Term
| It is the single best indicator of pain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing care is directed at _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain-sensing nerve endings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain felt in limbs no longer present (ie, amputee patients) |
|
Definition
phantom pain
treat it as any other pain |
|
|
Term
| Physical manifestatin of depression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Physical manifestation of depression |
|
|
Term
| Those at risk for poor pain management include ____ and ______ |
|
Definition
| Children / mentally disabled |
|
|
Term
| natural pain-killers. Don't last long. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A form of pain management that utilizes imagination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Normal process of stimuli that damages normal tissues or has the potential to do so if prolonged; usually responsive to nonopioids and/or opioids. |
|
|
Term
| Examples include sprains, bone fractures, burns, bumps, bruises, inflammation (from an infection or arthritic disorder), obstructions, and myofascial pain (which may indicate abnormal muscle stresses). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the point at which pain begins to be felt. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the amount of pain that a person can withstand before breaking down emotionally and/or physically. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pain perceived at a site adjacent to or at a distance from the site of an injury's origin.[ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, usually abbreviated to NSAIDs or NAIDs, are drugs with analgesic, antipyretic (fever-reducing) and, in higher doses, with anti-inflammatory effects (reducing inflammation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is a computerized pump that safely permits you to push a button and deliver small amounts of pain medicine into your intravenous (IV) line, usually in your arm. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation - the application of electrical current through the skin for pain control. |
|
|
Term
| Needed in order for patient to feel pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemicals released during inflammatory pain |
|
Definition
| histamine, acetocholine, prostaglandis and bradykinin |
|
|
Term
| the four phases of nociception |
|
Definition
| Transduction, transmission, perception, modulation |
|
|
Term
| normal pain transmission and interpretation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nervous system changes painful stimuli in the nerve endings to impulses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nervous system changes painful stimuli in the nerve endings to impulses. |
|
|
Term
| The impulses travel from their original site to the brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The impulses travel from their original site to the brain. |
|
|
Term
| The brain recognizes, defines, and responds to pain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The brain recognizes, defines, and responds to pain. |
|
|
Term
| The body activates needed inhibitory responses to the effects of pain (Craven & Hirnle, 2007). If the modulation response of the body is not successful, external intervention is required to manage the pain. Some of these interventions are discussed later in this chapter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The body activates needed inhibitory responses to the effects of pain (Craven & Hirnle, 2007). If the modulation response of the body is not successful, external intervention is required to manage the pain. Some of these interventions are discussed later in this chapter. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Usually a sensation that ends abruptly. Typically lasts less than six months. Usually intermittent, not constant. |
|
|
Term
| Usually a sensation that ends abruptly. Typically lasts less than six months. Usually intermittent, not constant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| that originates in one body part but is perceived in another part of the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| that originates in one body part but is perceived in another part of the body. |
|
|
Term
| Verey severe pain that may be considered intractable and chronic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| discomfort that continues for a long period (6 months or longer). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| withdrawn, sleeplessness, appetite changes, other behaviors out of thier norm. |
|
|
Term
| Sustained release pain med. When it isn't lasting long enough. What is that called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| effect of most pain medications - slowing down of vitals, etc. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Problem with giving a placebo to a patient |
|
Definition
| It is only a fake, and you can't lie to the patient about what they're getting. |
|
|
Term
| Issue regarding effectiveness of pain patch |
|
Definition
| It's going to take a while. Give something fast acting to relieve in the short-term. |
|
|
Term
| What degree (strength) of pain med should you start with to treat long-term pains? |
|
Definition
| start low, work up as necessary. NSAIDs are a good start. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Neuropathic pain - longer than 6 months. Can be difficult to treat. Patient may complain of burning, tingling, shooting pains. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A pain disorder associated with psychological factors. Some types of mental or emotional problems can cause, increase, or prolong pain |
|
|
Term
| Area of brain in which pain threshold is found |
|
Definition
| thalmus and cerebral cortex |
|
|
Term
| May decrease endorphine production |
|
Definition
| caffein, nicotein, alcohol |
|
|
Term
| Key concepts regarding the documentation of pain management. |
|
Definition
Level
description
action taken
results. |
|
|
Term
| pain rating scales used for children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used on children 3-7 (and those unable to effectively communicate verbally) to determine pain level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used on children under 3 to determine pain level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain assessment tool in which the nurse uses observed behaviors to determine pain level |
|
Definition
| FLACC - The nurse observes the child's face, legs, activity, cry, and consolability |
|
|
Term
| A person can continue to function with a pain rating of no more than ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would we give planned pain medications? |
|
Definition
| Right after surgery and 30 min before a painful procedure. |
|
|
Term
| Cognitive behavioral measure of pain management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what pain scale can be used for a patient 3years or younger? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cause of Myocardial infarction pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What clients would you use the Wong-Baker scale for? |
|
Definition
| age 3-7 yrs or patients with language barrier. |
|
|
Term
| patient w terminal cancer at pain=7. vitals are unchanged. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pain that originates from one part of the body but is felt in another part of the body is called..... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term used for a chronic pain that resists therapeutic actions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is another word for a nociceptive pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| another name for a chronic pain is...... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the three class of analgesics commonly used to control pain? |
|
Definition
| NSAIDS,opoids,adjuvant drugs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it is a pain that is felt from an amputated part of the body |
|
|
Term
| How does TENS help relieve pain |
|
Definition
| it sends electric stimulus to the pain site when an individual feels pain. |
|
|
Term
| what are the consequences of unrelieved pain? |
|
Definition
| visual disturbances,nausea and vomiting. |
|
|
Term
| what chemicals are released during inflammatory pain? |
|
Definition
| prostaglandins and bradykyn |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| whatever the person experiencing it says it is |
|
|
Term
| What can past experiences of pain in our children do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does fentynl patch help control pain? |
|
Definition
| it delivers continuous pain relief |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation |
|
|
Term
| Nerve endings specialized for pain reception |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nerve endings specialized for pain reception |
|
|
Term
| The most dangerous of the antidepressants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Triciclets are what classification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| adverse effect of compezine that tends to defeat the purpose of the drug |
|
Definition
| dizzines - may exacerbate the nausea it is supposed to relieve. |
|
|
Term
| extreme fatigue inability to sleep or sleeping too much lack of interest in surroundings lack of or excessive appetite guilt feelings sexual impotence withdrawal from social activities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are adjuvent medications? |
|
Definition
| Medications primarily indicated for one type of treatment, but can also be used for pain management. |
|
|
Term
| Endorphines and enkephalins |
|
Definition
| naturally occurring substances that relieve pain |
|
|
Term
| naturally occurring substances that relieve pain (2) |
|
Definition
- endorphins
- enkephalins |
|
|
Term
| What is the traditional Chinese belief regarding pain? |
|
Definition
| That pain is related to the imbalance of yin and yang or hot and cold. |
|
|
Term
| What culture tends to believe pain is related to immoral behavior? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This culture believes religious beliefs may contribute to high pain tolerance |
|
Definition
| African American pain belief |
|
|
Term
| This culture tends NOT to express pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This culture tends to express pain quite regularly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This culture tends to believe that pain is a sign of guilt or punishment from God |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mneumonic used when gathering information on client symptoms (including pain). |
|
Definition
| COLDSPA CHARACTER: Describe the sign or symptom. How does it feel, look, sound, smell, and so forth? ONSET: When did it begin? LOCATION: Where is it? Does it radiate? DURATION: How long does it last? Does it recur? SEVERITY: How bad is it? PATTERN: What makes it better? What makes it worse? ASSOCIATED FACTORS: What other symptoms occur with it? |
|
|
Term
| Nurse documents an infant's FLACC scale as Legs-1, Crying-1. What did she likely observe? |
|
Definition
| Legs-1: uneasy, restless and/or tense Crying-1: Moaning/whimpering, occasional complaints. |
|
|
Term
| Nurse documents an infant's FLACC scale as Legs-0, Crying-0. What did she likely observe? |
|
Definition
| Legs: normal position, relaxed Crying: none. |
|
|
Term
| Nurse documents an infant's FLACC scale as Legs-2, Crying-2. What did she likely observe? |
|
Definition
| Legs: kicking or drawn up Cry: crying/screaming steadily, frequent complaints. |
|
|
Term
| What is uneasy, tense leg activity on the FLACC scale |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pain assessment scale would be best used on a 2-year-old receiving paralytic medications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is meant by "Character" of the pain |
|
Definition
| What the pain feels like: ie, aching, burning, crushing, dull, pounding, etc. |
|
|
Term
| Surgery may be needed to relieve what kind of pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing interventions for pain management. |
|
Definition
| diversion, change position, bathing, back rub, massaging hands. |
|
|
Term
| A client holds a pillow against the incision while coughing. What is this called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client takes a deep breath and forces it out in several short quick breaths. What is this called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient says to the nurse that he or she has a fear of dying,what do you do? |
|
Definition
| Ask the client to explain. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Splitting open or separation of a surgical incision. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When an incision opens enough so that abdominal organs protrude. |
|
|
Term
| Formation of a blood clot in a vein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which order should sutures or staples be removed? |
|
Definition
| every other one. Stop if incision line opens. |
|
|
Term
| Lab test for blood clotting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients most at risk for poor pain management |
|
Definition
| children and mentally disabled |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Offer the client a clear liquid diet first. Progress to a full liquid diet, and finally a soft or general diet |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms of DVT |
|
Definition
pain, swelling in one of both legs,warmth in the skin of the affected leg,redness of the leg,leg fatigue,visible surface veins
swelling,
warmth, and
redness. |
|
|
Term
| Splitting open or separation of a surgical incision. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can be used to assist in deep-breathing exercises? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a Homans' sign and what does it indicate? |
|
Definition
| Pain behind the knee during dorsiflexion. It is a sign of possible thrombophlebitis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the NPO time before surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the nurse's responsibility for client signatures? |
|
Definition
| Make sure client (or legal guardian) signs all consent forms prior to anesthesia. Nurse may witness signatures. Nursing student may not. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of huffing? |
|
Definition
| It helps loosen more secretions than just coughing. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of splinting |
|
Definition
| relieves pressure on the abdominal suture line |
|
|
Term
| What to ask client before surgery. |
|
Definition
| Name, pain, underdstanding of procedure |
|
|
Term
| What to do if a post-op patient complains of dizziness when getting out of bed. |
|
Definition
| Assist the client with ambulation |
|
|
Term
| When an incision opens enough so that abdominal organs protrude. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| composed of serum and blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| direction to use (which way do you go) when irrigating an open wound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how can you get rid of post-op gas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does a nurse give non-pharmacological pain remedy? |
|
Definition
| offer massage,back-rub,repositioning |
|
|
Term
| how does an incentive spirometer work? |
|
Definition
| it provides visual feed back to let the client know if they are breathing right . |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| composed of serum and blood |
|
|
Term
| signs of infection after surgery |
|
Definition
| Pain and redness around an incision occuring 2-3 days after surgery, elevated temp, pain, elevated WBC. |
|
|
Term
| signs/symptoms of pre-op anxiety |
|
Definition
| significant change in behavior,tachycardia,continuous questions, |
|
|
Term
| Pre-op test usually obtained for all clients older than 40 years |
|
Definition
| An electrocardiogram (ECG) |
|
|
Term
| what are Hemovac and jackson - pratt |
|
Definition
| they are closed drainage systems |
|
|
Term
| What is the priority of shock treatment. |
|
Definition
| airway,breathing,& circulation |
|
|
Term
| what are the sign and symptoms of shock? |
|
Definition
Hypotension
Narrowed puse pressure
Tachcardia
restlessness
Difficulty breathing
Cyanosis
Extreme thirst
Cold, clammy skin
hypothermia
low oxygen saturation
slowed capillary refill
ringing in ears
difficulty seeing |
|
|
Term
| what are typical post op complications? |
|
Definition
| hemorrhage,shock,hypoxia,hypothermia |
|
|
Term
| Define general anesthesia? |
|
Definition
| it is an unconscious sedation.breathing is done artificially. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it is a blockage of pain or sensation in a specific area of the body.it is also known as infiltration or topical anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| what is a paralytic ileus? |
|
Definition
| there is absence of peristalsis. |
|
|
Term
| what is spinal anesthesia? |
|
Definition
| this is a conduction nerve block that is injected into the sub-arachnoid space of the spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
| what medication is often given post-op to reduce gas? |
|
Definition
| symethicone (aka mylicon) |
|
|
Term
| what steps does a nurse check before a pt goes to surgery? |
|
Definition
1 I D band
2 Vital signs
3 fall risk
4 Blood id
5 Weight
6 Bathing and hygeine
7 remove jewelry and accesories
8 void before surgery
9 remove dentures
10 remove make-up,lipstick,etc
11 make sure client signs check list
12 administer pre-op meds
13 update charts
14 notify post-op |
|
|
Term
| what would postpone a scheduled surgery? |
|
Definition
| unsigned informed consent,if NPO orders were not followed. |
|
|
Term
| When would planned pain medications usually be ordered? |
|
Definition
| 30 minutes before painful procedures are performed and right after surgery. |
|
|
Term
| How long before surgery should patients stop taking medications that affect blood coagulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where are consents signed before surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of patient is typically high-risk for surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| while witnessing a consent,what does the patient need to know? |
|
Definition
| patient needs to know what is being done and why it is being done |
|
|
Term
| who can sign a legal consent and what makes a consent legal? |
|
Definition
A patient, unless they are a minor or mentally disabled. then their guardian signs it.
It's signed and witnessed BEFORE administration of pre-op meds. |
|
|
Term
| why do patients go NPO before surgery? |
|
Definition
| to prevent aspiration,nausea and vomiting |
|
|
Term
| why do we teach patient about turning,coughing and deep breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is atropine given and what are the expected side effects? |
|
Definition
| it is given to reduce the respitory secretions.the most serious side effect is irregular heart beat. |
|
|
Term
| why is shaving done on a client before surgery? |
|
Definition
| to reduce the risk of infection. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| type of lumber decompession that exposes the spinal canal and allows for relief of compression of the spinal cord and spinal nerve roots. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| test of electrical conductivity of the clients muscles. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of the bursa |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| invasive procedure using an endoscope designed to view joints. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| scleroderma of the distal extremeties and face. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| form of skeletal traction used for cervical fractures. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| necrosis of tissue due to insufficient or lack of blood supply. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| results from inadequate or obstructed blood flow to muscles,nerves and tissues. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| metal pins or wires surgically inserted into client's bones so that traction is applied directly to them. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| adult vitamin D defficiency which results in softening of the bones. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| narrowing of the intervertebral space. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of the tendon sheath. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| speciality in medicine that examines and treats disease and injuries of the musculoskeletal system. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| excision of the synovial membrane. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| scleroderma of the fingers and toes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| side-side or lateral angulation of the spinal column. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| frragments of dead bones loosen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| disease that results from a defieciency of vitamin d during childhood. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Magnetic resonance imagery is more expensive and invasive than biopsy,surgery,or the use of radioactive isotopes or dyes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| during a mylogram,a contrast medium or air is injected into the spinal subarachnoid space,followed by x-ray examination. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ultrasound uses sound waves and their echos to display images to evaluate soft tissue masses,osteomylities,infection,congenital and acquired pediatric disorders. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| After an arthrosyntesis,the client will immiediately be able to ove the joint freely. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the nurse should apply ice and elevate the clients joint following arthroscopy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| to hold a half-cast splint in place,the nurse uses long strips of adhesive tape. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflatable splints are often used in emergency first aid to support th neck. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A benefit of using splints is that they are light weight an do not need to be removed when x-rays are taken. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| plaster casts remain wet for up to 3 or 4 days. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Synthetic casts are more lightweight but weaker than plaster casts. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Metastatic bone tumors originate in the bone and are usually slow growing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| one of the most significant signs of malignant bone tumor is pathologic fracture. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a strain is an injury to the ligaments around a joint causing the ligaments to stretch and tear. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Traction applied through a weight attached to a spreader bar below the foot. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| skin traction applied by means of a head halter. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Buck's traction with the addition of the leg supported by a sling. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Traction applied by belt or sling. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| traction that iserts skull tong device into the skull bone. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| skeletal traction with device drilled through shaft of a bone and attached to the traction apparatus. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pain,pressure or itching sensations that occur in the area of the amputation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| may be needed to relieve internal presure for a patient with compartment syndrome. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An artificial device that replaces part or all of a missing extremety. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the reattachment of a completely severed body part back to the body. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| results from pressure to the spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the condition in which bone mass is lost |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the condition in which bone mass is lost |
|
|
Term
| Most types of arthritis are common in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a condition of an immovable joint. |
|
|
Term
| people with gout may be placed in a diet low in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
is a characteristic sign of systemic lupus erythematosus.
however a rash may appear over other body parts as well. |
|
|
Term
| Functions of the skeletal system |
|
Definition
Support
Protection
Movement
Mineral storage
Hematopoiesis |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of the skeleton? |
|
Definition
| Support, Protection, Movement, Storage, and Hematopoiesis (Blood Formation) |
|
|
Term
| Bone tissue comes in two types. Compact bone and Spongy bone. What is a compact bone and spongy bone? |
|
Definition
| A compact bone is hard and dense. A spongy bone is composed of small bony plates. |
|
|
Term
| Spongy bone contain marrow, what are the two forms? |
|
Definition
| Yellow and red bone marrow |
|
|
Term
| Red bone marrow is found in the ends of 1.__________, in the bodies of the 2._________ and in the 3.__________. |
|
Definition
1.Long bones
2.Vertebrae
3.Flat Bones |
|
|
Term
| Red bone marrow is responsible for manufacturing 1._____,2._____,and 3.______. This is called Hematopoisesis. |
|
Definition
1.RBC's
2.WBC's
3.Platelets |
|
|
Term
| Hard, fibrous connective tissue membrane that covers most of the outside of the bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Periosteum also merges with 1._______ and 2._______ and contains 3.________ that supply oxygen and nutrients to the bone cells keeping them alive. |
|
Definition
1. tendons
2. ligaments
3.blood vessels
|
|
|
Term
| 1._______ shaft of the long bone, is hard and compact. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1.________ is spongelike and is covered by a shell of harder bone. Located at the end of the long bones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The points at which bones attach to each other are called 1.___________ or 2.____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Synarthroses
(i.e., bones in the skull) |
|
|
Term
| Strong fibrous bands called __________ hold bones together. |
|
Definition
Ligaments
Ligaments also support internal organs and other structures. |
|
|
Term
| The skeleton has two divisions, what are those divisions? |
|
Definition
Axial skeleton
Appendicular skeleton |
|
|
Term
| What regions of the skeleton contain the axial skeleton? |
|
Definition
Skull, hyoid, middle ear, vertebral column, and the thoracic (rib) cage, make up the axial skeleton.
For more info check pg 174
Table 18-3 Divisions of the adult skeletal system |
|
|
Term
Spine Abnormality
Abnormal lateral (sideways) curvature of the spine.
|
|
Definition
Scoliosis
It occures most commmonly during adolescence and is mroe frequently found in girls than in boys. |
|
|
Term
Spine Abnormality
"Sway back," is an exaggeration of the normal lumbar spine curve in the small of the back. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Spine Abnormality
"Widow's hump" or "Humpback," may occure in aging and is more commen in women. |
|
Definition
Kyphosis
Kyphosis is often caused by osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
| These disks act as shock absorbers during walking, jump, or falling. |
|
Definition
Intervertebral disks
A "slipped" disk refers to an intervertebral disk that has shifted out of position.
A "ruptured" disk occures when pressure forces some less dense tissue sideways, causing a protrusions in the walls of the disk (like a squashed grape). |
|
|
Term
| What regions of the skeleton are contained in the appendicular skeleton? |
|
Definition
upper and lower extremities (limbs) and the pelvic girdle.
The upper extremities include:
4 bones from the shoulder girdle
60 bones from the arms
The lower extremities include:
60 bones from the legs
The pelvic (hip) girdle has 2 bones |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bones lose calcium, thus body gets it from blood. Expect low serum calcium levels. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is composed of five parts; the human skull, the ossicles of the inner ear, the hyoid bone of the throat, the rib cage, and the vertebral column. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a type of bone cell that removes bone tissue |
|
|
Term
| know PQRST pain assessment |
|
Definition
Provoking: What causes the pain?
Quality: What kind of pain (sharp, dull, etc)?
Region/Radiation: Where is it? Does it move?
Severity: How bad (1-10)?
