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TCOLE
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282
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Not Applicable
06/11/2019

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Term
1. THE CONDITION OF THE HUMAN ORGANISM THAT CONSIST OF ITS HEALTH AND DISEASE STATUS & RISK POTENTIAL

a. Ergonomics
b. Wellness
c. Fitness
d. Physiology
Definition
B
Term
2. ACCORDING TO THE OCCUPATIONS CODE, A PERSON LICENSED AS A PEACE OFFICER MUST COMPLETE 40 HOURS OF LEGISLATIVELY REQUIRED CONTINUING EDUCATION TRAINING ONCE EVERY ___. (SEC 217.11)
A. 12 Months
B. 24 Months
C. 36 Months
D. 48 Months
Definition
B
Term
3. ACCORDING TO COMMISSION RULES, IF A LICENSEE'S NAME IS CHANGED FOR ANY REASON, SUCH AS MARRIAGE, DIVORCE, OR OTHER COURT ACTION, IT MUST BE REPORTED TO THE COMMISSION WITHIN ___ DAYS. (211.27)
a. 60
b. 50
c. 40
d. 30
Definition
D
Term
4. ACCORDING TO COMMISSION RULES, IF A CURRENT LICENSE HOLDER IS ARRESTED FOR ANY OFFENSE ABOVE A CLASS C MISDEMEANOR, THE LICENSE HOLDER SHALL REPORT THE FACTS OF THE ARREST TO THE COMMISSION WITHIN ___ DAYS (211.27)
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 180
Definition
A
Term
5. ACCORDING TO COMMISSION RULES, THE LICENSE OF ANY LICENSEE WHO DOES NOT MEET THE LEGISLATIVELY REQUIRED CONTINUING EDUCATION BY THE EXPIRATION DATE WILL ___ (217.11)
a. Terminate
b. Lapse
c. Expire
d. Defer
Definition
C
Term
6. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ADVANTAGE OF HAVING THE PROFESSIONAL MODEL FOR LAW ENFORCEMENT? (2-25 OBJ)
a. Increased cost of training and development
b. Opportunity for educational benefits
c. More effective problem-solving techniques
d. Limited entry-level opportunities for people form lower socioeconomic segments
Definition
C
Term
7. THE EXPRESSION OF USE OF FACTS WITHOUT DISTORTION BY PERSONAL FEELINGS OR PREJUDICES IS THE DEFINITION OF ___ (7/25 OBJ)
a. Professionalism
b. Ethical Integrity
c. Objectivity
d. Courage
Definition
C
Term
8.INVESTIGATIONS RELATING TO THE DEPRIOCATION OF CIVIL RIGHTS UNDER COLOR OF LAW ARE USUALLY CONDUCTED BY THE ___. (3.3.2)
a. FEDERAL CIVIL RIGHTS COMMISSION
b. UNITED STATES ATTORNEY GENERAL
c. FEDERAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION
d. ATTORNEY GENERAL OF TEXAS
Definition
C
Term
10. THE 6TH AMEND. TO THE US CONSTITUTION ___. ( 4.1.7)
a. Provides the right to bail
b. Established the "due process of law" doctrine
c. Gives the right to trial, open to the public
d. Establishes the powers of the state
Definition
C
Term
9. ACCORDING TO THE PENAL CODE, A PUBLIC SERVANT ACTING UNDER THE COLOR OF OFFICE OR EMPLOYMENT COMMITS THE OFFENSE OF OFFICIAL OPPRESSION IF THE PUBLIC SERVANT ___. (PC 39.03)
a. Intentionally subjects another to sexual harassment
b. Aids another in acquiring personal property
c. Coerces another with intent to obtain a benefit
d. Intentionally includes a report of facts known to the person to be false
Definition
A
Term
11. CRUEL & UNUSUAL PUNISHMENT ARE PROHIBITED BY WHICH AMENDMENT? (4.1.7)
a. 5
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Definition
D
Term
12. ACCORDING TO THE ___ AMEND. OF THE US CONSTITUTION, POWERS NOT SPECIFICALLY RESERVED TO THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT ARE RESERVED TO THE STATE GOVERNMENT. (4.1.7)
a. 4
b. 9
c. 10
d. 14
Definition
C
Term
13. ACCORDING TO THE CCP A ___ IS AN ORDER ISSUED BY A JUDGE DIRECTED TO ANY HAVING A PERSON IN THEIR CUSTODY, COMMANDING THEM TO PRODUCE SUCH PERSON AND SHOW WHY THEY ARE IN CUSTODY. (CCP 11.01)
