color; also to the amplitude, or amount of energy, of the light reaching our eye. |
|
|
Term
| White light consists of what colors? |
|
Definition
| A mixture of red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, and violet. |
|
|
Term
| If saturation and hues are varied, how many color differentiations can the human eye discern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three primary colors of light? |
|
Definition
(1) Red.
(2) Green.
(3) Blue. |
|
|
Term
| Under what conditions do cones see? How about rods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term used to describe a person with normal color vision? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of men have normal color vision? What percentage of women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used to describe people who see all three primary colors, but see one of the colors in the wrong amount? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A deuteranomalous person has trouble with which color? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percent of the population is dichromatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is wrong with a tritanope? |
|
Definition
| They are blue-blind and have trouble with yellow and blue. |
|
|
Term
| Give the term used to describe a person who is truly colorblind. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many people are truly colorblind? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What chromosome carries the color defect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Congenital color defects usually affect perception of which color or colors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a person only has a color vision defect in one eye, what would you suspect as the cause? |
|
Definition
| The problem is pathological (or acquired) and is being caused by some eye disease or systemic condition. |
|
|
Term
| What could a person do to see an object in very dim illumination? |
|
Definition
| Look slightly to one side of the object and use the rods of the retina. |
|
|
Term
| What level of VA do rods provide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color light seems brighter at night? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A very common inflammation of the lid margins. |
|
|
Term
| How is blepharitis treated? |
|
Definition
| Scrub the lid margins clean with a warm, moist washcloth and some diluted baby shampoo. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An internal hordeolum is an infection of the meibomian gland; an external hordeolum is an infection of the
glands of Zeis. It is caused by an acute infection in the sebaceous (oil) glands of the lids. |
|
|
Term
| How is a chalazion different from a hordeolum? |
|
Definition
A hordeolum is a bacterial acute infection in the meibomian gland of the lid; the chalazion is a chronic
inflammation of the gland with no infection. |
|
|
Term
| What types of things can cause acquired ptosis? |
|
Definition
Systemic neuromuscular problems, trauma to the lid, nerve palsy (paralysis), or physical muscle
interference. |
|
|
Term
| Why is orbital cellulitis a medical emergency? |
|
Definition
| Can be fatal within just a few days if left untreated. |
|
|
Term
| What does treatment of orbital cellulitis include? |
|
Definition
| Hospitalization, and IV, oral, and topical antibiotics. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between preseptal cellulitis and orbital cellulitis? |
|
Definition
| Preseptal cellulitis is anterior to the tarsal plate; orbital cellulitis can be found posterior to the tarsal plate and involve the whole orbital cavity. |
|
|
Term
| Simply put, what is epiphora? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name more severe conditions to which entropion can lead? |
|
Definition
| Corneal abrasions, ulcerations, and scarring. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common causes of entropion? |
|
Definition
| Laxity of the lower lid retractors and buckling of the upper tarsal plate border. |
|
|
Term
| What is ectropion? What can it lead to? |
|
Definition
| It is the turning out of the eyelid; exposure keratitis. |
|
|
Term
| What do you call the organisms that cause disease in normally healthy tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the general characterizations of conjunctivitis? |
|
Definition
| Some discharge, grittiness, redness, and swelling. |
|
|
Term
| What term is used to describe the shape of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What shapes do bacteria come in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean if a bacteria cell wall gram stains blue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What difference does it make whether a bacteria is gram-negative or gram-positive? |
|
Definition
Important when choosing an antibiotic to fight the infection because some drugs are good at killing gramnegative
bacteria, while others are better at killing gram-positive bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is usually a harmless inhabitant of the lids and conjunctiva? |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus epidermidis. |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria can usually be found in the respiratory tract of people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria cause ophthalmia neonatorum (neonatal conjunctivitis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacterium causes an acute, pus-producing conjunctivitis and is highly contagious? |
|
Definition
| Hemophilus aegyptius (Koch-Weeks bacillus). |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause corneal melting and can grow in almost any moist environment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which are the more common viruses with which ophthalmic technicians should be familiar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of viral eye infections? What is the estimated average of infections treated yearly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to corneal sensitivity when an eye is infected with the HSV? Why? |
|
Definition
| Very insensitive; the virus affects the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal (5th) cranial nerve. |
|
|
Term
| Which virus causes dendritic, branch-like lesions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of the tip of the nose blistering when referring to HZV? |
|
Definition
| There is a 50% chance of ocular involvement. |
|
|
Term
| What is it that makes ADVs a cause for concern for you in the eye clinic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some good signs that a patient has EKC? What are its main characterizations? |
|
Definition
| The eye or eyes are extremely red and produce copious amounts of watery discharge; conjunctiva and corneal involvements are the main characterizations. |
|
|
Term
| Which virus causes a sore throat, fever, and follicular conjunctivitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What treatment is done to counter the ADV? |
|
Definition
| Essentially nothing more than letting the infection run its course. |
|
|
Term
| HIV–1 is a retrovirus that attacks the immune system by doing what? |
|
Definition
| Infecting and depleting the body of its T4 helper lymphocytes. |
|
|
Term
| AIDS directly affects the eye in what percentage of AIDS patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the condition called when chorioretinal tissue is involved due to HIV infection? |
|
Definition
| Cytomegalovirus retinitis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Only by exposure to blood and its components, and sexual contact. |
|
|
Term
| What are some classic signs of allergic conjunctivitis? |
|
Definition
| Itching, mild to moderate redness of the eye, and stringy discharge. |
|
|
Term
| Where do fungi tend to develop? |
|
Definition
| On plant matter and dirt. |
|
|
Term
| How does an individual get histoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
They breathe in a dry particle of bird feces with the fungus in it, which gets in the warm, moist lungs, and
enters the bloodstream. |
|
|
Term
| Why is a skin test to check a person for histoplasmosis a bad idea? |
|
Definition
For some reason, it reactivates the histoplasmosis fungus so that it can do more damage and spread further.