Time: How long has it existed? How long does it last? |
|
|
Term
| most common location of femural fracture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cells that are responsible for bone formation |
|
|
Term
| Muscles involved in chewing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
divided into six major regions:
1) Pectoral Girdles
2) Arm and Forearm
3) Hands
4) Pelvis
5) Thigh and leg
6) Feet |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
joints allowing free motion
i.e., arm |
|
|
Term
| minerals stored in the bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most mobile type of joint in the human body. They allow you to swing your arms and legs in many different directions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
joints allowing for limited motion
i.e., spine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
joints allowing little to no motion
i.e., skull |
|
|
Term
| such as the joint at the base of your index finger, allow bending and extending, rocking from side to side, but rotation is limited. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is bone marrow is made of |
|
Definition
| hematopoietic tissue and fat cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The osteon, or Haversian system, is the fundamental functional unit of much compact bone. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| occur between the surfaces of two flat bones that are held together by ligaments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the skeleton support? |
|
Definition
| internal organs & tissues |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| protection of the spinal cord |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| protection of the lungs and heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| protection of digestive and reproductive organs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Skeleton as used for movement |
|
Definition
| skeletal muscles attached to bones allow for movement |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| calcium and phosphorus are stored in bones. Released if body is not supplied. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Red bone marrow makes platelets, RBCs and WBCs |
|
|
Term
| site within bone for hematopoiesis |
|
Definition
| spongy bone, found on the ends of long bones |
|
|
Term
| Where is compact bone found? |
|
Definition
| in the shafts of long bones and outer surfaces of other bones |
|
|
Term
| a type of bone cell that removes bone tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cells that are responsible for bone formation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hip and shoulder girdle, pelvic girdle, arms, thighs, legs |
|
|
Term
| Osteocytes surround large blood vessels. Area around filled with protein fibers, calcium & minerals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each looks like a cylinder. Network of blood vessels provide blood supply. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bone tissue arranged in plates called trabeculae. Separated by irregular spaces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Their structure lowers the overall weight of bones, and they contain bone marrow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enlarged ends of long bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| layered structure of epiphysis |
|
Definition
| thin layer of compact bone overlying spongy bone. Covered by Cartilage. |
|
|
Term
| bands of hyaline cartilage located at the ends of long bones. Locus of bone growth |
|
Definition
| epiphyseal disc or growth plate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bands of hyaline cartilage located at the ends of long bones. Locus of bone growth |
|
|
Term
| part of the bone that provides strength |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hollow center of diaphysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hollow center of diaphysis |
|
|
Term
| connective tissue lining the medullary cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| connective tissue lining the medullary cavity |
|
|
Term
| tough fibrous connective tissue membrane covering the outside of the diaphysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tough fibrous connective tissue membrane covering the outside of the diaphysis |
|
|
Term
| tough fibrous connective tissue membrane covering the outside of the diaphysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- protection
- point of attachment for muscle
- contains blood vessels that nourish underlying bone. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| outer surface of epiphysis. Forms smooth shiny surface. Reduces friction |
|
|
Term
| outer surface of epiphysis. Forms smooth shiny surface. Reduces friction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bones of the hand are examples of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| these cells migrate to regions of flat bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| vertebrae are what kind of bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bones of the skull are what type of bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Number of bones in the vertebral column |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abnormal lateral curvature of the thoracic area |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abnormal posterior curvature of the thoracic area - "hunchback" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| exaggerated lumbar curvature - "swayback" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| supports arms - attachment of muscle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| collar bone - stabilizes shoulder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| concave portion of the scapula that articulates with the humerus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| concave portion of the scapula that articulates with the humerus |
|
|
Term
| Bones of upper extremeties |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Components of the pelvic girdle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Portion of femur most often broken in elderly |
|
Definition
| greater and lesser trochanters (neck of femur) |
|
|
Term
| muscle action that creates motion |
|
Definition
| contraction and relaxation |
|
|
Term
| vital functions performed by muscle contraction |
|
Definition
motion
maintenance of posture
heat production
helps blood flow back to heart |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| conscious control (ie, arms, legs) |
|
|
Term
| involuntary muscle control |
|
Definition
| responds to internal commands (ie, heart) |
|
|
Term
| energy source for muscle contraction |
|
Definition
ATP - adenosine triphosphate
Calcium - muscle stimulation causes CA release, causing ATP, actin and myosin to react |
|
|
Term
| What happens to calcium when a contracted muscle relaxes? |
|
Definition
| Calcium returns to sarcoplasmic reticulum |
|
|
Term
| needed to transmit message across a neuromuscular junction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| connective tissue found in the joints between bones |
|
|
Term
| connective tissue found in the joints between bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| circular muscle that opens and closes a tube/canal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| shows that inflammatory process in the body. |
|
|
Term
| uric acid= Male-2.1-8.1 Female |
|
Definition
| check for gout or kidney failure,increase ETOH level, |
|
|
Term
| like in your knee and elbow, enable movement similar to the opening and closing of a door. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| joint in your neck that allows you to turn your head from side to side. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| your thumbs. can rock back and forth and from side to side, but they have limited rotation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client with thrombocytopenia is what kind of risk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common complication of most chemotherapeutic agents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common diagnostic test that can help determine the presence of a sarcoma |
|
Definition
| Serum calcium - Sarcomas invade bone, thus increased calcium deposits in the blood may result. |
|
|
Term
| A complication of chemotherapy |
|
Definition
| It also destroys normal cells |
|
|
Term
| A mixed-tissue kidney tumor usually found in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A personal history of which two CIBDs put a client at high risk for colorectal cancer? |
|
Definition
- Ulcerative colitis
- Crohn's disease |
|
|
Term
| A woman in her 30's is receiving tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment. What side effects should she be aware of? |
|
Definition
| Those related to menopause. These side effects include amenorrhea, hot flashes, insomnia, and depression. |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of bleomycin (Blenoxane) |
|
Definition
| coughing and difficulty breathing |
|
|
Term
| Age at which women should start breast self-exams. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Age at which women should start getting ANNUAL mammograms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Age to start testing for colon cancer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ages at which annual PSA tests should begin |
|
Definition
50+
45+ if African-American or if a family history of prostate cancer exists.
40+ if multiple first-degree relatives were affected at an early age. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Germ-cell tumors, liver cancer |
|
|
Term
| Among factors that help reduce the chance of cancer are diets that are ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An occult blood test may help in the detection of which type(s) of cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| have little or no resemblance to cells from whith they developed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Areas of the body that stem cells are usually taken from. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aside from management of pain and control of side-effects, what is a goal of nursing intervention during cancer treatment? |
|
Definition
| maintenance of client weight |
|
|
Term
| At least 80% of cancers in the United States are due to __________________? |
|
Definition
| , alcohol, diet, and environmental factors (ie, mustard gas, asbestos and benzene). |
|
|
Term
| Because of the effects of chemotherapy on bone marrow and the GI tract, what precaution may be needed. |
|
Definition
| reverse (protective) isolation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ovarian, colorectal, and gastric cancers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
• Change in bowel or bladder habits • A sore that does not heal • Unusual bleeding or discharge • Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere • Indigestion or difficulty swallowing • Obvious change in wart or mole • Nagging cough or hoarseness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sudden weigh-loss and malnourishment. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| excessive growth (proliferation) of cells that lack the capabilities of normal cellular function. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tumor cells that have not invaded surrounding sites |
|
|
Term
| Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): |
|
Definition
| Breast, colorectal, and lung cancers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the transformation of a normal cell into a malignant cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| agents that cause damage to cellular DNA that leads to the development of cancer |
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of a benign neoplasm |
|
Definition
• Slow growth
• Encapsulated (contained within a fibrous cover)
• Composed of differentiated cells (resemble the cells of the tissue from which they develop)
• Lack metastasis (invasion of other tissues in the body) |
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of a malignant neoplasm |
|
Definition
• Rapid growth
• Non-encapsulated
•Infiltrating and invading other tissues
• Anaplastic
• Commonly metastasized |
|
|
Term
| Chemotherapeutic agents are designed to be effective when? |
|
Definition
| during one or more of the phases of cell division. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common colorectal cancer risk factors |
|
Definition
• A personal history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease
• A family history of a hereditary colorectal cancer syndrome (familial adenomatous polyposis or hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer) |
|
|
Term
| Complications from surgery - nursing interventions for side effects (ie, stomatitis) |
|
Definition
- avoid alcohol
- avoid foods that cause irritation, including citrus
- use soft toothbrush
- rinse mouth thoroughly |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malignant tissue is frozen |
|
|
Term
| Cystic tumors of the ovaries and polypoid tumors from the colon may be removed as a type of ________ measure. |
|
Definition
| prophylactic (preventative) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describes the act of cancer traveling to a new site. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diet considerations for those on chemotherapy |
|
Definition
- High-protein, high-calorie meals
- several small meals throughout the day
- nutritional supplements |
|
|
Term
| Dietary consideration for reduction of cancer risk |
|
Definition
| low fat, high fiber, low sodium |
|
|
Term
| Do a PSA before doing a ____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drugs that interfere with the formation of blood vessels that grow to feed the cancer cells. |
|
Definition
| Antiangiogenic drugs (eg, endostatin, angiostatin) |
|
|
Term
| Education of the client receiving radiation or chemotherapy: basic principle |
|
Definition
| avoid anything that may lead to injury |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malignant tissue is burned |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| treatment machine is placed away from the body. |
|
|
Term
| Food that helps build up WBCs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Grade of tumors that closely resemble normal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a system of looking at abnormal cells under a microscope to determine the cells' degree of dedifferentiation or lack of maturity |
|
|
Term
| Group of compounds derived from vitamin A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| produce temporary regression of metastatic cancers |
|
|
Term
| How can benign tumors be dangerous? |
|
Definition
| Their presence pushes against organs, disrupting their function. |
|
|
Term
| How many consecutive normal PAP tests would allow a client to reduce testing frequency to every 2 to 3 years? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IV push, blocks receptors at nerve endings in the brain and GI tract. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Instruments used for visual observation of internal organs |
|
Definition
| sigmoidoscope, colonoscope, gastroscope, bronchoscope, and laryngoscope |
|
|
Term
| Largest size of a T1 tumor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Measures for providing comfort for the client receiving radiation therapy. |
|
Definition
- include calories, protein and vitamins (especially vitamin C)
- all fruits and vegetables must be peeled to reduce intake of germs.
- keep radiation site dry and free from irritation. Loose clothing advised.
- plain, tepid water. No scrubbing
- protect from sun |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| How much has the tumor spread? |
|
|
Term
| Monoclonal antibodies (MOAB, MoAb) |
|
Definition
| Highly specific antibodies that seek out and bind to specific targets on cancer cells, causing apoptosis. Produced by genetically fusing cancer cells with normal cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| How many nodes does the tumor have? |
|
|
Term
| Nursing awareness regarding interleukins |
|
Definition
| possible hypotension, edema (incl. pulmonary edema), dyspnea, and tachycardia. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing consideration (personal) when working with a client undergoing implanted radiation therapy |
|
Definition
| Do not stay with client longer than necessary. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing intervention for fatigue effect of treatment |
|
Definition
| planned activities, including rest periods |
|
|
Term
| Of the three types of rays involved in radiation dx and therapy, which penetrates deeply into body tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Prostate-specific antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Place where cancer starts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Radiation or chemotherapy clients should not receive suppositories? Why? |
|
Definition
| clients to avoid all activities that could injure cutaneous or mucous tissues |
|
|
Term
| Recommended as an alternative to commercial mouthwash |
|
Definition
| • 1 teaspoon salt • ½ teaspoon baking soda • 500 milliliters water (1 cup) |
|
|
Term
| Recommended frequency of colonoscopy exams |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Removal of part of a tumor for evaluation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Scheduling of pain control medications |
|
Definition
"Around the clock" - aimed at prevention of pain.
be prepared to treat breakthrough pain |
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms of cancer |
|
Definition
• General, unexplained feelings of discomfort
• Prickling, tingling, tightness, soreness that does not go away
• Weakness
• Unexplained loss of weight
• Abnormal findings on breast self-examination (BSE) or testicular self-examination (TSE) |
|
|
Term
| Special care in cleaning up chemotherapy spills |
|
Definition
• use gloves
• special container needed for disposal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of the mouth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Tumor, node and metastasis |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE: A gene is the code for one DNA molecule. |
|
Definition
| FALSE - A gene is a segment of a DNA molecule |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE: Chromosomes are made of DNA and protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE: In any human cell, most of the genes are always active. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE: Messenger RNA carries the genetic code to the cell membrane |
|
Definition
| FALSE - It carries the code to the ribosome |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE: Mitosis is necessary only for growth of the body. |
|
Definition
| FALSE - it is also necessary for the healing process. |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE: Mutations are how cells become malignant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE: The process of mitosis produces two identical cells with 23 chromosomes each. |
|
Definition
| FALSE - 23 PAIRS of chromosomes each |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE: Transfer RNA brings amino acids to the proper sites on the DNA |
|
Definition
| FALSE - it brings amino acids to the ribosome |
|
|
Term
| Teratomas, commonly found in the ovaries or testies, are of what type? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Test designed to detect cervical cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The best time to have a mammogram done. |
|
Definition
| Two weeks after a period. |
|
|
Term
| The body uses its own defenses against tumor cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The chromosome number for a human cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The following conditions will likely be reason for the need for emotional support. |
|
Definition
- Hair loss in women
- enlarged breasts in men
- general feelings of despair or discouragement.
- decreased sexual interest
- |
|
|
Term
| The largest group of cancer (tissue) types |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major cause of adult deaths in the US |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of chemotherapy |
|
Definition
| Damage the DNA within these abnormal cells and cause self-destruction (apoptosis). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These solid tumors develop from epithelial tissues that line skin, glands, gastrointestinal (GI), urinary, and reproductive organs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These tumors develop from connective tissues, such as cartilage, bone, fat, muscle, bone marrow, and the lymphatic system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| They promote the immune response of the T lymphocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| They protect normal cells from invasion by intracellular parasites, including viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Three general categories of cancer |
|
Definition
| carcinomas, sarcomas, and mixed tissue types |
|
|
Term
| Three places stem cells can be found |
|
Definition
- bone marrow
- peripheral blood
- in umbilical cord blood |
|
|
Term
| Three surgical procedures used to prevent growth and spread of cancer |
|
Definition
Cryosurgery
Electrocauterization
Fulgeration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tumor cells that closely resemble normal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tumor marker for breast, colorectal, and lung cancers |
|
Definition
| Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) |
|
|
Term
| Tumor marker for germ-cell tumors, liver cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tumor marker for ovarian, colorectal, and gastric cancers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| specific enzymes, cancer antigens, oncofetal proteins, hormones, or genes that can indicate malignancies. |
|
|
Term
| Two possible types of tumors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type AND frequency of enema done to test for colon and/or rectal cancer |
|
Definition
| double-contrast barium enema - every five years |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Carcinomas
Sarcomas
Mixed tissues |
|
|
Term
| Under what conditions could a woman stop having PAP tests? |
|
Definition
| If she has had a total hysterectomy AND it wasn't done as a cancer treatment. |
|
|
Term
| Unusual bleeding or spotting after menopause is a sign of what? |
|
Definition
| Endometrial (uterine) cancer |
|
|
Term
| Used to determine if the cancer has spread |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are tumors or neoplasms? |
|
Definition
| Growths that arise from normal tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What can be applied to areas in the mouth affected by stomatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What dietary adjustment should be the focus for cancer treatment? |
|
Definition
| Reduction in intake of fats and calories |
|
|
Term
| What do sealed mold internal radiation devices need (from nurses)? |
|
Definition
| protective protocols for nursing care. |
|
|
Term
| What is the confirming test to be done if a colon screening test results positive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main charactristic of cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What makes cancer cells dangerous? |
|
Definition
| They invade normal tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What makes cancer cells different from normal cells? |
|
Definition
| They lack the capabilities of normal cell function. |
|
|
Term
| What should the nurse watch for during administration of monoclonial antibody treatment? |
|
Definition
| severe anaphylactic reactions |
|
|
Term
| What treatment could give MEN hot flashes? |
|
Definition
| antiandrogen therapy for prostate cancer |
|
|
Term
| When is a client considered cured of a disease? |
|
Definition
| after 5 years total remission |
|
|
Term
| When should cervical cancer screening begin? |
|
Definition
| Age 21 or 3 years after beginning vaginal intercourse. |
|
|
Term
| Which Phenothiazine is also classified as an antipsychotic? |
|
Definition
| chlorpromazine (Thorazine) |
|
|
Term
| Which cancer treatment drug causes hot flashes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cancer treatment drug makes urine red and causes hair loss |
|
Definition
| doxorubicin HCl (Adriamycin) |
|
|
Term
| Which ethnic group is at highest risk for prostate cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do chemotherapy and radiation therapy result in hair loss? |
|
Definition
| all rapid-growing cells are affected. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a swish-and-swallow solution that often contains a mixture of diphenhydramine (Benadryl), viscous Xylocaine, and antacid is used. The nurse advises the client to swallow only small amounts. Why? |
|
Definition
| The mixture will anesthetize the throat and may cause difficulty in swallowing, talking, or even breathing. |
|
|
Term
| a system of looking at abnormal cells under a microscope to determine the cells' degree of dedifferentiation, or lack of maturity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| removal of peripheral blood through a large vein of blood that is then sent via tubing through special collection filters in a machine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The body uses its own defenses against tumor cells |
|
|
Term
| blood condition that places patient at risk of infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| can be used to excise precise areas of tumors such as on the glottis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| can improve the client's immune response to cancer and interfere with the growth of cancer cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
dietary recommendation in response to stomatitis:
A) a clear, full-liquid diet
B) a soft, bland, tepid diet
C) a high-protein diet.
D) TPN |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malignant tissue is destroyed by high-frequency current. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| highly specific antibodies that seek out and bind to specific targets on cancer cells, causing apoptosis. |
|
Definition
| Monoclonal antibodies (MOAB, MoAb) |
|
|
Term
| include the hydrocarbons found in cigarettes, cigars, and pipe smoke |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| indicated by an absence of all signs of a disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inflammation of the mouth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inflammation of the mucous membranes, such as in the mouth and throat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| made by lymphocytes, enhance the effects of the immune system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Secondary sites or secondary lesions |
|
|
Term
| mutation of a cell occurs at the ______ level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing diagnoses for nausea and vomiting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| produced by genetically fusing cancer cells with normal cells |
|
Definition
| Monoclonal antibodies (MOAB, MoAb) |
|
|
Term
| radioactive implants deliver ionizing radiation from within the tumor or a body cavity |
|
Definition
| internal brachytherapy, interstitial irradiation, intracavity irradiation |
|
|
Term
| removal of peripheral blood through a large vein of blood that is then sent via tubing through special collection filters in a machine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| remove the tumor as well as some of the margin of the tumor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| side effects of interferon use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| signs of internal bleeding |
|
Definition
• vomitus may be appear bright red (fresh) or like coffee grounds (old).
• stools may look black and tarry |
|
|
Term
| special consideration when using monoclonal antibodies |
|
Definition
| acute anaphylactic reaction |
|
|
Term
| specific enzymes, cancer antigens, oncofetal proteins, hormones, or genes that can indicate malignancies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sudden weight-loss and malnourishment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| surgery or procedure intended to relieve complications, not to cure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| system of looking at abnormal cells under a microscope to determine the cells' degree of dedifferentiation, or lack of maturity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| term to describe substances that poison cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the leading cause of cancer death for both men and women |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most important means of diagnosing cancer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the second leading cause of death by cancer in men. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the transformation of a normal cell into a malignant cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| therapeutic indications for chemotherapy |
|
Definition
• To treat widespread or metastatic disease
• To provide a cure for clients with certain types of cancer
• To temporarily control or palliate (relieve) tumor-related difficulties
• To use as an adjuvant (assistive) therapy |
|
|
Term
| third most common malignancy and cancer death site for men and women |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| treatment machine is placed away from the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| tumor cells that have not invaded surrounding sites |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| tumors that are very anaplastic, often having little or no resemblance to the tissue cells from which they developed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| use of drugs to combat cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Which of these describes the type of immunity that protects newborns for the first 3 months of life as aresult of maternal transmission of immunoglobulin G?
A) Active natural immunity
B) passive natural immunity
C) passive artificial immunity
D) Active artificial immunity |
|
Definition
B) passive natural immunity
BN253 |
|
|
Term
2. Which of these factors provides passive immunity?
A) Administration of a toxoid
B) Administration of a vaccine
C) Administration of immunoglobulin
D) Having an attack of the disease |
|
Definition
C) Administration of immunoglobulin
BN253 |
|
|
Term
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs passive immunity and understands that a patient requires passive immunity for which of these situations?
A) As a booster dose to stimulate the production of specific antibodies
B) For permanent immunity against a disease
C) To overcome an allergic reaction that is relatively mild
D) For ready-made antibodies after an exposure to pathogens |
|
Definition
D) For ready-made antibodies after an exposure to pathogens
BN253 |
|
|
Term
4. Which of these parts of the immune system provides for long-term immunity?
A) immunoglobulin G
B) Plasma cells
C) Immunoglobulin E
D) Mast cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. Which type of cell involved in cell-mediated immunity as a cytotoxic action on tumor cells?
A) Lysosomes
B) Histocompatability cells
C) memory cells
D) Natural killer cells |
|
Definition
D) Natural killer cells
BN251 |
|
|
Term
6. Which of these types of immunity results from receiving a tetanus injection?
A) Artificial passive immunity
B) Humoral immunity
C) Artificial active immunity
D) Cell-mediated immunity |
|
Definition
A and C: Passive or Active aritificial immunity (depending on injection type)
BN253
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Passive_immunity |
|
|
Term
7. Which of these tests does the nurse recognize would be performed to confirm a diagnosis, determine a prognosis, or evaluate the effectiveness of treatment?
A) Western blod
B) sedimentation rate
C) Skin tests
D) Biopsy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For which of these conditions would the nurse review a patient's laboratory values for increased eosinophils?
