The functional unit of th human kidney is the :

a. nephron

b. collecting tubule (duct)

c. major calyx

d. minor calyx

e. pyramid 

One feature of the renal blood circulation that makes it unique is that:

a. blood flows from arterioles into venules

b. blood flows from venules into arterioles

c. there is a double set of venules

d. there are two sets of capillaries 

Which has the opposite effect on urine production from the others?

a. decrease solutes in blood

b. decrease blood pressure

c. increased ambient temperature

d. dehydration

e. reduced water consumption 

The glomerular filtration rate is regulated by:

a. the autonomic nervous system

b. the renin-angiotensin system

c. atrial natriuretic factor

d. all of the above

e. both a and b are correct 

If the following hypothetical conditions exist in the nephron, what would be the net (effective) filtration pressure?

 Glomerular blood hydrostatic = 80 mm Hg

 Glomerular blood osmotic = 20 mm Hg

 Capsular hydrostatic = 30 mm Hg

a. 40 mm Hg

b. 30 "

c. 20 "

d. 10 " 

The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from other capillary networks in the body because they:

a. have a larger area of anastomosis

b. branch from and drain into arterioles

c. lack endothelium

d. force filtrate from the blood 

Which is not a function of the kidney?

a. water volume control

b. blood pressure control

c. urine storage

d. converts vitamin D to an active form 

ADH causes water to:

a. diffuse into the ascending limb of the vasa recta

b. return to the systemic circulation

c. be reabsorbed at the proximal tubule

d. both a and b are correct

e. a, b, and c are correct 

Potassium is secreted by the _____ and reabsorbed by the _____.

a. Bowman capsule; loop of Henle

b. proximal convoluted tubule; distal convoluted    tubule 

c. loop of Henle; collecting ducts

d. distal convoluted tubule; proximal convoluted tubule

e. collecting ducts; loop of Henle 

Water reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate initially enters the:

a. afferent arterioles

b. efferent arterioles

c. Bowman's capsule

d. glomerulus

e. vasa recta 

Plasma contains a much greater concentration of _____ than the glomerular filtrate.

a. sodium

b. protein

c. urea

d. creatinine 

An increase in water permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collection duct is due to:

a. a decrease in the production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b. an increase in production of ADH

c. a decrease in blood plasma osmolality

d. an increase in water content within tubular cells

e. none of the above is correct 

The descending loop of the nephron allows:

a. sodium secretion

b. potassium secretion

c. hydrogen ion secretion

d. water reabsorption 

Which most accurately describes the pressures affecting net glomerular filtration?

a. blood osmotic opposes capsular hydrostatic and blood hydrostatic

b. blood hydrostatic opposes capsular hydrostatic and blood oncotic

c. capsular hydrostatic opposes blood osmotic and blood hydrostatic

d. none of the above is correct 

Tubular secretion of urea is accomplished in the:

a. glomerulus

b. urethra

c. renal pelvis

d. distal convoluted tubule

e. none of the above  

Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion differ in that:

a. secretion adds material to the filtrate; reabsorption removes materials from the filtrate

b. secretion is a passive process; reabsorption is an active transport process

c. reabsorption tends to increase urine volume; secretion tends to decrease urine volume

d. secretion adds materials to the blood; reabsorption removes materials from the blood 

The kidneys (more than one answer may be correct):

a. conserve H+

b. conserve NH4+

c. eliminate H+

d. eliminate NH4+

e. conserve HCO3- 

c. eliminate H+

d. eliminate NH4+

e. conserve HCO3- 

If a small person excretes about 1 liter of urine during a 24 hour period, estimate the total amount of glomerular filtrate formed.

a. 4 liters

b. 10 L

c. 18 L

d. 100 L 

Which should not appear in the glomerular filtrate (in any significant quantity) just after the process of glomerular filtration has been accomplished?

a. protein

b. urea

c. glucose

d. both a and b are correct 

Loop of Henle is to vasa recta as convoluted tubules are to:

a. afferent arterioles

b. peritubular capillaries

c. efferent arterioles

d. renal arteries 

The two "currents" used in the countercurrent exchange system are the:

a. afferent and efferent arterioles

b. glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman) capsule

c. ascending and descending limbs

d. proximal and distal tubules

e. all of the above 

The countercurrent exhchange system:

a. prevents water reabsorption from the collecting duct

b. concentrates sodium in the renal cortex

c. facilitates osmosis

d. concentrates chloride in the renal cortex

e. none of the above 

Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF):

a. increases ADH secretion

b. is produced by the kidney

c. increases urine output

d. decreases urine output 

A waste product of protein metabolism is:

a. pepsinogen

b. trypsin

c. amino acid

d. urea

e. urine 

Renal function tests include:

a. the urinalysis

b. BUN and serum cratinine

c. SGOT/SGPT

d. both a and b

e. a, b, and c 

Which substance is an abnormal constituent of urine?

a. urea

b. glucose

c. sodium chloride

d. creatinine 

The prescence of albumin in the urine would indicate probable damage to:

a. glomeruli

b. renal columns

c. collecting tubules

d. pyramids

e. none of the above 

Which statement is not true concerning urinary tract infection?

a. once cystitis develops, pyelonephritis will certainly occur

b. they are usually due to coliforms, especially E. coli

c. organisms probably enter the bladder by way of the urethra

d. the patient may be asymptomatic 

Renal calculi may be composed of:

a. calcium oxalate

b. uric acid

c. cholesterol

d. all of the above

e. a and b 

Which can be characteristic of uretheral stones?

a. severe pain in back

b. severe pain in abdomen

c. nausea and vomiting

d. all of the above

e. a and c 

Which are predisposing factors for acute urinary tract infections? (more than one may be correct)

a. congenital deformities of urinary tract

b. the sex of the patient 

c. decreased urine flow

d. increased urine flow

e. increased fluid intake 

a. congenital deformities of urinary tract

b. the sex of the pt

c. decreased urine flow 

A common cause of both pyelonephritis and cystitis is:

a. urinary calculi

b. invading microrganisms, such as E. coli

c. allery reactions

d. heavy metals 

uremia exhibits:

a. polycythemia

b. retention of metabolic acids

c. low plasma calcium levels

d. increased erythropoiesis

e. both a and d

Pyelonephritis is (more than one answer may be correct):

a. an inflammation and infection of the urinary bladder

b. characterized by fever, chills, and flank pain

c. characterized by pyuria, bacteriuria, and hematuria

d. more common in young women than in young men 

b. char. by fever, chills, and flank pain

c. char. by pyuria, bacteriuria, and hematuria

d. more common in young women than in young men 

Which renal condition usually has a history of recent infection with beta-hemolytic streptococci?

