Term
|
Definition
| Science of the structure of the body and its relationships |
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Term
|
Definition
| Study of physical and chemical processes involved in functioning of human body |
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Term
| Define Metabolism and its two categories |
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Definition
Metabolism: the complete set of chemical reactions that occur in living cells. It is the basis of life, allowing cells to grow and reproduce, maintain, and respond to environments.
1.) anabolism: phase of metabolic storage and synthesis of cell constituents (anabolism requires energy)
2.) catabolism: involves breakdown of complex molecules into substances that can be used in production of energy. |
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Term
| List the levels of structural organization in increasing order |
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Definition
| Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism |
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Term
|
Definition
| Maintenance of stable equilibrium in biological system that opposes external or internal disturbances |
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Term
| Define the two feedback mechanisms and give examples of each mechanism |
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Definition
1.) Negative: reduces and suppresses changes in internal environment to maintain state of balance (Ex. Increased glucose in blood causes release of insulin, which causes storing of glucose and lessens amount of glucose in blood)
2.) Positive: sequence of interactions that amplifies response to initial stimulus and promotes instability (Ex. Oxytocin causes promotion of contractions during childbirth) |
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Term
| List the four major components of a negative feedback mechanism |
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Definition
| stimulus, sensor, integrator, effector |
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Term
| Principle of Complementarity of structure and function |
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Definition
| Each component of the human body is structure to perform specific functions |
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Term
| Examples of ectoparasites |
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Definition
| Live on (NOT IN) the body ...fleas, lice, ticks |
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Term
| Vectors of infectious disease |
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Definition
| Traveling parasites such as ticks, mosquitoes, fleas, not confined internal parasites such as roundworms |
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Term
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Definition
| The rate at which a specific even occurs |
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Term
| Define Normal Micro flora. |
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Definition
| Bacteria that is naturally found in the human body, they are harmless |
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Term
| Define Opportunistic Pathogens. |
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Definition
| Microorganism that cause infection when the health and immunity of the host are weakened. |
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Term
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Definition
| Unicellular organisms that lack an organized nucleus (Like Bacteria) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Fungi that reproduce by budding. |
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Definition
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Term
| Common symptoms of infectious disease. |
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Definition
| Fever, headache, lethargy, and myalagia which is muscular pain |
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Term
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Definition
| Stage when early symptoms first start to appear (Before full blown disease takes place) |
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Term
| Define Nosocomial Infections. |
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Definition
| These infections develop in hospitalized patients after the patient’s original conditions |
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Term
| Examples of Diseases caused by exotoxins. |
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Definition
Diptheria, Botulism, Tetanus.
Exotoxin: toxin excreted by a microorganism including bacteria, fungi, algae, and protozoa |
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Term
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Definition
| It inhibits synthesis of cell wall (destroys cell wall of microorganism) |
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Term
| Define Broad Spectrum Antibiotics |
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Definition
| Active against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria |
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Term
| Describe make up of the Immune System |
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Definition
Red bone marrow,
thymus gland,
lymphoid organs,
spleen,
T & B lymphocytes |
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Term
| Define Major Histocompatibility Complex Molecules |
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Definition
| Self-components that the immune system utilizes to determine self vs. non-self |
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Term
| Class I Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) location |
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Definition
| Found on all nucleated cells of body (mature red blood cells have no nucleus) |
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Term
|
Definition
| “Big eaters” that surround and absorb foreign particles, they are found early in the immune response |
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Term
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Definition
| Intercellular (between different cells) protein messenger molecules that control movement, proliferation, and differentiation of immune and other cells |
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Term
| Immunoglobulins are produced by |
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Definition
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Term
| Specific immune mechanisms include |
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Definition
| Protection afforded by cell-mediated immunity |
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Term
| The most abundant Immunoglobulin |
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Definition
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Term
| Immunoglobulins that is involved in allergic and hypersensitivity responses |
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Definition
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Term
| "Master Switch" cell in immune system |
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Definition
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Term
| Differentiation of T lymphocytes |
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Definition
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Term
| Lymphocyte involved in humoral immunity through the production of antibodies |
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Definition
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Term
| Define Clusters of Differentiation (CD) |
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Definition
| Surface proteins that act as markers of recognition for various B and T cells |
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Term
|
Definition
1) They assist in removing foreign materials from lymph channels
2) They are centers for immune cell proliferation |
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Term
| Examples of Active Immunity |
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Definition
| Immunity caused by response to exposure to pathogenic agent (or a stimulated pathogen such as a flu or other vaccine) |
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Term
| Examples of non-specific defenses |
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Definition
skin,
mucous membrane,
phagocytes,
inflammation
*NOT ANTIGEN TAGGING* |
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Term
| Presence of local heat during the inflammatory response is due to |
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Definition