A) Allergic reactions
B) Acute viral infections
C) Cancer
D) Autoimmune diseases |
|
Definition
A) Allergic reactions
BN237-238 |
|
|
Term
9. Which of these medications suppresses C-reactive protein levels?
A) Antibiotics and diuretics
B) Epinephrine and antihistamines
C) Antihypertensives andf antineoplastic agents
D) Aspirin and steroids |
|
Definition
D) Aspirin and steroids
CRP is a protein produced by the liver during inflammation. |
|
|
Term
10. Of these tests used to diagnose HIV, which actually tests for the virus?
A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
B) Polymerase chain reaction testing
C
D) P24 antigen testing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. Which of these does the nurse understand is true about the classes of antibodies?
A) Immunoglobulin A is not found in breast milk.
B) Immunoglobulin G provides short-term immunity
C) Immunoglobulin M crosses the placenta.
D) Immunoglobulin E is not involved in allergy reactions. |
|
Definition
B) Immunoglobulin G provides short-term immunity.
process of elimination |
|
|
Term
12. Which of tehse diagnostic lab tests is used to confirm the diagnosis of HIV?
A) Antinuclear antibodies
B) Immunoglobulin assay
C) Rheumaoid factor
D) Western blot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. The body's ability to destroy specific pathogens and to prevent infectious disease is called a(n)
A) Immunity
B) Vaccine
C) Lymphocyte
D) Macrophage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. A foreigh substance ithat enters the body and causes the body to produce an immune response is called a(n)
A) Lumphocyte
B) Antigen
C) Antibody
D) Leukocyte |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. The cells responsible for the "memory" that provides us with permanent immunity are the
A) B lymphocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) Thrombocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. What does the body produce in response to an antigen?
A) Allergy
B) Antibody
C) Immunodeficiency
D) Leukocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. The thymus is responsible for
A) Maturation of T lymphocytes
B) Filtratoin of lymph fluid
C) regulation of antigen production
D) Active, aturally acquired immunity |
|
Definition
A) Maturation of T lymphocytes
BN250 |
|
|
Term
18. Which of the following is not true regarding T lymphocytes?
A) T cells make up approximately 80-90% of the total lymphocytes.
B) T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity (they combine with antigens).
C) T cells are responsible for fighting cancer cells and viruses, and are responsible for tissue rejection after organ transplantation.
D) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity. |
|
Definition
D) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity.
BN249, 253 |
|
|
Term
19. If Johnny is exposed to and develops chicken pox, he will develop a permanent immunity. This type of imunity is a(n)
A) Active natorally acquired immunity
B) Active artificially acquired immunity
C) passive naturally acquired immunity
D) Passive artificially acquired immunity |
|
Definition
A) Active natorally acquired immunity
BN253 |
|
|
Term
20. Johnny visits his pediatrician who administers a vaccine to him. This immunity is a(n)
A) Active naturally acquired immunity
B
C) passive naturally acquired immunity
D) Passive artificially acquired immunity |
|
Definition
B) Active artificially acquired immunity
BN253 |
|
|
Term
21. During pregnancy, the fetus is protected from disease by a(n)
A) Active natorally acquired immunity
B) Active artificially acquired immunity
C) passive naturally acquired immunity
D) Passive artificially acquired immunity |
|
Definition
C) passive naturally acquired immunity
BN253 |
|
|
Term
22. The group of gamma globulins that are responsible for allergic responses are
A) A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgD
D) IgE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23. The group of gamma globulins that are responsible for protecting the fetus after birth are
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgD
D) IgE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
24. The elderly are more prone to infection because they have
A) Thinner skin
B) A decreased number of functioning neurons
C) A decreased number of T and B cells
D) Delirium |
|
Definition
C) A decreased number of T and B cells
BN254 |
|
|
Term
25. You, the nurse, would suspect an allergic reaction if which of the following signs or symptoms were present?
A) Hives and asthma
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) heat and fatigue
D) Petechia and tachycardia |
|
Definition
A) Hives and asthma
BN1279 |
|
|
Term
26. Children with spina bifida are a special concern with regard to the immune system because
A) These children have reduced growth and development; therefore, their immune systems remain immature until adulthood
B) These children are at risk ofr latex allergies and the results may be life-threatening
C) These children are at risk for skin breakdown as a result of lack of mobility
D) These children have less oral intake and less urine output as a result of spina bifida, and this puts them at risk for pneumonia. |
|
Definition
B) These children are at risk ofr latex allergies and the results may be life-threatening
BN250 |
|
|
Term
27. Which of the following would be an example of nonspecific immunity?
A) Cilia in the respiratory tract
B) Neutrophils ingesting and destroying bacteria
C) Hydrochloric acid in the stomach
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The function of bone marrow is
A) Production of B and T luymphocytes
B) Development of thrombocytes
C) Development of erythrocytes
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29. The type of immunity that is described as a "lock-and-key" mechanism that causes an antigen to become harmless to the body is called
A) Antibody-mediated immunity
B) Phagocytotic immunity
C) Nonspecific immunity
D) Cell-mediated immunity |
|
Definition
A) Antibody-mediated immunity
BN253 |
|
|
Term
30. Antibodies destroy antigens by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Neutralizing toxins
B) Complement fixation
C) facilitating phagocytosis
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31. The elderly have an increased susceptibility to infection. Which of the following is true with regard to the elderly person's immune system?
A) A change in temperature is often more significant than the actual temperature.
B) Delirium is always a sign of an infectious process in the elderly.
C) the baseline body temperature in an older adult is usually higher than in a younger adult because of an increased metabolic rate in the elderly.
D) The cerebral hypoxia that occurs in the elderly is a result of the imcreased number of T and B lymphocytes in the body that are fighting bacteria. |
|
Definition
A) A change in temperature is often more significant than the actual temperature.
BN254 |
|
|
Term
32. The cornerstone of the immune system is
A) erythrocytes
B) Thrombocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Leukocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33. If an initial ELISA test returns positive, which of these testing protocols is recommended for HIV testing?
A) RThe ELISA test is repeated
B) A rheumatoid factor test is done.
C) The western blot test is done.
D) Viral load studies are done. |
|
Definition
C) The western blot test is done.
BN1287 |
|
|
Term
34. Which of the following types of immunity involve T-helper and B lymphocytes?
A) Humoral immunity
B) passive immunity
C) Cell-mediated immunity
D) Acquired immunity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35. Which of these types of immunity involve only T lymphocytes?
A) Humoral immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Cell-mediated immunity
D) Acquired immunity |
|
Definition
C) Cell-mediated immunity
BN250 |
|
|
Term
36. Which of these is the older adult patient more prone to than a young adult?
A) High fevers
B) Autoimmune disorders
C) Antigen recognition
D) Antibody production |
|
Definition
B) Autoimmune disorders
BN254 |
|
|
Term
Which of these occurs initially in Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
A) Thyroid production decreases.
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) production decreases
C) Thyroid production increases
D) TSH production increases |
|
Definition
C) Thyroid production increases
MS1005 |
|
|
Term
38. Which of these immune cells is the defective cell in the disease hypogammaglobulinemia?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Mast cells
D) Plasma cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
39. Serum sickness occurs after the administration of which of the following?
A) Penicillins and sulfonamides
B) Cryoprecipitate and factor IX
C) Whole blood and packed red blood cells
D) Steroids and immunosuppressants |
|
Definition
A) Penicillins and sulfonamides
MS309 |
|
|
Term
40. Which of these would the nurse recognize as a complication of allergic rhinitis?
A) Nasal septal defect
B) Nasal polyps
C) Headaches
D) Rhinorrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
41. Which of these nursing actions would be appropriate for a patient diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A) No intramuscular injections
B) Good handwashing techniques
C) Assistance with ambulation
D) manual blood pressures |
|
Definition
| C) Assistance with ambulation |
|
|
Term
42. A patient has had a portion of his stomach removed and without vitamin B12 injections may begin to experience which of these manifestations?
A) Numbness and tingling, weakness, and glossitis
B) Fever, malaise, muscle soreness, and diarrhea
C) Urticaria,angioedema, anorexia, pruritus, and blistered lesions
D) Frequent infections, fever, malaise, vertigo, and lymphadenopathy |
|
Definition
A) Numbness and tingling, weakness, and glossitis
MS1034 |
|
|
Term
Replacement therapy cannot be given for which of these types of immunoglobulins?
A) IgM
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
44. A patient is stung by a wasp. Which of these manifestations would the nurse expect to see if an allergic reaction develops?
A) Pallor around the sting sites
B) Hives
C) Jugular vein distention
D) retinal hemorrhage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
45. Which of these medications would the nurse anticipate being administered immediately to a patient having a severe allergic reaction?
A) Oral Benadryl
B) Oral epinephrine
C) IV Benadryl
D) IV epinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
46. Which of these medications would the nurse anticipate being administered secondarily to a patient having a severe allergic reaction to control itching?
A) Benadryl
B) Epinephrine
C) Immunosuppressives
D) Solu-Cortef |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
47. A patient is stabilized after having an allergic reaction. Which of these preventative instructions should be reinforced at this time?
A) She should stay indoors as much as possible.
B)She should wear insect repellent when she is outdoors.
C) Se should wear Medic-Alert identification
D) She should take corticosteroids prior to going outdoors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
48. A patient has a long-standing history of allergies to pollen. Which of these actions, if performed by the patient, would indicate understanding of how to control his disease?
A) gardening outdoors on dry, windy days
B) Driving her car with the windows open during high pollen counts
C) Taking frequent walks outside in spring when the weather is warm
D) Wearing a mask when mowing the lawn |
|
Definition
D) Wearing a mask when mowing the lawn
BN1281 |
|
|
Term
Which of these environmental modifications for a patient who is allergic to dust would be the most helpful in controlling symptoms?
A) Installing a hot air heater
B) Covering the floors with wall-to-wall carpeting
C) Using heavy draperies on sunny windows
D) Encasing mattresses in plastic |
|
Definition
D) Encasing mattresses in plastic
BN1281 |
|
|
Term
50. A patient is experiencing an episode of urticaria. Which of these interventions may assist the patient in controlling the symptoms of this disease?
A) Using relaxation techniques
B) Avoiding tub baths
C) taking one aspirin daily
D) Drinking decaffinated coffee |
|
Definition
| A) Using relaxation techniques |
|
|
Term
A patient has developed hemolytic anemia related to the administration of penicillin. How can the nurse best explain this disease process to the patient?
A) "An allergy to penicillin is destroying platelets for unknown reasons."
B) "An antigen-antibody reaction is causing destruction of red blood cells."
C) "Allergens are invading the bone marrow and interfering with red blood cell production."
D) "The red blood cells are being consumed inappropriately." |
|
Definition
B) "An antigen-antibody reaction is causing destruction of red blood cells."
BN1253 |
|
|
Term
A patient is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Ten minutes after the infusion begins the patient complains of low back pain and a headache. Which of these nursing actions is essential now?
A) massage her back and elevate the head of the bed.
B) Change her position.
C) Turn off the blood infusion.
D) Administer aspirin as prescribed. |
|
Definition
C) Turn off the blood infusion.
BN1251 |
|
|
Term
A patient is receiveing a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Before administering the transfusion, which of these nursing checks is essential?
A) Very patient's admitting medical diagnosis.
B) Verify blood type of paient and donor
C) Verify patient's hematocrit level.
D) Verify patients hemoglobin level. |
|
Definition
| B) Verify blood type of paient and donor |
|
|
Term
The nurse is teaching a atient with allergic rhinitis what may rgger it. Which of these may trigger allergic rhinitis?
A) Dust
B) Topical ointments
C) Oral medications
D) Food |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Urticaria is classified as which of these types of hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which of these ways does the nurse understand urticaria differs from angioedema?
A) It is less pruritic.
B) It has more widespread skin lesions.
C) It has mucous membrane edema.
D) It lasts a shorter period of time. |
|
Definition
D) It lasts a shorter period of time.
MS1001 |
|
|
Term
Which of these nursing actions would take priority when caring for a patient with a severe case of angioedema?
A) Maintenance of a patent airway
B) Strict use of infection control procedures
C) Maintenanc of fluid balance
D) Education regarding immunotherapy |
|
Definition
A) Maintenance of a patent airway
MS1001 |
|
|
Term
Which of these nursing actions would be appropraite for a patient with serum sickness?
A) Discussing with the patient and significant other the need for genetic counselling
B) Administration of immunosuppression medications
C) Closely monitoring patient during the transfusion of blood products
D) Assessing for a decrease in urine output and pale extremities |
|
Definition
D) Assessing for a decrease in urine output and pale extremities
MS1002 |
|
|
Term
| Which of these irritants causes contact dermatities? A) Fire ants B) Poison ivy C) Rubber D) Bleach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient had a kidney transplant 5 days ago. She had been a very outgoing and jovial. This morning she is very quiet, refusing breakfast. She also is refusing AM care and ambulation. Which of these would be the most appropriate nursing action at this time?
A) Notify the physician for lab orders.
B) Inform the family that the patient is beginning to have signs of a rejection
C) Spend extra time with the patient, allowing her to verbalize her feelings.
D) notify the social worker for discharge follow-up care. |
|
Definition
| C) Spend extra time with the patient, allowing her to verbalize her feelings. |
|
|
Term
Which of these nursing actions would be most appropraite for a patient with severe ankylosing spondylities?
A Administer narcotic analgesics
B Provide activity every 2 hours
C Encourage a high fiber diet
D Provide tepid tub soaks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these types of immunity is most affected in hypogammaglobulinemia?
A) passive natural immunity
B) Cell-mediated immunity
C) passive active immunity
D) Humoral immunity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these outcomes when caring for a patient who has acquired immunodefficiency syndrome(AIDS) should recieve priority?
A) Remain free of infection
B) Maintain baseline weight
C) Report high self-esteem
D) Remain socially active |
|
Definition
| A) Remain free of infection |
|
|
Term
64. A patient who has human immunodeficiency virus(HIV) asks the nurse if thinking about dying frequently is common with HIV. Which ofthese ia an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) HIV is a serious disease that results in death
B) HIV has a very high mortality rate,so it is realistic to plan for death.
C) HIV is now considered a chronic disease with treatment
D) Thinking about death will not change the prognosis. |
|
Definition
C) HIV is now considered a chronic disease with treatment
MS1008 |
|
|
Term
65. Which of these is a relatively common opportunistic infection that a patient with HIV may develop?
A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) Crytosporidiosis
D) Cryptococcosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
66. When caring for a patient with AIDS,which of these nursing actions would be most appropraite for infection control
A) Wear sterile gloves for any patient contact
B) Wear clean gloves for body fluid contact
C) Wear waterproof gown at all times
D) Wear a mask for any patient contact. |
|
Definition
B) Wear clean gloves for body fluid contact
BN1292 |
|
|
Term
67. Which of these explanations would be appropriate for the nurse to tell the family of a patient diagnosed with HIV about the trasmission of the HIV virus?
A) HIV enters the body through breaks i the skin or mucous membranes
B) HIV can be spread by causual contact
C) HIV lives for long periods outside the body
D) HIV is most commonly transmitted via tears and saliva. |
|
Definition
A) HIV enters the body through breaks i the skin or mucous membranes
MS1012 |
|
|
Term
68. When assesing a patient who has AIDS, which manifestations would the nurse expect to identify?
A) chest pain
B) Hypertension
C) Pustular skin lesions
D) Diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
69. Which of these explanations about the transmission of HIV virus should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the family of a patient who has HIV?
A) HIV spreads by contact with infected blood.
B) HIV can be spread by sharing eating utensils.
c) HIV is spread by casual contact with others
D) HIV is commonly transmitted by tears or saliva. |
|
Definition
A) HIV spreads by contact with infected blood.
MS1012 |
|
|
Term
When a patient who has AIDS expresses concern about telling others, which of these responses would be appropriate by the nurse?
A) "You should tell those who have a reason to know"
B) "It would be best to tell everyone you know."
C) "Your diagnosis will be discovered anyway by those you know."
D) "Secrecy is a poor idea since it eill erode your self-esteem." |
|
Definition
| A) "You should tell those who have a reason to know" |
|
|
Term
71. When caring for a patient who has had diagnosic testing for HIV, which of these tests should the nurse review to determine the presence of the virus?
A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B) Polymerase chain reaction testing
C) Western blot
D) P24 antigen testing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
72. Which of these actions would appropriate for the nurse to use in following standard precautions for protection from HIV exposure?
A) Wash your open skin lesion after providing care.
B) Put on gloves before touching body fluids.
C Recap intramuscular needles following injections.
D) Remove one finger of the gloves during venipuncture. |
|
Definition
| B) Put on gloves before touching body fluids. |
|
|
Term
73. Which specific cell of the immune system is monitores to determine the progression of AIDS?
A) Neutrophils
B) Phagocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) CD4+ lymphocytes |
|
Definition
D) CD4+ lymphocytes
BN1287 |
|
|
Term
74. In educating patients, the nurse should recognize that which of these is the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection?
A) Premarital serological screening
B) Prophylactic exposure treatment
C) HIV screening for pregnant women
D) Education about preventive behaviors |
|
Definition
| D) Education about preventive behaviors |
|
|
Term
| When a patient is exposed to HIV, initial symptoms would most likely include which of these? A) Ureticeria, sneezing, pruritus. B) Fever, rash,joint pain C) weight loss,night sweats D) Tremors, edema, coughing |
|
Definition
| B) Fever, rash,joint pain |
|
|
Term
| If the initial enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test returns positive, which of these testing protocols is recommended for HIV testing? A) The ELISA test is repeated. B) A rheumatoid factor test is done. C) The Western blot test is done. D) Viral load studies are done. |
|
Definition
| A) The ELISA test is repeated. BN1287 |
|
|
Term
Which of these is used to describe when enough antibodies to HIV are circulating to produce positive test results to standard HIV testing?
A) Contagous phase
B) Seroconversion
C) Recovery Phase
D) Infection |
|
Definition
B) Seroconversion
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Seroconversion |
|
|
Term
78. A patient asks, "What is the main purpose of these medications I take for my HIV." Which response by the nurse would be appropriate?
A) "They mark the virus for natural killer cekks to then destroy."
B) "They enacapsulate the virus-infected cells."
C) "They attract macrophages to the cells making the virus."
D) "They inhibit enzymes, which interferes with viral production." |
|
Definition
D) "They inhibit enzymes, which interferes with viral production."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reverse_transcriptase_inhibitor |
|
|
Term
Which of these actions does the nurse recognize is the treatment goal for HIV?
A Treating opportunistic infections
B Killing the HIV virus with medication
C Stimulating the immune system
D Keeping the HIV virus from replicaing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a patient is taking navirapine (Viramune), which of these instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
A) Monitor for flu-like symptoms
B) Monitor for rash
C) Observe urine color.
D) Report extremity pain. |
|
Definition
B) Monitor for rash
http://www.rxlist.com/viramune-drug.htm |
|
|
Term
Which of these manifestations should the family of a patient with AIDS, be instructed to report to the health practitioner immediately?
A) Dry mouth
B) Night sweats
C) Fever
D)Constipation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When teaching a patient how to prevent HIV transmission with condom use, which of these instructions should be include in the teaching plan?
A) Apply adequate oil-based lubricant.
B) Apply condom before penile erection occurs
C) Withfraw from partner while the penis is erect.
D) Use a nonlatex condom. |
|
Definition
C) Withfraw from partner while the penis is erect.
MS1013 |
|
|
Term
83. A patient with AIDS has been taught about foods to eat to reduce the risk of infection. Which of these foods should the patient select to demonstrate correct understanding?
A) Soft egg yolks
B) Pasteurized milk
C) Raw vegetables
D) Raw fruits |
|
Definition
B) Pasteurized milk
MS1021 |
|
|
Term
| The 6 Easy Steps to ABG Analysis: |
|
Definition
1- Is the pH normal?
2- Is the CO2 normal?
3- Is the HCO3 normal?
4- Does the CO2 or the HCO3 match the pH?
5- Does the CO2 or the HCO3 go the opposite direction of the pH?
