Term
| Cardiac cath: pre-op nursing |
|
Definition
- consent form
- assess dye allergies
- uncomfortable, not painful
- NPO 6 hrs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- encourage fluids
- ambulate ASAP
- pressure to insertion site
- monitor for hemmorhage
- don't flex affected side |
|
|
Term
| Peritoneal dialysis: pre-procedure nursing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| peritoneal dialysis: post-procedure nursing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Peritoneal dialysis: concerns |
|
Definition
- infection
- hyperglycemia (if dwell time extended) |
|
|
Term
| Peritoneal dialysis v hemodialysis: complications |
|
Definition
Peritoneal: risk of infection
Hemo: clotting, hypotension, occlusion, ischemia |
|
|
Term
| Hypothyroidism: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
daily weights
restrict salt
monitor metabolic rate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Avoid heavy machinery until symptoms resolve
regular blood tests |
|
|
Term
| Hypothyroidism: what food to increase |
|
Definition
fiber
fruits/vegetables
shellfish (sourc of iodine) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- weight gain
- cold intolerance
- lethargy
- dry skin/hair |
|
|
Term
| PMS: how to reduce effects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| epinephrine and norepinephrin |
|
|
Term
| least tissue-damaging type of mastectomy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| external radiation: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
| properly dispose wastes (radioactive) |
|
|
Term
| organ responsible for fluid/electrolyte balance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chest drainage - collection tube: indication of normal function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| chest drainage: water seal chamber - indication of normal function |
|
Definition
| water level fluctuates with each breath |
|
|
Term
| Chest drainage: suction control chamber - indication of normal function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A nurse is assigned to care for a client with an ectopic pregnancy. Which possibility of ectopic pregnancy should the nurse be aware of?
A) Endangers the life of the mother
B) Increases the risk of bleeding during pregnancy
C) Increases the size of the uterus by about 16 times
D) Increases the capacity of the uterus to 5,000 mL |
|
Definition
| A) Endangers the life of the mother |
|
|
Term
A nurse is counseling an elderly female client who has developed hair growth on her upper lip. What should the nurse suggest to the client?
A) Physical examination
B) Moisturizer
C) Hair removal methods
D) Greater calcium intake |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A physician has prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old female client. What will be the effect of HRT for this client?
A) Shorten the duration of the menstrual cycle
B) Increase in FSH levels
C) Lessen menopausal symptoms
D) Decrease in risk of heart disease |
|
Definition
| C) Lessen menopausal symptoms |
|
|
Term
| After entering the vagina, sperm can live for a maximum of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Almond-shaped female gonads |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At puberty, these hormones lead to female breast enlargement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Breast cancer: risk factors |
|
Definition
- history of other cancer
- no children before age 30
- did not breastfeed children
- family history of breast cancer
- strong history of any cancer
- on estrogen treatment
- extreme fear of cancer (done for reassurance) |
|
|
Term
| Broad, central portion of the uterus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Follicular phase is during which days of the ovarian cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From where are FSH and LH secreted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give all the names in order given to the female sex cell. |
|
Definition
- oogonia
- oocyte
- graafian follicle
- ovum
(the following refer to stages after fertilization and might not be considered names of the female sex cell)
- zygote
- embryo |
|
|
Term
| How long can a sperm survive in the female body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube the pregnancy is described as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Implantation of the embryo occurs within this organ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what phase does the fertilized ovum become a fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- perimetrium
- myometrium
- endometrium |
|
|
Term
| Most difinitive test for breast cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On what organ is the corpus luteum found |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Procedure that provides direct visualization of the uterus/accessory organ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The broad ligament supports the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cervix is part of this organ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fundus forms the upper part of this structure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The myometrium and the endometrium are layers of this structure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The physical and emotional pleasurable sensation that occurs at climax of sexual intercourse in the male is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The placenta imbeds itself in this organ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This hormone promotes the maturation of the egg and helps develop the female characteristics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is a skin-covered muscular region located between the vaginal orifice and the anus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This uterine lining is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What activity stimulates post-partum contractions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the midcycle event stimulated by a surge of LH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the implication of decreased ovarian function?
A) Prone to fractures
B) Increased risk of heart disease
C) Changes in sexual response
D) Inability to become pregnant |
|
Definition
D) Inability to become pregnant |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary secretion of the corpus lutem? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the target of FSH and LH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What occurs around the same time as menarch?
A) Irritability and insomnia
B) Hot flashes
C) Breast development
D) Urinary incontinence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What physical condition associated with estrogen loss should women be aware of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a boy reaches puberty, the hypothalamus stimulates secretion of
A) ICSH and FSH
B) FSH and LH
C) FSH and testosterone
D) LH and ICSH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which genital area plays the greatest role in femal orgasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hormones lead to breast enlargement? |
|
Definition
| Estrogen and progesterone |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a "guy thing"?
A) ovulation
B) emission
C) implantation
D) midcycle surge of LH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is most apt to cause sterility in the female?
A) benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) cystitis
C) repeated bouts of gonorrhea
D) torn hymen |
|
Definition
| C) repeated bouts of gonorrhea |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary?
A) corpus luteum
B) graafian follicle
C) fertilized ovum
D) corpus albicans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is referred to as external genitals?
A) gonads
B) Vulva
C) Oviducts
D) Perineum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the cervix, fundus and body?
A) contents of the scrotum
B) parts of the ovary
C) secrete estrogen and progesterone
D) parts of the uterus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the ovaries and the testes?
A) secrete gonadotropins
B) located in the pelvic cavity
C) called gamees
D) called gonads |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the oviduct or fallopian tube?
A) located between the cervix and the vagina
B) site of fertilization
C) an anatomical extension of the ovary
D) connects the fundus with the cervix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the ova and sperm?
A) called gonads
B) incapable of meiosis
C) called gametes
D) require androgens for maturation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which structure is the primary secretor of estrogen and progesterone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which structure secretes the gonadoropins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a woman apt to develop a vaginal yeast infection after taking antibiotics for an infection? |
|
Definition
| antibiotics alter the normal flora of the vagina |
|
|
Term
| An ovum can live for a maximum of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is true about vasectomy?
A) Vas deferens are ligated and cut
B) Involves surgical incision of epididymis
C) Involves surgical incision of seminal vesicle
D) Client will not be able to ejaculate afterwards |
|
Definition
| A) Vas deferens are ligated and cut |
|
|
Term
| Where do sperm cells mature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Male puberty occurs during approximately which age range?