| An increase in local blood flow |
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Term
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Definition
| Attraction of leukocytes to injurious agent |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
Blood,
sexual contact,
via maternal-placental,
breast milk |
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Term
| HlV virus directly infects |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| White blood cells that have high rate of increasing during bacterial infection |
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Term
|
Definition
| Capture and process antigens, and present to lymphocytes |
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Term
| Describe the acute phase response during an inflammation |
|
Definition
Fever,
skeletal muscle catabolism,
increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
*NOT LEUKOPENIA* |
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Term
| Inflammatory Mediators that contribute to swelling, redness, heat, and |
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Definition
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Term
| A positive antibody test in an infant indicates |
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Definition
| Prenatally exposed infant with maternal antibodies |
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Term
| Define Opportunistic infections |
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Definition
| Infections of normal harmless organisms in persons with compromised immune function |
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Term
| Symptoms of the acute primary infection and primary phase of HIV |
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Definition
Mono-like symptoms,
fever,
myalagia,
sore throat,
nausea,
lethargy |
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Term
| Symptoms at the point in which immune system is compromised by HIV |
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Definition
| Opportunistic infections begin to appear |
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Term
| Describe the "window phase" of HIV infection |
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Definition
| Time between infection and detectable antibody levels |
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Term
|
Definition
| Endemic in West Africa, but very rare in other places |
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Term
| Most common respiratory opportunistic disease in persons who die with AIDS |
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Definition
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Term
| Ways HIV is [not] transmitted |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Blood and genital secretions (semen, and vaginal secretions) |
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Term
| How does HIV infect a cell |
|
Definition
| Attaches by surface protein on viral surface, to specific receptors on CD4+ T cell |
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Term
| Most accurate and inexpensive method to Test for HIV |
|
Definition
| Screening with an immunoassay (EIA or ELISA) followed by Western Blot if assay was positive |
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Term
| Describe AIDS dementia complex |
|
Definition
Memory loss,
lethargy,
euphoria,
difficulty concentrating |
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|
Term
| Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to detect |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hypospadia, a congenital defect in males, causes a malpositioning in the urethral opening (it is located on the ventral surface of the penis) |
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Term
| What is the function of the seminal vesicles? |
|
Definition
I.)They add fluid to ejaculate to propel the sperm forward
II.) The fructose secreted by the seminal vesicles provides energy for sperm motility |
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Term
| Explain the function cremaster muscles and the pampiniform plexus of the testes. |
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Definition
| The cremaster muscles, which respond to decreases in testicular temperature, move the testes closer to the body. |
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Term
| What role does nitric oxide play in erections? |
|
Definition
| It involves increased inflow of blood into the corpora cavernosa due to relaxation of the trabecular smooth muscle that surround the sinusoidal spaces and compression of the veins controlling outflow of blood from the venous plexus |
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Term
| What nervous system controls erection? |
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Definition
| The parasympathetic nervous system |
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Term
| What are the major sources of estrogen in premenopausal and menopausal women? |
|
Definition
| Ovaries and adipose tissue |
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Term
| The secretion of FSH and LH are under the control of ____________. |
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Definition
| Gonadotrophin-releasing factor |
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|
Term
| What hormones would be used to treat exceptionally tall children by effecting early epiphyseal closure? |
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Definition
| Estrogen and Testosterone |
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Term
| ________ is produced and secreted by the interstitial Leydig cells in the testes, while under the influence of luteinizing hormone (LH) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the functions of testosterone. |
|
Definition
| Differentiation of the male genital tract in fetal development, induction of secondary male sex characteristics and promotion of muscoskeletal growth |
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Term
| The _____________ houses the testes and regulates their temperature. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What describes herniation of the bladder into the vagina? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is testicular torsion and what is it a common consequence of? |
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Definition
| It is a twisting of the spermatic cord that suspends the testis. It is a consequence of cryptorchidism along with infertility and malignancy. |
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Term
| What is the most common cause of cancer in males between the ages of 15-35? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the causes of scrotal cancer. |
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Definition
| It has been linked to occupation (chimney sweep), poor hygiene and chronic inflammation |
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Term
| What cancer is the most common nonskin cancer in the US affecting men 65 years of age and older? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| A hydrocele forms when excess fluid collects between the layers of the ____________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and polycystic ovary syndrome are conditions that alter estrogen metabolism and elevate estrogen levels. Increased estrogen levels are associated with ______________________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Undesired or harmful effects of supraphysiologic doses of androgens including estrodial and estrone are_________, ___________ and _______________. |
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Definition
| acne, decreased testicular size, azoospermia, and a change in libido. |
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Term
| In order for embryonic gonads to become testes, what is required? |
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Definition
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Term
| What condition is characterized by heavy bleeding during and between menstrual cycles |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the luteal stage of the menstrual cycle. |
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Definition
| After ovulation, the follicle collapses; the granulose cells are invaded by blood vessels and yellow lipocrhome-bearing cells from the theca layer. A rapid accumulation of blood and fluid forms a mass called the corpus luteum. Progesterone is secreted from the corpus luteum. |
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Term
| What are the local effects of progesterone on reproductive organs? |
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Definition