a. Writ of Sequestration
b. Writ of Attachment
c. Writ of Habeas Corpus
d. Remander of Custody
Definition
C
Term
14. WHICH COURT CASE AFFIRMED A PERSONS RIGHT TO FREE SPEECH?
a. MIRANDA V. ARIZONA
b. DURAN V. CITY OF DOUGLAS
c. TENNESSEE V. GARNER
d. RUIZ V. ESTELLE
Definition
B
Term
15. THE 5TH AMENDMENT TO THE US CONSTITUTION GIVES CITIZENS THE PROTECTION FROM ___. (4.1.7)
a. Unreasonable Searches
b. Quartering of Troops
c. Excessive Bail
d. Self - Incrimination

a. Unreasonable Searches
b. Quartering of Troops
c. Excessive Bail
d. Self - Incrimination
Definition
D
Term
16. THE ___ AMENDMENT LIMITS THE LEVEL OF FORCE THAT MAY BE USED TO REASONABLE FORCE. (4.1.7)
a. 4
b. 5
c. 8
d. 14
Definition
A
Term
17. THE PRIMARY COMPONENTS OF THE AMERICAN CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM ARE ___ (4.3.1)
a. Probation, Parole, Correctional
b. Police, Courts, Correctional
c. Local, State, Federal Police
d. Police, Prosecution, Courts
Definition
B
Term
18. ___ IS LAW THAT DEFINES THE PERSONAL & PROPERTY RIGHTS OF INDIVIDUALS. (4.3.3)
a. Civil Law
b. Criminal Law
c. Tort
d. Mediation
Definition
A
Term
19. ACCORDING TO THE CCP, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A MAGISTRATE? (2.09)
a. Recorders of incorporated cities
b. Justice of the Peace
c. Supreme Court Justices
d. District Attorneys
Definition
D
Term
20. ACCORDING TO THE CCP, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE NOT TEXAS PEACE OFFICERS? (2.12)
a. Investigators of the District Attorneys office
b. Law Enforcement Agents of the ABC
c. Arson Investigators of a city, county, or state
d. Special Agents of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms
Definition
D
Term
21. ACCORDING TO THE CCP, THE COURT OF CRIMINAL APPEALS DOES NOT ___. (4.04)
a. Issue writ of habeas corpus
b. Hear cases involving death penalty
c. Review decisions of civil cases
d. Review decisions of criminal cases
Definition
C
Term
22. ACCORDING TO THE CCP, THE ___ COURTS SHALL HAVE ORIGINAL JURISDICTION OF ALL MISDEMEANORS OF WHICH EXCLUSIVE ORIGINAL JURISDICTION IS NOT GIVEN TO THE JUSTICE COURT, AND WHEN THE FINE TO BE IMPOSED SHALL EXCEED $500. (4.04)
a. County
b. District
c. Municipal
d. Juvenile
Definition
A
Term
23. ACCORDING TO CCP, A PEACE OFFICER WHO INVESTIGATES A FAMILY VIOLENCE ALLEGATION OR WHO RESPONDS TO A DISTURBANCE CALL THAT MAY INVOLVE FAMILY VIOLENCE SHALL ADVISE ANY POSSIBLE ADULT VICTIM OF ALL REASONABLE MEANS TO PREVENT FURTHER FAMILY VIOLENCE, INCLUDING ___. (5.04)
a. Making an arrest without warrant
b. Calling in assistance from domestic violence experts
c. Giving written notice of victim's legal rights
d. Giving written notice of an offender's legal rights
Definition
C
Term
24. ACCORDING TO THE CCP, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A USE OF FORCE OPTION FOR DISPERSING A RIOT? (8.04)
a. Command the group to disperse
b. Arrest the persons involved with a warrant
c. Arrest the persons involved without a warrant
d. Use any degree of force
Definition
D
Term
25. ACCORDING TO THE CCP, AN AFFIDAVIT MADE BEFORE A MAGISTRATE CHARGING THE COMMISSION OF AN OFFENSE IS CALLED A/AN ___. (15.04)
a. Warrant
b. Complaint
c. Information
d. Capias
Definition
B
Term
26. ACCORDING TO THE CCP, THE SECURITY GIVEN BY THE ACCUSED THAT HE WILL APPEAR AND ANSWER BEFORE THE PROPER COURT THE ACCUSATION BROUGHT AGAINST HIM IS KNOWN AS ___. (17.01)
a. Commitment