For a patient with a histo spot (lesion) near the macula, this reawakening could lead to blindness. |
|
|
Term
| Which fungus may develop after a person gets a corneal abrasion by a twig, leaf, branch, or other plant matter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it take aspergillus to evolve if it has been acquired by breathing it in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs can be used to treat patients with the aspergillus fungus? |
|
Definition
| IV administration of the antifungal drug amphotericin B; removing some of the infected vitreous to make room for injecting the drug directly into the vitreous chamber; or the patient can orally take a drug called Flucytosine. |
|
|
Term
| What makes candidiasis different from aspergillus? |
|
Definition
| It doesn’t seem to occur in healthy patients. |
|
|
Term
| What is a subconjunctival hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
| One or more of the small conjunctival blood vessels ruptures, and the blood is trapped between the conjunctiva and the sclera. |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of a subconjunctival hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
| Coughing, straining, vomiting, or vigorous sneezing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A benign (harmless) thickening of the conjunctiva, usually located in the medial canthus area, but not always; are common where people spend a great deal of time outdoors in dry, dusty environments and may be exposed to the harmful effects of UV light. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A growth of abnormal conjunctival tissue onto the cornea; is vascular and involves all the layers of the
bulbar conjunctiva. |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for dry eye syndrome? What exactly is a dry eye? |
|
Definition
| Keratoconjunctivitis sicca; an eye that has a deficiency in tears. |
|
|
Term
| What are some problems associated with dry eye syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Due to lowered lacrimal production, the conjunctiva and cornea are chronically irritated, which may lead to erosions of the cornea and eventual scarring of the cornea. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An area of epithelial tissue loss from the corneal surface associated with bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic
infection of the eye. |
|
|
Term
| When associated with the eye, where has the single-celled protozoan acanthamoeba typically been found? |
|
Definition
| In patients who wear extended wear soft CLs, or had exposure to hot tubs, communal baths, or even plain tap water. |
|
|
Term
| If ocular pseudomonas is not treated, what severe consequences can occur? |
|
Definition
| It can cause severe eye infections with corneal “melting” and rapid loss of the eye within days. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe disciform keratitis. |
|
Definition
| An inflammation of the stroma and appears as a disc-shaped, gray, opaque lesion. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The inability to fully close the eyelids. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A degenerative corneal disorder characterized by thinning of the cornea and development of a cone-shaped
protrusion. |
|
|
Term
| How is keratoconus treated in its early stage? Advanced stage? |
|
Definition
RGP CLs are a significant help in correcting vision and have been found to seemingly slow the progression
of the condition; with decreased vision that cannot be corrected with RGP CLs any longer, patients may be
considered as candidates for possible corneal transplant. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a malignant tumor and a benign tumor? |
|
Definition
| A malignant tumor is one continuing to grow and invade healthy tissue if not treated, and it may or may not spread to other body systems; a benign tumor generally is nonfatal, nonmalignant, and usually localized. |
|
|
Term
| List the four benign tumors associated with eyes. |
|
Definition
(1) Nevus.
(2) Papilloma.
(3) Molluscum contagiosum.
(4) Xanthelasma. |
|
|
Term
| Which benign tumor can cause chronic conjunctivitis? Why? |
|
Definition
| Molluscum contagiosum; because of the toxicity of the material it sheds. |
|
|
Term
| Which benign tumor is indicative of a lipid disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is meant when a malignant tumor metastasizes? |
|
Definition
| Spreads to the rest of the body. |
|
|
Term
| When excising a carcinoma, why is more tissue removed than just the area that includes the tumor? |
|
Definition
| To ensure no cancerous cells are left behind. |
|
|
Term
| Which tumor is the most common growth on the eyelids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Squamous cell carcinomas metastasize via which system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sebaceous gland carcinomas come from what area of the eyelids? |
|
Definition
| The sebaceous (oil) glands. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The protective response that begins when body tissue is invaded by a foreign substance. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A general term referring to inflammation of the uveal tract. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three divisions of uveitis? |
|
Definition
(1) Anterior uveitis (iritis/iridocyclitis).
(2) Intermediate uveitis (pars planitis).
(3) Posterior or panuveitis (chorioretinitis). |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between iritis and iridocyclitis? |
|
Definition
| Iritis is an inflamed iris; iridocyclitis is an inflammation of the iris and ciliary body. |
|
|
Term
| List four signs and symptoms of iritis/iridocyclitis. |
|
Definition
Any four of the following:
(1) Photophobia (light sensitivity).
(2) Tearing.
(3) Blurred vision.
(4) Constricted or irregular pupil.
(5) Red eye with the injection (engorgement of the blood vessels) of the episclera most pronounced near the
limbus. |
|
|
Term
| Why is anterior uveitis dangerous? |
|
Definition
The inflamed iris coming into contact with and adhering to the crystalline lens or cornea (synechia); if this
occurs, an acute glaucoma attack is very likely. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of pars planitis? |
|
Definition
Blurred vision or floaters without pain or photophobia; can be very minor, causing no symptoms, and then
resolving spontaneously, or quite serious, causing macular edema and significant decreases in vision. |
|
|
Term
| In cases of chorioretinitis, why does an inflammation of the choroid often involve the retina? |
|
Definition
| Because of the close physical relationship of the choroid and retina. |
|
|
Term
To ensure the posterior uveitis is resolved, what else needs to be done in the treatment process of
chlorioretinitis, other than using steroids to reduce inflammation and minimize damage? |
|
Definition
| The underlying systemic problem must be brought under control. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation that involves the optic nerve head, which can produce vision loss as severe as light perception only. |
|
|
Term
| As related to optic neuritis, describe papillitis and retrobulbar neuritis. |
|
Definition
| Papillitis is a localized swelling at the nerve head and easily seen through ophthalmoscopy; retrobulbar neuritis is an optic neuritis occurring behind the optic disk. |
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause of optic neuritis? |
|
Definition
| Multiple sclerosis—a demyelinating disease. |
|
|
Term
| What are the specific signs of optic neuritis? |
|
Definition
Unilateral vision loss (variable), pain with eye movement, central scotoma (blind spot), color vision
defects, and pupillary defects. |
|
|
Term
| Why should optic neuritis be monitored closely? |
|
Definition
| To ensure it’s optic neuritis and not a more chronic, systemic neurological problem or tumor, and ensure the neuritis is resolving properly. |
|
|
Term
| What causes the optic disc congestion in papilledema? |
|
Definition
| Elevated pressure within the skull. |
|
|
Term
| Patients are describing their symptoms of papilledema; what would their complaints be? |
|
Definition
Transient vision loss, from 10 to 30 seconds, a decrease in color vision, and a headache that is worse in the
morning. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A hereditary, progressive retinal degeneration in both eyes. |
|
|
Term
| Why is loss of night vision a first sign of RP? |
|
Definition
| RP is a disease of the rods. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary diagnostic sign of RP? |
|
Definition
| Pigmentation clumps (bony spicules) forming on the retina, which is visible through ophthalmoscopy. |
|
|
Term
| How do diabetes and HTN severely impair the visual system? |
|
Definition
| By hindering the blood flow to the retina. |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of blindness in Western society today? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a key in the development in DR? What supports this claim? |
|
Definition
| Chronic elevated blood sugar level in diabetic patients; diabetics with well-controlled glucose levels have a lower incidence of DR. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three stages of DR from the least to the most severe? |
|
Definition
(1) Stage 1 – background DR.