| The glandular development of the lobular and alveolar tissue of the breasts and the cyclic glandular development on the endometrium |
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Term
| What role does oxytocin and prolactin play in a woman’s body? |
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Definition
| Milk ejection from the ductile system occurs in response to the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary. Secretion of milk by alveolar cells us under the influence of the anterior pituitary hormone prolactin. |
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Term
| ___________ is an abnormal, painful, sustained erection that can lead to ischemic damage of penile structures. |
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Definition
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Term
| What hormone(s) are produced after ovulation when the follicle becomes lutinized as the corpus lutium? |
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Definition
| Estrogen and progesterone |
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Term
| What is a term for benign neoplasms of smooth muscle in the uterus? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is usually recognized as the leading cause of osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
| Decreased estrogen levels |
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Term
| During lactation, milk is secreted by ____________________. |
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Definition
| Alveolar tissue of the breast |
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Term
| What forms when excess fluid collects between the layers of the tunica vaginalis? |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Generation of the primordial ova by mitotic division occurs during fetal life |
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Term
| A preponderance of evidence suggests a causal link between both cervical cancer, penile cancer and ____________________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is stored in the ampulla of the vas deferens? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are causes of male infertility? |
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Definition
| They include variocele, ejaculatory dysfunction, hyperprolactinemia, hypoagonadotropic hypogonadism, infection, immunologic problems (antisperm antibodies), obstructions (wearing tight jeans), and congenital anomalies |
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Term
| Infertility, malignancy and testicular torsion are long term consequences of ___________________________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When does gonadotrophin-stimulated production of testosterone normally begin? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _______________ serves as a storage reservoir for sperm. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The ________________is the site of the Skene glands, which have a lubricating function. |
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Definition
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Term
| The wall of the uterus is composed of three layers (__________, ____________ and __________) one (__________) of which extends to form a cul-de-sac. |
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Definition
| the perimetrium, the myometrium, and the endometrium; the perimetrium |
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Term
| High levels of what hormone exert a negative feedback loop on FSH? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are common causes of vaginitis in women of childbearing age? |
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Definition
| Candida albicans, Trichomonas vaginalis, and bacterial vaginosis |
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|
Term
What structure secretes fluid and serves as a buffer and prolongs the life of
spermatozoa once they reach the vagina? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Gradual cessation of ovarian function and diminished estrogen levels during perimenopause and menopause may lead to ______________. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of the fructose in seminal fluid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of inhibin in males? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits FSH production leading to a reduction in spermatogenesis |
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|
Term
| What microorganism causes candidiasis? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Why might antibiotic therapy cause vulvovaginal candiasis in females? |
|
Definition
| It can suppress normal protective flora |
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Term
| What is a complication associated with women having chlamydial infections? |
|
Definition
| Pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility or ectopic pregnancy |
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|
Term
| What are the symptoms associated with trichomoniasis? |
|
Definition
| Copious, frothy, malodorous, green or yellow discharge |
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Term
| Factors that increase the risk of tubal pregnancy include? |
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Definition
| Pelvic inflammatory disease, therapeutic abortion, tubal ligation or reversal, and fertility drugs |
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Term
| Which structure in the female anatomy begins to dilate upon parturition (birth)? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe testicular torsion? What structures are affected? Two risk factors are trauma and strenuous physical activity |
|
Definition
| It is the twisting of the spermatic cord that suspends the testes |
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|
Term
| How many spermatozoa are produced by one spermatognium in spermatogenesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of cells does a Pap smear detect? |
|
Definition
| Cancerous and precancerous cells |
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Term
|
Definition
| The condition in which functional endometrial tissue is found in ectopic sites outside the uterus |
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|
Term
| What hormone surge causes ovulation? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors that increase the risk of tubal pregnancy include? What is the greatest danger? |
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Definition
| Pelvic Inflammatory Disease, therapeutic abortion, tubal ligation or reversal, and fertility drugs. Tubal rupture is the greatest danger |
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|
Term
| What is a chocolate cyst and where does it form? |
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Definition
| In the ovary, the endometrial tissue may form cysts (endometriomas filled with old blood that resembles chocolate syrup, hence chocolate cysts) |
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Term
| What hormone is responsible for fluid retention in females during PMS? |
|
Definition
| Increased aldosterone secretion |
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|
Term
| Untreated syphilis might cause complications in what organs? |
|
Definition
| Aorta, liver, and central nervous system |
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|
Term
| Where are the location openings of the coronary arteries? |
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Definition
| They are in the Aorta, just above the aortic valve |
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Term
| Describe the event that happens during ventricle systole. |
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Definition
| The semilunar valves begin to open |
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Term
| What is meant by ‘Preload’ work of the heart? |
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Definition
| The amount the heart pumps before a systole |
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Term
| Describe Pulse Pressure, and what if any type of medication might be given for elevated pulse pressure. |
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Definition
Pulse Pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure
Angiotensin, converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor), might be prescribed for elevated pulse pressure. |
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|
Term
| Describe the Cardiac Cycle. |
|
Definition
Term referring to all or any of the events related to the flow or blood pressure that occurs from the beginning of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next.