a. pyelonephritis

b. chronic renal failure

c. nephrosis

d. glomerulonephritis

e. calculi 

Which statement is not true concerning glomerulonephritis?

a. significant damage to kidneys occurs during the body's response to an infection.

b. fever and flank pain occur

c. complement activation attracts neutrophils

d. approximately 90% of individuals develop chronic disease 

nephrotic syndrome is associated with ____ to plasma ____.

a. increased glomerular permeability; urea

b. decreased glomerular permeability; proteins

c. decreased glomerular permeability; tubula filtratrate

d. increased glomerular permeability; proteins 

Causes of acute renal failure include:

a. cholecystitis

b. stones and strictures in kidneys or ureters

c. heart failure leading to poor renal perfusion

d. both b and c

e. a, b, and c 

Which describe a patient in acute renal failure?

(more than one poss answer) 

a. elevated serum creatinine

b. leukocytosis

c. low BUN

d. fever

e. oliguria 

a. elevated serum creatinine

e. oliguria 

Chronic renal failure:

a. may result from hypertension

b. is usually the result of chronic inflammation of the kidney.

c. may be treated with dialysis or transplants

d. all of the above

e. both a and c 

Which is not a characteristic of chronic renal failure?

a. hyperkalemia

b. anuria

c. anemia

d. pruritus

e. acidosis 

An individual has an elevated blood level of urea and creatinine because of complete calculi blockage of one ureter.  This is referred to as:

a. prerenal disease

b. intrarenal disease

c. postrenal disease

d. preclampsia

e. hypercalcemia 

Nephrotoxins, such as antibiotics, may be responsible for:

a. acute tubular necrosis

b. acute glomerulonephritis

c. pyelonephritis

d. cysitits 

Uremia, as seen in chronic renal failure, would include:

a. metabolic acidosis

b. elevated BUN and creatinine

c. cardiovascular disturbances

d. all of the above 

The earliest symptom of chronic renal failure is:

a. pruritus

b. oliguria

c. polyuria

d. decreased BUN 

In chronic renal failure, tubulointerstitial disease leads to:

a. sodium retention

b. sodium wasting

c. no significant changes in sodium levels

d. increased phosphate excretion 

Match the condition with its characteristic:

Goodpasture syndrome

a. prerenal failure

b. postrenal failure

c. chronic glomerulonephritis

d. pulmonary capillary and glomerular basement membrane antibodies

e. pruritus 

Match the condition with its characteristic:

hypovolemia

a. prerenal failure

b. postrenal failure

c. chronic glomerulonephritis

d. pulmonary capillary and glomerular basement membrane antibodies

e. pruritus

Match the condition with its characteristic:

uremia

a. prerenal failure

b. postrenal failure

c. chronic glomerulonephritis

d. pulmonary capillary and glomerular basement membrane antibodies

e. pruritus

True or False:

Exstrophy of the bladder occurs because of birth trauma. 

True or False:

vesicoureteral reflux is caused by a congenitally malpositioned entry of the ureter or ureters into the bladder 

true or false:

children are at no greater risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances than adults 

true or false:

grade V vesicoureteral reflux can be medically managed 

true or false:

polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder 

true or false:

secondary enuresis occurs when the child has never been continent 

nephrotic syndrome in children manifests as:

a. proteinuria

b. hyperlipidemia

c. lipiduria

d. all of the above

e. none of the above 

poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis in children:

a. is a noninfectious renal disease

b. causes hypotention

c. causes dehydration

d. both b and c 

infants cannot concentrate urine because of:

a. shorter tubular length

b. increased tubular length

c. increased blood flow to the kidneys

d. both a and c

e. a, b, and c 

vesicoureteral reflux causes urine to ____ up the ureters and places the young child at risk for ____.

a. retrograde; glomerulonephritis

b. regrade; nephrotic syndrome

c. retrograde; pyelonephritis

d. regrade; cystitis 

Which manifestation may be associated with vesicoureteral reflux?

a. recurrent urinary tract infections

b. poor growth

c. irritability

d. both a and b

e. a, b, and c 

children are at risk for hemolytic uremic syndrome after:

a. upper respiratory tract infections

b. vomiting and/or diarrhea

c. viral infections

d. all of the above 

organic causes of enuresis may include:

a. congenital abnormalities of the urinary tract

b. a nerological origin

c. diabetes insipidus

d. all of the above 

children with enuresis may be managed by:

a. sleep interruption

b. psychotherapy

c. diet

d. all of the above 

which characterizes IgA nephropathy?

a. no systemic immunologic disease

b. injury to the glomerulus is usually reversible

c. gross hematuria

d. all of the above

e. both a and b 

Identify the sequence of events in hemolytic uremic syndrome that cause anemia.

1. the damaged cells are removed from the circulation by the spleen

2. the endothelial lining of the glomerular arterioles becomes swollen

3. narrowed vessels damage erythrocytes

4. fibrin spit-products appears in the urine and serum

a. 1, 3, 4

b. 2, 4, 1

c. 3, 1, 2

d. 2, 3, 1 

which factor influences the prognosis of a child with nephroblastoma?

a. the child's height

b. genetics

c. stage

d. congenital anomalies

e. b, c, and d 

what causes neonate bladder outlet obstruction?

a. polyps arising from the prostatic urethra

b. congenital urethral valves

c. impairned renal embryogenesis

d. both b and c 

e. a, b, and c

Match the description with the structural abnormality.

small, normally developed kidney

a. hypospadias

b. epispadias

c. bladder exstrophy

d. hypoplastic kidney

e. renal dysplasia

f. bilateral agenesi 

Match the description with the structural abnormality.

a. hypospadias

b. epispadias

c. bladder exstrophy

d. hypoplastic kidney

e. renal dysplasia

f. bilateral agenesi

Match the description with the structural abnormality.

urethral opening on the dorsal surface of the penis; a cleft along the ventral urethra in girls

a. hypospadias

b. epispadias

c. bladder exstrophy

d. hypoplastic kidney

e. renal dysplasia

f. bilateral agenesi

Match the description with the structural abnormality.