A) 8-12
B) 12-16
C) 15-19
D) 18-22 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The testes decend into the scrotum by way of the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Surgical removal of the forskin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pubescent boys may experience penile erection and spontaneous ejaculation of semen during sleep. This is known as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Semen normally contains how many sperm per mL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sperm survive better and have more motility in a medium that has a pH of
A) 3.7
B) 5.9
C) 7.0
D) 8.2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mature sperm contains how many chromosomes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ejaculatory fluid contains
A) Semen
B) Alkaline secretions
C) Mucus
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the scrotum protect the testes? |
|
Definition
| Keeps the temperature of the testes less than the rest of the body. This prevents decreased sperm production. |
|
|
Term
All of the following changes in the pubescent male can occur with secretion of testosterone except
A) Protein anabolism
B) Decreased muscle mass
C) Deepening of the voice
D) Axillary and pubic hair growth
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are expected components of semen except:
A) sperm
B) nutrients
C) citric acid
D) coagulation proteins
E) prostaglandins
F) Bulbourethral mucous
G) None of the above: all are present in semen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which vaginal pH is most viable for sperm?
A) 3.7
B) 6.9
C) 7
D) 8.5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Number of chromosomes in a zygote |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a result of declining testosterone levels?
A) lower sperm production
B) lower muscle mass
C) lower libido
D) None: all are affected |
|
Definition
B
muscle mass is NOT diminished by lowered testosterone levels |
|
|
Term
| Intermittent bladder irrigation: purpose |
|
Definition
| Washes out clots that plug the catheter. |
|
|
Term
| contains the loops of Henle and the collecting tubules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the glomerulus is partially enclosed in a funnel-shaped structure called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates the stem cells in red bone marrow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| triangular area on the floor of the bladder that does not expand |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| specific gravity of normal urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The blood vessels, nerves, and ureters enter the kidney through the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What blood vessels are found between the afferent and efferent arterioles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is correct?
A) One kidney
B) One ureter
C) Two urinary bladders
D) One urethra |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Natriuresis refers to the renal excretion of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
A) causes polyuria
B) causes albuminuria
C) elevates blood pressure
D) causes hematuria |
|
Definition
| C) elevates blood pressure |
|
|
Term
Which of the following should not be in the filtrate within Bowman's capsule?
A) albumin
B) sodium
C) potassium
D) water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not true of ADH?
A) secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
B) secreted in response to low blood volume and a concentrated plasma (as in dehydration)
C) causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water
D) a deficiency causes diabetes insipidus |
|
Definition
| C) causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water |
|
|
Term
| This substance is filtered by the glomerulus and is excreted in the urine; there is minimal reabsorption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following occurs at the distal convoluted tubule?
A) 180 L of water is filtered into the tubules
B) renin is secreted
C) urine flows from the distal convoluted tubule into the ascending loop of Henle
D) sodium and water are reabsorbed |
|
Definition
| D) sodium and water are reabsorbed |
|
|
Term
Which condition is characterized by hematuria and pyuria?
A) renal failure
B) diuresis
C) retention
D) cycstitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the three classifications of UTIs |
|
Definition
- Urethritis - urethra
- Cystitis - bladder
- Pyelonephritis - kidney
|
|
|
Term
| Urethritis: common causes (4) |
|
Definition
- Chemical irritant
- Bacterial infection
- Trauma
- STD
|
|
|
Term
| Urethritis: STDs that usually cause the disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urethritis: typical meds used |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A client with urethritis is on Peridium. She calls the clinic, complaining that her urine appears to be bloody. The nurse should
A) advise the client to see her doctor immediately
B) advise the client to discontinue medication
C) ask the client to come in for testing
D) assure the client that the discoloration is normal |
|
Definition
| D) assure the client that the discoloration is normal. |
|
|
Term
A client is prescribed Peridium for urethritis. She asks how long it will take for the medication to rid her system of the infection. The nurse should tell the client,
A) "It will take about 5-7 days."
B) "It will take about 2-3 weeks."
C) "Just take the medication until it is all gone."
D) "This medication does not treat the disease." |
|
Definition
D) "This medication does not treat the disease."
It's an analgesic. It only relieves the pain. |
|
|
Term
| Urethritis: common symptoms |
|
Definition
- Frequency
- Urgency
- Dysuria
|
|
|
Term
| Non-specific urethritis: complication |
|
Definition
Females tend to be asymptomatic, which leads to inadvertently re-infecting their male sex partners.
|
|
|
Term
| Trichomonas: complication |
|
Definition
Males tend to be asymptomatic, which leads to inadvertently re-infecting their female sex partners.
|
|
|
Term
| Gram negative diplococcus is indicative of what disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cystitis: #1 bacterial cause |
|
Definition
E. choli
accounts for 90% of cystitis cases |
|
|
Term
| Cystitis: highest risk factor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cystitis: common symptoms |
|
Definition
- Frequency
- Urgency
- Dysuria
- Turbidity
|
|
|
Term
| Cystitis: diagnostics (4) |
|
Definition
U/A:
- Turbid appearance
- Presence of
|
|
|
Term
| Uncomplicated Cystitis: common meds |
|
Definition
| Sulfameds (ie Bactrum and Septra) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Can cause stones
- Reduces effectiveness of birth control pill
|
|
|
Term
| Complicated cystitis: common med |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complicated cystitis: common cause |
|
Definition
Failure to complete therapy.