(2) Stage 2 – preproliferative DR.
(3) Stage 3 – proliferative DR. |
|
|
Term
| What are the earliest stages of DR marked by? |
|
Definition
Microaneurysms (bulges in a blood vessel caused by weakening of the blood vessel walls), dot and blot
hemorrhages, loss of capillary function, and lipid exudates (leakage from the vessels). |
|
|
Term
| Fluorescein angiography is an invaluable tool in DR for determining what? |
|
Definition
| Abnormalities of the microvascular system caused by DR. |
|
|
Term
| Why use an argon laser to kill portions of the peripheral retina? |
|
Definition
This essentially kills significant portions of the peripheral retina, reducing the retinal demand for oxygen,
which spares the central vision area of the retina and allows the retinal vasculature to concentrate its oxygen
flow to the central retina. |
|
|
Term
| How does the retina respond to ischemia? |
|
Definition
| It dies or finds a way to get more oxygen. |
|
|
Term
| How can DR cause a retinal detachment? |
|
Definition
| Growth of fibrous tissue creates traction on the retina. |
|
|
Term
| How can hypertensive retinopathy cause a BRVO? |
|
Definition
Arteries cross over top of the veins in the eye; if the arteries are under a great deal of pressure, they can
press on the vein and block it off. |
|
|
Term
| Which causes a more rapid loss of vision––a CRAO or a CRVO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the case of an embolus in a CRAO, what is the best hope in initial treatment? |
|
Definition
| Move the embolus out of the CRA and get it down one of the arterial branches. |
|
|
Term
| What is considered an ocular catastrophe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the term “nicking” mean when referring to CRVO? |
|
Definition
| An artery that appears to be denting in a vein. |
|
|
Term
| What are some retinal signs that a CRVO has occurred? |
|
Definition
Dilated and engorged veins (they are full and can’t drain), intraretinal and nerve fiber layer hemorrhages,
swollen optic disc margins, and retinal thickening. |
|
|
Term
| Why does a retinal hole or tear allow a retinal detachment to occur? |
|
Definition
| Enough force is generated (by minor trauma, eye movement, etc.) to allow vitreous fluid to begin to work its way through the tear and get under the retina. |
|
|
Term
| What are initial retinal detachment symptoms a patient notices? |
|
Definition
| Flashes of light and an increase in the number of floaters in the affected eye. |
|
|
Term
| How are retinal holes and tears usually treated? |
|
Definition
With a YAG laser to tack down the retina, or a cryoprobe (freezing) surgery to freeze and scar the retina
back into place. |
|
|
Term
| What can cause the appearance of floaters? |
|
Definition
Remnants of the hyaloid artery that was present in the vitreous during our development in mom’s womb, or
from flecks of pigment that have somehow gotten into the vitreous. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Posterior vitreous detachment. |
|
|
Term
| Vitreous hemorrhaging can lead to what complications? |
|
Definition
| Sudden, painless loss of vision as the blood filling the vitreous prevents light from reaching the retina. |
|
|
Term
| Although asteroid hyalosis looks like little asteroids suspended in the vitreous, what are you actually seeing suspended in the vitreous? |
|
Definition
| Tiny, opaque, calcium deposits. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An inflammatory response in the vitreous, almost always meaning some infectious organism has gotten inside the eye. |
|
|
Term
| What can infections and inflammation of the vitreous lead to? |
|
Definition
| Liquefaction, opacification, and shrinkage of the vitreous. |
|
|
Term
| The white blood cells present in the vitreous during an infection can lead to the formation of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is endophthalmitis most likely to occur? |
|
Definition
| Following an invasive eye surgery. |
|
|
Term
| What are cataracts? What generally causes them? |
|
Definition
| Opacities or cloudiness of the crystalline lens; protein clumping and fiber swelling within the lens. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three general categories of cataracts? |
|
Definition
(1) Age-related.
(2) Congenital.
(3) Acquired (trauma or disease). |
|
|
Term
| How are nuclear sclerotic cataracts characterized? |
|
Definition
| By some faint whitish-gray clouding of the lens, and an increased density at the center of the lens, causing it to thicken in the middle slightly. |
|
|
Term
| Why might a cataract cause a myopic shift? |
|
Definition
It increases the density at the center of the lens, causing it to thicken in the middle slightly, which gives the
lens more power and focusing light sooner. |
|
|
Term
| What type of cataract has the most profound effect on vision? |
|
Definition
| PSC; Posterior Subcapsular Cataract. |
|
|
Term
| When are congenital cataracts formed? When are they present? |
|
Definition
| During embryonic development in the mother’s womb; at birth. |
|
|
Term
| What could happen if a congenital cataract is not removed before the age of two? |
|
Definition
| The chances of the patient developing normal vision, even after the cataract is eventually removed, is very slim. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the crystalline lens is penetrated? |
|
Definition
Aqueous and vitreous fluid is allowed to enter the lens capsule; this fluid is absorbed by lens fibers, causing
them to swell and cloud due to the metabolic imbalance. |
|
|
Term
| What are the various methods of cataract removal? |
|
Definition
| Intracapsular, extracapsular, or phacoemulsification |
|
|
Term
| Which cataract removal technique is least traumatic and allows for a small incision to remove the lens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term for a patient with a natural crystalline lens? With no lens? An artificial lens? |
|
Definition
| Phakic; aphakic; pseudophakic. |
|
|
Term
| How can you tell if a patient has an anterior chamber lens? |
|
Definition
| If you shine a penlight in the person’s eye and see a shimmering reflection just behind the cornea. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four internal tumors associated with the eyes. |
|
Definition
(1) Iris nevus.
(2) Choroidal nevus.
(3) Malignant melanoma.