results from abnormal differentiation of renal tissue

a. hypospadias

b. epispadias

c. bladder exstrophy

d. hypoplastic kidney

e. renal dysplasia

f. bilateral agenesi

Match the description with the structural abnormality.

exposed bladder mucosa through a fissure in the abdominal wall 

a. hypospadias

b. epispadias

c. bladder exstrophy

d. hypoplastic kidney

e. renal dysplasia

f. bilateral agenesi

Match the description with the structural abnormality.

urethral meatus opening on the ventral side of the penis 

a. hypospadias

b. epispadias

c. bladder exstrophy

d. hypoplastic kidney

e. renal dysplasia

f. bilateral agenesi

Match the description with the structural abnormality.

obstruction of the renal collection system

a. hypospadias

b. epispadias

c. bladder exstrophy

d. hypoplastic kidney

e. renal dysplasia

f. bilateral agenesi

which does not constitute a plasma component?

a. colloids

b. electrolytes

c. gases

d. glucose

e. platelets 

which is the most abundant protein in blood plasma?

a. fibrinogen

b. albumins

c. globulins

d. immunoglobulins

e. hormones 

mast cell mediators are available to:

a. vascular endothelial cells

b. nerves

c. immune system cells

d. only a and c

e. a, b, and c 

the progenitor of granulocytes is a:

a. pronormoblast 

b. promegakaryoctye

c. prolymphoblast

d. myeloblast 

identify the correct sequence in the development of erythrocytes

a. polychromatophilic erythroblast, normoblast, reticuloycte

b. normoblast, reticulocyte, basophilic erythroblast

c. normoblast, committed proerythroblast, reticulocyte

d. normoblast, basophilic erythroblast, reticulocyte 

a differential count of WBCs includes all of the following except:

a. granulocytes

b. agranulocytes

c. reticulocytes

d. monocytes

e. lyphocytes 

the purpose of erythropoietin is to:

a. decrease maturation of erythroblasts

b. detect hypoxia

c. control erythrocyte production

d. control the size of platelets 

the main regulator of platelet circulating mass is:

a. GP11b/111a complex

b. ADP

c. thrombopoietin

d. thromboxane 

about how many times more RBCs than WBCs are there in a mm³ of blood?

a. 15

b. 90

c. 100

d. 1000

e. none of the above 

if the total leukocytic count of an individual was 7000/mm³, about how many neutrophils would normally be present in a mm³ of blood?

a. 400

b. 700

c. 2100

d. 3000

e. 4200 

which granlocyte functions in antibody-mediated defense against parasites?

a. lymphocytes

b. monocytes

c. neutrophils

d. eosinophils

e. basophils 

erythropoitin:

a. is secreted by the kidney

b. is a glycoprotein

c. causes recycling of iron for production of RBCs

d. is released by the kidney to stimulate erythrocyte and platelet formation

e. both a and b 

which is not an agranulocyte?

a. mast cell

b. lymphocyte

c. monocyte

d. reticulocyte

e. both a and d 

which are the most effective phagocytes?

a. neutrophils and basophils

b. lymphocytes and eosinophils

c. basophils and monocytes

d. neutrophils and monocytes

e. none of the above 

which vitamins are needed for erythropoiesis?

a. C and E

b. B₂ and B₁₂

c. A and D

d. both a and b

e. a, b, and c 

Match the colony-stimulating factor with the cells that are stimulated.

IL-3

a. erythrocytes

b. macrophage, neutrophil

c. neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil

d. normoblast

e. erythroblast 

Match the colony-stimulating factor with the cells that are stimulated.

a. erythrocytes

b. macrophage, neutrophil

c. neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil

d. normoblast

e. erythroblast

which is not used to measure RBC indices?

a. differential count

b. reticulocyte count

c. erythrocyte count

d. hemoglobin determination 

which test reflects bone marrow activity?

a. differential count

b. hemoglobin mean

c. hematocrit mean

d. g/dl 

as an individual ages:

a. the erythrocyte life span is shortened

b. lymphocytic function decreases

c. platelet numbers decrease

d. all of the above  

hemostasis involves all of the following except:

a. vasoconstriction

b. platelet plug formation

c. intrinsic pathway activities

d. clot formation

e. erythropoiesis 

when a blood vessel is damaged:

a. subendothelial collagen is exposed

b. platelets are attraced to collagen

c. platelets degranulate

d. both a and b

e. a, b, and c 

the biochemical mediators released by adhering platelets cause:

a. vasodilation of the injured vessel

b. vasoconstriction of the injured vessel

c. the inflammatory process to proceed

d. all of the above 

which is the correct sequence in coagulation?

a. X, tissue thromboplastin, XA

b. prothrombin activator complex, X, XA

c. fibrinogen, thrombin, stabilizer fibrin

d. damaged tissue, VII, prothrombin 

which is the correct sequence in fibrinolysis?

a. fibrin, plasminogen

b. FDP, fibrinogen

c. plasminogen, XIIa

d. plasmin, fibrin 

Anemia refers to a deficiency of:

a. blood plasma

b. erythrocytes

c. platelets

d. hemoglobin

e. both b and d 

morphologic classification of anemia is based on all of the following except:

a. size

b. color

c. shape

d. cause 

hypoxemia causes:

a. arterioles, capillaries, and venules to dilate

b. the heart to contract more forcefully

c. the rate and depth of breathing to increase

d. both a and b

a, b, and c 

match the etiology of the anemia with RBC morphologic appearance.

vitamin B₁₂ deficiency

a. macrocytic-normochromic

b. microcytic-hypochromic

c. normocytic-normochromic 

match the etiology of the anemia with RBC morphologic appearance.

iron deficiency

a. macrocytic-normochromic

b. microcytic-hypochromic

c. normocytic-normochromic

match the etiology of the anemia with RBC morphologic appearance.

folic acid deficiency

a. macrocytic-normochromic

b. microcytic-hypochromic

c. normocytic-normochromic

match the etiology of the anemia with RBC morphologic appearance.

excessive bleeding

a. macrocytic-normochromic

b. microcytic-hypochromic

c. normocytic-normochromic

which symptoms are consistent with aplastic anemia but not with pernicious anemia?

a. hemorrhage into the tissues

b. pallor 

c. fatigue

d. hypoxia

e. neuropathy 

a cause of macrocytic-normochromic anemia is:

a. iron deficiency

b. antibiotics against parietal cells

c. an enzyme deficiency

d. inheritance of abnormal hemoglobin structure

e. none of the above 

an individual having chronic gastritis and tingling in the fingers requires which of the following for treatment?