The different phases of filling and ejection of blood:
Diastole (the period of time when the heart relaxed after systole, blood fills the ventricles)
Systole (contraction of heart chambers, driving blood out of the chambers) |
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Term
| What causes the closing of the AV valves, and what muscle(s) cause tension to better hold the valve? |
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Definition
| The AV valves are closed when the chordae tendinae begin to tighten. The chordae tendineae are attached to papillary muscles that cause tension to hold the valve better. |
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|
Term
| What is the subvalvular apparatice? |
|
Definition
| The papillary muscles and the chordae tendineae are both together |
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|
Term
| What is the arterial system, and where is the greatest pulse pressure in the arterial system? |
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Definition
| The arterial system is a system of canals that carry blood from the heart to the organs. The greatest pulse pressure is found in the Aorta. |
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Term
| In healthy adults, how many normal heart sounds are typically described and what are they? What causes the first heart sound and any others that exist? |
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Definition
| Two, which are often described as lub and dub. The first heart sound (s1) and second heart sound (s2) are closing of the AV valves and semilunar valves, respectively. |
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Term
| Describe the isovolumetric contraction period of the cardiac cycle. |
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Definition
| Ventricular pressure rises rapidly without a change in ventricular volume during the time period between the closure of the AV valves and the opening of the aortic and pulmonic valves. Ventricular volume does not change because all valves are closed during this phase. |
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|
Term
| What greek words does the term tachycardia come from? In rapid tachycardia, why does the cardiac output fall? |
|
Definition
Tachys (rapid or accelerated)
kardia (of the heart)
Rapid Tachycardia: reduction in time for diastolic filling. |
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|
Term
| What factors have the largest effect on the amount of blood flow? What disease(s) might decrease blood flow? |
|
Definition
How wide: Diameter, radius
Hypertension and atherosclerosis might decrease blood flow. |
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|
Term
| What is atherosclerosis and what part of the arterial system does affect? |
|
Definition
| Atherosclerosis is clogged and hardened arteries that narrow and become clogged with plaque, and it affects large and medium sized arteries. |
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|
Term
| How does atherosclerosis exert its effects? |
|
Definition
Narrowing of the vessel lumen (ischemia)
Disruption of endothelial lining
Inflammation of atherosclerotic plaques |
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|
Term
| How does the sympathetic nervous system regulate blood pressure? |
|
Definition
| Increased heart rate and contraction strength and the Perveso resistance and release of epinephrine |
|
|
Term
| What is hypertension and what are the factors that predispose someone to the development of hypertension? |
|
Definition
| Hypertension is a chronic medical condition in which the blood pressure is elevated. Obesity, alcohol consumption, and high sodium intake predispose someone to hypertension. |
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of high blood pressure? |
|
Definition
| Dull headaches, dizziness and/or abnormal amount of nosebleeds; however, no symptoms may occur |
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|
Term
| The central circulation contains blood that is in what? |
|
Definition
| Heart, lungs, and pulmonary blood vessels |
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|
Term
| What primarily controls autoregulation of blood flow in microcirculation? |
|
Definition
| The metabolic needs of tissues |
|
|
Term
| What is microcirculation? |
|
Definition
| The flow of blood through the fine vessels such as arterioles, capillaries, and venules |
|
|
Term
| Describe the rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism |
|
Definition
Renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1
Angiotensin 1 is then converted to Angiotensin 2
Angiotensin 2 constricts blood vessels and increases the blood pressure. |
|
|
Term
| Build up of Hydrogen ions, Potassium ions, and nitric oxide in local tissues promote what? |
|
Definition
| Vasodilatation, which is the widening of the diameter of a blood vessel in order to decrease the resistance to blood flow |
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|
Term
| What is an embolus and what are some causes and symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Embolus is something that travels through the bloodstream, lodges in a blood vessel and blocks it. Examples are a detached blood clot, a clump of bacteria, and foreign material such as air. |
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|
Term
| What is atherosclerosis and what are the major risk factors ? |
|
Definition
| Atherosclerosis is a condition in which fatty material collects along the walls of arteries. This fatty material thickens, hardens (forms calcium deposits), and may eventually block the arteries. Major risk factors include hypertension, smoking, high blood cholesterol, high fat diet, diabetes and genetic predisposition. |
|
|
Term
| How does cigarette smoking and hypertension enhance atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| Disrupting endothelial layer of arteries |
|
|
Term
| Give examples of medical conditions that can induce secondary hyperlipoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
| Diabetes mellitus and obesity |
|
|
Term
| Long term regulation of blood pressure depends on the function of what? |
|
Definition
| Kidneys/salt-water levels |
|
|
Term
| Where are the majority of the receptors that bind and remove LDL to carry cholesterol from circulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lifestyle factors increase the risk of atherosclerosis by producing a decrease in HDL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What conditions can contribute to the development of venous thrombosis? |
|
Definition
| Immobility, old age, pregnancy, smoking, obesity |
|
|
Term
| Where does deep venous thrombosis (DVT) generally occur? |
|
Definition
| Deep veins of the legs or in the pelvic veins |
|
|
Term
| What are the two factors that predispose to the development of varicose veins? |
|
Definition
| Obesity and long-term standing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Swollen, twisted, and sometimes painful veins that have filled with an abnormal collection of blood |
|
|
Term
| What parameters of circulation are related to the arterial blood pressure? |
|
Definition
| Cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance |
|
|
Term
| General action of ADH anti diuretic hormone. – |
|
Definition
| Increases the absorption of water and sodium in the kidneys (more so of water). Water and sodium can go into circulation and increase blood pressure. |
|
|
Term
| What helps reduce water retention and decease vascular volume in individuals with hypertension? |
|
Definition
| Limiting the amount of salt (NaCl) |
|
|
Term
| Where are the effects of hypertension on the heart largely manifested? |
|
Definition
| Left ventricular hypertrophy (enlargement) |
|
|
Term
| What does the diastolic blood pressure represent? What does the systolic blood pressure represent? |
|
Definition
Diastolic: pressure maintained by the peripheral blood vessels during diastole.