(4) Retinoblastoma. |
|
|
Term
| What is an indication that an iris nevus is no longer benign? |
|
Definition
| Any growth or changes in shape or size. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most frequently occurring intraocular tumor in adults? In children? |
|
Definition
| Malignant melanoma; retinoblastoma. |
|
|
Term
| Where are malignant melanomas found in relation to the eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tumor has a root cause of genetic defects or genetic mutations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What characteristic of retinoblastoma is usually noticed by parents between the 15th and 30th month of life? |
|
Definition
| A white papillary reflex. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the general treatment of a retinoblastoma. |
|
Definition
Eyes still having functional vision and localized tumors are given radiation therapy; in eyes no longer
functioning visually or having an extremely large tumor, enucleation (removal of the eye) is the treatment
of choice. |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| Elevated IOP, optic disk cupping, and VF loss. |
|
|
Term
| The condition of angle-closure glaucoma is marked with a rise in IOP caused by what? |
|
Definition
| A mechanical blockage of the angle at the root of the iris. |
|
|
Term
| Which form of glaucoma is the most destructive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a normal eye and one afflicted with angle-closure glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| The one with angle-closure glaucoma has a shallow anterior chamber and a narrow entrance into the angle. |
|
|
Term
| Identify the signs and symptoms of angle-closure glaucoma. |
|
Definition
| The patient begins to experience pain as the pressure rises higher. The pain can vary from a feeling of discomfort and fullness around the eye or eyes to a severe, disabling pain that can radiate to the back of the head or down toward the teeth. With severe pain, the patient becomes nauseated and may even vomit. Usually, the vision is reduced to mere perception of light. The patient sees halos or rainbows around lights, caused by the edema (swelling) of the cornea as it fills with fluid due to the excess pressure in the eye. The swollen cornea clouds slightly and begins to diffract the light entering the eye. The pupil is usually at a mid-dilated point and is pretty much stuck there while the pressure remains high. More than likely, the patient also experiences photophobia. |
|
|
Term
| Angle-closure glaucoma patients are usually treated with which medications? |
|
Definition
| Glycerin, Timoptic®, Betoptic®, Pilocarpine®, Diamox®, or Mannitol®. |
|
|
Term
| What is a laser iridotomy? What is its purpose? |
|
Definition
Essentially burning a hole in the periphery of the iris with a YAG laser; provides another avenue for the
aqueous humor to get from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber and reduces the pushing forward
of the iris by the fluid behind it. |
|
|
Term
| Why is a laser iridotomy done in the affected and non-affected eyes in cases of POAG? |
|
Definition
| Studies have shown that within five to 10 years of the initial attack, there is a 50 – 70 percent chance the patient will have another acute angle-closure attack in the other eye, so treating both eyes helps reduce another attack in either eye. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the problem seem to be with aqueous outflow in COAG? |
|
Definition
| An obstruction of aqueous outflow through the trabecular meshwork. |
|
|
Term
| Increased IOP interferes with the retina’s nerve fiber layer to do what? |
|
Definition
| Carry the visual signal from the eye toward the brain. |
|
|
Term
| Why is screening for COAG using IOP an inexact science? |
|
Definition
| Because patients with relatively low IOP (21 mm Hg or lower) can still have the disease and patients with relatively high pressures (22 mm Hg or higher) can still be free of the disease. |
|
|
Term
| What is the defining factor in a diagnosis of COAG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another term for congenital or infantile glaucoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which symptoms might a child with congenital glaucoma present to the clinic? |
|
Definition
Be extremely sensitive to light, so much so his or her eyelids are tightly shut through the day; the eyes may
tear profusely; and, most noticeably, the corneal hazing makes most parents suspect something is wrong. |
|
|
Term
| What is the best treatment for lasting results in congenital glaucoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an ocular hypertensive? |
|
Definition
A patient that shows signs of glaucoma (e.g., higher than normal IOP and changes to the optic disc), but no
VF loss. |
|
|
Term
| Ocular hypotension is also known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What conditions could lead to ocular hypotension? |
|
Definition
A chronic intraocular inflammation (uveitis), wound leaks after an eye surgery, or the presence of a retinal
detachment. |
|
|
Term
| Battlefield mechanical injuries are categorized by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sources of munitions include what? |
|
Definition
Blast (surrounding debris scattered secondary to explosion), mines, cluster bomblet, anti-tank missiles,
grenades, bombs, booby-traps, bullets, and other related mechanisms. |
|
|
Term
| Name sources that can be included in non-munitions. |
|
Definition
| Motor vehicle accident, blunt trauma, fall, helicopter crash, metal on metal, and other various means. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any object that is not a part of the body. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when a steel FB gets in the eye? |
|
Definition
| The steel rusts in the eye and makes healing difficult. |
|
|
Term
| What should be tried first when attempting to remove a superficial FB? |
|
Definition
| Irrigation with a sterile saline solution. |
|
|
Term
| Why might a patient complain of an FB sensation even after it is removed? |
|
Definition
| The cornea may have been scratched. |
|
|
Term
| What should be done with a patient who has had a penetration of the eye by an FB? |
|
Definition
| Refer them to a surgeon for treatment. |
|
|
Term
| What is wrong with pressure patching an eye that has been penetrated by an FB? |
|
Definition
| The pressure patch could force aqueous or vitreous humor out of the eye. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do with a patient whose eye has a large wound and is leaking aqueous or vitreous humor? |
|
Definition
| Lay the patient on his or her back and gently transport the patient to surgical help. |
|
|
Term
| When can a corneal abrasion or scratch have a long-term affect on VA? |
|
Definition
| If it goes across the visual axis (line of sight). |
|
|
Term
| How is a corneal abrasion usually treated? |
|
Definition
Ensure there is no FB in the eye, give the patient an antibiotic ointment, pressure-patch the patient for 12 to
24 hours (if needed), and then reevaluate the patient’s eye. |
|
|
Term
| Name two FBs that are inert materials. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a person gets a thermal burn, what can you do for the person until the doctor becomes available to treat the injury? |
|
Definition
| Keep the burned area moist. |
|
|
Term
| What is the immediate treatment for a chemical burn? |
|
Definition
| Prolonged irrigation with sterile saline, or plain water if no saline solution is available. |
|
|
Term
| Why are acid burns usually less destructive than alkali burns? |
|
Definition
| Acids tend not to penetrate the eye; they make contact and burn what they touch, causing a barrier that slows or prevents further damage by the acid, so acids generally do not penetrate the underlying tissue as readily as alkalis do; and the tears of the eye have a pH on the alkali side of neutral that help prevent penetration into the eye. |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of alkaline agents? |