a. oral B₁₂

b. B₁₂ by intramuscular injection

c. ferrous fumarate by intramuscular injection

d. oral folate

e. transfusions 

secondary polycythemia may be caused by:

a. dehydration

b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

c. living at high altitudes

d. both b and c

e. a, b, and c 

the symptoms of polycythemia are essentially caused by:

a. fewer erythrocytes than normal

b. decreased blood volume

c. increased blood viscosity

d. increased rate of blood flow 

match the leukocytic alteration with its cause

eosinphilia

a. pregnancy

b. allergic disorders

c. radiation

d. early stage of infection

e. surgical stress 

match the leukocytic alteration with its cause

leukopenia

a. pregnancy

b. allergic disorders

c. radiation

d. early stage of infection

e. surgical stress

leukocytosis is found in all of the following except:

a. inflammatory responses

b. allergic responses

c. bacterial infections

d. bone marrow depression 

what is the most notable characteristics of infections mononucleosis?

a. it has a short incubation period of less than 1 week.

b. it usually affects preteens

c. the presence of heterophil antibody is diagnostically helpful

d. lymphocytosis persists for less than 1 week. 

which likely does not play a role in leukemia?

a. radiation

b. down syndrome

c. polycythemia

d. chloramphenicol

e. diet 

CML is characterized by its:

a. acute onset

b. high incidence in children

c. presence of the Philadelphia chromosome

d. survival time of days to months 

clinical manifestations of multiple myeloma include all of the following except:

a. bone pain

b. decreased serum calcium

c. m-protein

d. renal damage

e. pathologic fractures 

match the characteristic with the malignant lymphoma

Epstein-Barr virus

a. Hodgkin lymphoma

b. non-Hodgkin lymphoma 

match the characteristic with the malignant lymphoma

Reed-Sternberg cell

a. Hodgkin lymphoma

b. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

match the characteristic with the malignant lymphoma

more frequent extranodal involvement

a. Hodgkin lymphoma

b. non-Hodgkin lymphoma

a thrombocytopenia with a platelet count below 50,000/mm³ likely will cause:

a. hemorrhage from minor trauma

b. spontaneous bleeding

c. death

d. polycythemia 

a thromboembolic disease can be caused by all of the following except:

a. injured vessel walls

b. tissue damage that releases excessive tissue factor.

c. obstructed blood flow

d. deficient dietary intake of vitamin K

e. polycythemia 

true or false

early initiation of iron-rich cow's milk in an infant's diet is an excellent preventive measure against iron deficiency anemia 

true or false

although a frequent problem, ABO incompatibility seldom results in significant disease 

true or false

sequestration crisis is a serious complication of sickle cell disease unique to childhood 

true or false 

Rh incompatibility is a problem only of an Rh-positive woman bearing an Rh-negative fetus during a second pregnancy

true or false

because homeostasis in the newborn is chiefly attained through the extrensic pathway, serious bleeding in the newborn period usually is not a problem in hemophiliacs 

true or false

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a genetically transmitted disease 

true or false

leukemias are multifactorial diseases with genetic disposition, environment, and bacterial infections playing a role in their etiologies 

which is the most common blood disorder of infancy and childhood?

a. iron deficiency anemia

b. pernicious anemia

c. folate deficiency anemia

d. sideroblastic anemia 

maternal-fetal blood incompatibility may exist in which condition?

a. Rh-positive mother, Rh-negative fetus

b. Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive fetus

c. Rh-negative father, Rh-positive mother

d. Rh-negative father, Rh-negative mother 

beta-thalassemia is:

a. common among Italians

b. an X-linked recessive dissorder

c. an autosomal recessive disorder

d. both a and b

e. both a and c 

which statement is correct?

a. sickle cell disease is an autosomal dominant disorder

b. sickle cell disease is an x-linked recessive disorder

c. sickle cell disease is an x-linked dominant disorder

d. sickle cell disease is an autosomal recessive disease 

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura involves antibodies against:

a. neutrophils

b. eosinophils

c. platelets

d. basophils 

which are factors associated with iron deficiency anemia?

a. rapid growth

b. low socioeconomic status

c. cow's milk for infants

d. both a and c

e. both a, b, and c 

what is the most likely cause of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

a. stress and fatigue

b. genetic predisposition

c. prolonged occult bleeding

d. viral sensitization

e. both b and c 

hodgkin lymphoma has:

a. extensive extranodal involvement

b. rare extranodal involvement

c. painless cervical lymphadenopathy

d. both a and c

e. both b and c 

in sickle cell disease, vasoocclusive crisis is the result of:

a. damage to platelets due to IgG

b. "plugging" of peripheral blood vessels by "stiff" sickled erythrocytes

c. ingestion of sulfa drugs

d. sequestration of large numbers of erythrocytes in the spleen 

which factor may play a part in the development of childhood leukemia?

a. genetic predisposition

b. environmental factors

c. viral infections

d. radiation

e. all of the above 

which statement is true about acute lymphocytic leukemia?

a. it is the most common childhood leukemia

b. it usually occurs between 2 and 6 years of age

c. it is uniformly fatal

d. it is easily predicted through genetic testing

e. both a and b 

match the circumstance with the alteration

leukocyte counts approaching 100,000/mm³

a. leukemia

b. ITP

c. sickle cell disease

d. Rh incompatibility

e. hemophilia 

match the circumstance with the alteration

low platelet counts 

a. leukemia

b. ITP

c. sickle cell disease

d. Rh incompatibility

e. hemophilia

match the circumstance with the alteration

lack of coagulation factors VIII, IX,and XI 

a. leukemia

b. ITP

c. sickle cell disease

d. Rh incompatibility

e. hemophilia

match the circumstance with the alteration

may present early as symmetic, painful swelling of hands and feet

a. leukemia

b. ITP

c. sickle cell disease

d. Rh incompatibility

e. hemophilia

match the circumstance with the alteration

may cause severe hemolysis in the newborn period

a. leukemia

b. ITP

c. sickle cell disease

d. Rh incompatibility

e. hemophilia

match the circumstance with the alteration

a. leukemia

b. ITP

c. sickle cell disease

d. Rh incompatibility

e. hemophilia

match the circumstance with the alteration

may result in fetal death

a. leukemia

b. ITP

c. sickle cell disease

d. Rh incompatibility

e. hemophilia

oxygenated blood flows through the:

a. superior vena cava

b. pulmonary veins

c. pulmonary arteries

d. coronary veins

e. none of the above 

the hepatic vein:

a. carries blood from the vena cava to the liver

b. carries blood from the liver to the vena cava

c. carries blood from the aorta to the liver

d. carries blood from the liver to the aorta 

the position of the heart in the mediastinum is:

a. inferior to the diaphragm and between the lungs

b. between the lungs, superior to the diaphragm

c. posterior to the trachea, anterior to the esophagus

d. posterior to the lungs and anterior to the diaphragm 

the pericardial space is found between the:

a. myocardium and parietal pericardium

b. endocardium and visceral pericardium

c. visceral and parietal pericardium

d. visceral and epicardial pericardium 

in the normal cardiac cycle, which of the following occurs? (more than one answer may be correct)

a. the right atrium and right ventricles contract simultaneously

b. the two atria contract simultaneously, wheras the two ventricles relax

c. the two ventricles contract simultaneously, whereas the two atria relax

d. both the ventricles and atria contract simultaneously to increase cardiac output 

b. the two atria contract simultaneously, wheras the two ventricles relax

c. the two ventricles contract simultaneously, whereas the two atria relax

the QRS complex of the EKG represents:

a. atrial depolarization

b. ventricular depolarization

c. atrial contraction

d. ventricular repolarization

e. atrial repolarization 

a person having a heart rate of 100, a systolic BP of 200, and a stroke volume of 40 ml would have an average cardiac output of:

a. 0.5 ml/min

b. 5 l/min

c. 4 ml/min

d. 8000 ml/min

e. none of the above 

during atrial systole, the:

a. AV valves are open

b. atria are filling

c. ventricles are emptying

d. semilunar valves are open 

which does not significantly affect heart rate?

a. sympathetic nerves

b. parasympathetic nerves

c. atrioventricular valves

d. acetylcholine 

one cardiac cycle:

a. has a duration that changes if the heart rate changes.

b. usually requires less than 1 second to complete

c. is equal to stroke volume times heart rate

d. pumps approximately 5 L of blood

e. both a and b 

compared with arteries, veins:

a. have a larger diameter

b. are thick-coated

c. recoil quickly after distension

d. both a and b 

normal systolic pressure within the left ventricle is in the range of:

a. 100-140 mm Hg

b. 15-30 mm Hg

c. 0-10 mm Hg

d. none of the above 

backflow of blood from the arteries into the relaxing ventricles is prevented by the:

a. venous valves

b. pericardial fluid

c. semilunar valves

d. atrioventricular valves 

adrenomedullin (ADM):

a. exhibits powerful vasocontriction activity

b. is present only in cardiovascular tissue

c. mediates sodium reabsorption

d. exhibits powerful vasodilatory activity 

the Frank-Starling law of the heart concerns the relationship between:

 a. the length of the cardiac muscle fiber and the strength of contraction

b. stroke volume and arterial resistance

c. rapidity of nerve conduction and stroke volume

d. systolic rate and cardiac output 

how does cardiac muscle differ from skeletal muscle? (more than one answer may be correct)

a. it is arranged in parallel units

b. it is arranged in branching networks

c. it is multinucleated

d. it is single-nucleated

e. it is more accessible to sodium and potassium ions 

b. it is arranged in branching networks

d. it is single-nucleated

e. it is more accessible to sodium and potassium ions

blood pressure is measured by the:

a. pressure exerted on the ventricular walls during systole

b. pressure exerted by the blood on the wall of any blood vessel

c. pressure exerted on arteries by the blood

d. product of the stroke volume times heart rate 

identify the correct sequence of the portions of the pulmonary circulation

1. pulmonary veins

2. pulmonary arteries

3. lungs

4. right ventricle

5. left atrium

a. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

b. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5

c. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5

d. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

e. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 

the heartbeat is initiated by the:

a. coronary sinus

b. atrioventricular bundle

c. right ventricle

d. SA node

e. AV node 

if the sympathetic nervous system stimulation of the heart predominates over parasympathetic nervous systemstimulation, the heart will:

a. increase its rate

b. contract with greater force and at a solwer rate

c. decrease its rate and force of contraction

d. contract with less force and at a higher rate 

when fluids exhibit a turbulent flow:

a. resistance increases

b. it is a sign of greater blood viscosity

c. the fluids have greater velocity than with laminar flow

d. there is greater hydrostatic pressure than if the fluids had laminar flow

identify the normal sequence of an electrical impulse through the heart's conduction system.

1. atrioventricular bundle

2. AV node

3. Purkinje fibers

4. SA node

5. right and left bundle branches

a. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

b. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

c. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

d. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 

which factor might increase resistance to the flow of blood through the blood vessels?

a. an increased inner radius of diameter of blood vessels

b. decreased numbers of capillaries

c. decreased blood viscosity

d. decreased numbers of red blood cells 

depolarization of cardiac muscle cells occurs because of:

a. the cell's interior becoming more negatively charged

b. the cell's interior becoming less negatively charged

c. impermeability of the cell membrane to sodium

d. impermeability of the cell membrane to potassium 

which statement is true?

a. lymphatic walls consist of multiple layers of flattened endothelial cells

b. lymph from the entire body, except for the upper right quadrant, eventually drains into the thoracic duct

c. the thoracic duct has approximately the same diameter as teh great veins

d. lymph contains more proteins than does blood plasma

e. the lymphatic system, like the circulatory system, is a closed circuit 

arteriosclerosis raises the systolic blood pressure by:

a. increasing atrterial distensibility and vessel lumen radius or diameter

b. increasing arterial distensibility and decreasing vessel lumen radius or diameter

c. decreasing arterial distensibility and increasing vessel lumen radius or diameter

d. decreasing arterial distensibility and lumen diameter

e. none of the above 

events in the development of atherosclerotic plaque include all of the following except:

a. accumulation of LDL (low-density lipoprotein)

b. smooth muscle proliferation

c. calcification

d. decreased elasticity

e. complement activation 

G.P. is a 50 year old male who was refrred for evaluation of blood pressure.  if he has a high diastolic blood pressure, which reading belongs to G.P.?