Systolic: the blood pressure when the heart is contracting |
|
|
Term
| What does the systolic component of blood pressure directly reflect? |
|
Definition
| The maximum arterial pressure during contraction of the left ventricle of the heart |
|
|
Term
| What is pregnancy induced hypertension related to? What is another term for this? |
|
Definition
Toxic mediators, from impaired placenta perfusion that alter vessels endothelial cells
Toxemia or preeclampsia |
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms of toxemia? |
|
Definition
| High blood pressure( a blood pressure reading higher than 140/90 mm Hg, or a significant increase in one or both pressures), protein in the urine, edema(swelling) |
|
|
Term
| Explain isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly. |
|
Definition
| The aorta becomes increasingly rigid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ACE= angiotensin converting enzymes, Decrease conversion angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 |
|
|
Term
| In addition to hypertension, what else might ACE inhibitors be used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Scleroderma and migraines |
|
|
Term
| What medication is frequently used to reduce the risk of coronary thrombosis (blood clot) in the absence of angina? |
|
Definition
| Antiplatelets, such as Plavix |
|
|
Term
| Describe variant (Prinzmental's) angina (chest pain). |
|
Definition
| Chest pain caused from a coronary vessel spasm |
|
|
Term
| What is myocardial infarction? What are the signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
| It is a heart attack. Signs include: crushing chest pain, feeling of nausea and indigestion. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most recommended treatment to reduce chest pain for myocardial infarctions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause for the high frequency myocardial infarction from 6:00 am to noon? |
|
Definition
| Catecholamine sensitivity of coronary vessels higher – more vasoconstricting action |
|
|
Term
| Most common complication of early myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What role does myoglobin play in myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
| Enzyme test used to determine if there are elevated levels. Levels elevate during the first 2-3 hours of a heart attack. |
|
|
Term
| Explain why anginal pain does not develop in a number of people with advanced coronary atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| Pain tolerance, sedentary lifestyle, adequate collateral circulation |
|
|
Term
| Describe the cardiac conduction system |
|
Definition
| Specialized myocardial cells that can create and conduct impulses |
|
|
Term
| What is hypovolemic shock and what are the causes? |
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Definition
| It is an emergency condition in which severe blood and fluid loss makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body. This type of shock can cause many organs to stop working. Causes: excessive loss of body fluid (includes vomiting) |
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Term
| What is the reason for the appearance of pale, cool, and clammy skin that is found in an individual with shock? |
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Definition
| Blood is shunted away from skin to vital organs |
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Term
| What compensatory mechanisms come into play if heart failure occurs? |
|
Definition
| Hpertrohpy, sympathetic stimulation, rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanis |
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Term
| Describe ECG graph paper. What is an ECG and what represents the ventricular depolarization on the ECG? |
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Definition
| Electrocardiograph runs at a paper speed of 25 mm/s. One small block of ECG paper translates into 0.04 s. Five small blocks make up 1 large block, which translates into 0.20 s. An electrocardiogram records the electrical activity of the heart (QRS wave) |
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Term
| Most common initial manifestations of dilated cardiomyopathies are related to? |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe what happens during the T, P and QRS wave of the cardiac cycle. |
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Definition
| T: ventricular re-polarization, P: atrial depolarization, QRS: complex- ventricular depolarization (stimulation) |
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Term
| Sympathetic stimulation causes what effects on the heart? |
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Definition
| Increase in rate and strength of cardiac contraction |
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Term
| What is the SA node and what is its function? |
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Definition
| Sinoatrial node- it is the pacemaker of the heart. It generates impulses faster than other cardiac cells. |
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Term
| Describe congestive heart failure. |
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Definition
| Inability to meet the needs of the body’s demand for blood |
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Term
| What is the order of impulse conduction in the heart? |
|
Definition
| Sa-av node- bundle of HIS – Purkinje system |
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Term
| What is the modern explanation of the mechanism of cardiac cell contraction? (which crossbridge) |
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Definition
| A cross bridge that is formed between myosin and actin |
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Term
| What are LDL and HDL? Which one carries cholesterol to the liver for removal? |
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Definition
| They are lipoprotiens. HDL carries cholesterol to the liver for removal. |
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Term
| What are the two parts of the respiratory system? |
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Definition
| Conducting airways, which supplies the air; the respiratory tissues where gas exchange occurs; Also, the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar tissues, where lung gas exchange occurs |
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Term
| What is the function of the mucociliary blanket? |
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Definition
| It cleans and moistens the air that passes over it |
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Term
| What is the purpose of the moisture in the conducting airway in relation to temperature? |
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Definition
| When the body temperature rises, more moisture is added |
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Term
| What is the pleural effusion? |