|
Definition
| Sodium, potassium, and ammonia. |
|
|
Term
| What type of paper is used to test the amount of acid or alkali present in an eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pH reading is considered “neutral” for the eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What, essentially, does UV radiation do to the cornea? |
|
Definition
| Sunburns it, degrading the corneal epithelium. |
|
|
Term
| An “eclipse burn” to the retina is caused by which type of light ray? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of damage can occur due to X-ray exposure? |
|
Definition
| Cataracts, necrosis (death) of the skin, loss of lashes, and glaucoma. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of upper eyelid laceration is more damaging: horizontal or vertical? Why? |
|
Definition
| Horizontal; it is going across (against) the levator palpebrae superioris, which can lead to permanent muscle damage and lid drooping (ptosis). |
|
|
Term
| Contusions to the globe can lead to what conditions? |
|
Definition
| Prolapse of the intraocular tissues, vitreous hemorrhage, retinal detachment, dislocated lens, and various blood vessel ruptures. |
|
|
Term
| Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye caused by blunt trauma to the eye is known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some problems with blood cells floating around in the anterior chamber? |
|
Definition
| Besides reducing VA, they may plug up the trabecular meshwork and prevent maximum drainage of the aqueous, which could lead to a rise in IOP, inducing glaucoma. |
|
|
Term
| What action should you take if an eye is proptotic due to trauma? What should you not do? |
|
Definition
Loosely cover the eye with a moist dressing to keep the ocular tissues from drying out, and get the person
to a doctor immediately; do not try to “push” the eye back in the socket. |
|
|
Term
| What is a hazard associated with a proptotic eye? |
|
Definition
The drying out (desiccation) of the cornea because the lids may not be able to totally cover the eye due to
the degree the eye is protruding. |
|
|
Term
| When is a ‘blowout” fracture likely to occur? |
|
Definition
| After a blunt injury to an eye. |
|
|
Term
| What is a ‘blowout” fracture? |
|
Definition
| The eye is so compressed in the socket at the time of the blunt trauma that something has to give, and the weaker bones that are stressed literally “blowout” or fracture. |
|
|
Term
| What is a positive Seidel a sign of? |
|
Definition
| The eye is leaking out fluid. |
|
|
Term
| How many Americans suffer from migraines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the total of migraine sufferers, what percentage experience a stage called an aura? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an aura? What do researchers believe cause them? |
|
Definition
| A visual hallucination; a wave of electrical activity that spreads across the visual cortex. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four main groups of migraines? |
|
Definition
(1) Common.
(2) Classical.
(3) Complicated.
(4) Cluster headaches. |
|
|
Term
| Eighty percent of patients suffer from which type of migraine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what part of the VF does the visual aura begin? Where does it end? |
|
Definition
| Near fixation; periphery. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of migraine represents the more severe visual complaints seen by optometrists and ophthalmologists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one of the telltale signs of a cerebral migraine? |
|
Definition
| The incidence of permanent neurological deficits. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of complicated migraine is known for causing temporary paralysis of one or more of the ocular muscles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of complicated migraine is associated with brain stem dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four migraine “trigger factors.” |
|
Definition
Any four from the following:
(1) Certain foods.
(2) Hormonal changes.
(3) Fatigue and stress.
(4) Bright lights.
(5) Loud noises.
(6) Trauma.
(7) Refractive error. |
|
|
Term
| List two tests which your doctor may ask you to administer when a diagnosis of migraines is suspected? |
|
Definition
(1) Amsler grid.
(2) Automated VF. |
|
|
Term
| What classification of cases should be seen the same day? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four true emergencies needing to be seen within minutes. |
|
Definition
(1) Chemical burns.
(2) CRAO.
(3) Penetrating injuries to the globe.
(4) Sudden loss of vision |
|
|
Term
| How can you distinguish between urgent and non-urgent needs? |
|
Definition
| Discrete questioning techniques and a solid case history. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of eye irrigation? |
|
Definition
| To remove foreign objects or substances from the eye. |
|
|
Term
| If a chemical is splashed into the eye, where can a patient irrigate his or her eyes? |
|
Definition
| At a sink, shower, water hose, water fountain, or anywhere water is available. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inability to open the eyelids due to a muscle spasm of the orbicularis oculi. |
|
|
Term
| What relieves the pain and lid spasms for patients who get a chemical burn to their eyes and experience blepharospasm? |
|
Definition
| The use of a topical ophthalmic anesthetic. |
|
|
Term
When irrigating without the Morgan Lens®, from which direction do you squirt the sterile saline?
Why? |
|
Definition
| Across the eye, going from the nasal side toward the temporal side; flushes the harsh chemicals away from the lacrimal drainage system, minimizing damage to it, and minimizes the amount of chemical being washed across the face. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the pressure patch? |
|
Definition
| To keep the lids of the injured eye closed and help with pain control. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the alcohol pad when putting on a pressure patch? |
|
Definition
| Removes the make-up and facial oils that prevent your tape from sticking to the patient. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the last strip of tape go when applying a pressure patch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What advice do you give a patient who has just had a patch placed over one eye? |
|
Definition
Minimize talking because it loosens the patch; no heavy exertion because it leads to sweating, causing the
patch to loosen or fall off; no driving, if at all possible, because stereopsis (fine-tuned depth perception) is lost, as well as a substantial portion of the VF on the patched side. |
|
|
Term
| What should a patient with a pressure patch do if the patch falls off or comes loose before the follow-up appointment? |
|
Definition
Return to the clinic to have a new one applied; if it is after duty hours, leave the patch off and keep the eye
closed as much as possible. |
|
|
Term
(1) Absence of all organisms and spores.
(2) Normally intended for inanimate objects.
(3) Hospital-acquired infection from other persons.
(4) Also called germicide.
(5) Clean technique.
(6) State of being free of infection.
(7) Process of destroying all microorganisms and spores.
(8) Practices that keep objects free of microorganisms.
(9) Agent usually intended for use on persons.
(10) Area free of disease-producing microorganisms. |
|
Definition
(1) Sterile.
(2) Disinfectant.
(3) Exogenous nosocomial infection.
(4) Bactericide.
(5) Medical asepsis.
(6) Asepsis.
(7) Sterilization.
(8) Surgical asepsis.
(9) Antiseptic.
(10) Clean area. |
|
|
Term
| What three elements are required for the spread of infection within a hospital? |
|
Definition
(1) Source of infection.
(2) Susceptible host.