6- Is the pO2 and the SaO2 normal? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Partial pressure of oxygen
- 80-100 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- partial pressure of carbon dioxide
- 35-45 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- measures hydrogen ions in blood
- 7.35 - 7.45
- high is alkaline
- low is acidic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- oxygen saturation
- amount of hemoglobin carrying O2
- 95-100% |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- pH low
- PaCO2 high
- HCO3 normal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- pH high
- PaCO2 low
- HCO3 normal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- pH low
- PaCO2 normal
- HCO3 low |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- pH high
- PaCO2 normal
- HCO3 high |
|
|
Term
pH 7.22
PaCO2 55
HCO3 25
What do we do? |
|
Definition
| Treat for respiratory acidosis: O2 therapy, ventilation, bronchodilators, etc. |
|
|
Term
pH 7.50
PaCO2 42
HCO3 33
What do we do? |
|
Definition
| Treat for metabolic alkalosis: IV fluids, measures to reduce excess base. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| laryngectomy: risk factors (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| laryngectomy: nursing interventions (4) |
|
Definition
- keep airway open
- keep water out of opening
- writing tools for communication
- no narcotics |
|
|
Term
| Complication for failure to take TB medication correctly |
|
Definition
| Developed resistance to TB meds: Will need something stronger. |
|
|
Term
| condition resulting from bradypnea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| condition resulting from tachypnea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Continuous positive airway pressure |
|
|
Term
| Common treatment for sleep apnea (what does it do?) |
|
Definition
| CPAP - keeps airways open |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| effects of aging on respiratory system (6) |
|
Definition
- Weakened and atrophied respiratory muscles
- Reduced elastic recoil of lung tissue
- Deteriorating cilia
- Decreased cough reflex
- Reduced effectiveness of alveolar macrophages
- Reduced number of alveoli |
|
|
Term
| best med order for pulmonary embolism |
|
Definition
| Heparin - works faster than coumadin |
|
|
Term
| Concern about nasal spray over-use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| symptoms persist after disease process is over, due to overuse of nasal spray meds. |
|
|
Term
| Control test to order with TB test (rules out false positive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Control test to order with TB test (rules out false positive |
|
|
Term
| length of antibiotic treatment for TB |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Interventions to keep open airway for patient on bed-rest (5) |
|
Definition
- turning
- coughing
- deep breathing
- fluids
- suctioning |
|
|
Term
| medication for thinning secretions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are two different drugs used concurrently to treat TB |
|
Definition
| To minimize resistance to the drugs (by keeping low doses of each). |
|
|
Term
| Common drug treatment for TB: ________ with either ________, ________ or _______ |
|
Definition
| INH with either rifampin, ethambutol or pyrazinamide |
|
|
Term
| What test is done to check for breathing condition? |
|
Definition
| arterial blood gases (ABGs) |
|
|
Term
| Pneumonia patient is on antibiotics. WBCs increase. Action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pneumonia patient is on antibiotics. WBCs decrease. Action? |
|
Definition
| None (continue to monitor, meds working) |
|
|
Term
| typical test order to monitor condition of pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| drug class that is an epistaxis risk |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| post-bronscospy: what to look for before feeding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Consequences of strep not treated ASAP (2) |
|
Definition
- rheumatic fever
- glomerulonephritis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- many strains
- can be fatal (from complications) |
|
|
Term
| Equipment needed for throat culture (2) |
|
Definition
- Tongue blade,
- culture Q-tip (sterile) |
|
|
Term
| Another name for antibiotic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inflammation of the pleura (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| AKA pleuritis: inflammation of the pleura |
|
|
Term
| pleural effusion: definition |
|
Definition
| excess fluid fills the area between the membrane's layers |
|
|
Term
| excess fluid fills the area between the membrane's layers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| symptomatic difference between pleurisy and pleural effusion |
|
Definition
Pleural effusion:
- dyspnea
- tachycardia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- sharp pains with each breath
- Friction rub heard |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
P - Provoking factors: What causes the pain
Q - Quality: what kind of pain
R - Radiation: does the pain travel anywhere
S: severity/symptoms - how bad (1-10); any other symptoms accompany the pain
T: Timing |
|
|
Term
| pleural effusion: treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| anything that inflames lungs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following assessment findings in the patient with pneumonia most indicates a need to remind the
patient to cough and deep breathe?
a. The patient complains of chest pain.
b. The patient has removed her oxygen.
c. The nurse auscultates wheezes and crackles.
d. The nurse notes a fever of 101° F. |
|
Definition
| c. The nurse auscultates wheezes and crackles. |
|
|
Term
The nurse is caring for a patient with tuberculosis who puts his light on because he needs to use the bathroom.
There are green surgical masks in the isolation cabinet
outside his room. What should the nurse do?
a. Fit the mask firmly to his or her face before going
into the room.
b. Place two masks together and fit them firmly to the
face.
c. Ask the patient to put on a mask before entering
the room.
d. Ask the patient to wait while the nurse obtains a
special high-efficiency mask. |
|
Definition
d. Ask the patient to wait while the nurse obtains a
special high-efficiency mask. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following assessment findings does the nurse expect in the patient with emphysema?
a. Purulent sputum
b. Diminished breath sounds
c. Generalized edema
d. Dull chest pain |
|
Definition
| b. Diminished breath sounds |
|
|
Term
Which of the following assessment findings in the patient with pneumothorax does the nurse report immediately?
a. Positioning of the trachea toward the unaffected
side
b. Frequent dry cough
c. Moderate pain at the chest tube site
d. Diminished breath sounds over the affected area |
|
Definition
| a. Positioning of the trachea toward the unaffected side |
|
|
Term
As the nurse enters Mr. Jones’s room, he notes that the patient has become confused and combative over the past hour. Which of the following actions is appropriate first?
a. Assess Mr. Jones; check to see if his oxygen is flowing correctly.
b. Page the physician stat.
c. Put up Mr. Jones’s side rails and apply soft restraints.
d. Administer an oral sedative. |
|
Definition
| a. Assess Mr. Jones; check to see if his oxygen is flowing correctly. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for the patient with an ineffective breathing pattern?
a. Encourage the patient to cough and deep breathe.
b. Encourage oral fluids.
c. Teach the patient controlled diaphragmatic
breathing.
d. Allow the patient to rest between activities. |
|
Definition
| c. Teach the patient controlled diaphragmatic breathing. |
|
|
Term
Mrs. Jackson had an abdominal hysterectomy yesterday. The nurse enters her room and finds her acutely short of
breath, with a look of panic in her eyes. Which of the
following additional symptoms is most important as the
nurse decides what to do?
a. Mrs. Jackson complained of pain in her left leg
earlier this morning.
b. Mrs. Jackson states that she also has a headache.
c. Mrs. Jackson has a recent history of an upper
respiratory infection.
d. Mrs. Jackson has not eaten in 24 hours. |
|
Definition
| b. Mrs. Jackson states that she also has a headache. |
|
|
Term
1. Which of the following positions is recommended for a patient experiencing a nosebleed?
a. Lying down with feet elevated
b. Sitting up with neck fully extended
c. Lying down with a small pillow under the head
d. Sitting up leaning slightly forward |
|
Definition
| d. Sitting up leaning slightly forward |
|
|
Term
2. Which of the following is the best explanation by a nurse for why a physician did not prescribe antibiotics for influenza?
a. “Most cases of influenza are caused by antibiotic-resistant bacteria.”
b. “Influenza is caused by viruses.”
c. “Antibiotics have too many serious side effects.”
d. “Antibiotics can interact with other medications used for influenza.” |
|
Definition
| b. “Influenza is caused by viruses.” |
|
|
Term
3. Which of the following responses is correct when a patient asks why her physician didn’t order that new antiviral drug for her flu?
a. “The antiviral drugs are for AIDS, not the flu.”
b. “The side effects of the antiviral drugs are worse than having the flu.”
c. “Antiviral drugs are only for children.”
d. “These drugs only work if you start them within 48 hours after flu symptoms start.” |
|
Definition
| d. “These drugs only work if you start them within 48 hours after flu symptoms start.” |
|
|
Term
4. After a laryngectomy, which of the following assessments takes priority?
a. Airway patency
b. Nutritional status
c. Lung sounds
d. Patient acceptance of surgery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. Which of the following communication methods will not work for the patient with a laryngectomy?
a. Placing a finger over the stoma
b. Providing a special valve that diverts air into the esophagus
c. Obtaining a picture board
d. Teaching the patient esophageal speech |
|
Definition
| a. Placing a finger over the stoma |
|
|
Term
6. Which of the following statements best explains why the nurse is careful when administering narcotics to a
laryngectomee?
a. Most laryngectomees have been drug addicts in the past.
b. Even low doses of narcotics may cause respiratory arrest in the laryngectomee.
c. Narcotics can depress the cough reflex.
d. Laryngectomy patients have very little pain after surgery. |
|
Definition
| c. Narcotics can depress the cough reflex. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| medication to help stop epistaxis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing interventions for nosebleed (3) |
|
Definition
- ice on forehead
- lean forward
- do not swallow blood (causes nausea) |
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for lung cancer (3) |
|
Definition
- smoking
- chemical exposure
- environmental factors |
|
|
Term
| What would be the appropriate time to remove a chest tube? (2) |
|
Definition
- when drainage stops
- NO bubbling in water seal chamber |
|
|
Term
| Post-op complication for Deviated septum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Requirement for TB patient to leave room |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of infection is NOT treated with antimicrobials |
|
Definition
| Any type of infection that is NOT bacterial (ie viral) |
|
|
Term
| s/sx of sinus infection (2) |
|
Definition
- headache
- facial PRESSURE around the affected sinus |
|
|
Term
| Highest risk group for acquiring TB |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| laryngeal cancer: s/sx (2) |
|
Definition
- hoarse voice over 2 weeks
- difficulty swallowing |
|
|
Term
| Patient has pneumonectomy: What side should patient lie on? Why? |
|
Definition
| UNAFFECTED side. Prevent remaining lung and organs from shifting toward the empty space. |
|
|
Term
| Note about chest tube dressing (what to do and why) |
|
Definition
- Leave the dressing alone (don't change it)
- It is an occlusive (airtight) dressing designed to prevent air from entering thorax. |
|
|
Term
| Complications of untreated strep throat (2) |
|
Definition
- rheumatic fever
- glomerulonephritis |
|
|
Term
| Type of speech used by larangectomees |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| swallowing air and regurgitating it through esophagus to produce sound. |
|
|
Term
| cystic fibrosis: etiology |
|
Definition
- affects any gland that secretes
- gives tenacious secretions
- genetic |
|
|
Term
| cystic fibrosis: diagnostic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- aggressive postural drainage (before meals)
- mouth care |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pt should avoid red-color drink |
|
|
Term
| what is the most complication of influenza |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
patches of keratosis
smoking |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Diverticulitis develops from diverticulosis. Diverticulitis results if one of these diverticula becomes inflamed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| involves the formation of pouches (diverticula) on the outside of the colon. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
thrush
fungal CANDIDA infection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of the mucus lining of the mouth. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| painful Anal lesions involving a shallow local blood vessel |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dicyclomine hydrochloride(antispas,bentyl) |
|
|
Term
| E.COLI serotype 0157 H7 = what we need to KNOW |
|
Definition
| 1)very VIRILANT 2)NOT a normal FLORA 3) transmitted by UNDERCOOKED MEAT 4)S/S abd cramping,bloody diarrhea,diffuse abd tenderness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- exam of hepatobiliary system with flexible endoscope into esophagus
- multiple positions required
- if meds given, monitor for signs of respiratory and CNS depression, hypotension, oversedation, vomiting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- V/S
- gag reflex
- monitor for signs of perforation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- NPO several hours prior
- sedation |
|
|
Term
| FAILURE of the cardiac sphincter to relax, restricting passage of food to the stomach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1)bacterial plaque on teeth as a ineffective oral hygiene
2)vitamin deficiencies
3)DM
4)anemia
5)leukemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) bleeding gums, 2) erythematous gums 3) edematous and tender gums |
|
|
Term
| Parenteral nutrition: nursing considerations (6) |
|
Definition
- start slowly
- check glucose q6hr
- strict steril when changing botles, tubing, filters, dressings
- constant rate
- monitor skin integrity
- client teaching re line management |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| motility disorder of the lower portion of the oseophagus in which food cannot pass into the stoma. |
|
|
Term
| anoscopy, proctoscopy & sigmoidoscopy: postprocedure |
|
Definition
| monitor for rectal bleeding and signs of perforation and peritonitis |
|
|
Term
| anoscopy, proctoscopy & sigmoidoscopy: preprocedure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| anoscopy: description (3) |
|
Definition
- requires rigid scope to examine anal canal
- client in knee-chest position with back inclined 45 degrees
- biopsies and polypectomies possible |
|
|
Term
| ball of food that has mixed with saliva |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| caries nursing intervention |
|
Definition
| if old people are not eating check mouth or check denture |
|
|
Term
| chief coenzyme of gastric juice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| commonly administered antiemetics(13) |
|
Definition
Diphenidol
Dolasetron(Anzemet)
Dronabinol(Marinol)
Granisetron(Kytril)
Hydroxyzine pamoate(Vistaril)
Meclizine hyrochloride(Antivert)
Metoclopramide(Reglan)
ondansentron(Zofran)
prochlorperazine(compazine)
Promethazine hydrochloride(phenergan)
Scopolamine transdermal(transderm-scop)
Thiethylperazine meleate(Torecan)
trimethobenzamide hydrochloride(tigan) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| diagnostic tests for alcholasia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcer: causes (5) |
|
Definition
- alcohol
- smoking
- stress
- caffeine
- NSAIDS, aspirin, Corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcer: definition |
|
Definition
| breakdown of mucosa in duodenum |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcer: nursing interventions (6) |
|
Definition
- monitor V/S
- monitor for signs of bleeding
- abdominal assessments
- bland diet
- small frequent meals
- stop smoking |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- burning pain in epigastric area 2-4 hrs after eating and at night
- pain is often relieved by eating
- weight gain
- melena |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: complications (4) |
|
Definition
- bleeding
- perforation
- gastric outlet obstruciton
- intractable disease |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: description |
|
Definition
| break in the mucosa of the duodenum |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: interventions (10) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- bland diet
- small frequent meals
- rest
- no smoking
- no alcohol
- no caffeine
- no aspirin, corticosteroids, NSAIDs
- antacids
- H2-receptor antagonists |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: risk factors (8) |
|
Definition
- alcohol
- smoking
- stress
- caffeine
- aspirin
- corticosteroids
- NSAIDs
- H. pylori |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: s/sx (3) |
|
Definition
- burning pain in midepigastric area 1.5-3 hrs after meal
- food relieves pain
- melena (more often than hematemesis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| effects of Aging on the Digestive System (5) |
|
Definition
- The mouth becomes drier
- Taste decreases, especially sweet and sour tastes.
- Cardiac sphincter relaxes - leads to reflux and heartburn
- Food stays in stomach longer - indigestion
- Peristalsis decreases - constipation |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: client education (7) |
|
Definition
- no alcohol
- no caffeine
- no chocolate
- no smoking
- no aspirin or NSAIDs
- reduce stress
- rest |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: complications (3) |
|
Definition
- hemorrhage
- perforation
- pyloric obstruction |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: description |
|
Definition
| ulceration of mucosal lining that extends to submucosal layer of stomach |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: interventions (8) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- bland diet
- small, frequent meals
- H2 receptor antagonists
- antacids
- anticholinergics
- mucosal barrier protectants 1 hr before meal
- prostaglandins |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: interventions during active bleeding (10) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- NPO
- IV fluid replacement
- monitor I & O
- monitor hgb/hct
- blood transfusions
- ng tube
- lavage (saline or tap water)
- Pitressin
- assess for signs of other problems (see other card) |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: interventions during active bleeding; assess for signs of .. |
|
Definition
- dehydration
- hypovolemic shock
- sepsis
- respiratory insufficiency |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: postop interventions (10) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- Fowler's
- fluids and electrolytes
- I&O
- bowel sounds
- monitor ng suction
- do not irrigate or remove tube
- NPO 1-3 days (wait for peristalsis)
- progressive diet
- monitor for postop complications |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: risk factors (8) |
|
Definition
- stress
- smoking
- corticosteroids
- NSAIDs
- alcohol
- gastritis
- family history
- H. pylori |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- gnawing, sharp pain in or left of midepigastric region
- food accentuates pain
- hematemesis (more than melena) |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: surgical interventions (5) |
|
Definition
- gastrectomy
- vagotomy
- gastric resection
- Billroth (I and II)
- pyloroplasty |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of gastric mucosa |
|
|
Term
| gastritis: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
- hold fluids and food until symptoms subside. Then feed progressively
- ice chips
- clear liquids
- solid food |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- abdominal discomfort
- headache
- anorexia
- hiccups |
|
|
Term
| gastroesophageal reflux disease: description (2) |
|
Definition
- backflow of contents into esophagus
- caused by incompetent lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric stenosis, or a motility disorder |
|
|
Term
| gastroesophageal reflux disease: interventions (7) |
|
Definition
- avoid factors that decrease lower esophageal sphincter pressure
- low-fat, high-fiber diet
- no caffeine, tobacco, carbonated drinks
- loose clothes
- elevate head of bed on blocks
- no anticholinergics
- laparoscopic fundoplication |
|
|
Term
| gastroesophageal reflux disease: s/sx (5) |
|
Definition
- pyrosis
- dyspepsia
- regurgitation
- pain and difficulty swallowing
- hypersalivation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Def: the inflammation of the gums;
N/I: limit acidic food |
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia has to do with the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia: complications (7) |
|
Definition
- ulceration
- hemorrhage
- regurgitation and aspiration
- strangulation
- necrosis
- peritonitis
- mediastinitis |
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia: description (2) |
|
Definition
- part of stomach herniates through the diaphragm into the thorax
- result of weakening of muscles of diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia: interventions (5) |
|
Definition
- med/surg like GE reflux
- small frequent meals
- limit fluids with meals
- do not recline for 1 hr after eating
- no anticholinergics |
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia: risk factors (5) |
|
Definition
- pregnancy
- ascites
- obesity
- tumors
- heavy lifting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- heartburn
- vomiting
- dysphagia
- feeling full |
|
|
Term
| in infants, projectile vomiting (vomiting with great force) can be a sign |
|
Definition
| pyloric stenosis (a narrowing of the pyloric sphincter) |
|
|
Term
| inflammatory disease of the intestines, tends to exacerbate, affects any part of the GI tract. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| medication therapy for H.pylori(triple therapy)(3) |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole(Flagyl),omeprazole (prilosec),and clarithromycin (Biaxin) |
|
|
Term
| nursing consideratons for acholasia! |
|
Definition
1 Teach the clients to eat slowly and in a peaceful setting.
2 Chew your food slowly to help move the food down into the stomach and drink plenty of fluids to help in movement of food. |
|
|
Term
| proton pump inhibitors(4) |
|
Definition
Esomeprazole(Nexium)
Lansoprazole(prevacid)
omeprazole(prilosec)
pantoprazole(protonix)
Rabeprazole(Aciphex) |
|
|
Term
| signs and symptoms of achalasia. (6) |
|
Definition
- dysphagia.
- regurgitation
- weight loss
- coughing when lying down
- pain like heartburn.
- aspiration |
|
|
Term
| surgical intervention for acolasia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| surgical treatment includes: |
|
Definition
| Dialation of the cardiac splinchter |
|
|
Term
| treatment of appendicities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ulcerative colitis: description (5) |
|
Definition
- ulcerative and inflammatory disease of the bowel resulting in poor absorption of nutrients.
- commonly begins in rectum, spreading upward
- edematous colon
- bleeding lesions- scar tissue, causing loss of elasticity
- remission and exacerbation periods |
|
|
Term
| ulcerative colitis: interventions (10) |
|
Definition
- NPO if acute
- restrict activity
- bowel sounds
- monitorfor abdominal tenderness/cramping
- monitor stools (color, consistency, blood)
- monitor for bowel perforation, peritonitis and hemorrhage
- low-residue, high-protein diet
- avoid gas-forming foods
- avoid whole grains, nuts, alcohol, etc.
- no smoking |
|
|
Term
| ulcerative colitis: s/sx (8) |
|
Definition
- anorexia
- weight loss
- malaise
- abdominal tenderness/cramping
- severe diarrhea (may contain blood/mucus
- dehydration/electrolyte imbalances
- anemia
- vitamin K deficiency |
|
|
Term
| ulcerative colitis: surgical intervention |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a waste product of red blood cell destruction?
A. Thrombin
B. iron
C. Bilirubin
D. intrinsic factor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is the stimulus for the formation of a blood clot or a platelet plug?
A. A rough surface
B. A smooth surface
C. An intact vessel
D The endothelial lining of a vessel |
|
Definition
A. A rough surface
HB, pg 265 |
|
|
Term
Which lymph nodes remove pathogens in the lymph coming from the head?
A. Thoracic nodes
B. Axillary nodes
C. cervical nodes
D. inguinal nodes |
|
Definition
C. cervical nodes
HB, pg 325 |
|
|
Term
Which lymph nodes remove pathogens in the lymph coming from the legs?
A.Thoracic nodes
B. axillary nodes
C. cervical nodes
D. inguinal nodes |
|
Definition
D. inguinal nodes
HB, pg 325 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following anatomical sites is used to obtain a bone marrow specimen?
A.posterior iliac crest
B. Long bones in the legs
C. ribs
D. humerus |
|
Definition
A. posterior iliac crest
HB, pg 259 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are white blood cells produced from the spleen?
A.macrophages and neutrophils
B Basophils and lymphocytes
C lymphocytes and monocytes
D. monocytes and eosinophils |
|
Definition
C. lymphocytes and monocytes
HB, pg 263 |
|
|
Term
Which term describes hemoglobin that has given up its oxygen to the body"s cells?
A reduced
B detached
C oxyhemoglobin
D Hyphoxyhemoglobin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long does the average red blood cell in live in the body?
A 30 days
B 60 days
C 90 days
D 120 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T cells and B cells are groups of which cell type?
A red cells
B lymphocytes
C platelets
D Eosinophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which ion is most necessary for blood clotting?
A potassium
B sodium
C calcium
D Magnesium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the normal number of red blood cells for a healthy adult?
A 8 to 10,000/mm3
B 1 to 2.5 million/mm3
C 4.5 to 6 million/mm3
D 8 to 10 million/mm3 |
|
Definition
C. 4.5 to 6 million/mm3
BN, pg 239 |
|
|
Term
Which organ removes old red blood cell from circulation?