b. Promissory
c. Bail
d. Bond
Definition
C
Term
27. A WRITTEN STATEMENT OF A GRADY JURY ACCUSING A PERSON OF AN OFFENSE IS A/AM ___ (21.01)
a. Complaint
b. Indictment
c. Information
d. Affidavit
Definition
B
Term
28. A PERSON IS ARRESTED WHEN THE PERSON HAS BEEN ___ (15.22)
a. Lawfully detained
b. Taken into custody
c. Unlawfully detained
d. Stopped and Identified
Definition
B
Term
29. A WRITTEN STATEMENT THAT IS FILED AND PRESENTED ON BEHALF OF THE STATE OF TEXAS BY A DISTRICT ATTORNEY THAT CHARGES A PERSON WITH AN OFFENSE THAT MAY BE PROSECUTED ACCORDING TO LAW IS CALLED A/AN ___ (21.20)
a. Indictment
b. Information
c. Complaint
d. Attachment
Definition
B
Term
30. A PEACE OFFICER FROM ANOTHER STATE MAY PURSUE A FEELING PERSON INTO TEXAS AND ARREST THEM THERE, IF THE PERSON IS SUSPECTED OF COMMITTING ___ (14.03/51.13)
a. Felony
b. Misdemeanor punishable by jail
c. State jail offense
d. Capital offense
Definition
A
Term
31. THE TIME ALLOWED FOR THE EXECUTION OF A SEARCH WARRANT SHALL BE ___ WHOLE DAYS, EXCLUSIVE OF THE DAY OF ISSUANCE AND THE DAY OF ITS EXECUTION (18.07)
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Definition
A
Term
32. WHICH COURT HAS ORIGINAL JURISDICTION OVER ALL FELONY CASES?
a. District Court
b. County Criminal Court
c. Court of Criminal Appeals
d. Supreme Court
Definition
A
Term
33. WHAT IS A WRIT ISSUED BY A COURT DIRECTING ANY PEACE OFFICER IN THE STATE, COMMANDING HIM TO ARREST A PERSON ACCUSED OF AN OFFENSE AND BRING HIM BEFORE THAT COURT IMMEDIATELY CALLED (23.01)
a. Attachment
b. Commitment
c. Capias
d. Arrest warrant
Definition
C
Term
34. APPEALS FROM THE JUSTICE COURT ARE HEARD BY THE ___ COURT (4.08)
a. County
b. District
c. Appeals
d. Criminal Appeals
Definition
A
Term
36. WHAT IS A LAW ENFORCEMENT INITIATED ACTION BASED ON AN INDIVIDUALS ETHNICITY OR NATIONAL ORIGIN RATHER THAN THE INDIVIDUALS BEHAVIOR (3.05)
a. Selective Enforcement
b. Racial Profiling
c. Cultural Bias
d. Ethnocentrism
Definition
B
Term
37. WHENEVER A PEACE OFFICER MEETS WITH RESISTANCE IN DISCHARGING ANY DUTY IMPOSED ON HIM BY LAW, HE ___ COMMAND A SUFFICIENT NUMBER OF CITIZENS OF HIS COUNTY TO OVER COME THE RESISTANCE (2.14)
a. May
b. Shall
c. Can
d. Will
Definition
B
Term
35. WHAT IS THE TERM FOR A WRITTEN ORDER FROM A MAGISTRATE, DIRECTED TO A PEACE OFFICER, COMMANDING THEM TO TAKE THE BODY OF THE PERSON ACCUSED OF AN OFFENSE, TO BE DEALT WITH ACCORDING TO LAW (15.01)
a. Capias
b. Search Warrant
c. Arrest Warrant
d. Attachment
Definition
C
Term
38. ___ CIRCUMSTANCES EXIST WHEN THERE IS NOT ENOUGH TIME TO OBTAIN A WARRANT AND THE OFFICER MUST ESTABLISH PROBABLE CAUSE
a. Emergency
b. Reasonable
c. Special
d. Exclusionary
Definition
A
Term
39. THE RIGHT TO HAVE AN ATTORNEY PRESENT DURING QUESTIONING WAS AFFIRMED BY ___ (4.1.6)
a. Mapp V. Ohio
b. Terry V. Ohio
c. Miranda V. Arizona
d. Colorado V. Beltane C
Definition
C
Term
40. PERSONS FOUND IS SUSPICIOUS PLACES, AND UNDER CIRCUMSTANCES WHICH REASONABLE SHOW THAT SUCH PERSON ARE ABOUT TO COMMIT SOME OFFENSE AGAINST THE LAWS MAY ___ (14.03)
a. Not be arrested without a warrant
b. Be arrested without a warrant
c. Only be arrested with a warrant
d. Only be detained for a short time
Definition
B
Term
41. A PEACE OFFICER OR ANY OTHER PERSON, MAY, WITHOUT WARRANT, ARREST AN OFFENDER WHEN THE OFFENSE IS COMMITTED IN THEIR PRESENCE OR WITHIN THEIR VIEW IS THE OFFENSE IS CLASSIFIED AS A ___ (14.01)