(3) Mode of transmission. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important and frequent means of nosocomial infection transmission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When other protective articles are also worn, when is a mask donned? Removed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What piece of protective clothing offers a practical means of preventing transient hand colonization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do the skin, tears, and mucous layer of the conjunctiva help protect the body and eyes from infection? |
|
Definition
Intact skin provides an effective barrier to microorganisms; tears contain antibacterial properties; and
mucus layer of the conjunctiva traps and kills invading organisms. |
|
|
Term
| How does effective hand washing help remove microorganisms from the skin? |
|
Definition
| Mechanically scrubbing them away as you rub your hands together, diluting the organisms by rinsing them away with water, and killing many organisms when an antibacterial soap is used. |
|
|
Term
| What disinfectant is used to clean items that do not make contact with a patient’s bodily fluids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to disinfect applanation tonometer tips? |
|
Definition
| A solution of one part household bleach to 10 parts water (1:10). |
|
|
Term
| What is a big factor in a medication’s tolerability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term applies to drugs that have a neutral tonicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of patient benefits from a hypotonic solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are ophthalmic medications sensitive to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one indication a medication is oxidizing? |
|
Definition
| The medication in the bottle is brown or the threads on the bottle are a little brown. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four ways to increase the penetration of an eye drop. |
|
Definition
(1) Increase dosage.
(2) Increase frequency.
(3) Increase the viscosity.
(4) Increase contact time with the cornea. |
|
|
Term
| The cornea acts as a barrier to which type of medications? |
|
Definition
Those not soluble in fat (can’t get through epithelial layer) and those not soluble in water (can’t get through
the remaining layers). |
|
|
Term
| What are the main types of medication delivery? |
|
Definition
Topical application; subconjunctival, sub-tenon’s, retrobulbar, and intravitreal injections; continuous
release delivery; and systemically. |
|
|
Term
| In what forms are topical medications available? |
|
Definition
| Solutions, suspensions, ointments, and continuous release delivery. |
|
|
Term
| Once a solution or drop is instilled in the eye, how do you minimize systemic absorption by the patient? |
|
Definition
| Perform punctal occlusion for about one minute. |
|
|
Term
| How long does the Pilocarpine Ocusert® deliver its medication? |
|
Definition
| 24 hours a day for seven days. |
|
|
Term
| Why are subconjunctival or sub-tenon’s injections used? |
|
Definition
| To deliver medications in large doses and for longer duration, primarily to treat intraocular infections or acute iritis cases. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the medication released during a retrobulbar injection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what two basic ways are systemic medications usually administered? |
|
Definition
(1) By mouth.
(2) By injection. |
|
|
Term
| What does sub Q mean relative to injections? IM? IV? |
|
Definition
| Under the skin; in a muscle; into a vein. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most frequent type of drug reaction? What is the range of signs and symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Allergic response; moderate swelling and redness to convulsions and death. |
|
|
Term
| Can you assume that if a patient was given a drug before without a reaction the individual will not have a reaction if given that drug again? Why or why not? |
|
Definition
| No; their previous exposure may have allowed them to develop a hypersensitivity to the drug so they may react to it this time. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if you put Atropine in a patient’s eye and notice some redness and swelling occurring? |
|
Definition
| Stop instilling the drug, recline the patient if possible, and get a doctor for assistance. |
|
|
Term
| What can toxic chemical reactions cause? |
|
Definition
| Death, destruction, or changes to tissue (e.g., formation of deposits or discoloration). |
|
|
Term
| How can you help prevent adverse drug reactions in your patients? |
|
Definition
| Take a good case history. |
|
|
Term
| What things should you check before instilling a medication into a patient’s eyes? |
|
Definition
Actual drug name, drug percentage, the word “ophthalmic”, manufacturer’s expiration date, and the date
the medication was opened (if the manufacturer’s seal has been removed). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The brain and spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two divisions of the PNS (Peripheral Nervous System)? |
|
Definition
(1) ANS (Autonomic Nervous System).
(2) Somatic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
| What two levels, or divisions, make up the ANS (Autonomic Nervous System)? |
|
Definition
(1) Sympathetic nervous system.
(2) Parasympathetic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the difference between a mimetic and a lytic. |
|
Definition
| Mimetics mimic certain actions of the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system; lytics paralyze certain actions of the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
| Using what you know, explain why phenylephrine and tropicamide are routinely used together when you are dilating a patient’s eyes. |
|
Definition
Phenylephrine is a sympathomimetic and stimulates the dilator muscle of the iris. Tropicamide is a parasympatholytic that paralyzes the sphincter (constrictor) muscle of the iris. So, essentially, one drug
stimulates the muscle that dilates the pupil and the other drug paralyzes the muscle that tries to oppose that
action; now there is no resistance for the dilation to occur. |
|
|
Term
| Why do you use a mydriatic drug? |
|
Definition
| To cause dilation, giving a wider field of view for examination of the macula, optic nerve, and retina. |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of phenylephrine hydrochloride (Neo-Synephrine®) solution is the preferred concentration for use? Why? |
|
Definition
2.5 percent; it provides the desired mydriatic effect without significantly increasing blood pressure, causing
headaches, or even death like the 10-percent concentration can. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three classic signs of a Horner’s syndrome. |
|
Definition
(1) Ptosis.
(2) Miosis.
(3) Anhidrosis (dry skin) on one side of the face. |
|
|
Term
| What mydriatic drug is used to confirm the presence of a Horner’s syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the four cycloplegics and explain for what purpose each is primarily used. |
|
Definition
(1) Tropicamide—to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia for routine fundus exams.
(2) Cyclopentolate—cycloplegic refractions for use in Flying Class 1 and 1A physical examinations.
(3) Homatropine—produces extended mydriasis and cycloplegia that may last up to 72 hours; commonly
used for patients with iritis to stop ciliary spasms and prevent synechiae.