a. 140/82

b. 160/72

c. 130/95

d. 95/68

e. 140/72 

the complicatons of uncontrolled hypertension include all fo the following except:

a. cerebrovascular accidents

b. anemia

c. renal injury

d. cardiac hypertrophy

e. all of the above 

primary hypertension:

a. is essentially idiopathic

b. can be caused by renal disease

c. can be caused by hormone imbalance

d. results from arterial coarctation

e. b, c, and d 

orthostatic hypotension is caused by all of the following except:

a. increased age

b. increased blood volume

c. autonomic nervous system dysfunction

d. bed rest

e. severe vericose veins 

localized outpouching of a vessel wall or heart chamber is a/an:

a. thrombus

b. embolus

c. thromboembolus

d. aneurysm

e. vegetation 

which is a possible cause of varicose veins?

a. gravitational forces on blood

b. long periods of standing

c. trauma to the saphenous veins

d. both b and c

e. a, b, and c 

a 76 year old male came to the emergency room after experiencing chest pain while shoveling snow.  laboratory tests revealed essentially normal blood levels of  SGOT or AST, CPK, and LDH enzymes.  the chest pain was relieved following rest and nitroglycerin therapy.  the most probable diagonosis is:

a. myocardial infarction

b. emphysema

c. angina pectoris

d. hepatic cirrhosis

e. acute pancratitis 

complications of an infarcted mhocardium likely could include which of the following?  (more than 1 answer may be correct)

a. emphysema

b. heart failure

c. endocarditits

d. death

e. systemic thromboembolism 

b. heart failure

d. death

e. systemic thromboembolism

in pericardial effusion:

a. fibrotic lesions obliterate the pericardial cavity

b. there is associated rheumatoid arthritis

c. tamponade compresses the right heart before affecting other structures

d. arterial blood pressure during expiration exceeds that during inspiration

e. both c and d 

chamber volume increase is observed in ____ cardiomyopathy.

a. dilated

b. hypertrophic

c. restrictive

d. both a and b

e. a, b, and c 

match the valvular dysfunction with its characteristic

aortic stenosis

a. right ventricular hypetrophy

b. left ventricular hypetrophy

c. right atrial hypertrophy

d. left atrial hypertrophy

e. left atrial/right ventricular hypetrophy

f.  right and left ventricular/left atrial hypertrophy

g. hypertrophy of all chambers 

match the valvular dysfunction with its characteristic

tricuspid regurgitation

a. right ventricular hypetrophy

b. left ventricular hypetrophy

c. right atrial hypertrophy

d. left atrial hypertrophy

e. left atrial/right ventricular hypetrophy

f.  right and left ventricular/left atrial hypertrophy

g. hypertrophy of all chambers

match the valvular dysfunction with its characteristic

mitral stenosis

a. right ventricular hypetrophy

b. left ventricular hypetrophy

c. right atrial hypertrophy

d. left atrial hypertrophy

e. left atrial/right ventricular hypetrophy

f.  right and left ventricular/left atrial hypertrophy

g. hypertrophy of all chambers

match the valvular dysfunction with its characteristic

a. right ventricular hypetrophy

b. left ventricular hypetrophy

c. right atrial hypertrophy

d. left atrial hypertrophy

e. left atrial/right ventricular hypetrophy

f.  right and left ventricular/left atrial hypertrophy

g. hypertrophy of all chambers

which statement is true regarding rheumatic heart disease?  (more than 1 may be correct)

a. it is caused by staphylococcal infections

b. it is caused by hypersensitivity/immunity to streptococci

c. it damages the tricuspid valve most often

d. it usually damages a mitral valve 

b. it is caused by hypersensitivity/immunity to streptococci

d. it usually damages a mitral valve

which is not an expected finding in acute rheumatic fever?

a. elevated ESR (erythrocye sedimentation rate)

b. elevated ASO titer (antistreptolysin O)

c. leukopenia

d. fever 

baterial (or infective) endocarditis differs from rheumatic heart disease because of which of the following?  (more than 1 may be correct)

a. bacterial endocarditis is an infection of the heart, endocardium, and valves

b. it always follows rheumatic fever

c. it may occur following dental or bladder catheterization procedures

d. it commonly involves the vena cava valve

e. it is caused by a type III hypersensitivity 

a. bacterial endocarditis is an infection of the heart, endocardium, and valves

c. it may occur following dental or bladder catheterization procedures

individuals with only left hear failure would exhibit which of the following?  (more than 1 may be correct)

a. hepatomegaly

b. dyspnea 

c. ankle swelling

d. pulmonary edema

e. peripheral edema 

b. dyspnea

 d. pulmonary edema

in congestive heart failure, the pump or myocardium itself fails because of which of the following? (more than 1 may be correct)

a. loss of contractile force of the heart

b. hypertension

c. cardiac dysrhythmias

d. intermittent claudication from occlusive vascular disease 

a. loss of contractile force of the heart

b. hypertension

c. cardiac dysrhythmias

shock is a complex pathophysiologic process involving all of the following except:

a. decreased blood perfusion to kidneys

b. acidosis

c. rapid heart rate

d. hypertension

e. anaerobic glycolysis 

systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) begins with an infection that progresses to:

a. bacteremia

b. sepsis

c. septic shock

d. multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)

e. all of the above 

which statement is incorrect concerning hypertension?

a. malignant hypertension is characterized by a diastolic pressure of over 140 mm Hg

b. more than 90% of cases are of the essential or primary type

c. headache is the most reliable symptom

d. when left untreated, the major risks include CVAs and cardiac hypertrophy. 

a 53 year old male was admitted to the emergency room after experiencing shortness of breath, weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and chest pain that did not subside after nitroglycerin therapy.  Laboratroy test revealed the patient had an elevated serum CPK and SGOT or AST level.  EKG tracings revealed a prominent Q wave and an elevated ST segment.  the most probable diagnosis is:

a. a transient ischemic attack

b. an acute myocardial infarct

c. an attack of unstable angina pectoris

d. Prinzmetal angina

e. coronary artery vasospasm  

true or false

shunts are usually independent of systemic or pulmonary pressures and are due solely to heart defects 

true or false

a patent ductus arteriosus or VSD is sometimes helpful when it is associated with other cardiac defects 

true or false

VSDs always require surgical closure 

true or false

in ASDs or VSDs, murmurs indicate defects 

true or false

cyanosis is not a major finding in transportation of the great vessels, because the blood is free to travel normally to the lungs 

match the description with the alteration

associated with dyspnea when feeding

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure 

match the description with the alteration

likely associated with an infectious etiology and an autoimmune response

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

match the description with the alteration

vasculitis associated with aneurysm

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

match the description with the alteration

if mild, often self-correcting

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

match the description with the alteration

"blue spells"