A kidney
B spleen
C lung
D pancreas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms describes a large area of discoloration from hemorrhage under the skin?
A petechiae
B pallor
C Rubor
D Ecchymosis |
|
Definition
D. Ecchymosis
Medicine.net |
|
|
Term
Which of the following manifestations indicates long-term hypoxia?
A pulmonary crackles
B clubbed fingertips
C Dyspnea
D pallor |
|
Definition
B. clubbed fingertips
wikipedia |
|
|
Term
Which of the following nursing actions is essential when caring for a patient after a bone marrow biopsy?
A observe for bleeding
B Administer heparin as ordered to prevent clotting
C Hold pressure on the antecubital space for 30 minutes
D keep the patient NPO for 6 hours. |
|
Definition
A. observe for bleeding
BN, pg 1249 |
|
|
Term
A patient has a bone marrow aspiration from his posterior iliac crest. Before the procedure,his blood pressure was 132/82 mmHg,pulse 88/min.one hour after the procedure,his blood pressure is 108/70 mmHg,pulse 96/min.Which of the following assesments is least important at this time?
A check the punture site.
B Check to see whether he had any medication before the procedure
C Ask him if he feels lightheaded or dizzy.
D check his most recent complete blood count report. |
|
Definition
| D. check his most recent complete blood count report. |
|
|
Term
Which activity should be avoided for a patient with thrombocytopenia?
A Visits from family members
B intramuscular injections
C eating fresh fruits and vegetables
D Ambulation
c |
|
Definition
B. intramuscular injections
MS, pg 527 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following medications should be witheld from a patient with a bleeding disorder?
A. Digoxin(Lanoxin)
B. Thyroid hormone
C. Morphine
D. Aspirin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following blood products might be ordered for a patient to correct a clotting disorder?
A Packed red blood cells
B Albumin
C Packe1d white blood cells
D cryoprecipitates |
|
Definition
D. cryoprecipitates
MS, pg 516 |
|
|
Term
A patient who is taking warfarin(coumadin),5mg daily,has an international Normalized Ratio(INR) of 2.5 seconds.Which response by the nurse is best?
A. Hold the next dose of coumadin
B. Notify the physician ASAP
C. Give the daily coumadin as ordered
D. Prepare to administer vitamin K. |
|
Definition
C. Give the daily coumadin as ordered
MS, pg 515 |
|
|
Term
A patient is anemic and 2 units of packed red blood cells are prescribed.Which of the following intravenous solutuions is compatible with a blood transfusion?
A D5W
B D5/0.45NaCL
C 0.9% NaCL
D Lactated Ringers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following nursing assessments measures is necessary before and during a blood product infusion? A Vital signs B Bowel sounds C Pulpil reactivity D skin turgor |
|
Definition
| A. Vital signs BN, pg 1250 |
|
|
Term
What is the maximum time that blood can hang during infusion before it begins to deteriorate?
A 1 hour
B 2 hours
C 3 hours
D 4 hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient recieving blood begins complaining of severe chest pain and says she feels warm.Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A call the physician
B Take temperature,pulse, and respiration;do a cardiovascular assessment.
c. stop the blood transfusion
D. Administer nitroglycerin if ordered. |
|
Definition
c. stop the blood transfusion
BN, pg 1250 |
|
|
Term
Which needle size should a nurse insert if blood is to be infused?
A 12 gauge
B 18 gauge
C 22 gauge
D 26 gauge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the best way a licensed practical nurse can assist the health team to prevent a transfusion reaction?
A Warm the blood to 98.6 F before infusion.
B Assisit the registered nurse in correctly identifying the patient and the blood product.
C administer diphenhydramine(benadryl) before infusion
D Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes. |
|
Definition
B. Assisit the registered nurse in correctly identifying the patient and the blood product.
MS, pg 516 |
|
|
Term
A patient recievoing blood complains of dyspnea. The nurse ausculates the patients lungs and find cracles that were not present before the start of the transfusion.Which type of reaction should the nurse suspect?
A Hemolytic
B Anaphylactic
C Urticarial
D Circulatory overload |
|
Definition
D. Circulatory overload
MS, pg 518 |
|
|
Term
A patient has a white cell count of 8000/mm3.What concern does the nurse have about this finding?
A The patient has an infection
B The patient is at risk of infection
C The patient has a hematological disorder.
D There is no concern;this is a normal finding. |
|
Definition
D. There is no concern; this is a normal finding.
MS, pg 509 |
|
|
Term
What type of blood cells are deficient in a patient with anemia?
A Red blood cells(RBCs)
B White blood cells(WBNCs)
C Platelets |
|
Definition
A. Red blood cells(RBCs)
MS, pg 509 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following nutrient deficiencies are most likely to be the cause of anemia?
A Vitamin C,D, and selenium
B Iron,folic acid,and vitamin B12
C Vitamin A,calcium, and phosphorus
D Aluminum, vitamin E, and beta carotene. |
|
Definition
B. Iron,folic acid,and vitamin B12
MS, pg 510 |
|
|
Term
Which blood tests does the nurse check to monitor the progress of the patient with anemia?
A Electrolytes;blood urea nitrogen(BUN) and creatine
B Thrombin clotting time and prothrombin time
C WBC and platelet counts
D Hemoglobin and hematocrit |
|
Definition
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
MS, pg 509 |
|
|
Term
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropraite for the patient with anemia?
A Inefffective airway clearance related to dyspnea
B Activity intolerance related to tissue hypoxia
C Risk for infection related to reduction in circulating WBCs
D pain related to bone marrow dysfunction |
|
Definition
B. Activity intolerance related to tissue hypoxia
MS, pg 522 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the patiennt with iron deficiency anemia to eat?
A molasses and red meats
B citrus fruits and dairy products
C yellow vegetables,green teas
D Berries and natural cereals |
|
Definition
A. molasses and red meats
MS, pg 522 |
|
|
Term
The nurse is preparing to give an injection of iron (imferon) to a patient with anemia.why should the Z-track method for injection be used?
A To prevent tissue damage at the site
B To prevent pain at the site
C To prevent discoloration of the tissue at the site
D To promote faster absorption of the medication. |
|
Definition
C. To prevent discoloration of the tissue at the site
MS, pg 524 |
|
|
Term
A patient with thrombocytopenia is having pain.if each of the following medications is ordered,which should the nurse choose to administer?
A Acetaminophen with codeine(Tylenol#3)po
B Meperidine (demerol)IM
C Oxycodone with aspirin (perocodan)PO
D Morphine SQ |
|
Definition
| A. Acetaminophen with codeine(Tylenol#3)po |
|
|
Term
A patient with aplastic anemia is to receive an injction of erythropoietin (Epogen). She asks what the injection intended to do.Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
A it works like a blood transfusion to give you extra red blood cells
B it will inhibit the protein that is attacking byour red blood cells.
c It will stimulate your body to produce more of its own red blood cells
D it will give you energy while your body is recovering from the anemia. |
|
Definition
C. It will stimulate your body to produce more of its own red blood cells
MS, pg 525 |
|
|
Term
A 16 year old patient is admitted with sickle cell crises and has complaints of dyspnea and leg pain.What is the cause of pain in this patient?
A. A disturbance in cellular metabolism
B Expansion of bone marrow with a decrease in the number of circulating red blood cells.
C. Clumping of abnormal red blood cells,leading to obstruction of capillary blood flow.
D. Bleeding into joints because of rapid destruction of RBCs by the bone marrow. |
|
Definition
C. Clumping of abnormal red blood cells,leading to obstruction of capillary blood flow.
MS, pg 525 |
|
|
Term
Patients from which cultural background are most likely to have sickle cell anemia?
A Hispanic
B African
C Asian
D European |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following activities should the nurse discourage the patient with sickle cell anemia from engaging in?
A sexual activity
B Long distance driving
C Sitting for long periods
D skiing in the mountains |
|
Definition
D. skiing in the mountains
MS, pg 529 |
|
|
Term
What is the rationale for providing warm compress and blankets for the patient with sickle cell crises?
A sickle cell crises causes shivering and discomfort.
B Heat prevents vasoconstriction and impaired circulation
C Heat helps prevent the cells from becoming sickled
D Heat speeds production of new healthy red blood cells. |
|
Definition
B. Heat prevents vasoconstriction and impaired circulation
MS, 529 |
|
|
Term
Because they can trigger a crises,which of the following foods should be avoided by patients with sickle cell anemia?
A Alcoholic beverages
B Citrus fruits
C Chocolates and colas
D Whole grain products |
|
Definition
A. Alcoholic beverages
MS, pg 529 |
|
|
Term
A patient is admitted to he hospital with hypertension and vertigo related to polycythemia vera.For which of the following treatments should the nurse prepare the patient?
A injection of colony-building factors
B Therapeutic phlebotomy
C Splenectomy
D Myelogram |
|
Definition
B. Therapeutic phlebotomy
MS, pg 530 |
|
|
Term
Which laboratory study does the nurse monitor to help evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for polycythemia?
A Total protein
B WBC differential
C BUN
D Hematocrit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following nursing interventions best helps prevent complications in the patient with polycythemia?
A Encourage 3 liters of water daily
B Monitor intake and output
C Avoid use of injections for pain
D Maintain bedrest during treatment |
|
Definition
A. Encourage 3 liters of water daily
MS, pg 530 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following manifestations alerts the nurse to the possibility of disseminated intravascular coagulation(DIC)?
A Weakness of paralysis on one side
B Rising blood pressure and pulse
C Petechiae
D Absence of pulses in extremeties |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which nursing intervention is least likely to cause complications in the patient with DIC? A Administering intramuscular (IM) meperidine(Demerol) for pain B use of electric razor C Assisting the patient to brush his teeth D Offering aspirin for mild pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following definitions of purpura is correct?
A Small red spots over the skin
B Purpulish discoloration of the mucous membranes
C Hemorrhage into the skin
D Splinter hemorrhages under the fingernails |
|
Definition
C. Hemorrhage into the skin
MS, pg 531 |
|
|
Term
A comatose patient is admitted to the emergency department after an automobile accident.The nurse notes a Medic-Alert identification bracelet on his arm,which states that he has hemophilia. What should the nurse do first?
A Notify the physician of the bracelet
B Remove the bracelet and give it to the patients family member
C tape the bracelet to the patients arm
D Call the phone number on the bracelet. |
|
Definition
| A. Notify the physician of the bracelet |
|
|
Term
Which of the following assessment findings is not unusual in the patient with hemophilia?
A unequal pupils
B joint deformities
C Elevated white cell count
D Distended abdomen |
|
Definition
B. joint deformities
MS, pg 532 |
|
|
Term
A patient walks into the urgent care clinic,stating he has hemophilia and that he is bleeding.The triage nurse does a quick assessment and sees no signs of active bleeding.several patients are already in the waiting area.which of the following actions by the nurse is most appropraite?
A Place the patient in an examination room and tell the doctor that the patient may be bleeding.
B Ask the patient to sit in the waiting room until his name is called
C Send the patient for routine x-rays to look for the source of bleeding before placing him in an examination room
D Palpate the suspected area to determine whether bleeding is present. |
|
Definition
A. Place the patient in an examination room and tell the doctor that the patient may be bleeding.
MS, pg 533 |
|
|
Term
A patient with hemophilia A is bleeding.Which of the following treatments should the nurse anticipate?
A IM injection of factor VIII
B IM injection of factor IX
C Intravenous (IV) infusion of factor VIII.
D IV infusing of factor IX. |
|
Definition
C. Intravenous (IV) infusion of factor VIII.
MS, pg 533 |
|
|
Term
A 54-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital in the final stage of chronic lymphocytic leukemia(CLL). Which of the following manifestations of CLL would the nurse expect to find while collecting admission data?
A Nausea and vomiting
B Hypotension and alopecia
c Cervical lymphadenopathy and chest pain.
D Fever and abnormal bleeding. |
|
Definition
| D. Fever and abnormal bleeding. |
|
|
Term
Why is it important for the nurse to institute measures to protect the patient with leukemia from infection?
A The drugs needed to fight infection are dangerous for the patient with leukemia
B Leukemia seriously impairs the leukocytes and the body's ability to fight infection
C Infection can precipate hemorrhage in the patient with leukemia
D Infection in the patient with leukemia can lead to permanent neurological damage. |
|
Definition
B. Leukemia seriously impairs the leukocytes and the body's ability to fight infection
MS, pg 526 |
|
|
Term
A patient is being tested for possible leukemia.With which of the following diagnostic tests should the nuse anticipate assisting?
A Bone marrow biopsy
B Thoracentesis
C Liver biopsy
D Arterial blood gas analysis |
|
Definition
A. Bone marrow biopsy
MS, pg 536 |
|
|
Term
The nurse is emptying the bedside commode of a patient with chronic leukemia and notes the stool is very dark.Which assumption should guide the nurses decision about what to do?
A The patient ate something that turned the stool a dark color
B The patient is most likely on iron supplemients
C The patient may be bleeding
D The patient is dehydrated. |
|
Definition
C. The patient may be bleeding
MS, pg 537 |
|
|
Term
A patient recieving chemotherapy for chronic myelocytic leukemia has irritated mucous membranes.Which of the following mouth care interventions will clean the teeth without causing further mucous membrane complications?
A Swab teeth and mucous membranes four times daily with lemon-glycerin swabs.
B Brush teeth twice a day with a firm toothbrush
C Use sponge toothettes to clean teeth after meals.
D Use waxed floss between meals and at bedtime. |
|
Definition
C. Use sponge toothettes to clean teeth after meals.
MS, pg 538 |
|
|
Term
A patient with multiplw myeloma is being care for at home.Which of the following nursing diagnoses should guide the nurse when teaching the family how to provide care for the patient?
A Ineffective airway clearance related to cervical lymphadenopathy
B Ineffective tissue perfussion related to vascular occlusion
C Risk for deficient fluid volume related to bleeding disorder
D Risk for injury related to compromised bone integrity. |
|
Definition
| D. Risk for injury related to compromised bone integrity. |
|
|
Term
The patient with multiple myeloma is at risk for hypercalcemia.What is one nursing intervention that will help minimize complications related to this imbalance?
A Encourage fluids
B Offer citrus juices and fruits
C Place the patient on a low-sodium diet
D Disscourage intake of alcoholic beverages. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which question by the nurse helps evaluate the patients response to treatment for anemia?
A is your appetite improving?
B Are you sleeping all night?
C Are you keeping up with your work schedule?
D Are you requiring many analgesics? |
|
Definition
| C. Are you keeping up with your work schedule? |
|
|
Term
A patient with hodgkins disease has cervical lymph node enlargement. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse attend to first?
A Fever
B Stridor
C Fatigue
D Jaundice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following beverages should the patient with Hodgkins disease be instructed to avoid?
A coffee
B Orange juice
C Wine
D Ginger ale. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where would the nurse expect to find enlarged lymph nodes in a patient with stage III Hodgkins disease?
A In the neck only
B Above the diaphragm only
C Below the Diaphragm only
D Generalized throughout the body. |
|
Definition
| D. Generalized throughout the body. |
|
|
Term
A patient with lymphoma wants to attend her daughter's graduation, but she says she is too tired to even think about it. The nurse develops a plan for fatigue related symptoms of lymphoma. How will the nurse know if the plan has been effective?
A The patient is able to sleep 8 hours at night
B The patient can list three ways to combact fatigue
C The patient is able to attend her daughters graduation
D The patient is able to walk for 10 minutes without tiring. |
|
Definition
| D. The patient is able to walk for 10 minutes without tiring. |
|
|
Term
A patient with terminal lymphoma says to the nurse,"i m tired of living like this. can't you just give me a big shot of morphine and help me end this suffering?" Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropraite?
A. "You have orders for morphine 10 to 15 mg.i dont think thats enough to do the job."
B "You sound frustrated.Would you like me to contact the chaplain to come and speak with you?"
C "I could get into big trouble for doing that,Would you like a shot just to take away the pain?"
D "Are you sure that is what you want me to do? Maybe you should think about it first." |
|
Definition
| B. "You sound frustrated.Would you like me to contact the chaplain to come and speak with you?" |
|
|
Term
A patient is being prepared for splenectomy. What is the purpose of the order for a vitamin K injection?
A It will correct clotting factor deficiencies.
B It will replace Vitamin K lost during night sweats
c It will correct a dietary deficiency.
D It helps the body prepare for wound healing. |
|
Definition
A. It will correct clotting factor deficiencies.
MS, pg 544 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following nursing interventions will best help prevent respiratory infection in a patient who has had a splenectomy?
A Ausculate lung sounds every shift.
B Administer scetaminophen(Tylenol) for fever
C Teach the patient to cough and deep breath ever hour
D Keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30. |
|
Definition
C. Teach the patient to cough and deep breath ever hour
MS, pg 544 |
|
|
Term
A patient who has had a splenectomy complains of malaise. The nurse checks his temperature and finds it is 102 F(39 C).Which of the following actions by the nurse should take priority?
A Administer acetaminophen to reduce fever and relieve discomfort
B Encourage fluids to reduce fever and prevent dehydration.
C Explain to th patient that low-grade fevers are not uncommon after splenectomy because the spleen is part of the immune system.
D Notify the physician, because postsplenectomy patients are at risk for deadly infection. |
|
Definition
D. Notify the physician, because postsplenectomy patients are at risk for deadly infection.
MS, pg 544 |
|
|
Term
What follow-up care is important for a patient who has had a splenectomy?
A Monthly coagulation studies
B Lifetime use of vaccinations against infections
C A course of radiation therapy to prevent malignancy
D Routine transfusion of packed cells to prevent anemia. |
|
Definition
B. Lifetime use of vaccinations against infections
MS, pg 544 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following nursing actions is the best way to prevent infection in the post operative patient?
A Practice good hand washing
B Check vital signs every 4 hours
C Change wound dressings daily.