(4) Atropine—for refraction in children; not used much anymore due to numerous side effects. |
|
|
Term
| What bothers most patients about being dilated? |
|
Definition
| Heightened photosensitivity and lack of accommodation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common reaction to the drug depiprozole (Rev-Eyes®)? |
|
Definition
| Stinging and eye redness. |
|
|
Term
| How do beta-blocking drugs (e.g., Timolol Maleate [Timoptic®]) work? |
|
Definition
| They slow the production of aqueous humor by blocking the beta–1 (cardiac receptors) and beta–2 (pulmonary receptors) functions within the eye. |
|
|
Term
| When is Betaxolol HCl (Betoptic®) preferred over the other beta-blockers? |
|
Definition
For an asthmatic patient because Betoptic® selectively blocks beta–1 (cardiac receptors), but not the beta–2
(pulmonary receptors), making it a better choice in patients with breathing problems. |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of Levobunolol HCl (Betagan®)? |
|
Definition
It has a longer half-life than Timoptic® or Betoptic®, earning it FDA approval for once-a-day use, as
opposed to the required twice-a-day application of the other beta-blockers; using less medication helps keep the cost down and patient’s compliance in taking their medication up. |
|
|
Term
| When is a cholinergic agent used? |
|
Definition
When beta-blockers do not lower IOP enough by themselves or patients require specific treatment that
works on the outflow of aqueous humor rather than just slowing its production. |
|
|
Term
| What are the secondary effects of miotic medications? |
|
Definition
| Miosis (constriction of the pupil), stimulation of accommodation, and brow ache. |
|
|
Term
| Which patients should not be given miotics? |
|
Definition
| Patients with anterior uveitis (e.g., iritis). |
|
|
Term
| Which cholinergic agent is available in Ocusert® form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is Carbachol contraindicated in patients with corneal abrasions? |
|
Definition
| The medication over penetrates into the eye. |
|
|
Term
| What can chronic use or high doses of cholinesterase inhibitors lead to? |
|
Definition
| The formation of iris cysts (especially in children). |
|
|
Term
| Which cholinesterase inhibitor can be reversed? |
|
Definition
| Physostigmine Salicylate (Eserine®). |
|
|
Term
| What two things do Isoflurophate and Echothiophate Iodide have in common, besides being miotics? |
|
Definition
| Can be used to treat children with accommodative (convergent) esotropia and are irreversible. |
|
|
Term
| Which category of IOP-lowering drugs is sulfonamide-based? |
|
Definition
| Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. |
|
|
Term
| Which medication often is used on patients who report to the eye clinic with acute-angle closure glaucoma and can be used as a supplementary treatment for COAG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a contraindication of Methazolamide (Neptazane®) that does not apply to Acetazolamide (Diamox®)? |
|
Definition
| Methazolamide (Neptazane®) should be avoided in patient’s undergoing steroid treatment. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary use of the hyperosmotics? |
|
Definition
| Lowering IOP quickly on patients who report with an acute-angle closure glaucoma attack. |
|
|
Term
| List the contraindications for Glycerin (Osmoglyn®). |
|
Definition
| Not for use on diabetic or dehydrated patients, nor on those with heart, kidney, or liver disease. |
|
|
Term
| How is Mannitol administered to patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two main ways anesthetics can be administered to patients? |
|
Definition
(1) Topically.
(2) Through injection. |
|
|
Term
| Name two tests that require the use of a topical anesthetic before they can be performed. |
|
Definition
(1) Applanation (Goldmann) tonometry.
(2) Schirmer II tear test. |
|
|
Term
| In a non-penetrating eye injury case, give two reasons a topical anesthetic is needed besides merely alleviating the pain of the injury? |
|
Definition
(1) Allow placement of a Morgan Lens® (if irrigation is needed).
(2) Relieve any blepharospasm caused by the injury. |
|
|
Term
| What is the danger of a patient using a topical anesthetic several times over the course of a day or two? |
|
Definition
It causes a softening of the corneal epithelial cells. The soft, loose cells slough off, exposing Bowman’s
layer, inviting infection and corneal ulceration. It can actually cause a toxic reaction in the cornea causing
cell damage. |
|
|
Term
| What is the reason patients are warned not to rub their eyes for 20 minutes after having a topical anesthetic instilled in their eye? |
|
Definition
| They could cause damage to the eye by rubbing it too hard or rubbing a foreign object into their cornea. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three topical anesthetics used in the eye clinic. |
|
Definition
(1) Proparacaine.
(2) Benoxinate with fluorescein.
(3) Tetracaine. |
|
|
Term
| Give two possible reasons why Proparacaine is the anesthetic of choice for most eye care professionals. |
|
Definition
(1) Very few complications with its use.
(2) It is the least irritating of the topical anesthetics. |
|
|
Term
| Because Benoxinate is not commercially available in a form all by itself and can only be found mixed with fluorescein, what does this make it well suited for? |
|
Definition
| Goldmann applanation tonometry. |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of Tetracaine (Pontocaine®)? |
|
Definition
| It burns and stings, and has also been known to cause an allergic reaction in some patients. |
|
|
Term
| What is the longest any of the topical anesthetics may last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two uses of locally injected anesthetics in ophthalmic surgery? |
|
Definition
(1) Anesthesia of the eye and eyelid.
(2) Paralysis of the muscles (extraocular, eyelid, and facial). |
|
|
Term
| Why do many doctors perform a retrobulbar block before beginning an intraocular surgery? |
|
Definition
| It paralyzes the EOMs behind the globe and the sensory nerves to the globe so the patient’s eye can’t suddenly move during the operation. |
|
|
Term
| What is one of the most popular injectable anesthetics available (give the generic and trade names)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is liquid sodium fluorescein susceptible to? |
|
Definition
| Contamination by the pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred dispensing method for sodium fluorescein? |
|
Definition
| Dry, filter paper strips impregnated with fluorescein, called Fluor-I-strips®. |
|
|
Term
| Give the six uses for sodium fluorescein. |
|
Definition
(1) Perform applanation (Goldmann) tonometry.
(2) Show defects in the corneal epithelium.
(3) Detect penetrating injuries to the eye.
(4) Fit gas permeable CLs.
(5) Study lacrimal patency.