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Definition
| Abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural cavity |
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Term
| What are the symptoms of influenza? List at least three. |
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Definition
| Fever, chills, general malaise |
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Term
|
Definition
| The pleura are covering that protects the lungs; double –layered serous membrane to reduce friction of lung movement |
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Term
| What is spontaneous pneumothorax? |
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Definition
| It is collapse of a portion of lung, not caused by outside influences |
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|
Term
| Define tension pneumothorax |
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Definition
| It is caused by a side shift of the mediastinum to the opposite side. (Causes include injury or other outside influences) |
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|
Term
| What agent causes pneumonia? |
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Definition
| S. pneumonia. (Streptococcus pneumonia) |
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Term
|
Definition
| Higher than normal ventilation rate this will cause a decrease in blood CO2 levels. |
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Term
|
Definition
A special pleural effusion: it differs in that the pleural cavity fills with pus.
It is also characterized by abnormal enlargement of air spaces, with obstruction to bronchi and alveoli in the lung walls. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Part of the lung doen’t expand completely |
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Term
| What happens to the residual lung volume during an asthmatic attack? |
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Definition
| It increases, as air is trapped, and cannot contribute to vital capacity. |
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Term
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Definition
| The ability of the lungs to inflate and change volume reasonable pressure. |
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Term
| What is the function of the larynx? List three or more. |
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Definition
| Speech, conducts air, protects lungs from things other than air. |
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Term
|
Definition
| It is the opening at the larynx, between the vocal cords. |
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|
Term
| Why is the right bronchus more prone to obstruction? |
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Definition
| Mainly because it is wider, thus more likely an obstruction will enter. |
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|
Term
| What supplies blood to the conducting airways? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the relation between the surface area of the alveoli and the rate of gas diffusion in the lungs? |
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Definition
| Direct relation of surface area and rate of gas diffusion – more area = more gas diffusion |
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|
Term
| Removal of a lung would cause what in relation to diffusing capacity? |
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Definition
| It reduces surface area, thus decreasing the diffusion capacity of the lungs. |
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Term
| Bicarbonate carries what in the blood? |
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Definition
| Carbon dioxide is transported using the bicarbonate buffer system. |
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Term
| A prolonged fever can initiate dehydration by? |
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Definition
| Causing evaporation from increased temperature. Fever increases the respiratory rate, resulting in additional loss of water vapor through the lungs. |
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Term
| Common opportunistic infection in children with AIDS. Is the infection of viral, bacterial or fungal origin? |
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Definition
| Pneumocystis carinii; fungus. |
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Term
| The common cold is transmitted via… |
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Definition
| The most major vectors for transmission are our own fingers. |
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Term
| What virus is responsible for the common cold? List at least 5 things. |
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Definition
| Rhinoviruses, Parainfluenza Viruses, RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus), and Adenoviruses. |
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Term
| What are the features of the mycobacterium that cause tuberculosis? List at least 4 things. |
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Definition
| Slender rod-shaped, do not spore, waxy coat that retains acis/red die, and they are aerobes (use the oxygen environment in the lungs as opposed to anaerobes.) |
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Term
| How do antihistamines adversely affect the lungs? |
|
Definition
| They dry the bronchial secretions. |
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Term
| Emphysema affects what part of the lungs? |
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Definition
| The alveolar walls. Air space abnormally enlarges with destruction of alveolar walls and decreases elasticity and shape. |
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Term
| Why not give a person with hypoxia a high concentration of oxygen? |
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Definition
| Chemoreceptors for blood 02 would infer high 02 and reduce breathing stimuli. High concentrations suppress the CO2 chemoreceptors which provide the main stimulus for ventilation. |
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Term
| What happens to the lungs during asbestosis? |
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Definition
| Injury causes scar tissue and stiffening of lung tissue |
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|
Term
| What is the purpose of the horseshoe shaped cartilages? |
|
Definition
| Protection of the trachea from collapsing when the pressure in the thoracic cavity becomes negative. |
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Term
| Adequate ventilation depends on…? List at least 3 things. |
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Definition
| Patent (open) airways, compliant lungs, lung/atm pressure differences. |
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|
Term