leaves surviving bacteria that become resistant to sulfameds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pyelonephritis: structures commonly affected |
|
Definition
- Renal pelvis
- Renal tubules
- Interstitial tubules
|
|
|
Term
| Acute pyelonephritis: common origin |
|
Definition
| Renal medulla, spreading to adjacent cortex |
|
|
Term
| Which UTI is more serious and why? |
|
Definition
| Pyelonephritis. Larger blood supply, therefore larger risk of transmission into blood. |
|
|
Term
| Pyelonephritis: Major complication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Chronic renal failure
- Kidney damage
- Sepsis
- Bacterial invasion (E. choli)
|
|
|
Term
| UTIs: predisposing factors (10) |
|
Definition
- Residual urine in bladder
- Intercourse (females)
- Contamination of perineal area
- Incontinence
- Instrumental invasion
- Previous infections
- Short urethra (females)
- Nonspecific urethritis (males)
- Bladder reflux
- Neurogenic bladder
|
|
|
Term
| Which UTI are women at high risk for RE-infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does "standing" urine in the bladder lead to bladder damage? |
|
Definition
| Standing urine distends bladder, decreasing blood supply to bladder walls |
|
|
Term
| What is the simplest thing people can do to reduce the risk of acquiring a UTI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sexual activity can lead to "honeymoon cystitis." How? |
|
Definition
| Trauma to the female bladder, causing irritation and tearing of bladder lining. |
|
|
Term
| Inability to control urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Going all the time, but no increase in total daily volume |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Feeling like you gotta go all the time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why might UTIs among the elderly be missed? |
|
Definition
| The only symptom might be fatigue |
|
|
Term
| "Incubation period" for UTI caused by catheter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why might the eldery be more likely to contract a UTI? |
|
Definition
| Diminished immune response |
|
|
Term
| Inability to control urination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition to report on client on prolonged nephrotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Test for renal arterial supply |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of UTIs |
|
Definition
| Foley catheters in hospital |
|
|
Term
| Nursing goals to reduce risk of UTI |
|
Definition
Keep area clean and dry
Keep open to air
|
|
|
Term
| Triggered by coughing, sneezing, laughing, or other physical exertion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Conditions that increase risk of stress incontinence in men |
|
Definition
- prostatectomy
- radiation |
|
|
Term
| Condition that increases risk of stress incontinence in women |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nursing to reduce stress incontinence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Involuntary urine loss associated with strong desire to void |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common type of incontinence among elderly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nursing instruction regarding urge incontinence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type of incontinence associated with bladder distention |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of overflow incontinence |
|
Definition
Spinal chord injuries
Prostate enlargement |
|
|
Term
| A client wets himself because he's handcuffed to the bed. What's this called? |
|
Definition
Functional incontinence
(not to mention, cruel and unusual) |
|
|
Term
| May be caused by ureter malformation, surgery, or trauma. patient is usually neurologically impaired |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often is a condom catheter changed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cystitis prevention for females |
|
Definition
- no bubble baths
- use cotton underwear
- void regularly
- void after sex |
|
|
Term
| Nursing care after cystoscopy |
|
Definition
- warm compress
- sitz bath |
|
|
Term
| Two ways to get residual urine measurement |
|
Definition
- Straight catheterization immediately after client voids
- Ultrasound immediately after client voids
|
|
|
Term
| Fluid within the layers of the bladder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is interstitial cystitis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Painless hematuria
- Frank blood
- Bladder irritability
- Bladder retention
- Metastatic pains
|
|
|
Term
| What is the follow-up procedure after fulguration? |
|
Definition
| Cystoscopy, 3 months after fulguration |
|
|
Term
| What makes caring for a urinary ostomy different from caring for a colostomy? |
|
Definition
| DON'T irrigate a urinary ostomy. |
|
|
Term
| What can be done to reduce the smell of urinary devices |
|
Definition
| Put vinegar in the collection bag |
|
|
Term
| How much fluid should women take daily to prevent UTIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Define:
Normal output
Oliguria
Anuria
Polyuria
|
|
Definition
Normal: 1-2 L/dy
Oliguria: <400 ml/dy
Anuria: <50 ml/dy
Polyuria: >2500 ml/dy |
|
|
Term
| What is in the urine of a client with pyelonephritis that is NOT in the urine of clients with other UTIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patint teaching regarding UTIs |
|
Definition
- Drink lots of water
- Wipe from front to back
- Void every 3 hrs
- cranberry juice
- no bubble baths
- cotton underwear
- complete antibiotic therapies |
|
|
Term
| Appearance of normal urine from ileal conduit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the difference between a Kock pouch and an Indiana pouch? |
|
Definition
| Indiana pouch is bigger. Made from ascending colon and terminal ilium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dairy products
Sardines
Broccoli
Green leafy veggies |
|
|
Term
| How to tell pyelonephritis from cystitis (symptoms) |
|
Definition
- Client feels "sicker" than with cystitis
- CostoVertebral Angle Tenderness |
|
|
Term
| Complication of Pyelonephritis |
|
Definition
| Repeated infections may scar tissue, leading to kidney failure |
|
|
Term
| Signs of urosepsis among the elderly: early vs late |
|
Definition
Early sign: may only be fatigue
Late sign: LOC change |
|
|
Term
| Mandelamine: nursing notes |
|
Definition
- Cannot be used with sulfa drugs
- Can be used prophylactically
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Works well in alkaline urine |
|
|
Term
| What is more powerful than Bactrum or Sepra? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pyelonephritis: common drug treatments |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pyelonephritis: potent medication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| urine may be orange-red colored |
|
|
Term
| Urethral strictures: causes |
|
Definition
- kinks
- tumors
- childhood undergrowth
- prostate problems |
|
|
Term
| Urethral strictures: complications |
|
Definition
- increased risk of UTI
- diminished urine stream
- Hydronephrosis |
|
|
Term
| Urethral stricture: treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Procedures to treat urethral stricure |
|
Definition
- Urethroplasty
- Catheterization |
|
|
Term
| Backflow of urine into the kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are renal calculi typically composed of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are renal calculi formed from. Select all that apply.