(6) Perform FA. |
|
|
Term
| What causes fluorescein to fluoresce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color dye is Rose Bengal? What is it attracted to? |
|
Definition
| Red; devitalized or dead epithelial cells of the cornea and conjunctiva. |
|
|
Term
| What problem can Rose Bengal aid in diagnosing? |
|
Definition
| Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes). |
|
|
Term
| What should be instilled before using Rose Bengal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are preservative-free artificial tears preferred? |
|
Definition
| Preservatives can cause an allergic reaction in certain patients. |
|
|
Term
| The weakest decongestants are a good choice for treating what condition? |
|
Definition
| Mild allergic conjunctivitis. |
|
|
Term
| What role does zinc play when mixed with Phenylephrine and Naphazoline to form a moderate decongestant agent for the eyes? |
|
Definition
| Helps block the itching and break up the mucus. |
|
|
Term
| Antihistamines, the strongest ocular anti-allergy (decongestant) drug available OTC, are a combination of what? |
|
Definition
| Vasoconstrictors and antihistamines. |
|
|
Term
| What does a mast cell stabilizer prevent? What problem is this drug best used to control or treat? |
|
Definition
Prevents the release of histamines, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes from sensitized mast cells; chronic
allergic problems (e.g., seasonal allergic conjunctivitis, often called vernal conjunctivitis). |
|
|
Term
| What do NSAIDs control? How do they do it? |
|
Definition
| Inflammation; inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. |
|
|
Term
What patients are most often prescribed Diclofenac sodium (Voltaren®)? What is this
medication’s advantage over most steroids? |
|
Definition
Cataract surgery patients for a few days after their operation; it doesn’t lead to IOP increases like most
steroidal drugs. |
|
|
Term
| What can lead to miosis during cataract surgery? What NSAID(s) can help prevent it? |
|
Definition
The doctor sliding instruments in and out of the eye irritates the iris, which causes inflammation that leads
to miosis; Flurbiprofen (Ocufen™) or suprofen (Profenal®). |
|
|
Term
| When is Ketorolac Tromethamine (Acular®) most commonly used? |
|
Definition
| To control inflammation due to seasonal (vernal) allergic conjunctivitis. |
|
|
Term
| What concentrations does Prednisolone come in? What is each version good for treating? |
|
Definition
0.125 and 1 percent; the 0.125 percent is good where mild adnexa inflammation control is needed (e.g., early allergic conjunctivitis), and the 1-percent concentration is used for corneal inflammations (keratitis),
episcleritis, iritis, and similar conditions. |
|
|
Term
| Name the steroid that is useful in treating blepharodermatitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is it appropriate to prescribe Fluorometholone? |
|
Definition
| When treating long-term inflammations (those that can last three to four weeks or more) (e.g., SPK and some ocular allergies). |
|
|
Term
| When is using a steroid-antibiotic combination drug considered prudent? |
|
Definition
In cases where the inflammatory response is secondary to compromised eye tissue (i.e., chemical keratitis
with significant epithelial compromise). |
|
|
Term
| What are the two basic antibiotic agents? |
|
Definition
(1) Bacteriostatic.
(2) Bacteriocidal. |
|
|
Term
| Why does it matter whether a bacteria gram stains blue (positive) or red (negative)? |
|
Definition
It helps the doctor pick an antibiotic appropriate to the type of bacteria because certain antibiotics are more
effective on gram-positive bacteria and some are better on gram-negative. |
|
|
Term
| Name the more common gram-positive bacteria and list their similarities. |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus aureus, staphylococcus epidermidis, streptococcus pneumoniae, and hemolytic streptococci; they are staph or strep of some kind, and are coccus or cocci, indicating round in shape. |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for bacteria to be cultured in the laboratory and be tested against various antibiotic agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the “shotgun” approach to treating an infection. |
|
Definition
Involves the doctor using a broad-spectrum antibiotic that fights many different types of bacteria until the
specific bacteria and what types of drugs affect it is known. |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria can penetrate a compromised cornea in as little as 24 hours? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause for bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotic medications? |
|
Definition
| Patients failing to use their antibiotics for the prescribed length of time; they stop when things seem to clear up and the remaining bacteria make a comeback, becoming more resistant to the prescribed medication. |
|
|
Term
| What is an eye condition (infection) that can lead to massive destruction of intraocular tissues, and to blindness or enucleation (removal of the eye)? What condition can lead to death? |
|
Definition
| Endophthalmitis; orbital cellulitis. |
|
|
Term
| For what purpose is Bacitracin commonly used? |
|
Definition
| Treating the staphylococcal form of blepharitis (staph lid disease). |
|
|
Term
| Give the disadvantages of Sulfacetamide. |
|
Definition
| Many patients are allergic to sulfa drugs; it doesn’t work well against staphylococcal organisms or pseudomonas; and it doesn’t work well on mucopurulent infections. |
|
|
Term
| Give the three most common uses of Erythromycin (E-Mycin). |
|
Definition
(1) As a prophylactic (preventative) antibacterial when a pressure patch is used on a corneal abrasion.
(2) On sutures and surgical wounds after blepharoplasty (eyelid) surgery.
(3) On newborns, as a prophylaxis against gonorrhea and chlamydial infection. |
|
|
Term
| What two broad-spectrum, pseudomonas-killing drugs are essentially the same? |
|
Definition
(1) Gentamicin.
(2) Tobramycin. |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic is mixed frequently with other antibiotics to come up with a very effective, broad-spectrum medication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name two drugs that are only available in a form where they are mixed with another drug. |
|
Definition
(1) Neomycin.
(2) Trimethoprim. |
|
|
Term
| Which category of antibiotics actually works to disrupt the DNA of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For what purpose is Ciprofloxacin HCl (Ciloxan®) used? |
|
Definition
| Treating moderate to severe external bacterial infections; the most common use thus far is in treating corneal ulcers caused by bacterial organisms. |
|
|
Term
| How are viruses different from bacteria and fungi in the way they infect cells? |
|
Definition
Viruses actually penetrate inside the cell they are infecting; bacteria and fungi are only next to the cell they
are infecting. |
|
|
Term
| Give the three categories of viruses that you encounter in the eye clinic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which virus cannot be treated and must just “run its course?” |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the HSV a threat to vision? |
|
Definition
| It invades the cells of the corneal epithelium, causing dendritic ulcers that expose the lower corneal layers. |
|
|
Term
| What is the danger in extended use of antivirals? |
|
Definition
| They can be toxic to healthy tissue. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four antiviral medications. |
|
Definition
(1) Idoxuridine (Herplex®).
(2) Vidarabine (Vira-A®).
(3) Trifluridine (Viroptic®).
(4) Acyclovir (Zovirax®). |
|
|
Term
| Which antiviral is the current “drug of choice?” |
|
Definition
| Trifluridine (Viroptic®). |
|
|
Term
| Which antiviral is used primarily in treating HZV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only FDA-approved antifungal for topical, ocular use? What fungi is it effective against? |
|
Definition
| Natamycin or pimaricin (Natacyn®); Candida, Aspergillus, Cephalosporium, Fusarium, and Penicillin. |
|
|
Term
| Name the good effects of free radicals on the human body. The bad effects. |
|
Definition
| Breaks down accumulated toxins, dead cells, and waste products; damages healthy cells through a process called oxidation. |
|
|
Term
| Which supplements appear to have a positive effect on ARMD (Age Related Macular Degeneration)? |
|
Definition
| Vitamins A, C and E; caratenoids; zinc; selenium bilberry; and ginkgo biloba. |
|
|
Term
| Why are the benefits of vitamin and mineral supplementation for eye health considered pure speculation? |
|
Definition
| Partly because the business of supplementation is largely an unregulated industry and does not undergo years of rigorous testing as FDA-approved medications. |
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