| What is the primary muscle that functions during inspiration? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How is oxygen transported in the blood? |
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Definition
| Most, but not all, is attached to hemoglobin. |
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Term
| Describe the functions of surface tension on alveoli? |
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Definition
| Slows rate of expansion of alveoli, helps all alveoli expand at the same rate. |
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Term
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Definition
| Maximum volume of air that can be inhaled and forced out. |
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|
Term
| What is % of humidity of the air in the lungs? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dys means that something is difficult, bad, or painful. Dyspnea is difficult breathing. |
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|
Term
| What causes acute respiratory distress syndrome? List at least 4 things. |
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Definition
| The adult respiratory distress is characterized by widespread atelectasis, loss of surfactant, interstial edema, formation of hyaline membrane, and impaired gas diffusion. |
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|
Term
| What is the purpose of the two-step testing of tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
| Check for boosted response to the first test. |
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|
Term
| The polysaccharides capsule of S. pneumonia protects it from what? |
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Definition
| Polysaccharide protection means it will be difficult to be eaten by phagocytes. |
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Term
| Define Legionaire’s Disease. What is thought to have been the cause of the initial outbreak? |
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Definition
| It is most common in persons with chronic illness and it consolidates lung tissue. It is preceded by diarrhea, hyponatremia, and confusion. Outbreaks of Legionnaire’s disease have been traced to air conditioning cooling towers and evaporative condensers. |
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|
Term
| Sinuses favor the growth of organisms because they… |
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Definition
| Sinuses have low oxygen concentration, which attracts organisms. |
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|
Term
| What is the pressure in relation to the lungs during a tension pneumothorax compared to the atmospheric pressure? |
|
Definition
| Intrapleural pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure |
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|
Term
| What happens to the trachea’s position during a tension pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what does the PO2 level refer? |
|
Definition
| Plasma O2 levels, thus the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma. |
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|
Term
| What does positive tuberculosis skin test indicate? |
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Definition
| That an individual as been exposed and sensitized (possibly from immunization) |
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Term
| Acute respiratory distress syndrome causes what lung difficulties? List at least 2 things. |
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Definition
| Impaired gas diffusion, and lungs become stiff and do not inflate easily. |
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|
Term
| What are signs of hypercapnia [increase of carbon dioxide in blood]? List at least 3 things. |
|
Definition
| Headache, flushed skin, conjunctival hyperemia, (abnormally high amount of blood in eyes) |
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|
Term
| What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? |
|
Definition
| Small airway obstruction during expiratory phase of ventilations. COPD is a group of disease (chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and bronchiectasis) characterized by presence of airflow obstruction. |
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|
Term
| Describe pulmonary circulation. |
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Definition
| The portion of the cardiovascular system which carries oxygen-depleted blood away from the heart, to the lungs, and returns oxygenated blood back to the heart. |
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|
Term
| Describe the bronchial circulation system. |
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Definition
| Supplies blood to the tissue of the larger airways of the lung such as the conducting airways. |
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Term
| In addition to the bicarbonate buffer system, what other two ways is carbon dioxide transported in the blood? |
|
Definition
| Binding the carbon dioxide to blood plasma proteins or hemoglobins, dissolving carbon dioxide within itself. |
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Term
| What are the most likely causes of emphysema? List at least three things. |
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Definition
| Long term exposure to cigarette smoking, or exposure to other irritants (such as working in coal mines), air pollution, Antitrypsin Deficiency-a rare genetic disorder; people with this disorder have a deficiency in an enzyme that protects the lungs. |
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|
Term
| What is the normal arterial level range of PO2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the overall function of the kidneys? |
|
Definition
| Regulates the inner environment of the body by controlling the water-electrolyte balance and removing nitrogenous wastes. |
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|
Term
| What are the functional units of the kidney? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the bulk of the energy used for by the kidney? |
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Definition
| For active transport of sodium and co-transport of electrolytes and other substances. |
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|
Term
| Describe justomedullary nephrons. |
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Definition
| Nephrons that penetrate the entire length of the medulla. |
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|
Term
| What all is absorbed in the proximal tube? |
|
Definition
| Water,electrolytes, glucose, and amino acids. |
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|
Term
| The anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) acts on what structure(s) in the kidney? |
|
Definition
| Distal and collecting tubules. |
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|
Term