A) Calcium phosphate
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Magnesium
D) Phosphorus
E) Uric acid
F) Calcium oxylate
G) Hydrochloric acid
H) Protein |
|
Definition
A) Calcium phosphate
C) Magnesium
E) Uric acid
F) Calcium oxylate
H) Protein |
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: dietary advice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: Risk factors |
|
Definition
- Dehydration
- Family history
- High-calcium diets
- Immobility |
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: classic signs |
|
Definition
- Sudden, severe flank pain
- Renal colic
- Fever |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Costal Vertebral Angle tenderness: flank pain below the ribs, radiating to the ilium. |
|
|
Term
| IVP: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
- informed consent
- NPO 8 hrs pre
- laxative pre
- allergies to iodine
- epinephrine handy
- teach about salty taste
- increase fluids post
|
|
|
Term
| KUB: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
- Treat pain to prevent shock
- strain urine
- Calcium restrictions
- Low-oxylate diet
|
|
|
Term
| Low-oxylate diet restrictions |
|
Definition
- beets
- rhubarbs
- spinach
- cocoa
- coffee
|
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: medications given |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would Demerol be given instead of morphine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would Morphine be given instead of demerol? |
|
Definition
| More can be given before nausea/vomiting occurs |
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: Procedural treatment |
|
Definition
- Chemolysis
- Lithotripsy
- Lithotomy
|
|
|
Term
| Meds used to treat calcium stones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Meds used to treat uric acid stones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: complications |
|
Definition
- shock
- sepsis
- hydroureter
- renal failure
- obstruction
- hydronephrosis |
|
|
Term
| Most common form of urinary tract cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates sperm production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates the growth and secretion of ovarian follicles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Promotes contraction of myometrium (labor) and release of milk from mammary glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases water reabsorption by kidney tubules |
|
Definition
| Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
|
|
Term
| Hormones of the Posterior pituitary gland |
|
Definition
- Oxytocin
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
|
|
Term
| Hormones of the Anterior Pituitary gland |
|
Definition
- Growth Hormone (GH)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Prolactin
- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- Luteinizing Hormone (LH) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- reabsorption of sodium and water
- excretion of potassium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regulates sleep-wake cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| System by which hormone secretions are regulated by the response they elicit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decreases reabsorption of calcium from the bones |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates the production of milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates the release of milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| increases reabsorption of sodium, thus increasing water reabsorption, resulting in increased blood volume |
|
|
Term
| What supplement is needed for normal thyroid function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thyroid stimulation test: What result indicates normal thyroid function? |
|
Definition
| Increase in T3 and T4 levels |
|
|
Term
| ____ increases glucose levels, while _____ lowers them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- radioactive material injected or taken orally
- thyroid scanned with scintillation camera
- "hot" and "cold" spots indicate nodules (Cold=bad) |
|
|
Term
| Vasopression (ADH) action |
|
Definition
| constricts blood vessels AND increases reabsorption of water |
|
|
Term
| What hormone stimulates cortisol? |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) |
|
|
Term
| Thyroid gland responsibility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormones that mimic the sympathetic nervous system |
|
Definition
| epinephrine and norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
| What hormone regulates reabsorption of sodium from the kidney? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone responsible for ova production |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormone is responsible for calcium and phosphorus levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nursing alert regarding hyperthyroidism |
|
Definition
| don't palpate the thyroid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| on either side of the uterus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Stems from curve of duodenum to spleen |
|
|
Term
| Location of adrenal glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Location of pituitary gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Other name for growth hormone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone needed to assist in kidney reabsorption of calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| condition that causes muscle twitching, spasms, and convulsions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone that stimulates the release of bile |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Converts glycogen to glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the common effect of a deficiency of ADH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease defined as hypofunction of the adrenal cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease commonly caused by hypersecretion of cortisol from the adrenal cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You tap on the patient's facial nerve in front of the ear. What are you looking for and what does it indicate? |
|
Definition
| Chvostek's sign: spasm indicates hypocalcemia |
|
|
Term
| What 2 things are needed for the thyroid to function correctly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease in childhood thyroid dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- decreased metabolism
- mental dullness
- lethargy
- dry skin
- heart failure
- edema
- hyperlipidemia |
|
|
Term
| Thyroid storm: nursing alert |
|
Definition
| Don't use aspirin to bring down fever. Use Tylenol instead |
|
|
Term
[image]
What is the rate and rhythm of each strip?
(Note: each complete strip = 6 sec) |
|
Definition
- Strip 1: 60 bpm, NSR
- Strip 2: 120bpm
sinus tachycardia
- Strip 3: 50 bpm, Sinus bradycardia |
|
|
Term
| elective procedure in which a SYNCHRONIZED shock of 25 to 50 joules is delivered to restore normal sinus rhythm |
|
Definition
| SYNCHRONIZED CARDIOVERSION |
|
|
Term
the use of electrical device to apply countershocks to the heart through electrodes placed on the chest wall to stop fibrillation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the time interval for a normal QRS complex ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| what is the length of time for a normal PR interval? |
|
|
Term
heart rhythm with no identifiable P waves, normal QRS,described as "IRREGULARLY IRREGULAR" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
SINUS rhythm, above 150 bpm |
|
Definition
| SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA (SVT) |
|
|
Term
the most unstable phase of the cardiac cycle. |
|
Definition
| during REPOLARIZATION, T-wave |
|
|
Term
therapeutic level of DIGOXIN |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pacemaker that fires ONLY when it senses BRADYCARDIA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pacemaker that stimulates a P wave and a QRS complex. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| normal CONDUCTION PATHWAY(4) |
|
Definition
| SA node, AV junction, Bundle of Hiss, Purkinje Fibers |
|
|
Term
| Normal INTRINSIC rate of SA node |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Length of a normal QRS interval |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A drug (i.e., atropine) that blocks the vagus nerve results in what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A drug (i.e., digoxin) that increases the force of myocardial contraction and is classified as a(n) _____ |
|
Definition
| positively inotropic agent |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A heart rate greater than 100 beats/min |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A heart rate less than 60 beats/min |
|
|
Term
A normal QRS interval: (select all that apply)
A) is about half the length of a normal P-R interval
B) is about 0.15 sec
C) is a positive deflection
D) remains on the isoelectric line |
|
Definition
A) is about half the length of a normal P-R interval
|
|
|
Term
A patient experiences shortness of breath. What is our first nursing intervention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A positive Homan's sign is an indication of . . . |
|
Definition
| Deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) |
|
|
Term
A structure that receives the electrical signal from the conduction tissue in the atria; it delays the entrance of the electrical signal into the His-Purkinje system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| on the interatrial septum close to the tricuspid valve. |
|
|
Term
| Amount of ventricular force needed to open valves and eject blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are electrical terms except
A) systole
B) depolarization
C) action potential
D) repolarization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Amount of blood pumped by a ventricle in one beat (2) |
|
Definition
- stroke volume
- 60-80ml |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Amount of ventricular force needed to open valves and eject blood |
|
|
Term
Another name for the mitral valve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| BP-regulating systems include the ____, _____, ______, and _____ |
|
Definition
- cardiovascular
- nervous
- urinary
- endocrine |
|
|
Term
Blood flows from the right atrium through this atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blood passes through the tricuspid valve into |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Central Venous Pressure: - determines how much fluid/hydration patient is in - determines right atrial preload |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cardiac catheterization: description (4) |
|
Definition
| - Involves angiography. - Examines vessels in the heart - uses dye to make vessels visible on x-ray - patient will be conscious and can respond |
|
|
Term
Cardiac catheterization: patient teaching
|
|
Definition
| - Inform MD if you feel burning, headache, chestpain |
|
|
Term
Cardiac catheterization: post-op nursing (6) |
|
Definition
- no flexing leg 4 hrs
- log roll to turn
- V/S
- sand bag over insertion area |
|
|
Term
Cardiac catheterization: pre-op nursing (5) |
|
Definition
| - obtain consent - NPO 8-12 hrs - explain procedure - fluoroscope - IV insertion |
|
|
Term
Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiac risk factors: modifiable (6) |
|
Definition
| - diet - weight - stress - exercise - alcohol - smoking |
|
|
Term
Cardiac risk factors: non-modifiable (5) |
|
Definition
| - age - race - gender - family history - diabetes |
|
|
Term
Cardiac tests (procedural) available (4) |
|
Definition
| - EKG - treadmill test - Thallium test - Blood gases |
|
|
Term
| Cardioversion v Defibrillation: purpose |
|
Definition
| Cardioversion corrects Atrial fibrillation D-fib corrects Ventricular fibrillation |
|
|
Term
Chamber that pumps "blue" blood to the lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chamber that pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chamber that receives blood from the venae cavae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chamber that receives oxygenated blood from four pulmonary veins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chest pain: nursing intervention |
|
Definition
- Fowler's position
- obtain order for O2 |
|
|
Term
Cholesterol: reference range
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chordae tendineae are not associated with this valve.