D Encourage 2 liters of fluid daily. |
|
Definition
| A. Practice good hand washing |
|
|
Term
| Orthopnic position is similar to what other position |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Orthopnic position different from High Fowler's |
|
Definition
| Arms are supported in front of patient (on bedside table, pillows, etc) |
|
|
Term
| Purpose for Orthopnic position |
|
Definition
| used for patients who have difficulty breathing. |
|
|
Term
| What determines that a client has AIDS (3) |
|
Definition
- two positive ELISA tests
- one positive Western Blot test
- T-Cell count below 200 |
|
|
Term
| Test that determines the presence of HIV (the virus itself) |
|
Definition
| Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) test. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- altered LOC
- cyanosis
- headache
- nausea
- SOB |
|
|
Term
| chronic bone condition characterized by disorder of the normal bone remodeling process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pagett's disease: nursing outcomes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Casts: indentations could lead to this: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Compartmental knee replacement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| compartment syndrome: complication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood circulates from the lung through this |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is compartmental knee replacement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complication of compartment syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| blood travels to the lungs through this: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| med classes used for pain (4) |
|
Definition
- NSAIDS
- anti-convulsants
- opioids
- anti-depressants |
|
|
Term
| referred pain: definition |
|
Definition
| pain originates in one place, perceived in another |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used to rate pain in children 3-7. Uses pictures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used to rate pain in children under 3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Allows patient to control their own pain medication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain: nursing interventions (6) |
|
Definition
- backrub/massage
- hot/cold treatment
- position changes
- bath
- distraction
- music |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- patient teaching
- family support
- NPO
- meds and foods to DC 7 days (bleeding)
- pre-op meds (narcotics, drying agents, antibiotics) |
|
|
Term
| Intestinal surgery: meds given pre-op (2) |
|
Definition
- enema with neomycin
- GoLYTELY |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- meds preventing pulmonary embolism
- Lovenox
- NOT atropine
- watch for dehiscence/evisceration/infecion
- turn
- cough/deep breathe |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- elective
- required
- urgent
- emergency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
general - out cold
local - treated area numbed |
|
|
Term
| urinary retention: s/sx (4) |
|
Definition
- retention 6-8 hrs
- dribbling small amounts
- distended bladder after voiding
- urgency after voiding |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- hypertension
- tachycardia
- cold/clammy skin
- hypothermia
- low ox sat
- ear ringing
- difficulty seeing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- bruises
- constant swallowing
- bleeding gums
- melena |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- SOB/dyspnea
- tachycardia
- mild BP increase
- confusion
- cool, moist skin
- drowsiness
- cyanosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| core body temp below 97.5 |
|
|
Term
| hypothermia: interventions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| paralytic ilius: prevention |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pulmonary embolism: usual cause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| normally observed in collection chamber |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| normally observed in water seal chamber |
|
Definition
| fluctuation of water in rhythm with breathing |
|
|
Term
| normally observed in suction chamber |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Embolism: medications given |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- ambulation
- TED hose
- sequential compression |
|
|
Term
| How does a malignant tumor differ from a benign tumor? (5) |
|
Definition
| - may be life-threatening - fast growth - non-encapsulated - anaplastic cells - matastesis |
|
|
Term
| position for a patient getting a throacentesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cancer grading criteria (staging) |
|
Definition
- size (T)
- affected nodes (N)
- metastesis (M) |
|
|
Term
| Cervical cancer: when to begin testing |
|
Definition
| age 21 or within 3 yrs sexual activity |
|
|
Term
| PAP smear: frequency and when to begin |
|
Definition
| every 2-3yrs after age 30 |
|
|
Term
| Breast cancer: age to begin mammograms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| colon/rectal cancer: when to begin testing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Occult blood test: frequency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| occult blood test: when to begin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| flexible sigmoidoscopy: frequency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| double-contrast barium enema: frequency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| clinical breast exam: frequency and when to begin |
|
Definition
| every 3 years after age 20 |
|
|
Term
| clinical breast exam: when to begin annual testing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| after age 70 AND 3 straight clean tests |
|
|
Term
| endometrial uterine cancer tests: how often and when started |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prostrate cancer screening: when begun |
|
Definition
age 50 OR
age 45 if high risk (African) |
|
|
Term
| considered tumor markers (5) |
|
Definition
- PSA
- CA125
- Oncofetal proteins
- CEA
- Philadelphia chromosome |
|
|
Term
| Amputation: nursing diagnosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- lean forward
- pinch bridge of nose
- ice on sinus area
- prevent swallowing blood (hemophagia) |
|
|
Term
| Why are alveoli and pulmonary capillaries made of squamous epithelium? |
|
Definition
| squamous alveolar cells are responsible for gas exchange in the alveoli |
|
|
Term
| What is found in alveoli? |
|
Definition
| Epithelial cells that produce surfactant. |
|
|
Term
| Result of air pressure building in the chest (AKA pneumothorax) |
|
Definition
| Possible cause of lung collapse |
|
|
Term
| Why are alveoli and pulmonary capillaries made of squamous epithelium? |
|
Definition
| squamous alveolar cells are responsible for gas exchange in the alveoli |
|
|
Term
| What is found in alveoli? |
|
Definition
| Epithelial cells that produce surfactant. |
|
|
Term
| Result of air pressure building in the chest (AKA pneumothorax) |
|
Definition
| Possible cause of lung collapse |
|
|
Term
| Location of chemo-receptors |
|
Definition
| On the ventrolateral surface of the medulla. |
|
|
Term
| May cause decreased total lung capacity |
|
Definition
| possible lung effect of atelectasis, pneumonia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal lung pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does surfactant prevent the alveolar walls from collapsing? |
|
Definition
| A mixture of phospholipids (ie, lecithin & sphingomyelin). Acts to break up surface tension in pulmonary fluids to reduce friction |
|
|
Term
| What does a low PCO2 indicate |
|
Definition
| Alkaline environment in the lung. Breathing will be fast. |
|
|
Term
| Respiratory alkalosis symptom |
|
Definition
| Breathing faster than normal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the protective respiratory reflexes |
|
Definition
| Coughing, sneezing, yawning |
|
|
Term
| normal respiration, 12-20 RPM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is ciliated epithelium and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| Hairlike tissue. It assists in removing dust particles and other unwanted foreign bodies that have entered the air passages. |
|
|
Term
| How is the trachea kept open? |
|
Definition
| Horseshoe-shaped cartilaginous rings, known as the tracheal windpipe. |
|
|
Term
| Cause of respiratory alkalosis |
|
Definition
| Hyperventilation, excessively rapid deep breathing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It reacts with water to form carbonic acid. This acid breaks down into H+ and HCO3-, which buffer the system and maintain pH levels. |
|
|
Term
| Where and what are the palatine tonsils |
|
Definition
| Located posterially on each side of the oral cavity. Destroys foreign substances that are inhaled or ingested. Commonly removed in a tonsillectomy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It extends from the epiglottis to the openings of the larynx and esophagus Separates passageways for food and air. |
|
|
Term
| Major portion of the brain controlling respiration |
|
Definition
| Medulla (specifically the pons) |
|
|
Term
| How do we exchange CO2 and O2 |
|
Definition
| Oxygenated blood passes through the walls of the alveoli into lung capillaries, where the exchange occurs. |
|
|
Term
| What prevents friction in pleural membrane? |
|
Definition
| Serous lubricating fluid, is excreted by the pleura |
|
|
Term
| parietal pleura and visceral pleura |
|
Definition
| Serous membranes that cover lung |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lack of oxygen (or accumulation of CO2). Equalizes pressure between middle and outside atmosphere, to help maintain balance. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Three small bones that increase the nasal mucosa surface area |
|
|
Term
| volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do most foreign substances aspirate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| volume of air in lungs after a maximum inspiration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is air moistened and warmed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When swallowing, it covers the entrance to the larynx to prevent food and drink from entering the windpipe. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a structure consisting of bone and cartilage, divides the internal nose into two sides or cavities. |
|
|
Term
| What does a high PCO2 indicate |
|
Definition
| acid environment in the lung. Breathing will be slow. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| air that remains in the lungs after exhaling. |
|
|
Term
| What helps in warming the air |
|
Definition
| blood vessels in the nasal cavity |
|
|
Term
| tiny hair-like projections on the membranes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of respiratory acidosis |
|
Definition
| emphysema, severe pneumonia, asthma, pulmonary edema. |
|
|
Term
| What guards the larynx opening |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Protective mechanisms of upper airway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| extends from the nares to uvula. Passageway for air only. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| frontal sinus, maxillary sinus, ethmoidal sinus, sphenoidal sinus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gas exchange at the lung level |
|
|
Term
| Cellular (internal) respiration |
|
Definition
| gas exchange within the cells |
|
|
Term
| Surfactant: What is its function |
|
Definition
| helps prevent the alveolar walls from collapsing between breaths |
|
|
Term
| What can cause decreased residual lung capacity? |
|
Definition
| lung effect of ARDS - Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| What can cause decreased vital lung capacity? |
|
Definition
| may be found in neuromuscular disease, generalized fatigue, pulmonary edema, COPD, atelectasis. |
|
|
Term
| Know parts of pharynx (especially food-related) |
|
Definition
| nasal pharynx, oral pharynx, laryngeal pharynx. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| normal respiration, 12-20 RPM |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serous membranes that covers lung |
|
Definition
| parietal pleura and visceral pleura |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| part of the pharynx extending from the uvula to the epiglottis. Also known as the throat. |
|
|
Term
| air that remains in the lungs after exhaling. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory acidosis symptom |
|
Definition
| respiration slower than normal |
|
|
Term
| How many lobes of each lung |
|
Definition
| three in right, two in left |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tiny hair-like projections) on the membranes |
|
|
Term
| Three small bones that increase the nasal mucosa surface area |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the serous membrane covering the lung tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| volume of air in lungs after a maximum inspiration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath |
|
|
Term
| On the ventrolateral surface of the medulla. |
|
Definition
| Location of chemo-receptors |
|
|
Term
| The nasolacrimal ducts, or tear ducts |
|
Definition
| from the eyes, open into the upper nasal cavities, thereby causing the “runny nose” that often accompanies crying. |
|
|
Term
| from the eyes, open into the upper nasal cavities, thereby causing the “runny nose” that often accompanies crying. |
|
Definition
| The nasolacrimal ducts, or tear ducts |
|
|
Term
| located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and, along with the tonsils, assist the body in its immune response to foreign invaders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and, along with the tonsils, assist the body in its immune response to foreign invaders |
|
|
Term
| transports food from the pharynx to the stomach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transports food from the pharynx to the stomach |
|
|
Term
| These microscopic “balloons” give the lungs their spongy appearance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the area lying between the lungs in the thorax |
|
|
Term
| the area lying between the lungs in the thorax |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Premature newborns may suffer from respiratory distress syndrome for this reason. |
|
Definition
| This may happen because surfactant does not form until after the seventh month of gestation. |
|
|
Term
| This may happen because surfactant does not form until after the seventh month of gestation. |
|
Definition
| Premature newborns may suffer from respiratory distress syndrome for this reason. |
|
|
Term
| a smooth double-layered sac of serous membrane in the lower respiratory tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a smooth double-layered sac of serous membrane in the lower respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
| sac of serous membrane lining the chest cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sac of serous membrane lining the chest cavity |
|
|
Term
| sac of serous membrane covering the lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sac of serous membrane covering the lungs |
|
|
Term
| pleural cavity or pleural space |
|
Definition
| The space between the two layers of the pleura |
|
|
Term
| The space between the two layers of the pleura |
|
Definition
| pleural cavity or pleural space |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| conducts the breathing impulses. |
|
|
Term
| conducts the breathing impulses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dome-shaped muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dome-shaped muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a substance secreted by the great alveolar cells |
|
|
Term
| a substance secreted by the great alveolar cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is most likely to require a high-calorie diet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
establish unresponsiveness “Hey are you ok?”
open airway
check breathing,
give breath,
check carotid pulse
do compressions |
|
|
Term
| Fire response (smoke in the utility room) |
|
Definition
Remove patients and close door to room
Activate alarm
Close doors/windows to the area,
Extinguish the fire. |
|
|
Term
| Clostridium difficile is what kind of isolation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patient is weak right side, how should he use cane? |
|
Definition
| Cane in strong (left) hand, moving with weak (right) leg. |
|
|
Term
| Which area is injury most likely for IM injection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Subjective vs objective information questions: |
|
Definition
If it can be verified by measurement (ie, patient eats ½ of meal), it is objective.
“I feel warm” is subjective (How warm is warm?) |
|
|
Term
| O2 by mask on post-hemorrhoid surgery patient: Which way is best to take temp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patient’s temp would be highest when? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would you be most worried about a dementia pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clear liquid diet, which one is not? (1) Ice cream (2) jello (3) tea (4) strong coffee |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 35mg of lasix ordered for a patient, 50mg/ml available. How much do we put? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Salem sump (gastric tube) has air vents to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Precautions for changing a dressing on an MRSA patient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the following, what can CNA's do? (1)wound care (2)enemas (3)clean-catch urine (4)feed a CVA patient (5)give snacks |
|
Definition
wound care - NO
enemas - NO
clean-catch urine - YES
feed a CVA patient - YES
give snacks - YES
|
|
|
Term
| Apical/radial pulse: Apical is 72, radial is 80, what do you do? |
|
Definition
| Repeat procedure – radial can’t be more than apical. |
|
|
Term
| Positioning for mouth care for unconscious patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patient complains of axillary pain while crutching. What do you do? |
|
Definition
| Adjust height of crutches (too high) and teach client about use |
|
|
Term
Can’t find brachial pulse. How do you verify brachial blood flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Common sign of heat production
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
About to give GT feeding. Aspirating yields 90 ml of residual. What do you do?
|
|
Definition
| Return residual and give feeding. |
|
|
Term
Who is most likely to have a decubitus ulcer?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In cleaning a crusty Foley catheter, soap and water does not work, what do you use?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What food has the most iron? (1)milk (2)eggs (3)meat (4)fish
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pt. has osteoporosis, which vitamin would she most likely be deficient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sign of vitamin K deficiency
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can be counted as output, name all |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Foley catheter insertion in order |
|
Definition
-check patient MD order
- sterile gloves
- clean pt. perineum to groin
- insert catheter until urine flash is witnessed
-inflate catheter cuff
|
|
|
Term
| Client in SIMS position on left side. What do you do with right arm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chest drainage system: What happens in a chest tube water chamber? |
|
Definition
| Fluctuation of water in sealed water chamber |
|
|
Term
| After giving medication through a nasogastric tube, what do you do? |
|
Definition
| Clamp NG tube for 30 minutes |
|
|
Term
| You drop a moistened sterile gauze on the edge of a sterile field, what do you do? |
|
Definition
| Leave dropped gauze where it is, get a new moistened sterile gauze and use that |
|
|
Term
| Confused patient gets frustrated, and keeps taking off his O2 mask, what do you do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patient, confused, keeps trying to remove his indwelling Foley catheter, how do you restrain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If giving 3ml IM injection, which muscle don’t you use? (1)dorsogluteal (2)ventrogluteal (3)deltoid (4)Vastus lateralis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient asks will my stage 3 decubitus ulcer leave a scar after it heals. Most appropriate answer is: |
|
Definition
| Wounds like this will most likely leave a scar |
|
|
Term
| An obese patient, wearing an abdominal binder post abdominal surgery, asks nurse “why am I wearing this? |
|
Definition
| "The binder will put less pressure on your sutures." |
|
|
Term
| A wound healing by second intention, what kind of dressing will most likely be ordered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a wet to dry dressing? |
|
Definition
| debridement of old, dead tissue |
|
|
Term
A patient has a 3rd stage decubitus ulcer, what kind of order would you expect from the MD for its daily care?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Advance Directive? |
|
Definition
| Patient maintains right to end-of-life decisions. |
|
|
Term
| A pt. with dyspnea with a fruity breath odor has a blood sugar tested at 700, he is most likely experiencing what kind of respiration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does specimen for Ova and Parasite testing need to be sent ASAP? |
|
Definition
| Bugs in the specimen may die quickly. |
|
|
Term
| You believe that a pt is choking, what is your first intervention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Terminal patient in last stages, has type of breathing with periods of apnea. What type of breathing is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What vital signs need attention |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal pulse for newborn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bp will be the cause of most concern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you check for subcutaneous emphysema? |
|
Definition
| Palpate chest suprasternally for crackling sound of “air bubbles.” |
|
|
Term
| What is the best angle for an intradermal injection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abdominal sq heparin injection parameters: |
|
Definition
90 degrees of entry angle
1-2ml Max.
45-90 degrees
5/8 - 1 in |
|
|
Term
| When changing a colostomy bag, what is most important? |
|
Definition
| Assure you have the proper hole size |
|
|
Term
| Best way to prevent nosocomial infections in a facility |
|
Definition
| Hand washing between every pt. |
|
|
Term
| Cooling blanket is ordered for a patient who is hyperthermic. Nurses know that cooling blankets cool a patient by way of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Salem sump tubes have air vents to? |
|
Definition
| Prevent damage to stomach mucosa |
|
|
Term
| Question regarding blood clots and constricted limb. What's the first sign? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tube feeding, what is best position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient’s O2 level drops down to 60%, what is the FIRST thing a nurse does? |
|
Definition
| Raise the patient’s head. |
|
|
Term
| O2 monitor alarm going off while patient chatting with family. What do you do? |
|
Definition
| If patient appears OK, move monitor to another finger. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1 1/2 - 2 inch needle
20-22 guage
90 degrees
|
|
|
Term
| Tube feeding: Residual = 120mL. What do you do? |
|
Definition
| Return residual. Stop feeding and wait for 30-60 minutes. If residual does not decrease, contact charge nurse/MD |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of purse-lipped breathing? |
|
Definition
| Opens the alveoli to improve respiration. |
|
|
Term
| How to give care for chest tube |
|
Definition
1)Assess for respiratory distress and chest pain, breath sounds over affected lung area, vital signs
2) Obdserve for increased respiratory distress
3) Observe/maintain chest tube patency
4)keep tube free of kinks, dependent loops or clots
5)keep drainage system upright and below level of tube insertion. |
|
|
Term
| Signs/symptoms of hyperthermia |
|
Definition
Hot, dry skin
Low BP
Fainting/dizziness
Tachycardia
Tachypnea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pH that is most consistent with stomach aspirate:
8.4
7.4
7.0
4.0 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are alveoli and pulmonary capillaries made of squamous epithelium? |
|
Definition
| squamous alveolar cells are responsible for gas exchange in the alveoli |
|
|
Term
| What is found in alveoli? |
|
Definition
| Epithelial cells that produce surfactant. |
|
|
Term
| Result of air pressure building in the chest (AKA pneumothorax) |
|
Definition
| Possible cause of lung collapse |
|
|
Term
| Location of chemo-receptors |
|
Definition
| On the ventrolateral surface of the medulla. |
|
|
Term
| May cause decreased total lung capacity |
|
Definition
| possible lung effect of atelectasis, pneumonia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal lung pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does surfactant prevent the alveolar walls from collapsing? |
|
Definition
| A mixture of phospholipids (ie, lecithin & sphingomyelin). Acts to break up surface tension in pulmonary fluids to reduce friction |
|
|
Term
| What does a low PCO2 indicate |
|
Definition
| Alkaline environment in the lung. Breathing will be fast. |
|
|
Term
| Respiratory alkalosis symptom |
|
Definition
| Breathing faster than normal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the protective respiratory reflexes |
|
Definition
| Coughing, sneezing, yawning |
|
|
Term
| normal respiration, 12-20 RPM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is ciliated epithelium and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| Hairlike tissue. It assists in removing dust particles and other unwanted foreign bodies that have entered the air passages. |
|
|
Term
| How is the trachea kept open? |
|
Definition
| Horseshoe-shaped cartilaginous rings, known as the tracheal windpipe. |
|
|
Term
| Cause of respiratory alkalosis |
|
Definition
| Hyperventilation, excessively rapid deep breathing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It reacts with water to form carbonic acid. This acid breaks down into H+ and HCO3-, which buffer the system and maintain pH levels. |
|
|
Term
| Where and what are the palatine tonsils |
|
Definition
| Located posterially on each side of the oral cavity. Destroys foreign substances that are inhaled or ingested. Commonly removed in a tonsillectomy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It extends from the epiglottis to the openings of the larynx and esophagus Separates passageways for food and air. |
|
|
Term
| Major portion of the brain controlling respiration |
|
Definition
| Medulla (specifically the pons) |
|
|
Term
| How do we exchange CO2 and O2 |
|
Definition
| Oxygenated blood passes through the walls of the alveoli into lung capillaries, where the exchange occurs. |
|
|
Term
| What prevents friction in pleural membrane? |
|
Definition
| Serous lubricating fluid, is excreted by the pleura |
|
|
Term
| parietal pleura and visceral pleura |
|
Definition
| Serous membranes that cover lung |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lack of oxygen (or accumulation of CO2). Equalizes pressure between middle and outside atmosphere, to help maintain balance. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Three small bones that increase the nasal mucosa surface area |
|
|
Term
| volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do most foreign substances aspirate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| volume of air in lungs after a maximum inspiration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is air moistened and warmed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When swallowing, it covers the entrance to the larynx to prevent food and drink from entering the windpipe. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a structure consisting of bone and cartilage, divides the internal nose into two sides or cavities. |
|
|
Term
| What does a high PCO2 indicate |
|
Definition
| acid environment in the lung. Breathing will be slow. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| air that remains in the lungs after exhaling. |
|
|
Term
| What helps in warming the air |
|
Definition
| blood vessels in the nasal cavity |
|
|
Term
| tiny hair-like projections on the membranes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of respiratory acidosis |
|
Definition
| emphysema, severe pneumonia, asthma, pulmonary edema. |
|
|
Term
| What guards the larynx opening |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Protective mechanisms of upper airway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| extends from the nares to uvula. Passageway for air only. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| frontal sinus, maxillary sinus, ethmoidal sinus, sphenoidal sinus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gas exchange at the lung level |