a. Felony
b. Tort
c. Civil Matter
d. Any violation of the law
Definition
A
Term
42. In US V. Carroll, the supreme court upheld an officers right to search a vehicles trunk when the officers have ___
a. Search warrant
b. Reasonable suspicion
c. Probable cause
d. Inventory privilege
Definition
C
Term
43. UNDER TEMPORARY DETENTION, A PERSON ___ BE REQUIRED TO IDENTIFY HIMSELF.
a. Cannot
b. Will
c. Should
d. Shall
Definition
A
Term
44. THE ACT OF KEEPING BACK, OR WITHHOLDING, BY DESIGN, A PERSON, IS THE DEFINITION OF ___
a. Incarceration
b. Sentencing
c. Detention
d. Custody
Definition
C
Term
45. THE RIGHT OF OFFICERS TO SEARCH IMMEDIATE AREA OF CONTROL IN A SEARCH INCIDENT TO AN ARREST Was IN ___
a. Terry V. Ohio
b. Chimel V. Cali
c. Schmerber V. Cali
d. Brown V. Texas
Definition
B
Term
46. A SEARCH WARRANT IS A WRITTEN ORDER, ISSUED BY A MAGISTRATE AND DIRECTED TO A PEACE OFFICER, COMMANDING HIM TO ___ (18.01)
a. Provide said contraband for use during any show-cause hearing
b. Seize listed property and secure same in an approved storage facility
c. Search for any property or thing and seize the same
d. Search for listed suspects and arrest the same
Definition
C
Term
47. HOLDING A PERSON FOR A LIMITED TIME WHO, AS YET, IS NOT ANSWERABLE TO A CRIMINAL OFFENSE IS ___
a. Temporary detention
b. Probable Cause
c. Lawful Restraint
d. Limited Suspicion
Definition
A
Term
48. IF A ___ FROM ANOTHER STATE COMES IN OR PASSES THROUGH A STATE UNDER AN ORDER DIRECTING HIM TO ATTEND AND TESTIFY IN THIS OR ANOTHER STATE, HE IS NOT SUBJECT TO ARREST OR THE SERVICE OF CIVIL OR CRIMINAL PROCESS BECAUSE OF ANY ACT COMMITTED PRIOR TO HIS ARRIVAL IN THIS STATE UNDER THE ORDER (24.28)
a. Defendant
b. Legislator
c. Witness
d. Officer
Definition
C
Term
49. AN OFFICER MUST HAVE ___ TO BELIEVE THE PROPERTY IS STOLEN TO JUSTIFY SEIZURE OF THE PROPERTY (18.16)
a. Probable Cause
b. Reasonable Ground
c. Exigent Circumstances
d. Rational Suspicion
Definition
B
Term
50. A PEACE OFFICER MAY ARREST, WITHOUT A WARRANT, WHEN A FELONY OR BREACH OF THE PEACE HAS BEEN COMMITTED IN PRESENCE OR WITHIN VIEW OF A ___ AND SUCH PERSON VERBALLY ORDERS THE ARREST OF THE OFFENDER. (14.02)
a. Private Person
b. County Commissioner
c. City Council Member
d. Magistrate
Definition
D
Term
51. ___ EXIST WHEN THE FACTS AND CIRCUMSTANCES KNOWN TO THE OFFICER WOULD WARRANT A PRUDENT MAN BELIEVING THAT AN OFFENSE HAS BEEN COMMITTED.
a. Articulable suspicion
b. Mere suspicion
c. Probable cause
d. Reasonable cause
Definition
C
Term
52. WHAT IS THE ACTUAL FORCIBLE DETENTION OF A PERSON AND OTHER COERCIVE MEASURES TO DETAIN HIM WITHIN CERTAIN LIMITS (11.21)
a. Temporary detention
b. Restraint
c. Arrest
d. Constructive Custody
Definition
D
Term
53. WHICH US CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS THE PRIMARY FOCUS OF THE MIRANDA V. ARIZONA CASE?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
Definition
B
Term
51. ___ EXIST WHEN THE FACTS AND CIRCUMSTANCES KNOWN TO THE OFFICER WOULD WARRANT A PRUDENT MAN BELIEVING THAT AN OFFENSE HAS BEEN COMMITTED.