A) aortic
B) mitral
C) tricuspid
D) bicuspid
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Chronic oxygen deficiency
|
|
|
Term
Complete the blood flow sequence:
pulmonary capillaries
-> pulmonary veins
-> left atrium
-> left ventricle
-> ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Coronary arteries: function |
|
Definition
| carries O2 and nutrients to myocardium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Define peripheral resistance |
|
Definition
| Arteries and veins are usually in a state of slight constriction that helps maintain normal blood pressure. |
|
|
Term
Degree of stretch of ventricles before contraction (systole)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Denotes main part of ventricular contraction: Highest positive
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Drug of choice for symptomatic bradicardia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Drug of choice for treatment of asymptomatic bradycardia |
|
Definition
| NONE! Don't treat asymptomatic bradycardia |
|
|
Term
Effect of aging that results in increased BP and left ventricle hypertrophy |
|
Definition
| Increased rigidity of vessels from decreased elasticity |
|
|
Term
| Embedded in the wall of the right atrium at the junction of the SVC |
|
Definition
| sinoatrial node (SA node or sinus node) |
|
|
Term
Excess vagal stimulation to the SA node is most apt to cause
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Failure of the S-wave to return to the isoelectric line (stays in positive) indicates what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of pericardium |
|
|
Term
Friction rub: how best to find (2) |
|
Definition
| - have patient sitting, leaning forward - listen to left upper sternum |
|
|
Term
Friction rub: when best found |
|
Definition
| After Myocardial Infarction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| HDL: high-density lipids (good cholesterol) LDL: low-density lipids (bad cholesterol) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Heart rate and stroke volume determine what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Heart rythm originating in the sinoatrial node with the resting rate of 60/100 beat/minute |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
High CVP and interpretation |
|
Definition
| - over 6 - fluid overload |
|
|
Term
Holter monitor: Description (4) |
|
Definition
| - 10 cardiac leads - patient takes monitor home - monitors 1-2 days - Diary gives MD info relating patient action to heart response |
|
|
Term
Holter monitor: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
| give patient teaching - focus on diary |
|
|
Term
Holter monitor: patient teaching (4) |
|
Definition
| - take daily diary - no shower while wearing leads - press "event" button during cardiac event (palpitations, chest pain, SOB) - return box and diary when instructed |
|
|
Term
How to know if SA node is working (2) |
|
Definition
| - pulse: at least 60 - EKG: normal P-wave |
|
|
Term
How to reduce Risk for varicose vein formation |
|
Definition
| Prevent venous stasis and pressure ulcers. |
|
|
Term
Hypertension has the greatest effect on what part of the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If BP drops and O2 sat rises, what change in heart rate should we see? |
|
Definition
NONE. BP drop triggers sympathetic response (increase HR). O2 sat increase triggers parasympathetic response (decrease HR). The two would cancel each other out.
|
|
|
Term
If the AV valves, chordae tendineae, or papillary muscles become damaged, what can occur with ventricular contraction? |
|
Definition
| backflow of blood (regurgitation) into the atria |
|
|
Term
If the BP readings from each of a client's arms is different, which is used for subsequent assessments? |
|
Definition
| The arm that gave the higher reading |
|
|
Term
In what area of the body do veins have the most valves? |
|
Definition
Extremities - especially the legs, because of the need to fight against gravity
|
|
|
Term
Place where electrical tracing is at zero (neutral)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It lies in the thoracic cavity in the mediastinal space |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lab tests that indicate heart attack (4) |
|
Definition
| - triponin test - CK - CK-MB - Myoglobulin |
|
|
Term
Layers of the arteries: names, descriptions and responsibilities |
|
Definition
| 1- Intima: inner layer of endothelial cells: prevents clotting 2- Medial layer: smooth muscle: maintains BP 3-Adventitia: outer layer of fibrous connective tissue: prevents rupture |
|
|
Term
Length of a normal QRS interval |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Mediastinum between lungs - thoracic cavity |
|
|
Term
Low CVP and interpretation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name for the atrioventricular valve on the left side of the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name for the atrioventricular valve through which blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal cardiac output of resting adult |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal expectation from a client moving from lying position to sitting, or from sitting to standing (3) |
|
Definition
- systolic drop of up to 15pts
- diastolic change (up or down) of 3-10 pts
- 15-20 bpm increase in pulse
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Outer slinglike structure that supports the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium via |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
P-R interval:
What is it?