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

match the description with the alteration

ASD, overriding aorta, pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

match the description with the alteration

common complication of cogenital heart defects

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

match the description with the alteration

immediate cyanosis and distress after birth

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

match the description with the alteration

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

match the description with the alteration

a. Kawasaki disease

b. VSD

c. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tranposition of the great vessels

e. left heart failure

the muscularis of the GI tract is:

a. skeletal muscle throughout the tract, particularly in the esophagus and lrg. intestine

b. the layer that contains the blood capillaries for the entire wall of the tract

c. composed principally of keratinized epithelium

d. composed of circular fibers and longitudinal fibers 

the digestive functions performed by the saliva and salivary amylse, respectively, are:

a. moistening and protein digestion

b. deglutition and fat digestion

c. peristalsis and polysaccharide digestion

d. lubrication and carbohydrate digestion 

the nervous pathway involved in salivary secretion requires stimulation of:

a. receptors in the taste buds and somatic motor impulses to salivary glands

b. receptors in the mouth, sensory impulses, and parasympathetic impulses to salivary glands

c. taste receptors, sensory impulses, and somatic motor impulses to salivary glands

d. pressoreceptors in blood vessels and antonomic impulses to salivary glands 

food would pass rapidly from the stomach into the duodenum if it were not for the:

a. fundus

b. epiglottis

c. rugae

d. cardiac sphincter

e. pyloric shpincter 

the secretion of gastric juice:

a. occurs only when swallowed food comes in contact with the stomach

b. is entirely under the control of the hormone gastrin

c. is entirely under the control of the hormone enterogastrone

d. is stimulated by the presence of saliva in the stomach

e. occurs in three phases: cephalic, gastric, and intestinal 

during nervous control of gastric secretion, the gastric glands secrete before food enters the stomach.  This stimulus to the glands comes from:

a. gastrin

b. impulses over somatic nerves from the hypothalamus

c. motor impulses from the cerebral cortex and cerebellum

d. parasympathetic impulses over the vagus nerve 

pepsinogen:

a. must be activated by HCL

b. is secreted by the chief cells

c. is a precursor to pepsin

d. all of the above 

beginning at the lumen of the tube, the sequence of layers of the GI tract is:

a. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

b. submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis

c. submucosa, mucosa, muscularis, skeletal muscle

d. serosa, muscularis, mucosa, submucosa 

normally, when chyme leaves the stomach:

a. the nutrients are ready for absorption into the blood

b. the amount of inorganic salts have ben increased by the action of hydrochloric acid

c. its pH is neutral

d. the proteins have been partly digested into polypeptides

e. all of the above 

which layer of the sm. intestine includes microvilli?

a. submucosa

b. mucosa

c. muscularis

d. serosa 

which is not an example of mechanical digestion?

a. chewing

b. churning and mixing of food in the stomach

c. peristalsis and mastication

d. conversion of protein molecules into amino acids 

pancreatic juice is to trypsin as gastric juice is to:

a. salivary amylase

b. pepsin

c. mucin

d. intrinsic factor 

which part of the sm. intestine is most distal from the pylorus?

a. jejunum

b. pyloric sphincter

c. duodenum

d. cardiac sphincter

e. common bile duct 

the pancreas:

a. lies mostly on the left side of the abdominal cavity, anterior to the stomach and the spleen 

b. secretes all of its products directly into the bloodstream

c. is a gland with its duct ultimately opening into the duodenum

d. contains cells with endocrine function for the determination of secondary sex characteristics

e. is classified as a digestive exocrine gland, not having endocrine functions 

the chief role played by the pancreas in digestion is to:

a. secrete insulin and glucagon

b. churn the food and bring it into contact with digestive enzymes

c. secrete enzymes, which digest food in the sm. intestine

d. assist in absorbing the digested foods

among the stuctural features of the sm. intestine are villi, microvilli, and circular folds.  their function is to:

a. liberate hormones

b. promote peristalsis

c. liberate digestive enzymes

d. increase the surface area for absorption 

the fate of carbohydrates in the sm. intestine is:

a. digestion to monosaccharides

b. conversion to simple sugars by the activity of trypsin

c. hydrolysis to amino acids

d. conversion to glycerol and fatty acids

the absorptive fate of the end products of digestion may be summarized as:

a. most fatty acids are absorbed into the blood; glucose and amino acids are absorbed into the lymphatic system

b. amino acids and monosaccharides are absorbed into blood capillaries; most fatty acids are absorbed into lymph

c. amino acids and fatty acids are absorbed into the lymph capillaries; glycerol and glucose are absorbed into the blood capillaries

d. fatty acids are absorbed into blood capillaries; glycerol, glucose, and amino acids are absorbed into lymph 

a lobule of the liver contains a centally located:

a. vein with radiating hepatocytes and sinuoids

b. arteriole with radiating capillaries and Kupffer cells

c. hepatic sinus with radiating sinusoids

d. hepatic duct with radiating Kupffer cells and cords of hepatic cells 

an obstruction of the common bile duct would cause blockage of bile coming from:

a. the gallbladder

b. the liver but not from the gallbladder 

c. both the liver and the gallbladder

d. the pancreatic duct but not from the gallbladder 

the human adult liver does not:

a. store glycogen

b. produce erythrocytes

c. convert ammonia to urea

d. produce blood coagulation proteins 

the chyme that enters the lrg. intestine is converted to feces by activity of:

a. specific mucosal enzymes

b. gastric and duodenal hormones

c. bacteria and water reabsorption 

d. the microvilli, villi, and circular muscles 

match the substance/structure with its function:

splanchnic organs

a. stimulates gallbladder to eject bile

b. activates pepsinogen

c. trap bacteria

d. increases GI mobility

e. act as blood reservoir for heart and lungs

f. stimulates liver to secrete bile 

match the substance/structure with its function:

Kupffer cells

a. stimulates gallbladder to eject bile

b. activates pepsinogen

c. trap bacteria

d. increases GI mobility

e. act as blood reservoir for heart and lungs

f. stimulates liver to secrete bile

match the substance/structure with its function:

cholecystokinin

a. stimulates gallbladder to eject bile

b. activates pepsinogen

c. trap bacteria

d. increases GI mobility

e. act as blood reservoir for heart and lungs

f. stimulates liver to secrete bile

during vomiting, there is:

a. forceful diaphragm and abdominal muscle contractions, airway closure, esophageal sphincter relasation, and deep inspiration

b. deep inspiration, airway closure, forceful diaphragm and abdominal muscle contractions, and esophageal sphincter relaxation

c. airway closure, forceful diaphragm and abdominal muscle contactions, deep inspiration, and esophageal sphincter relaxation

d. esophageal sphincter relaxation, forceful diaphragm and abdominal muscle contractions, deep inspiration, and airway closure 

which does not cause constipation?

a. opiates

b. megacolon

c. sedentary lifestyle

d. hyperthyroidism

e. emotional depression 

osmotic diarrhea is caused by:

a. lactase deficiency

b. bacterial enterotoxins

c. ulcerative colitis

d. crohn disease

e. both c and d 

melena is:

a. bloody vomitus

b. gaseous bowel distension

c. blood in the stool

d. loss of appetite

e. black, tarry stools 

a common manifestation of hiatal hernia is:

a. gastroesophageal reflux

b. diarrhea

c. belching

d. postprandial substernal pain

e. both a and d 

gastroesophageal reflux is:

a. caused by rapid gastric emptying

b. excessive lower esophageal sphincter functioning

c. associated with abdominal surgery

d. caused by spontaneously relaxing lower esophageal sphincter 

intestinal obstruction causes:

a. decreased intraluminal tension

b. hyperkalemia

c. decreased nutrient absorption

d. a and b

e. a, b, and c 

gastric ulcers:

a. may lead to malignancy

b. occur at a younger age than duodenal ulcers

c. always have increased acid production

d. exhibit nocturnal pain

e. a and c 

duodenal ulcers:

a. occur four times more often in females than in males

b. may be complicated by hemorrhage

c. are associated with sepsis

d. may cause inflammation and scar tissue formation around the sphincter of Oddi 

in malabsorption syndrome, flatulence and abdominal distension are likely caused by:

a. a protein deficiency and electrolyte imbalance

b. undigested lactose fermentation by bacteria

c. fat irritating the bowel

d. impaired absortion of amino acids and accompanying edema 

the characteristic lesion of crohn disease is

a. found in the ileum

b. precancerous

c. granulamatous

d. malignant

e. a and c 

low-residue diets and chronic constipation play a role in the pathogenesis of:

a. appendicitis

b. diverticulitis

c. ulcerative colitis

d. crohn disease

e. cholecystitis 

a 14 y.o. male has been admitted to the emergency room suffering with acute-onset abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. Abdominal rebound tenderness is intense, and he has a fever and leukocytosis.  This individual most likely is suffering from:

a. acute appendicitis

b. diverticulitis

c. ulcerative colitis

d. cholelithiasis

e. cholecystitis 

adult-onset obesity usually is:

a. both hyperplastic and hypertrophic

b. dispersed over the entire body

c. hypertrophic

d. unrelated to genotype

e. none of the above 

short term starvation involves:

a. glycogenolysis

b. gluconeogenesis

c. proteolysis

d. a and b

e. a, b, and c 

the most common manifestation of portal hypertension is:

a. rectal bleeding

b. cirrhosis

c. intestinal bleeding

d. duodenal bleeding

e. vomiting of blood from esophageal bleeding 

hepatic encephalopathy is manifested by:

a. ascites

b. splenomegaly

c. dark urine

d. oliguria

e. cerebral dysfunction 

which would be consistent with a diagnosis of viral hepatitis? more than one answer may be correct

a. elevated AST serum enzymes

b. decreased serum albumin levels

c. prolonged coagulation times

d. increased serum bilirubin levels

e. decreased  ALT serum enzymes

a. elevated AST serum enzymes

b. decreased serum albumin levels

c. prolonged coagulation times

d. increased serum bilirubin levels

which viral hepatitis is not associated with a chronic state or a carrier state?

a. Hep  A

b. hep B

c. Hep C

d. serum hep

e. Hep D 

which type of jaundice is due to increased destruction of erythrocytes?

a. obstructive

b. hemolytic

c. hepatocellular

d. b and c 

which most often causes biliary cirrhosis?

a. malnutrition

b. alcoholism

c. hep a or c

d. autoimmunity

e. biliary obstruction 

symptoms of cholelithiasis include all of the following except:

a. nausea and vomiting

b. right upper quadrant tenderness

c. jaundice

d. decreased serum bilirubin levels

e. abdominal distress 

in pancreatitis:

a. the tissue damage likely results from release of pancratic enzymes

b. high cholesterol intake is causative

c. diabetes is uncommon in chronic pancratitis

d. bacterial infection is the etiological cause 

predisposing factors in the development of colon cancer include all of the following except:

a. familial polyposis

b. ulcerative colitis

c. low-fiber/high-fat diet

d. high refined CHO diet 

true/false

pyloric stenosis is caused by the prolapse of gastric tissue into the pylorus and results in edema and obstruction 

true/false

tracheoesophageal fistula is often associated with esophageal atresia 

true/false

poor weight gain associated with gastroesophageal reflux may be ignored because it is a self-limiting disorder 

true/false

intussusception involves a blind pouch in the esophagus 

true/false

kernicterus is present in physiologic jaundice of the newborn 

true/false 

increased gastrin secretion in pregnant women may contribute to pyloric stenosis in their infants

true/false

diabetes mellitus may be a complication of cystic fibrosis 

true/false

the pharmacologic approach to gastoesophageal reflux includeds pancreatic enzyme replacement 

true/false

congenital aganglionic megacolon is the result of faulty innervation of the colon 

true/false

the pahrmacologic approach to cystic fibrosis includes the administration of medications that increase lower GI motility in an effort to aid passage of lrg, bulky stools 

true/false

rectal manometry is useful in the diagnosis of aganglionic megacolon 

match the description with the alteration

involves the rectal segment of the sigmoid colon

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia 

match the description with the alteration

acute onset of abdominal pain and distention

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia

match the description with the alteration

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia

match the description with the alteration

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia

match the description with the alteration

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia

match the description with the alteration

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia

match the description with the alteration

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia

match the description with the alteration

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia

match the description with the alteration

enema may be treatment

a. congenital aganglionic maegacolon

b. tracheoesophageal fistula

c. intussusception

d. gastroesophageal reflux

e. esophageal atresia