a. Articulable suspicion
b. Mere suspicion
c. Probable cause
d. Reasonable cause
Definition
C
Term
52. WHAT IS THE ACTUAL FORCIBLE DETENTION OF A PERSON AND OTHER COERCIVE MEASURES TO DETAIN HIM WITHIN CERTAIN LIMITS (11.21)
a. Temporary detention
b. Restraint
c. Arrest
d. Constructive Custody
Definition
D
Term
53. WHICH US CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS THE PRIMARY FOCUS OF THE MIRANDA V. ARIZONA CASE?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
Definition
B
Term
54. A CITIZEN MAN, WITHOUT WARRANT, ARREST AN OFFENDER WHEN THE OFFENSE COMMITTED WITHIN THEIR VIEW IS A ___ (14.01)
a. Felony
b. Traffic Violation
c. Misdemeanor
d. Violation of City Ordinance
Definition
A
Term
55. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING, OCCURRING IN THE PRESENCE OF AN OFFICER, REQUIRES AND ARREST, EVEN WITHOUT A WARRANT? (14.03)
a. An individual is intoxicated
b. A person is threatening to commit an offense
c. There is a person the officer has probable cause to believe is violating a protective order
d. There is a child violating a city ordinance
Definition
C
Term
56. A PEACE OFFICER MAY BREAK DOWN THE DOOR OF ANY HOUSE FOR THE PURPOSE OF MAKING AN ARREST ID HE HAS BEEN REFUSED ADMITTANCE AFTER GIVING NOTICE OF HIS AUTHORITY AND PURPOSE UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES (15.25)
a. Felony
b. Misdemeanor
c. Traffic Offense
d. Exigent Circumstances
Definition
A
Term
57. THE POISONOUS TREE DOCTRINE, WHICH DISPLAYS THE NOTION THAT EVIDENCE OBTAINED AFTER ILLEGAL GOVERNMENT ACTION WILL BE EXCLUDED FROM EVIDENCE, WAS AFFIRMED IN ___ (7.1.14)
a. US V. Robinson
b. Cali V. Greenwood
c. Won Sun V. US
d. Michigan V. Long
Definition
C
Term
58. YOU CAN FRISK IF THERE IS ___ THAT THE SUSPECT MAY BE IN POSSESSION OF A WEAPON (7.1.7)
a. Reasonable fear
b. Mere justification
c. Reasonable Evidence
d. Mere suspicion
Definition
A
Term
59. When a search is conducted after lawful arrest, within immediate control and contemporaneous with the arrest, the search is justified under ___ to lawful arrest (7.1.11)
a. Warrant
b. Search
c. Incidental
d. Execution
Definition
C
Term
60. WHAT IS GENERALLY CONSIDERED TO BE THAT AREA OF OPEN SPACE SURROUNDING A DWELLING, WHICH IS SO IMMEDIATELY ADJACENT TO THE DWELLING THAT IT IS PART OF THE HOUSE (7.1.13)
a. Open Field
b. Curtilage
c. Encumbrance
d. Continuance
Definition
B
Term
61. WHAT IS NOT PART OF THE ELEMENTS OF AN OFFENSE (1.07)
a. Admission of Guilt
b. Forbidden Conduct
c. Required Culpability
d. Any required result
Definition
A
Term
62. IN THE CASE OF AN "EXCEPTION TO AN OFFENSE" THE BURDEN OF PROOF LIES WITH THE ___ (2.02)
a. Defense Attorney
b. Grand Jury
c. Prosecuting Attorney
d. Plaintiff
Definition
C
Term
63. A PERSON ACTS ___, WITH RESPECT TO THE NATURE OF THEIR CONDUCT, WHEN IT IS THE CONSCIOUS OBJECTIVE OR DESIRE TO ENGAGE IN THE CONDUCT OR CAUSE THE RESULT (6.03)
a. Knowingly
b. Intentionally
c. Criminal Negligence
d. Recklessly
Definition
B
Term
67. IN ORDER TO PROVE A CASE OF PUBLIC INTOXICATION, A PERSON MUST ___ (49.02)
a. Appear in a public place while intoxicated
b. Appear in a public place while intoxicated to a degree the person may endanger himself or another
c. Appear in a public place while smelling strongly of alcohol
d. Appear in a public place while intoxicated and disorderly
Definition
B
Term
68. A PERSON IS IN THE PROCESS OF ROBBING A STORE WHEN A CUSTOMER ENTERS ANS IS SHOW AND KILLED BY THE PERSON. WHEN IS MOST SERIOUS OFFENSE COMMITTED (19.03)
a. Criminal negligent homicide
b. Murder
c. Manslaughter
d. Capital Murder
Definition
D
Term
69. A PERSON ABDUCTS A CHILD AND DEMANDS A RANSOM FOR THE CHILDS RELEASE. THE PERSON GETS SCARED AND RELEASES THE CHILD UNHARMED. ACCORDING TO THE PENAL CODE, WHAT IS THE MOST SERIOUS OFFENSE COMMITTED (20.04)
a. Kidnapping