How long is it? |
|
Definition
- Time it takes the contraction signal to get from SA node to AV node
- 0.12 - 0.2 sec |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - transcutaneous - temporary - permanent |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pain in the patient’s calf or behind the knee when the foot is quickly dorsiflexed with the knee in a slightly flexed position. |
|
|
Term
Possible causes of bradycardia (3) |
|
Definition
- myocardial infarction
- electrolyte imbalance
- athleticism (that's a good thing)
|
|
|
Term
Degree of stretch of ventricles before contraction (systole)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reason heart rate takes longer to return to normal after exercise in elderly |
|
Definition
| Decreased ability of cells to absorb oxygen |
|
|
Term
Receives venous blood from Pelvis and legs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Referring to the ECG the QRS complex represents ________ |
|
Definition
| Ventricular depolarization |
|
|
Term
Referring to the ECG, the P wave represents _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regulates blood pressure and flow |
|
Definition
| Constriction and dilation of the arterioles |
|
|
Term
Right ventricular hypertrophy develops in response to stenosis of this semilunar valve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- fatigue
- fainting
- LOC changes
- chest pain
|
|
|
Term
Select all that apply: Decreased blood flow through the coronary arteries is most apt to cause
A) valve damage
B) pulmonary edema
C) angina pectoris
D) bradycardia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select all that apply: In a normal sinus rhythm, the R wave
A) is a negative wave between two positive waves
B) is on of three consecutive positive waves
C) is a positive wave between two negative waves
D) denotes ventricular diastole
E) is one of the three waves that collectively denote ventricular depolarization |
|
Definition
C) is a positive wave between two negative waves
E) is one of the three waves that collectively denote ventricular depolarization
|
|
|
Term
Select all that apply: Sympathetic stimulation to the heart
A) decreases stroke volume
B) increases heart rate
C) causes bradycardia
D) decreases cardiac output |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sinus tachycardia: what to do first |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Smooth, shiny innermost lining of the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Special sensory receptors in blood vessel walls, stimulated by a change in blood pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Specialized cells in the carotid and aortic siunses that detect changes in blood pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Specialized conduction tissue within the interventricular septum; divides into the right and left branches |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Stenosis of a valve or blood regurgitating through a valve that does not close properly causes what abnormal heart sounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sympathetic nerve stimulation of the myocardium
A) cause a (+) inotropic effect
B) decreases cardiac output
C) decreases heart rate
D) decreases stroke volume |
|
Definition
| A) cause a (+) inotropic effect |
|
|
Term
Systemic veins and venules house approximately _____ of the body's blood volume at rest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Systole and diastole describe the function of the _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Takes up one third of the cardiac cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The SA node sends multiple signals, confusing the AV node. Result? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The aorta receives blood from here |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The atrioventricular valve on the right side of the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The atrioventricular valve through which blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The autonomic nerve that slows the heart rate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The coronary arteries supply blood to the:
a. Lungs
b. Head
c. Heart
d. Intestines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The electrical signal arises in this structure in normal sinus rhythm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The myocardium is thickest in this chamber |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The normal adult heart rate is set by the:
a. Atrioventricular node
b. Purkinje fibers
c. Septum
d. Sinoatrial node |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The only veins with oxygenated blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pacemaker of the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The purpose of this structure is to momentarily delay the spread of the signal from the atrium to the ventricles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The right ventricle pumps blood to the _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The semilunar valve through which blood leaves the right ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The three layers of the heart wall, from inside to outside |
|
Definition
Endocardium,
myocardium,
epicardium
|
|
|
Term
The two lower chambers of the heart |
|
Definition
| the right and left ventricles |
|
|
Term
The two types of circulation in the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The two upper chambers of the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle |
|
Definition
| mitral valve (bicuspid valve) |
|
|
Term
| These conducting fibers rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the ventricles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These two large veins return blood to the right atrium |
|
Definition
| the superior vena cava (SVC) and inferior vena cava (IVC) |
|
|
Term
These vessels carry blood from the pulmonary capillaries to the left atrium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the hardest working cardiac chamber and therefore has the thickest myocardium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This layer of the heart allows it to act as a pump. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Time it takes the contraction signal to get from SA node to AV node (name and length) |
|
Definition
- P-R interval
- 0.12 - 0.2 sec |
|
|
Term
Tough bands of tissue that anchor the cusps of the atrioventricular valves to the walls of the ventricles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transcutaneous pacemaker: description (3) |
|
Definition
| - external - patient feels every shock - Isuprel may be tried first |
|
|
Term
Triglycerides: reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| to diagnose (or rule out) heart attack |
|
|
Term
Under what condition is blood most likely to flow "backward" (e.g., from the left ventricle back into the left atrium)?
A) pulmonary artery hypertension
B) left ventricular hypertrophy
C) an insufficient mitral valve
D) pulmonary edema |
|
Definition
| C) an insufficient mitral valve |
|
|
Term
Vagal stimulation to the heart causes |
|
Definition
| the heart rate to slow down |
|
|
Term
Volume of blood ejected with each heartbeat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Volume of blood heart pumps in 1 minute (2) |
|
Definition
- Cardiac output
- 4-6 L/min |
|
|
Term
WHAT'S UP? assessment of cardiovascular symptoms |
|
Definition
W-where it is
H-how it feels
A-aggravating/alleviating factors
T-timing
S-severity
U-usful data for associated symptoms
P-patient perception of problem |
|
|
Term
What are the Purkinje fibers "doing"? |
|
Definition
| conducting an electrical signal throughout the ventricles |
|
|
Term
What are the four chambers of the heart made of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are ventricles "doing" during atrial systole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the QRS interval denote? |
|
Definition
Ventricular depolarization
|
|
|
Term
| What event causes the pulmonic valve to open? |
|
Definition
| B) an increase in the pressure within the ventricle |
|
|
Term
What happens to heart valves and conduction system as an effect of aging (4)? |
|
Definition
- Fibrosis in the conduction system and heart
- Calcification of the valves
- Increased size of myocardium and atria
- Decreased cardiac output |
|
|
Term
What interval denotes ventricular depolarization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is occuring during S1? (3) |
|
Definition
- AV valves are closing.
- Ventricles are contracting.
- Atria are filling. |
|
|
Term
What is the cause of the heart sounds "lubb-dupp"? |
|
Definition
| Closing of the heart valves |
|
|
Term
What is the heart doing during the T-wave? (3) |
|
Definition
- ventricular repolarization
- heart is "resting"
- ventricles are filling |
|
|
Term
What is the name of the valve that prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium when the right ventricle contracts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term for the sequence of events that occur during one heartbeat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term that refers to an increase in stroke volume in response to the stretching of the heart?
|
|
Definition
| starling's law of the heart |
|
|
Term
| What prevents the the valve cusps from everting (turning inside-out)? |
|
Definition
| As the ventricles contract, the papillary muscles also contract, tightening the chordae tendineae. |
|
|
Term
What regulates peripheral resistence?
|
|
Definition
| Vasomotor center in the medulla |
|
|
Term
| What separates the left and right atria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What separates the left and right ventricles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What separates the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle in one beat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What to do if heart rate takes longer to return to normal after exercise |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What to remember when taking BP readings from legs |
|
Definition
| Leg BPs typically 10 pts higher |
|
|
Term
What would a negative T-wave indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would a spiked T-wave indicate? |
|
Definition
Possible hyperkalemia (high potassium)
|
|
|
Term
| What food you usually have to avoid with most BP meds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the blood from the left ventricle exit through the aortic valve into the aorta and out to the systemic circulation |
|
Definition
| During ventricular contraction |
|
|
Term
When measuring BP, the nurse is assessing:
a. The pressure of blood within the veins.
b. The pressure of blood within the arteries.
c. The pressure of blood within the heart.
d. The pressure of blood within the lungs. |
|
Definition
| b. The pressure of blood within the arteries. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the cardiac action potential (cardiac impulse) normally originate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where to auscultate for apical pulse |
|
Definition
left mid-clavicular line, 5th intercostal space. (at the nipple line) |
|
|
Term
Which cavity first receives unoxygenated blood from the vena cava?
A) right ventricle
B) left atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right atrium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which group is incorrect?