| What usually causes kidney damage resulting from urinary tract obstruction? |
|
Definition
| Back pressure and ischemia. |
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|
Term
| What is the most common type of kidney stone in people with urinary tract infections? |
|
Definition
| Magnesium ammonium phosphate (or struvite) stones |
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|
Term
| Why is Aspirin not recommended for pain relief in people with gouty arthritis? |
|
Definition
| It decreases the secretion of uric acid into the renal tubules. |
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|
Term
| How is cranberry or blueberry juice thought to control and prevent UTIs? |
|
Definition
| Reduction in bacterial adhesions to the epithelium of UT. |
|
|
Term
| Describe glomerulonephritis. |
|
Definition
| Inflammation involving the glomerular structures that can lead to kidney failure. Some known causes include bacterial infections and immune diseases. |
|
|
Term
| What does glomerulonephritis result from? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe acute proliferative glomerulonepphritis. |
|
Definition
| Increase in cellular components of the glomerulus, edema, oliguria, proteinuria, and hematuria. |
|
|
Term
| What are the endocrine functions of the kidney? |
|
Definition
| Activation of vitamin D and production of erythropoietin. |
|
|
Term
| What is a substance normally found in urine that closely reflects the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the Urine Specific Gravity test. |
|
Definition
| It assesses the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine. |
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|
Term
| What does Aldosterone increase the re-absorption of and what does anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) increase the reabsorption of? |
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Definition
| Aldosterone increases the re-absorption of Na, and ADH increases water absorption. |
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|
Term
| What type of renal response is given for people who eat high-protein meals or have high glucose levels in their blood? |
|
Definition
| Increase in renal blood flow and GFR. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common complication with urinary tract obstruction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common inherited disease that affects the kidneys? |
|
Definition
| Polycystic kidney disease is the most commonly inherited kidney disease. |
|
|
Term
| What is a characteristic sign of polycystic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What blood test is used to detect the GFR and renal funtion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of kidney agenesis or hypoplasia if it affects one kidney in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the effects of cystic disease on the kidney. |
|
Definition
| Tubular dilation (caused by weakened tubule structures), tubular obstructions (that increase intratubular pressure), and a change in the basement membrane of the renal tubules. |
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|
Term
| What prevention measure can be used to prevent all types of kidney stones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which population is lease susceptible to urinary tract infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of nosocomial urinary tract infections? |
|
Definition
| Catheters (nosocomiar-hospital origination) |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of lower urinary tract infections (UTIs)? |
|
Definition
| Enuresis, dysuria, suprapubic discomfort, frequency. |
|
|
Term
| Edema that develops in people with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome indicate what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the location and the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? |
|
Definition
| The justaglomerular apparatus is at the point of contact between the distal convoluted tubule and the afferent and efferent arterioles. Regulates the functions of each nephron. |
|
|
Term
| The most frequent causes of intrarenal failure are: |
|
Definition
| Acute tubular necrosis, hypoxia-related renal failure, and exposure to nephrotoxic poisonous substances |
|
|
Term
| What can cause the interruption of renal blood flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe acute tubular necrosis. |
|
Definition
| Destructive changes in tubular epithelium. One of the most common causes of acute renal failure. |
|
|
Term
| What causes the majority of acute tubular necrosis? |
|
Definition
| Often caused by ischemia or nephrotoxic agents. |
|
|
Term
| End-stage renal disease is characterized by what alterations? |
|
Definition
| Endocrine functions of the kidney, alterations in filtration and re-absorption. |
|
|
Term
| What is an early sign of renal failure? |
|
Definition
| An increase of nitrogenous wastes in the blood |
|
|
Term
| What is nocturia and its symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Urination at night; loss of ability to concentrate urine |
|
|
Term
| What is the moving force of filtration? |
|
Definition
| The blood pressure in the glomerulus. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Impaired synthesis of erythropoietin and effects or uremia. |
|
|
Term
| What can cause the development of hypertension in a person with renal failure? |
|
Definition
| Increased intravascular fluid, and the rennin-angiontensin mechanism. |
|
|
Term
| Failure to empty the urine from the bladder or flaccid dysfunction is caused by what conditions. |
|
Definition
| Interrupted afferent and efferent innervations of the bladder. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of flaccid bladder dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common sign of bladder cancer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What structure distal to the base of the bladder is responsible for continence? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of early stages of obstruction to urine outflow from the bladder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the main levels of neurological control of bladder function? |
|
Definition
| Not hypothalamus (spinal reflex ctr., cerebral cortex, pontine micturition) |
|
|
Term
| The reflex control of bladder emptying occurs at what level? |
|
Definition
| the sacral portion of the spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of urinary obstruction in males? |
|
Definition
| Benign prostatic hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
| What can cause the failure to store urine? |
|
Definition
| Reflex bladder spasm, decrease of bladder volume, interference w/ motor innervation. |
|
|
Term
| What can happen as a result of a stroke that affects the cortex or corticospinal pyramidal tract? |
|
Definition
| The ability to preceive bladder filling is lost; voiding occurs suddenly and w/o warning. |
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