b. Aggravated Kidnapping
c. Unlawful Restraint
d. Interference with Child Custody
Definition
B
Term
70. WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON THREATENS TO HARM ANOTHER, BY AN UNLAWFUL ACT, ON ACCOUNT OF THEIR SERVICE AS A WITNESS OR PUBLIC SERVANT? (36.06)
a. Tampering with a witness
b. Jury Tampering
c. Obstruction/Retaliation
d. Official Oppression
Definition
C
Term
71. A PERSON CAUSES AN EXPLOSION WITH INTENT TO DESTROY OR DAMAGE, AND IS RECKLESS ABOUT WHETHER THE EXPLOSION WILL ENDANGER THE LIFE OF SOME INDIVIDUAL. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (28.02)
a. Criminal Mischief
b. Reckless Damage or destruction
c. Aggravated Assault
d. Arson
Definition
D
Term
72. A PERSON WHO, IN THE COURSE OF COMMITTING THEFT, INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY CAUSES BI TO ANOTHER, OR PLACES ANOTHER IN FEAR OF IMMINENT BI OR DEATH HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (29.02)
a. Assault
b. Robbery
c. Agg. Robbery
d. Manslaughter
Definition
B
Term
73. A PERSON KNOWINGLY CAUSES SBI TO ANOTHER IN THE COURSE OF COMMITTING THEFT. WHAT IS THE MOST SERIOUS OFFENSE (29.03)
a. Burglary
b. Robbery
c. Agg. Theft
d. Agg. Robbery
Definition
D
Term
74. A PERSON BREAKS INTO AN ATTACHED GARAGE, BREAKS INTO A VEHICLE PARKED IN THE GARAGE, AND STEALS $1500 COMPUTER FROM THE BACK SEAT. WHAT IS THE MOST SERIOUS OFFENSE (30.02)
a. Burglary
b. Burglary of a Vehicle
c. Theft over $1000
d. Criminal Trespass
Definition
A
Term
75. A PERSON COMMITS THE OFFENSE OF THEFT IF THEY ___ APPROPRIATE PROPERTY WITH INTENT TO DEPRIVE THE OWNER OF THE PROPERTY (31.03)
a. Willingly
b. Intentionally
c. Unlawfully
d. Knowingly
Definition
C
Term
76. A PERSON REMOVES A $450 PRICE TAG FROM A RETAIL ITEM, REPLACES IT WITH A $200 PRICE TAG AND PAYS THE LOWER PRICE. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED THE OFFENSE OF (32.47
a. Fraud. Destruction, removal, or concealment or writing
b. Misapplication of fiduciary property
c. False statement to obtain property or credit
d. Securing execution of document by deception
Definition
A
Term
77. A PERSON STEALS A CREDIT CARD WITH THE INTENT TO USE IT. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (32.31)
a. Theft
b. Credit Card Abuse
c. Forgery
d. Fraud. Transfer of a credit Card
Definition
B
Term
78. A PERSON KNOWINGLY PREVENTS A WRIT FROM BEING SERVED IN A CIVIL CASE. ACCORDING TO THE PENAL CODE, WHAT OFFENSE HAS BEEN COMMITTED (38.16)
a. Hindering proceedings by disorderly conduct
b. Preventing execution of civil process
c. Interference of public duties
d. Barratry
Definition
B
Term
79. A PERSON ENTERS THE COUNTY COMMISSIONERS MEETING AND BEGINS TO SHOUT OBSCENITIES. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (42.05)
a. Disrupting meeting or precession
b. Disorderly conduct
c. Riot
d. Harassment
Definition
A
Term
80. A PERSON WHO KNOWINGLY SOLICITS ANOTHER TO ENGAGE IN SEXUAL CONDUCT WITH ANOTHER PERSON FOR COMPENSATION COMMITS THE OFFENSE OF ___ (43.03)
a. Prostitution
b. Promotion of prostitution
c. Aggravated promotion of prostitution
d. Compelling prostitution
Definition
B
Term
81. A PERSON INTENTIONALLY OPERATES OR PARTICIPATES IN THE EARNINGS OF A GAMBLING PLACE HAS COMMITTED THE OFFENSE OF ___ (47.03)
a. Keeping a gambling place
b. Gambling
c. Gambling promotion
d. Bookmaking
Definition
C
Term
82. WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF A DEADLY WEAPON (1.07)
a. Any explosive or incendiary bomb
b. Any bladed hand instrument that is capable of inflicting SBI
c. Anything, that in its manner of intended use, is capable of causing SBI
d. Any firearm that is designed to be fired with one hand
Definition
C
Term
83. ALL PERSONS ARE PRESUMED INNOCENT, AND NO PERSON MAY BE CONVICTED OF AN OFFENSE UNLESS EACH ELEMENT OF THE OFFENSE IS PROVEN ___ (2.01)