A) atrioventricular veins: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral
B) layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
C) abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia
D) parts of the conduction system: SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, medulla oblongata |
|
Definition
| D) parts of the conductionL SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje Fibers, Medulla Oblongata |
|
|
Term
Which group is incorrect?
A) semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic
B) atrioventricular valves: triscuspid, bicuspid, mitral
C) oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta
D) unoxygenated blood: right ventricle, venae cavea, pulmonary veins |
|
Definition
| D) Structures that carry unoxygenated blood: right ventricle, venae cavae, pulmonary veins |
|
|
Term
Which group is incorrect?
A) semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic
B) oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta
C) layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
D) abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, sinus rhythm |
|
Definition
| D) Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, sinus rhythm |
|
|
Term
Which of gthe following "sees" oxygenated blood?
A) vena cava
B) pulmonary veins
C) right atrium
D) pulmonic valve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following contains 70ml?
A) the cardiac output
B) the volume of a ventricle
C) an average stroke volume
D) the amount of blood that flows through the pulmonary capillaries in one minute. |
|
Definition
| C) an average stroke volume |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a result of ventricular systole?
A) the AV valves open
B) the semilunar valves close
C) blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta
D) blood flows back into the atria |
|
Definition
| C) Blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an electrical event? Select all that apply
A) "lubb-dupp"
B) systole
C) murmur
D) depolarization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is descriptive of the vagus nerve?
A) fight or flight
B) parasympathetic
C) sympathetic
D) adrenergic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve?
A) left heart
B) bicuspid
C) semilunar
D) chordeae tendineae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the atrioventricular node (AV node)?
A) it is the pacemaker of the heart
B) it is located in the upper part of the right atrium
C) its rate is normally faster than the SA node
D) it delays the electrical signal coming from the atria into the ventricles. |
|
Definition
| B) it is located in the upper part of the right atrium |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the mitral and bicuspid valves?
A) they are semilunar valves
B) they are both located on the right side of the heart
C) they "see" only unoxygenated blood
D) they are the same valves
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
| D) they are the same valves |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the pulmonic and aortic valves?
A) they are atrioventricular valves
B) they "see" only oxygenated blood
C) they are attached to the ventricular walls by chordae tendineae
D) they are semilunar valves
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
| D) they are semilunar valves |
|
|
Term
Which of the following most accurately describes the vagus nerve?
A) "fight or flight"
B) norepinephrine
C) parasympathetic
D) causes tachycardia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following must precede ventricular systole?
A) ventricular diastole
B) "Lubb-dupp"
C) ventricular depolarization
D) closing of the AV valves |
|
Definition
| C) ventricular depolarization |
|
|
Term
Which of the following refers to a positive inotropic effect?
A) heart block
B) a slow heart rate
C) a rapid hearbeat
D) an increased myocardial contraction |
|
Definition
| D) an increased myocardial contraction |
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures "sees" unoxygenated blood?
A) aorta
B) left ventricle
C) pulmonary artery
D) pulmonary veins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle?
A) coronary arteries
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) cardiac veins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these does NOT occur in the aging adult? (Select all that apply)
A) Decrease in heart size
B) Thinning of left ventricular wall
C) Decreased collagen in the cardiac muscle
D) Decreased elastin in the cardiac muscle
E) Stiffer and thicker cardiac valves
F) Fibrosis of the SA node
G) Increased number of pacemaker cells
H) Calcification of blood vessels
J) Increased arterial distensibility
K) More tortuous vessels
L) Decreased response to baroreceptors |
|
Definition
B) left vent. wall actually gets THICKER
C) collagen in cardiac muscle INCREASES
G) number of pacemaker cells DECREASES
J) arterial distensibility (elasticity) DECREASES
|
|
|
Term
| Which valves are closed during ventricular systole? |
|
Definition
- tricuspid
- mitral (left AV)
|
|
|
Term
With which of the following is the "lubb-dupp" associated?
A) myocardial contraction
B) ventricular depolarization
C) closing of heart valves
D) diffusion of O2 from the lungs to the blood in the pulmonary capillaries |
|
Definition
| C) closing of heart valves |
|
|
Term
| a localized area of dead tissue caused by a lack of blood supply |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a membrane lining the heart's interior wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| blood flows into the left ventricle when this valve is incompetent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| carry blood toward the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| complete the sequence: blood flows from the right atrium -> right ventricle -> pulmonary artery -> _________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| distributes blood to Left upper extremity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| found in the lower part of the right atrium near the ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| heart sound produced by the closure of the semilunar valves when the ventricles relax |
|
|
Term
| helps to compensate for blood loss during hemorrhage |
|
Definition
| vasoconstriction (contraction) of veins |
|
|
Term
| most blood enters the venous system via these two main veins. |
|
Definition
| great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein |
|
|
Term
| needs only to pump blood into the low-pressure lungs and therefore is a thinner-walled chamber |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| normal blood pressure ranges |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| normal heart sound produced by closure of the AV valves when the ventricles contract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| picks up the message like a receiving station and holds onto it until the atria have contracted and emptied blood into the ventricles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| resistance in the blood vessels of the body |
|
Definition
| systemic vascular resistance |
|
|
Term
| results in an increased storage capacity of the veins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| reversible cell injury due to decreased blood and oxygen supply |
|
Definition
| myocardial insufficiency ischemia |
|
|
Term
| right atrium receives venous (deoxygenated) blood from |
|
Definition
| the superior and inferior vena cava and the coronary sinus |
|
|
Term
| sequence of dual contractions, the atria followed by the ventricles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the amount of pressure or resistance the ventricles must overcome to empty their contents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the amount of pressure or “stretching force” against the ventricular wall at end-diastole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the fibers of the the right and left bundle branches penetrate the ventricular muscle and terminate in the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the force opposing the movement of blood through the blood vessels |
|
Definition
| Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) or total peripheral resistance |
|
|
Term
| the middle and thickest layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the only arteries with Deoxygenated blood. |
|
|
Term
the only veins that carry oxygenated blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the thickest chamber of the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this valve prevents backflow of blood from the aorta during ventricular diastole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Digoxin: nursing considerations |
|
Definition
- hold if apical pulse below 60
- hold if digoxin level above 2.0 |
|
|
Term
| Digoxin: therapeutic level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- increases cardiac contractility WITHOUT increasing O2 consumption
- increases cardiac output
- diuretic effect |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- symptomatic bradycardia
- tx digoxin toxicity
- tx full arrest |
|
|
Term
| A client is 2-3 weeks status post strep throat. What is he at risk for next? |
|
Definition
| rheumatic fever, leading to rheumatic heart disease |
|
|
Term
| A person with hypertensive crisis is at risk for what specific event? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Basic types of food to avoid (how they're prepared)(2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Calcium channel blockers: what NOT to worry about. |
|
Definition
| Will not affect bones. CCBs block calcium ions, not bone-forming calcium |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac tamponade: disease process (4) |
|
Definition
- fluid accumulates in the pericardium
- pressure on the heart prevents the heart's ventricles from filling properly
- low stroke volume
- end result is ineffective pumping of blood, shock, and often death. |
|
|
Term
| Cardiomyopathy: Disease process (6) |
|
Definition
- Portion of heart muscle suffocates, deteriorates and necroses
- dead area is replaced with non-functioning scar tissue
- reduced heart efficiency puts additional stress on heart, leading to hypertrophy of myocardium
- cardiac output drops
- eventual heart failure |
|
|
Term
| Cardiomyopathy: drug treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristic of infective endocarditis that makes it difficult to treat |
|
Definition
| Infected area gets covered - thus protected - by platelets and fibrin |
|
|
Term
| Creatinine reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deposit of fatty material in the artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digoxin: Nursing considerations (2) |
|
Definition
- Monitor for Digoxin toxicity
- Monitor potassium levels, especially if patient also on diuretics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increases the force of myocardial contraction |
|
|
Term
| Digoxin: treatments for toxicity (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Elimination of fluid and potassium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endocarditis: hallmark sx |
|
Definition
- High fever
- heart murmur |
|
|
Term
| First line of treatment for hypertension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For whom would beta blockers be a waste of time?