|
|
Term
| Cellular (internal) respiration |
|
Definition
| gas exchange within the cells |
|
|
Term
| Surfactant: What is its function |
|
Definition
| helps prevent the alveolar walls from collapsing between breaths |
|
|
Term
| What can cause decreased residual lung capacity? |
|
Definition
| lung effect of ARDS - Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| What can cause decreased vital lung capacity? |
|
Definition
| may be found in neuromuscular disease, generalized fatigue, pulmonary edema, COPD, atelectasis. |
|
|
Term
| Know parts of pharynx (especially food-related) |
|
Definition
| nasal pharynx, oral pharynx, laryngeal pharynx. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| normal respiration, 12-20 RPM |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serous membranes that covers lung |
|
Definition
| parietal pleura and visceral pleura |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| part of the pharynx extending from the uvula to the epiglottis. Also known as the throat. |
|
|
Term
| air that remains in the lungs after exhaling. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory acidosis symptom |
|
Definition
| respiration slower than normal |
|
|
Term
| How many lobes of each lung |
|
Definition
| three in right, two in left |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tiny hair-like projections) on the membranes |
|
|
Term
| Three small bones that increase the nasal mucosa surface area |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the serous membrane covering the lung tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| volume of air in lungs after a maximum inspiration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath |
|
|
Term
| On the ventrolateral surface of the medulla. |
|
Definition
| Location of chemo-receptors |
|
|
Term
| The nasolacrimal ducts, or tear ducts |
|
Definition
| from the eyes, open into the upper nasal cavities, thereby causing the “runny nose” that often accompanies crying. |
|
|
Term
| from the eyes, open into the upper nasal cavities, thereby causing the “runny nose” that often accompanies crying. |
|
Definition
| The nasolacrimal ducts, or tear ducts |
|
|
Term
| located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and, along with the tonsils, assist the body in its immune response to foreign invaders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and, along with the tonsils, assist the body in its immune response to foreign invaders |
|
|
Term
| transports food from the pharynx to the stomach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transports food from the pharynx to the stomach |
|
|
Term
| These microscopic “balloons” give the lungs their spongy appearance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the area lying between the lungs in the thorax |
|
|
Term
| the area lying between the lungs in the thorax |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Premature newborns may suffer from respiratory distress syndrome for this reason. |
|
Definition
| This may happen because surfactant does not form until after the seventh month of gestation. |
|
|
Term
| This may happen because surfactant does not form until after the seventh month of gestation. |
|
Definition
| Premature newborns may suffer from respiratory distress syndrome for this reason. |
|
|
Term
| a smooth double-layered sac of serous membrane in the lower respiratory tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a smooth double-layered sac of serous membrane in the lower respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
| sac of serous membrane lining the chest cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sac of serous membrane lining the chest cavity |
|
|
Term
| sac of serous membrane covering the lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sac of serous membrane covering the lungs |
|
|
Term
| pleural cavity or pleural space |
|
Definition
| The space between the two layers of the pleura |
|
|
Term
| The space between the two layers of the pleura |
|
Definition
| pleural cavity or pleural space |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| conducts the breathing impulses. |
|
|
Term
| conducts the breathing impulses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dome-shaped muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dome-shaped muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a substance secreted by the great alveolar cells |
|
|
Term
| a substance secreted by the great alveolar cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are alveoli and pulmonary capillaries made of squamous epithelium? |
|
Definition
| squamous alveolar cells are responsible for gas exchange in the alveoli |
|
|
Term
| What is found in alveoli? |
|
Definition
| Epithelial cells that produce surfactant. |
|
|
Term
| Result of air pressure building in the chest (AKA pneumothorax) |
|
Definition
| Possible cause of lung collapse |
|
|
Term
| Location of chemo-receptors |
|
Definition
| On the ventrolateral surface of the medulla. |
|
|
Term
| May cause decreased total lung capacity |
|
Definition
| possible lung effect of atelectasis, pneumonia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal lung pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does surfactant prevent the alveolar walls from collapsing? |
|
Definition
| A mixture of phospholipids (ie, lecithin & sphingomyelin). Acts to break up surface tension in pulmonary fluids to reduce friction |
|
|
Term
| What does a low PCO2 indicate |
|
Definition
| Alkaline environment in the lung. Breathing will be fast. |
|
|
Term
| Respiratory alkalosis symptom |
|
Definition
| Breathing faster than normal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the protective respiratory reflexes |
|
Definition
| Coughing, sneezing, yawning |
|
|
Term
| normal respiration, 12-20 RPM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is ciliated epithelium and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| Hairlike tissue. It assists in removing dust particles and other unwanted foreign bodies that have entered the air passages. |
|
|
Term
| How is the trachea kept open? |
|
Definition
| Horseshoe-shaped cartilaginous rings, known as the tracheal windpipe. |
|
|
Term
| Cause of respiratory alkalosis |
|
Definition
| Hyperventilation, excessively rapid deep breathing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It reacts with water to form carbonic acid. This acid breaks down into H+ and HCO3-, which buffer the system and maintain pH levels. |
|
|
Term
| Where and what are the palatine tonsils |
|
Definition
| Located posterially on each side of the oral cavity. Destroys foreign substances that are inhaled or ingested. Commonly removed in a tonsillectomy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It extends from the epiglottis to the openings of the larynx and esophagus Separates passageways for food and air. |
|
|
Term
| Major portion of the brain controlling respiration |
|
Definition
| Medulla (specifically the pons) |
|
|
Term
| How do we exchange CO2 and O2 |
|
Definition
| Oxygenated blood passes through the walls of the alveoli into lung capillaries, where the exchange occurs. |
|
|
Term
| What prevents friction in pleural membrane? |
|
Definition
| Serous lubricating fluid, is excreted by the pleura |
|
|
Term
| parietal pleura and visceral pleura |
|
Definition
| Serous membranes that cover lung |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lack of oxygen (or accumulation of CO2). Equalizes pressure between middle and outside atmosphere, to help maintain balance. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Three small bones that increase the nasal mucosa surface area |
|
|
Term
| volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do most foreign substances aspirate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| volume of air in lungs after a maximum inspiration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is air moistened and warmed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When swallowing, it covers the entrance to the larynx to prevent food and drink from entering the windpipe. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a structure consisting of bone and cartilage, divides the internal nose into two sides or cavities. |
|
|
Term
| What does a high PCO2 indicate |
|
Definition
| acid environment in the lung. Breathing will be slow. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| air that remains in the lungs after exhaling. |
|
|
Term
| What helps in warming the air |
|
Definition
| blood vessels in the nasal cavity |
|
|
Term
| tiny hair-like projections on the membranes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of respiratory acidosis |
|
Definition
| emphysema, severe pneumonia, asthma, pulmonary edema. |
|
|
Term
| What guards the larynx opening |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Protective mechanisms of upper airway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| extends from the nares to uvula. Passageway for air only. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| frontal sinus, maxillary sinus, ethmoidal sinus, sphenoidal sinus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gas exchange at the lung level |
|
|
Term
| Cellular (internal) respiration |
|
Definition
| gas exchange within the cells |
|
|
Term
| Surfactant: What is its function |
|
Definition
| helps prevent the alveolar walls from collapsing between breaths |
|
|
Term
| What can cause decreased residual lung capacity? |
|
Definition
| lung effect of ARDS - Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| What can cause decreased vital lung capacity? |
|
Definition
| may be found in neuromuscular disease, generalized fatigue, pulmonary edema, COPD, atelectasis. |
|
|
Term
| Know parts of pharynx (especially food-related) |
|
Definition
| nasal pharynx, oral pharynx, laryngeal pharynx. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| normal respiration, 12-20 RPM |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serous membranes that covers lung |
|
Definition
| parietal pleura and visceral pleura |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| part of the pharynx extending from the uvula to the epiglottis. Also known as the throat. |
|
|
Term
| air that remains in the lungs after exhaling. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory acidosis symptom |
|
Definition
| respiration slower than normal |
|
|
Term
| How many lobes of each lung |
|
Definition
| three in right, two in left |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tiny hair-like projections) on the membranes |
|
|
Term
| Three small bones that increase the nasal mucosa surface area |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the serous membrane covering the lung tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| volume of air in lungs after a maximum inspiration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath |
|
|
Term
| On the ventrolateral surface of the medulla. |
|
Definition
| Location of chemo-receptors |
|
|
Term
| The nasolacrimal ducts, or tear ducts |
|
Definition
| from the eyes, open into the upper nasal cavities, thereby causing the “runny nose” that often accompanies crying. |
|
|
Term
| from the eyes, open into the upper nasal cavities, thereby causing the “runny nose” that often accompanies crying. |
|
Definition
| The nasolacrimal ducts, or tear ducts |
|
|
Term
| located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and, along with the tonsils, assist the body in its immune response to foreign invaders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and, along with the tonsils, assist the body in its immune response to foreign invaders |
|
|
Term
| transports food from the pharynx to the stomach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transports food from the pharynx to the stomach |
|
|
Term
| These microscopic “balloons” give the lungs their spongy appearance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the area lying between the lungs in the thorax |
|
|
Term
| the area lying between the lungs in the thorax |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Premature newborns may suffer from respiratory distress syndrome for this reason. |
|
Definition
| This may happen because surfactant does not form until after the seventh month of gestation. |
|
|
Term
| This may happen because surfactant does not form until after the seventh month of gestation. |
|
Definition
| Premature newborns may suffer from respiratory distress syndrome for this reason. |
|
|
Term
| a smooth double-layered sac of serous membrane in the lower respiratory tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a smooth double-layered sac of serous membrane in the lower respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
| sac of serous membrane lining the chest cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sac of serous membrane lining the chest cavity |
|
|
Term
| sac of serous membrane covering the lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sac of serous membrane covering the lungs |
|
|
Term
| pleural cavity or pleural space |
|
Definition
| The space between the two layers of the pleura |
|
|
Term
| The space between the two layers of the pleura |
|
Definition
| pleural cavity or pleural space |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| conducts the breathing impulses. |
|
|
Term
| conducts the breathing impulses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dome-shaped muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dome-shaped muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a substance secreted by the great alveolar cells |
|
|
Term
| a substance secreted by the great alveolar cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most abundant tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Posterior is also known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ventral is also known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An electrolyte charged atom or element either + or -? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Collectively, all parts that make up a cell are called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the system that has the most organs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ova sex cells that produce eggs or sperm that contain half the total number of chromosomes (23) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cell divide into 2 parts to reproduce themselves |
|
|
Term
| What happen if lack of Melanin? |
|
Definition
| loss of melanin hair appears gray; with a total loss of melanin, hair appears white. Also causes Vitiligo |
|
|
Term
| Brown black pigment produced by melanocytes found mostly in the basal layer of the epidermis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| effects of aging in the Integumentery system? |
|
Definition
| derma layer thins, female hormones are lost, nail grows more slowly and are thicker, thermal regulation abilitys are lost, circulation is reduced, tugor is lost, melanin is either lost or migrates and clusters in the epidermal layer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Apocrine, Eccrine, Mammary |
|
|
Term
| Another name for sweat glands? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What secretes sebum which help makes the skin soft and hair glossy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transfer of heat to another object during direct contact |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Conversion of a liquid to a vapor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| diffusion or dissemination of heat by electromagnetic waves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dissemination of heat by motion between areas intensity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Outer most layer of the skin that sheds cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is and what causes hirsutism? |
|
Definition
| Facial hair and lack of hormone |
|
|
Term
| Why do we put infants away from drafts and place them in temperature related enviornment and keeping infant dry? |
|
Definition
| to prevent excessive heat loss |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many bones are in the vertebral column? Identify them |
|
Definition
| total 26; 12 thoracic, 7 cervical, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx |
|
|
Term
| The axial skeleton contains of.... identify |
|
Definition
| the skull, the hyoid, auditory ossicles, vertebral column, thorax |
|
|
Term
| The Appendicular skeleton contains...... identify |
|
Definition
| clavical scapula, humerous, ulna, radius, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges, hip, femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsals, metatarsals. |
|
|
Term
| Body alignment on a bed lying patient is important because |
|
Definition
| because otherwise it can cause back aches and contractures |
|
|
Term
| What is the Epiphyseal growth plate |
|
Definition
| It is where the diaphysis and epiphysis meet |
|
|
Term
| What is the cardiac muscle control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| contractions do not increase the length of a muscle but do increase muscle tension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Also known as "sway back" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Known widows hump or hump back |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? |
|
Definition
| A special form of stored glucose, that the body uses for fuel. |
|
|
Term
| What part of the brain regulates the heart rate, Bp and breathing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 80% of the brains volume is the .... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| second largest part of the brain, its functions concern movement, muscle tone, and coordination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The basic structural and functional cell of the nervous system... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the second cranial nerve and its function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemical that an axon releases to allow nerve impulses to cross the synapes therefore reach the dendrites |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Division of spinal cord and brain |
|
Definition
| Central nervous system (CNS) |
|
|
Term
| True or False cells reproduce themselves over time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which function do the frontal lobe control |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| carries sensation of position and balance or movement of body in space |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| exteroceptors example touch, cutaneous pain,heat, cold, smell, vision and hearing. |
|
Definition
| related to external environment example k |
|
|
Term
| interoceptors example visceral pain, hunger or thirst. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tenth cranial nerve and whats its main function? |
|
Definition
| Vagus nerve, parasympathetic function and speech. |
|
|
Term
| is a vital to human functioning these functions includes regulation of body temperature, water balance, sleep, appetite, sexual urges and emotions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in the normal adult what is the approximate ML of urine per day? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in tubular reapsorption substances move.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in tubular secretion substances move... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the heart receive the venous(deoxygenated)blood and from where does it receive it from? |
|
Definition
| the right atrium; from the superior & inferior vena cava and the coronary sinus |
|
|
Term
| Left atrium receive what kind of blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What systems regulate blood pressure? |
|
Definition
| kidneys, nervous system, cardiovascular, urinary systems, endocrine |
|
|
Term
| What are the outer layer of the cardiac wall called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What chamber is the thickest chamber of the heart and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| the left ventricle; it pump blood out to the rest of the body |
|
|
Term
| What produce the S1(lub) sound? |
|
Definition
| the closure of the atrioventricular(AV) valve: 1) bicuspid(mitral) valve 2)tricuspid valve |
|
|
Term
| What produce the S2(dub) sound? |
|
Definition
| closure of semilunar(aortic) valves: when ventricles relax |
|
|
Term
| What is the stroke volume(SV)? |
|
Definition
| the volume of blood ejected with each heartbeat |
|
|
Term
| What is the Cardiac Output(CO)? |
|
Definition
| the amount of blood the ventricles pump out in 1 minute |
|
|
Term
| When we cut open the chest what side of the heart sit on the front & what side sit on back? |
|
Definition
| right side sit on front; left on back |
|
|
Term
| Left anterior descending artery(LAD) do what? |
|
Definition
| provide blood to most of the ventricular septum and the anterior portion of the LV |
|
|
Term
| What hormone do the adrenal cortex give off? |
|
Definition
| Corticosteroids or Corticoids. |
|
|
Term
| 3 types of corticosteroids? |
|
Definition
| mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and the sex hormones |
|
|
Term
| List out the Conduction System of the heart. |
|
Definition
| SA(sinoatrial) node, AV(atrioventricular) node, Bundle of His(AV bundle), right & left bundle branches, Purkinje Fibers |
|
|
Term
| What is ADH? antidiuretic hormone |
|
Definition
| It stimulates contraction of blood vessels to raise blood pressure; affects the uterus; and influences reabsorption (resorption) of water by the kidney tubules. |
|
|
Term
| Stimulates reabsorption of sodium into the plasma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the function of the Conduction System. |
|
Definition
| 1) the SA node are the "pacemaker": it make the pace & send out that message to the rest of the system 2)the AV node pick up the message lie a receiving station and hold onto it until the atria have contracted & emptied the blood into the ventricles. 3)when ventricles are ready to receive the impulse, the AV node transmits it through the Bundle of His to the left & right bundle branches 4)then the fiber penetrate the ventricular muscle & terminate in the Purkinje Fiber. |
|
|
Term
| How many lobes does the lung have on each side? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A lid or cover of cartilage use to guard the entrance of the larynx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| total volume inhale & exhale in one breath |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| normal breathing; range: 12-20 RPM |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of aging on respiratory system? |
|
Definition
| 1)increase rigidify of thorax & diaphragm causing more energy needed to breathe 2)decreased number of alveoli & diffusion ability causing less ability to compensate for respiratory 3)decrease strength in breathing & coughing 4)the size of chest wall decreased |
|
|
Term
| What are cellular respiratory and it also known as what? |
|
Definition
| aka "internal respiration" or "cell breathing"; it is the exchange of |
|
|
Term
| Difference between endocrine and exocrine glands |
|
Definition
| Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Exocrine glands secrete substances into ducts that open onto the body's external or internal surfaces. |
|
|
Term
| What are cellular respiratory and it also known as what? |
|
Definition
| aka "internal respiration" or "cell breathing"; it is the exchange of O2 for CO2 w/in the cells |
|
|
Term
| Most nutrition is absorbed where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| coronary arteries that supply the left side |
|
Definition
| anterior descending coronary artery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormone makes us sleepy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What regulates thyroid hormone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and where does it comes from? |
|
Definition
Reduces urine secreted
Posterior pituitary gland |
|
|
Term
| What is chemical digestion? |
|
Definition
| the breakdown of the chemical bonds in food with the addition of enzymes, acids, and water |
|
|
Term
| DIfference between prolactin and oxytocin for milk. |
|
Definition
| Oxytocin stimulates milk production. |
|
|
Term
| DIfference between prolactin and oxytocin for milk. |
|
Definition
| Oxytocin stimulates release of milk production. Prolactin stimulates milk production. |
|
|
Term
| What are the salivary glands are there and where are those located? |
|
Definition
| 3 pairs: sublingual(under the tongue), parotid(cheek), and submandibular(under the lower jaw). |
|
|
Term
| The small intestine is divided into 3 parts what are they? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the function of the duodenum |
|
Definition
| contains specialized cells and glands designed to secrete mucus which protects the small intestine from the strongly acidic chyme. |
|
|
Term
| exchange of oxygen for carbon dioxide within the alveoli of the lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| exchange of oxygen for carbon dioxide within the cells (also called cellular respiration) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| frontal, maxillary, ethmoidal, and sphenoidal |
|
|
Term
| increases the surface area of mucosa membrane and helps to warm and moisten air before it enters the lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the hormone that is important in blood pressure regulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| stimulates the stem cells in red bone marrow to increase formation of red blood cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| consist of specialized grandular cells responsible for maintaining blood pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| normal specific gravity of urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a specific gravity of 1.029 in urine |
|
Definition
| dehydration or urinary retention |
|
|
Term
| a specifc gravity of 1.005 in urine |
|
Definition
| overhydration or a physical disorder |
|
|
Term
| examples of hinge joints are |
|
Definition
| jaw, knee, elbows and ankles |
|
|
Term
| what does pluera space have to prevent friction in the lungs? |
|
Definition
| contains serous lubricating fluid |
|
|
Term
| exmaples of parasympathetic system |
|
Definition
| produces responses that are normal functions of of the body while it is at rest |
|
|
Term
| examples of sympathetic system |
|
Definition
| emergency, extreme stress, or danger |
|
|
Term
| the dermis sits on the ____________ layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the main function function of the large intestine???? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what separates the middle and the inner ear??? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the functions of the tounge is |
|
Definition
| swallowing, taste and chewing |
|
|
Term
| wat is prybycusis and when does it oftenly occur? |
|
Definition
| loss of hearing, it oftenly occurs at age of 60 |
|
|
Term
| the parts of the neuron are |
|
Definition
| one cell body, axon and dendrites |
|
|
Term
| what is the corpus collasm? |
|
Definition
| a band of approximately 200 million neurons located within the brain |
|
|
Term
| A direct cause of varices |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A possible esophageal effect of liver cirrhosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patient states improved appetite and food intake |
|
|
Term
| Ascies: treatment medication that saves potassium while releasing water and sodium |
|
Definition
| Spironolactone (Aldactone) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before performing a cholecystogram, what should you ask the client about? |
|
Definition
| allergy to iodine or shellfish |
|
|
Term
| Bilirubin: reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis and Cholelithiasis: dx (5) |
|
Definition
- labs
- ultrasound
- x-ray
- cholecystogram
- EGD or ERCP |
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis and Cholelithiasis: s/sx (4) |
|
Definition
- sudden acute pain
- pain may radiate to back or right shoulder
- clay colored stools
- jaundice |
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis and cholelithiasis: foods to avoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis and cholelithiasis: preferred pain med (and what NOT to give) |
|
Definition
- Give Demerol
- Don't give morphine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cirrhosis: client teaching (6) |
|
Definition
- don't drink
- don't smoke
- fluid restrictions
- low protein
- high vitamins
- no acetaminophen or diazepam |
|
|
Term
| Cirrhosis: nursing considerations (2) |
|
Definition
- soft-bristled toothbrush
- monitor daily weight and girth |
|
|
Term