a. Preponderance of the evidence
b. Beyond a reasonable doubt
c. Legally competent evidence
d. To a moral certainty
Definition
B
Term
84. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONS IS NOT PERMITTED TO CARRY ON OR ABOUT THEIR PERSON A HANDGUN
a. Person on the persons own premise
b. A person carrying a large sum of money
c. Person who is traveling
d. Member of the armed forces in the actual discharge of official duty
Definition
B
Term
85. A PERSON INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY ABDUCTS ANOTHER PERSON WITH THE INTENT TO USE THEM AS A SHIELD OR HOSTAGE. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (20.04)
a. False imprisonment
b. Agg. False imprisonment
c. Kidnapping
d. Agg. Kidnapping
Definition
D
Term
86. A PERSON INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY RESTRAINS ANOTHER PERSON. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (20.02)
a. Agg. False Imprisonment
b. Unlawful Restraint
c. Kidnapping
d. Agg. Kidnapping
Definition
B
Term
87. A PERSON INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY ADDUCTS ANOTHER PERSON. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (20.03)
a. Unlawful Restraint
b. Kidnapping
c. Agg. Kidnapping
d. Unlawful Transport
Definition
B
Term
88. A PERSON ENGAGED IN SEXUAL CONTACT WITH A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 17 WHO IS NOT THEIR SPOUSE AND IS MORE THAN 3 YEARS OLDER THAN THE CHILD. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (21.11)
a. Indecent Exposure
b. Sexual Assault
c. Agg. Sex. Assault
d. Indecency with a child
Definition
D
Term
89. A PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY CAUSES BI TO ANOTHER INCLUDING THE PERSONS SPOUSE, THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE
a. Assault
b. Agg. Assault
c. Deadly Assault
d. Sex. Assault
Definition
A
Term
90. A PERSON INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY CAUSES THE DEATH OF AN INDIVIDUAL. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (19.02)
a. Involuntary Manslaughter
b. Capital Murder
c. Murder
d. Voluntary Manslaughter
Definition
C
Term
91. A PERSON RECKLESSLY CAUSES THE DEATH OF AN INDIVIDUAL. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE (19.04)
a. Capital Murder
b. Murder
c. Negligent Homicide
d. Manslaughter
Definition
D
Term
92. A PERSON OPERATES AN AMUSEMENT RIDE WHILE INTOXICATED. AND BY REASON OF THAT INTOX. CAUSES THE DEATH OF ANOTHER BY ACCIDENT OR MISTAKE. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE
a. Intox. Manslaughter
b. Negligent Homicide
c. Murder
d. Capital Murder
Definition
A
Term
92. A PERSON OPERATES AN AMUSEMENT RIDE WHILE INTOXICATED. AND BY REASON OF THAT INTOX. CAUSES THE DEATH OF ANOTHER BY ACCIDENT OR MISTAKE. THE PERSON HAS COMMITTED WHAT OFFENSE
a. Intox. Manslaughter
b. Negligent Homicide
c. Murder
d. Capital Murder
Definition
A
Term
93. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A SHORT BARREL FIREARM
a. Rifle with 16" barrel
b. Shotgun with an 18" barrel
c. Shotgun with an overall length of less than 26"
d. Rifle with overall length of more than 26"
Definition
C
Term
94. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT FOLLOWED IN SECTION 46.02 UNLAWFULLY CARRYING OF WEAPONS
a. Handgun
b. Shotgun
c. Club
d. Illegal Knife
Definition
B
Term
95. A PERSON, NOT THE OPERATOR, KNOWINGLY POSSESSES AN OPEN CONTAINER IN THE PASSENGER AREA OF A MOTOR VEHICLE THAT IS LOCATED ON PUBLIC HIGHWAY. WHAT OFFENSE HAS BEEN COMMITTED (49.031)
a. Public Intox.
b. Possession of alcoholic beverage in motor vehicle
c. Driving while intox.
d. No Offense
Definition
B
Term
96. A LICENSE, CERTIFICATE, PERMIT, SEAL, TITLE, LETTER OF PATENT, OR SIMILAR DOC. ISSUED BY A GOVERNMENT, BY ANOTHER STATE, OR BY THE US IS A ___ (37.01)
a. Court Record
b. Governmental Record
c. Official Doc.