A) Ronan
B) Carly
C) Adenike
D) Stacy
E) Mr. Adnan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Primary (Essential) hypertension |
|
|
Term
| High BP that is a symptom of a specific cause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you know diuretics are working |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypertension drug therapy: age-related consideration |
|
Definition
| Drug tolerance decreases with age. Older patients should be started more slowly. |
|
|
Term
| Hypertension medication of choice for blacks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infective endocarditis: diagnostics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Magnesium reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Maximal pressure exerted on arteries during contraction of left ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Myocarditis: drug treatment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
D) Notify RN
Holding the next dose will probably be next, but that's not your call. |
|
Definition
| Patient on Heparin or Coumading has bleeding gums. What do you do? A) Switch to Trident B) Oral care C) Hold the next dose D) Notify RN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patient shows signs of pulmonary effusion. What do you do? |
|
|
Term
C) raise his head.
He's suffering from an increased fluid volume around his heart and lungs.
(unless he really does have a pillow on his face) |
|
Definition
Patient wakes up feeling like he's suffocating. What do you do?
A) take the pillow off his face
B) raise his feet
C) raise his head
D) give him something warm and soothing to drink |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Powerful vasoconstrictor produced by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pulmonary effusion: s/sx (4) |
|
Definition
- Feeling of pending doom
- Sudden severe SOB (hence the pending doom)
- Sudden chest pain (yes, more reason for pending doom)
- decrease in pulse ox (now the nurse senses pending doom) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rhematic carditis: prevention (for all) |
|
Definition
| - treat sore throats promptly |
|
|
Term
| Sign of left-sided heart failure (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- spinach
- lima beans
- garbonzo beans |
|
|
Term
| Systolic > 140, diastolic < 90 |
|
Definition
| Isolated systolic hypertension |
|
|
Term
| Term denoting normal blood pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Those with Rheumatic carditis usually have what kind of history? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Uric acid reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What areas do infective endocarditis affect? |
|
Definition
| - mitral and aortic valves |
|
|
Term
| What does Rheumatic carditis usually affect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major cause of hypertensive crisis? |
|
Definition
| Client with history of hypertension stops taking meds - BP spikes. |
|
|
Term
| What is the major complication of infective endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where's the best place for a patient with DVT?
A) Ron's chair
B) Matt's bicycle
C) Nicole's bed
D) The other end of Douglas' leash |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which patient(s) can be sent home? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A) Patient who just dated Ron
B) Patient on Heparin
C) Patient on Coumadin
D) Patient on Digoxin |
|
Definition
C) Patient on Coumadin
D) Patient on Digoxin
Heparin is fast-acting, and needs to be monitored closely.
The patient who dated Ron will need to go back to the psyche ward. |
|
|
Term
Who is most prone to hypertension?
A) Ngok
B) Olaniyi
C) Matt
D) Mrs. Lee |
|
Definition
B) Olaniyi
(Except when grading tests, it's Mrs. Lee) |
|
|
Term
| Who tends to be at risk for pulmonary effusion? |
|
Definition
- Those on prolonged bedrest
- Those who constantly cross their legs in bed (probably not Ron). |
|
|
Term
| Antihypertensive of choice for europeans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digoxin: Effects on blood |
|
Definition
- Potassium levels decrease
- Dig levels increase |
|
|
Term
| Potassium-sparing loop diuretic that works on the distal tubule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Doctor orders Digoxin. What else would you expect to see ordered? |
|
Definition
| Potassium chloride, 10-20 MG |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Procardiac: classification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient on hypertension meds. Latest BP=120/80. What do you do? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
A) hold dose
B) give dose
C) ask MD about reducing dosage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Beta blockers: pre-admin intervention |
|
Definition
| Check BP and pulse. Hold if sys<100, dias<70, or pulse<60 |
|
|
Term
| Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG); advantage and disadvantage of using mammary artery over saphenous |
|
Definition
A: longer patency
D: procedure more difficult and time-consuming. |
|
|
Term
| Bumex: diet consideration |
|
Definition
| Increase potassium intake |
|
|
Term
| Coronary Artery Bypass Graft: Purpose (2) |
|
Definition
- Increase blood flow to myocardium
- Alleviate angina |
|
|
Term
| Endarterectomy: What to expect in the long-term |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Classic symptom of an arterial clot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aneurysm: Treatment and its goal |
|
Definition
| Reduce BP to lessen chance of rupture. |
|
|
Term
| Thoracic aneurysm: s/sx (3) |
|
Definition
- Chest pain
- Shoulder pain
- Back pain (caused by pressure on vertebrae) |
|
|
Term
| Dissecting aneurysm: Definition |
|
Definition
| Process of artery wall layers being pulled apart |
|
|
Term
| Dissecting aneurysm: s/sx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prominent, pulsating bulge in abdomen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What NOT to do to an abdominal aneurysm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Modifiable risk factors for blood clots (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for VENOUS blood clots (3) |
|
Definition
- extended bed rest
- crossing legs
- dehydration (increases blood viscosity) |
|
|