| Drainage tube used to treat cholecystitis and cholelithiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fatty, foul-smelling stools |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fulminant liver failure is most often caused by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- high-cholesterol, low-acid bile is thick
- gallbladder absorbs water, drying out bile
- bile hardens |
|
|
Term
| Hepatic encephalopathy: s/sx (4) |
|
Definition
- somnolence
- increased serum ammonia
- confusion
- coma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- virus
- autoimmune conditions
- toxic substances |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| acute or chronic condition of liver inflammation |
|
|
Term
| How do nutrients absorbed in alveoli get back to liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Laparoscopic cholecystectomy: common complaint and its cause |
|
Definition
- right shoulder pain
- caused by CO2 instilled in abdomen |
|
|
Term
| Liver biopsy: post-procedure nursing care (5) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- check biopsy site if V/S change
- keep patient on right side
- pressure applied
- watch for signs of pneumothorax |
|
|
Term
| Liver biopsy: pre-op tests of interest (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Liver cirrhosis: s/sx (8) |
|
Definition
- anorexia
- fever
- abdominal pain
- bleeding problems
- jaundice
- spider angiomas
- veins dilated
- esophageal varices |
|
|
Term
| Liver cirrhosis: treatment (6) |
|
Definition
- goal is to stop or delay progression
- avoid alcohol
- low-protein
- electrolyte balance
- Lactulose
- ascites treatment |
|
|
Term
| Liver failure: client teaching (5) |
|
Definition
- tepid baths and lotion for itching
- positioning for breathing
- put pressure on punctures longer
- explain jaundice |
|
|
Term
| Liver failure: signs and symptoms (8) |
|
Definition
- tremors
- clay colored stools
- jaundice
- mental changes (seizures, stupor, etc)
- dull sound heard with percussion over liver
- ascites/edema
- coagulopathy
- shrinking liver |
|
|
Term
| Liver failure: treatment (6) |
|
Definition
- Vasopressin to control varices
- low-protein diet
- manage fluid, electrolyte balance
- antibiotics
- lactulose
- Vitamin K |
|
|
Term
| Liver transplant: early sign of rejection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inability to take a deep breath when fingers are pressed under liver margin |
|
|
Term
| Neurological changes from excess ammonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oliguria and sodium retention without kidney defects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pancreatic cancer: diagnostic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pancreatic juices: contents |
|
Definition
- water
- enzymes
- protein |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- infection
- trauma
- alcohol
- drugs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- intractable pain in mid-epigastric area
- fever
- anorexia
- persistent vomiting
- distention |
|
|
Term
| Pancreatitis: secondary effect |
|
Definition
| diabetes mellitus due to affected islets of Langerhans |
|
|
Term
| Pancreatitis: treatment (4) |
|
Definition
- hourly V/S
- Non-morphine narcotics
- no alcohol
- Discharge planning: call if weight loss, hi blood sugar, fatty stools |
|
|
Term
| Problem with liver: what specific lab test would be important |
|
Definition
| Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment that allows for continuous shunting of ascitic fluid into the superior vena cava |
|
Definition
| LeVeen continuous peritoneal jugular shunt |
|
|
Term
| diet for hepatic encephalopathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| discoloration at the periumbilical area. May indicate underlying subcutaneous intraperitoneal hemmorhage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| patient has chronic liver failure. Presents with asterixis, fetor hepaticus, confusion. What's the complication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| procedure that can retrieve or crush leftover gallstones |
|
Definition
| Endoscopic Retrograde CholangioPancreatography (ERCP) |
|
|
Term
| symptoms include confusion and coma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| syndrome that causes anuria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nursing action to facilitate expectorate of thick secretions |
|
Definition
| offer liquids,percusion, chest pt, ambulate |
|
|
Term
| nursing assessment for dyspnea |
|
Definition
| auscultate, clear lung sound, air flow, odor of skin (cynosis) cips, ears, 02 saturation. |
|
|
Term
| management of wrist IV site |
|
Definition
| put brace so it wont bend, check for enema, 7'ps |
|
|
Term
| evaluation of clients understanding of deep breathing & coughing instruction |
|
Definition
| pt should demonstrate your teachings, take a deep breath exhale, the cough |
|
|
Term
| teaching instructions about a low fat diet to a client who seems preoccupied |
|
Definition
| get pt's attention, the start teaching, ask PT what he wants to eat, then suggest alternative MCH |
|
|
Term
| Problems associated w/ excessive fat-soluble vitamin ingestion |
|
Definition
| vitamin E, D, K, A (FAT SOLUABLE) the liver, kidney, renal. |
|
|
Term
| positioning a client who is receiving a NGT feeding |
|
Definition
| Semi-fowlers, 30-45 degree(above) aspiration precaution, elevate head. |
|
|
Term
| Nurse's role in obtaining a client's consent |
|
Definition
| explain everything if pt ask opinion bring it to the MD (objective) |
|
|
Term
| correcct technique to clean dentures |
|
Definition
| clean technique on removie it to the pt, put denture cup w/ name & room # paper towel, kidney basin to brush it, warm h20 |
|
|
Term
| Instructions on when to perform breast self examination |
|
Definition
| during shower, check for lump. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing care of a client who is in protective isolation |
|
Definition
| wash hands, PPE, standard, no flower, no fresh stuff, fruits, no sick family, children under 14. |
|
|
Term
| 1st step in managing a fire in a clients waste basket |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| client teaching related to orthostatic hypotension. |
|
Definition
| they feel dizzy, fall risk, teaching, change position slowly or while standing up. Meds from MD |
|
|
Term
| Foods restricted for a client who has edema |
|
Definition
| NAS, (processed foods NO, no salt, no soysauce, ketchup, tomatoes) |
|
|
Term
| nursing measure to increase a client's oral fluid intake |
|
Definition
| Offer juices or whatever they like for as long as they're liq. PAGE 399 (box), call light pitcher in reach. |
|
|
Term
| Food for vegetarian (VEGAN) |
|
Definition
| beans, nuts, tofu, fruits, b12-vitamin supplement, fortified cereals. |
|
|
Term
| nursing measure to increase client food intake |
|
Definition
| assessment what kind of diet or kind of texure, know problem first offer variety of food. |
|
|
Term
| Food to eliminate on a sodium-restricted diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Communication technique for client who misinterprets instruction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing response to a client is confused |
|
Definition
| simple Q's & clear tell who you are, eye contact, avoid distractions, turn off IV, radio ask for help if PT being combative, put pts safety. |
|
|
Term
| Discussing the plan of care with a 78-yr old client |
|
Definition
| explain everything to your pt, discuss with all the healthcare team, goal, attainable goals( REALISTIC), cant start NCP, but LVNS add up. |
|
|
Term
| Result of a nurse who grimaces while changing a clients dressing |
|
Definition
| damaging the pt's self esteem & Dignity |
|
|
Term
| Communication technique to encourage a clients verbalization regarding fears |
|
Definition
| assurance, no false assurance. |
|
|
Term
| Calculation NOF clients fluid intake |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rationale for applying a cold pack for possible fracture |
|
Definition
| to prevent swelling.Warm-you want blood to flow |
|
|
Term
| Need for a physician order prior to caring for a client who is diabetic |
|
Definition
| 1-Accucheck, 2-MEDS, INSULIN, FOOD (DIET) |
|
|
Term
| Nursing suggestion to stimulate a client’s senses in nursing home |
|
Definition
| music, tv, activities, snacks |
|
|
Term
| correct suctioning technique |
|
Definition
| 10-|15| seconds, sterile technique, head up 45 degrees semi fowler face sideways. No suction when going in. |
|
|
Term
| When to use surgical aceptic technique |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type of client exercise exemplified by asking client to make fist. |
|
Definition
| PT with muscle witness (stroke), CVA, nerve damage PT, [R][L] general weakness |
|
|
Term
| expected outcome of the effective treatment for fluid volume excess |
|
Definition
| edema ( not suppose to have) lung is clear. |
|
|
Term
| Appropriate documentation of a wound & dressing |
|
Definition
| site, dressing type, wound color, wound size, odor, pain, edema, pus, temp. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing measure for a client who is bedridden and has edema |
|
Definition
| Elevate the affected extremities higher than your c3, no sodium |
|
|
Term
| Manifestation of high levels of stress |
|
Definition
| V/S is elevated besides temp. psychological- [Forgetful]-decrease focus, irritability. |
|
|
Term
| Assesment for thrombophebitis |
|
Definition
| painful when you touch. S/Sx of infection, edema, wheeping (fluid oozing out) discoloration. |
|
|
Term
| Appropriate hydration to promote wound healing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Incorrect technique for collecting a stool speciment for the presence of OVA & parasites |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When to obtain a sputum culture |
|
Definition
| gargle then cough, 1st thing morning |
|
|
Term
| how to obtain urine speciment from foley CATH |
|
Definition
| clamp it normal urine 100 ML/HR, clean alcohol on the port. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing response to angry client |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Evidence of age-related hearing loss in an 80-year old client |
|
Definition
| they cant hear, they ignore you, they get angry. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing suggestion in increase a clients resistance for infection |
|
Definition
| exercise, nutrition, fluid environment (clean), food, rest. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing measure for a client who is immobilized |
|
Definition
| q2h turning, liq (hydration), ROM, DIet, BOdy alignment, Contracture-Foot board, curl towel on hand, pillows, tennis shoes |
|
|
Term
| Procedure necessitating that a nurse wear gloves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Behavior modification for a 10 yr old to encourage exercise |
|
Definition
| Encourage them to play, sports, behavioral modification. |
|
|
Term
| Assisting a client to W/C |
|
Definition
| LOCK W/C, bed. Stand on weak side, explain procedure, body mechanics. |
|
|
Term
| Sequelae CVA w/ damage to [R] hemisphere |
|
Definition
| [L] side weakness paralysis, weakness, let them have freedom to do self activities on [R] |
|
|
Term
| Nursing management of a client who is preoperative and febrile |
|
Definition
| Double check the temp x2, inform MD. |
|
|
Term
| Manifestation of dehydration |
|
Definition
| Increase temp, increase pulse, pain-headache,skin dry, no turgor, park color urine, decrease urine output, concentrated, oliguria, dry tongue, no tears. |
|
|
Term
| client instruction related to low erythrocyte count |
|
Definition
| diet green leafy vegetable, meat, iron,rest, vitamins, rest, exercise. |
|
|
Term
| expected appearance of stool is in a client who has hemmorhoids |
|
Definition
| Bright red blood, food high in fiber & fluid intake. |
|
|
Term
| factor in elderly that increases the risk of burns |
|
Definition
| Sense of touch,smell, decrease in the senses, poor mobility |
|
|
Term
| Initial nursing action when changing a postoperative dressing |
|
Definition
| Doctors order, explain to PT, (sterile procedure) |
|
|
Term
| Client teaching related to lancet use for glucose monitoring |
|
Definition
| Lancet= disposable (1time), for 1 PT only, throw on sharps |
|
|
Term
| assessments for a Homan’s sign |
|
Definition
| push the patient foot if they feel pain(then if its (+) they have OVT) heart (MI), PE(LUNG), BRAIN(CVA) |
|
|
Term
| Leg exercises for client w/ a cast |
|
Definition
| check capiliary refil, 7's then its only toes exercises, ROM, if itchy (HAIRDRYER) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| green leafy vegetables, peas & beans, depression: FOlate |
|
|
Term
| Evaluation PT teaching related to bed controls |
|
Definition
| demonstrate then have pt demonstrate |
|
|
Term
| Analysis of the cause for having amber colored urine |
|
Definition
| dehydration, poor urinary output, PH-ACIDIC. |
|
|
Term
| Client teaching about vitamin C |
|
Definition
| WATER SOLUBLE VITAMIN C, LOW VITAMIN C-BLEEDING OF GUMS, DECREASE = RICKETTS |
|
|
Term
| FOod containing riboflavin |
|
Definition
| Milk dairy product, whole grain, meat, eggs - Helps W/ Blood |
|
|
Term
| Food combination to make a complete protein |
|
Definition
| Beans, Legumes+green leafy vegetable= combination. Meat is a complete protein |
|
|
Term
| Nursing action related to medication administration that had been prepared by another nurse |
|
Definition
| DONT GIVE MEDS IF YOU DID NOT PREPARE IT |
|
|
Term
| Amount of calories in 60 grams of proteins |
|
Definition
| 240 calories, carbohydrate is absorb in Stomach. |
|
|
Term
| Evaluation of a clients understanding for performing arm exercises for crutch walking. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Correct administration of eye ointment OS |
|
Definition
| From top pull bottom pour eye drops, put pressure on inner cantus so wont go to blood stream. Wash hands, clean blood stream technique. |
|
|
Term
| Correct interpretation of food label information |
|
Definition
| just look on the nutrional facts, based on 24 hours intake. 2000 calorie diet. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing action when client says he/she is unsure of having surgery |
|
Definition
| tell the MD to reexplain it again to the PT |
|
|
Term
| Nursing action when client refuses a medication |
|
Definition
| ask for a reason, encourage, find alternative, talk to the MD. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing action for a client who is admitted for same day surgery |
|
Definition
| DO your assessments. Subjective & objective, eaten? When? |
|
|
Term
| Nursing response when a cliet is "angry at god" |
|
Definition
| ask them why...(verbalize why) |
|
|
Term
| Analysis of effectiveness of oxygen administration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nursing action for client who is immunosuppressed |
|
Definition
| Reverse isolation, Protect them, no fresh fruit, dont visit someone sick, Dont play w/ kids, no flowers, pet. |
|
|
Term
| Assessment of a 5- year old child who has difficulty sleeping |
|
Definition
| ask them what makes them sleep, warm milk, soft music, assurance. maybe the lights |
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by a chronic inflammation of synovial membrane in diarthrodial joints? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| fatigue, morning stiffness, muscle weakness, joint tenderness, edema of joints, generalized aching, decrease appetite and ROM, fever, symmetrical joint involvement, malaise, nodules. (the beginning s/s before advanced) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Synovial fluid is cloudy, yellow, not viscous. Indication? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The difference between RA and OA. |
|
Definition
RA is an inflammatory disease of autoimmune origin.
OA is a degenerative disease of cartilage breakdown. |
|
|
Term
| What can be done to slow down the damage of RA? |
|
Definition
Exercise:
- AM activity helps
- rest periods
- weight control
- 8-10 hrs sleep + daily naps |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of synovial joint |
|
|
Term
| inflammation of synovial joint |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic, progressive disorder of sacroiliac and hip joints and soft tissue |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chronic, progressive disorder of sacroiliac and hip joints and soft tissue |
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Term
| Non systemic, non-inflammatory disease that progress causing bones to degenerate. It is a degenerative joint disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Non systemic, non-inflammatory disease that progress causing bones to degenerate. It is a degenerative joint disease. |
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Term
| common surgery for osteoarthritis |
|
Definition
| arthroplasty of hip and knee |
|
|
Term
| arthroplasty of hip and knee |
|
Definition
| common surgery for osteoarthritis |
|
|
Term
| A common nursing intervention in the treatment of osteoarthritis |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| sides of distal joints of fingers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sides of distal joints of fingers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| appear on proximal joints of fingers—hard, bony cartilaginous enlargements |
|
|
Term
| appear on proximal joints of fingers—hard, bony cartilaginous enlargements |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| advise for RA and OA patients on NSAIDS |
|
Definition
- Take with food to decrease GI stress
- Herbs may interfere with NSAID effectiveness |
|
|
Term
| Exercise may help relieve pain from _____, but not from _____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of exercise in RA treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of exercise in OA treatment? |
|
Definition
| prevention of muscle and bone stiffness. |
|
|
Term
| What may be needed prior to exercise for OA patients? |
|
Definition
| anti-inflammatory and pain meds |
|
|
Term
| Primary place of inflammation from gout |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ineffective metabolism of purines |
|
|
Term
| ineffective metabolism of purines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Edema and inflammation, especially at night. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| primary sources of purines |
|
Definition
- organ meats
- alcohol (especially wine)
- sardines
- mackerel
- scallops. |
|
|
Term
| Reduction in the mass of bone per unit of volume |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Reduction in the mass of bone per unit of volume |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for osteoporosis |
|
Definition
- Age
- calcium deficiency
- gender (female)
- sedentary lifestyle
- tobacco
- alcohol |
|
|
Term
| basic treatment of osteoporosis |
|
Definition
- calcium supplements
- estrogen replacement
- exercise |
|
|
Term
| Why are small, skinny Asian women at high risk for osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
| tendency to be lactose intolerant |
|
|
Term
| complication of osteoporosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common OTC antacid taken during pregnancy that is also high in calcium |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic syndrome (not a disease) presented by musculoskeletal pain in muscles, bones, joints |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chronic syndrome (not a disease) presented by musculoskeletal pain in muscles, bones, joints |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Permanent damage caused by fibromyalgia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- tension headaches
- irritable bowel syndrome
- memory and cognitive difficulties
- reduced exercise tolerance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- tension headaches
- irritable bowel syndrome
- memory and cognitive difficulties
- reduced exercise tolerance |
|
|
Term
| Intervention for fibromyalgia |
|
Definition
| exercise - helps relieve muscle pain |
|
|
Term
| common med used for treatment of fibromyalgia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intervertebral disk herniation |
|
Definition
| a tear in the outer, fibrous ring of an intervertebral disc allows the soft, central portion to bulge out. |
|
|
Term
| Associated with trauma and improper body alignment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a common effect of a herniated disk |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lab test is an indicator of a bone tumor? |
|
Definition
| Alkaline phosphatase - high |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Local or generalized infection of bone and bone marrow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Local or generalized infection of bone and bone marrow |
|
|
Term
| effect of not properly positioning a limb affected by osteomyelitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| effect of not properly positioning a limb affected by osteomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| clinical tests for osteomyelitis |
|
Definition
- X-ray
- CBC
- blood culture
- bone scan |
|
|
Term
| wound precautions would be in order for which bone disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of precaution should be taught upon discharge of an osteomyelitis patient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| discharge interventions for osteomyelitis |
|
Definition
- long-term therapy
- bed rest
- careful positioning
- wound precautions
- diet |
|
|
Term
| purpose of bed rest with osteomyelitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| prognosis regarding osteomyelitis |
|
Definition
- may become chronic
- contractured bones cannot be re-aligned
- recurrent fractures possible
- - take precautions against trauma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
• Assessment
• Subjective
• muscle aches
• tension headaches
• PMS
• Jaw pain
• fatigue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Objective assessment - constant need to move |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Objective assessment indicating fibromyalgia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diagnostics re fibromyalgia |
|
Definition
Electrolytes, CBC, sleep study, ESR:
ALL NORMAL. |
|
|
Term
| Most effective intervention for fibromyalgia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| rupture of fibrocartilage surrounding intervertebral disk |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Areas commonly effected by herniation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| headache, neck pain, rigidity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing interventions re herniated disk surgery |
|
Definition
- LOG-ROLL method turning patient
- heat or ice - may be don pre- and post-op
- diet high in fiber, calories, protein
- decrease anxiety, pain and constipation |
|
|
Term
| removal of bony arches of vertebrae to remove compression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| removal of bony arches of vertebrae to remove compression |
|
|
Term
| Results in arthrodesis (immobilization) of the joint |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| post-op spinal surgery care |
|
Definition
• check for drainage
• surgical aseptic dressing changes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
• watch for drainage, looking for CSF
• TED hose
• I/O for first 24 hrs
• Concern if no void after 8 hrs
• sitting no longer than 30 min in firm chair
• walk the first day
• may be fitted for corsett in 2-3 days
• ADLs
• no twisting
• no lifting more than 5 lbs in first 8 weeks
• No driving |
|
|
Term
| post-laminectomy care: alert RN if following drainage found |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Post-laminectomy care: concern regarding I/O |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Post-laminectomy care: when can the patient begin walking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ADL limits post laminectomy |
|
Definition
• no twisting
• no lifting more than 5 lbs in first 8 weeks
• No driving |
|
|
Term
| blood tests indicating bone tumor |
|
Definition
Alkaline phosphatase: high
CBC/platelets: low
Protein: high |
|
|
Term
| post bone tumor surgery nursing intervention |
|
Definition
• post-op neurovascular assessment (7 P's)
• education of pre- and post-op procedures
• vital signs
• dressing changes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinical effect of lumbar herniation |
|
Definition
• low back pain with even the slightest movement
• psiatica usually affected, radiating along buttocks of affected side
• numbness and tingling in leg of affected side
• bowel and urine control may be affected* |
|
|
Term
| Bones that are usually the origin of osteosarcomas |
|
Definition
• distal femur
• proximal tibia
• proximal humerus |
|
|
Term
| Objective assessment of bone tumor |
|
Definition
• pathological fracture
• edema
• discoloration of skin |
|
|
Term
| more common among males 10-30 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bones that are usually the origin of osteocondromas |
|
Definition
• distal femur
• proximal tibia
• proximal humerus |
|
|
Term
| more common among males 20-30 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two important notes regarding Elavil |
|
Definition
- tricyclic: can be a cardiac risk
- takes 30 days to take effect |
|
|
Term
| more common among females 20-50 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following lab results would be most important for the nurse to monitor in a patient who has just suffered from a crushing injury?
A) CK, myoglobin and K+
B) ALP and LDH
C) Ca+ and Phos.
D) AST and LDH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would the nurse teach in a patient about the pattern of pain and stiffness of OA
A) less severe in AM and worse after activity
B) more severe in AM and less after activity
C) same at rest and during activity
D) may reoccur months later |
|
Definition
| A) less severe in AM and worse after activity |
|
|
Term
Which finding would be most significant when collecting data on a patient with MD
A) drooping eyelids
B) O-sat =85%
C) difficulty walking
D) drooling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lab result would indicate treatment of RA has been effective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the body coordinates voluntary movement |
|
Definition
| Frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for a healthy adult bone to heal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Healthy man loses finger in accident. At the scene, nurse ensures victim is in stable condition. What next?
A) Transport to hospital STAT
B) Wrap severed finger in cool, slightly moist cloth, which may be submerged in cold water until brought to hospital
C) Wrap severed finger in dry cloth in plastic bag for transport
D) disinfect and bandage wound before transport to hospital |
|
Definition
| B) Wrap severed finger in cool, slightly moist cloth, which may be submerged in cold water until brought to hospital |
|
|
Term
| Which hormone promotes calcium retention in bones, especially during childhood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement is correct about the postmenopausal patient and to take alendronate sodium (Fosamax) for osteoporosis?
A) take every night before bedtime
B) take in morning with water
C) no side effects
D) no calcium-related concerns |
|
Definition
| B) take in morning with water |
|
|
Term
| Priority post-op complication to monitor for after THR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient presents with pitting edema on upper arm with taut, shiny, nonwrinkled skin. What else may exist?
A) rash on bridge of nose
B) pain caused by cold
C) Pain or reddening of small joints
D) lilac-colored rash or swelling around eyes |
|
Definition
B) pain caused by cold
signs of scleroderma. |
|
|
Term
Which is NOT a risk factor for primary osteoporosis?
Sedentary lifestyle
Excessive alcohol
Overweight
White or Asian
Smoking |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the musculoskeletal system is most affected by a sprain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hip surgery delayed. What is likely to be ordered in the interim? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
MATCH THE CARE WITH THE PROCEDURE:
1) bone/muscle biopsy
2) arthrography
3) myelogram
4) arthrocentesis
A: elevate affected limb
B: head of bed at 45 degrees
C: monitor for hemarthrosis
D: wound care |
|
Definition
biopsy - wound care
arthrography - elevate limb
Myelogram - head at 45 degrees
arthrocentesis - hemarthrosis monitoring |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-systemic
-nodules
salicilates
gold compounds
NSAIDs
Immunosuppressants
muscle relaxants
corticosteroids
-Flxeril |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-degenerative
-weight
-NSAIDS
-salicilates |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-tophi
-colchicine
-zyloprim |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-irritable bowel syndrome
-Elavil
-Klonopin
-Flexoril |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-exercise
-NSAID
-anti-inflammatory meds
-corticosteroids |
|
|