d. Contract
Definition
B
Term
97. A PERSON IS IN POSSESSION OF BURNING TOBACCO PRODUCT IN AN ELEVATOR. WHAT OFFENSE HAS BEEN COMMITTED (48.01)
a. No offense
b. Smoking tobacco
c. Disorderly Conduct
d. Criminal Mischief
Definition
B
Term
98. A PERSON RETAINS A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 18, KNOWING THIS VIOLATES THE EXPRESS TERMS OF A JUDGEMENT. WHAT OFFENSE HAS BEEN COMMITTED?
a. Interference with child custody
b. Harboring runaway child
c. Agreement to abduct from custody
d. Enticing a child
Definition
A
Term
99. CONDUCT MERELY AFFORDING A PERSON AN OPPORTUNITY TO COMMIT AN OFFENSE DOES NOT CONSTITUTE (8.06)
a. Mistake of fact
b. Mistake of Law
c. Duress
d. Entrapment
Definition
D
Term
100. A PERSON IS JUSTIFIED IN USING DEADLY FORCE AGAINST ANOTHER WHEN AND TO THE DEGREE HE REASONABLY BELIEVES THE DEADLY FORCE IS IMMEDIATELY NECESSARY TO ___ (9.32)
a. Protect against lawful use of deadly force
b. Protect against others verbal provocation
c. Prevent imminent commission of robbery
d. Prevent imminent commission of kidnapping
Definition
C
Term
101. AN OPERATOR INTENDING TO TURN A VEHICLE RIGHT OR LEFT SHALL SIGNAL CONTINUOUSLY FOR NOT LESS THAN THE LAST ___ FT. OF MOVEMENT OF THE VEHICLES BEFORE THE TURN (545.104)
a. 100
b. 75
c. 50
d. 25
Definition
A
Term
102. A MOTOR VEHICLE DESIGNED, USED, OR MAINTAINED PRIMARILY TO TRANSPORT PROPERTY, IS THE DEFINITION OF ___ (541.201)
a. Truck
b. Trailer
c. Vehicle
d. Tractor Trailer
Definition
A
Term
103. A MOTOR VEHICLE DEIGNED AND USED PRIMARILY AS A FARM IMPLEMENT TO DRAW AN IMPLEMENT OF HUSBANDRY IS THE DEFINITION OF (541.201)
a. Farm Trailer
b. Farm Tractor Trailer
c. Farm Tractor
d. Farm Vehicle
Definition
C
Term
104. A VEHICLE THAT IS NOT DESIGNED OR USED PRIMARILY TO TRANSPORT PERSONS OR PROPERTY AND THAT IS ONLY INCIDENTALLY OPERATED ON A HIGHWAY IS CLASSIFIED AS (541.201)
a. Special Vehicle
b. Special Mobile
c. Exempt Vehicle
d. Exempt Mobile
Definition
B
Term
105. INDIVIDUAL, ASSOCIATION, CORPORATION, OR OTHER LEGAL ENTITY THAT CONTROLS, OPERATES, OR DIRECTS THE OPERATION OF ONE OR MORE VEHICLES THAT TRANSPORT CARGO OVER A ROAD OR HIGHWAY IN THIS STATE IS
a. Local authority
b. Motor Carrier
c. Tow Truck Operator
d. Operator
Definition
B
Term
106. BEFORE A VIOLATION FOR EXPIRED REGISTRATION EXIST THERE IS A ___ GRACE PERIOD AFTER EXPIRATION
a. 5 days
b. 5 working days
c. 10 days
d. 10 working days
Definition
B
Term
107. A DIVIDED CONTROLLED ACCESS HIGHWAY FOR THROUGH TRAFFIC IS THE DEFINITION OF ___ (541.302)
a. Freeway
b. Highway
c. Road
d. Street
Definition
A
Term
108. AN IMPROVED SHOULDER IS DEFINED AS
a. Semi roadway abutting a highway
b. Paved shoulder
c. Roadway breakdown lane
d. Marked lateral edge of roadway
Definition
B
Term
109. THE PERIOD BEGINNING 1 HALF HOUR BEFORE SUNRISE AND 1 HALF HOUR AFTER SUNSET IS
a. Daytime
b. Nighttime
c. Dusk
d. Twilight
Definition
A
Term
110. AN INJURY TO ANY PART OF THE HUMAN BODY AND THAT REQUIRES TREATMENT (541.401)
a. Bodily Injury
b. Human Injury
c. Treatable Injury
d. Personal Injury
Definition
D
Term
111. A PERSON DISPOSES OF LITTER ON THE PUBLIC HIGHWAY WHAT HAS BEEN COMMITTED
a. Illegal Dumping
b. Littering
c. Improper Disposal
d. Illegal Disposal
Definition
A
Term
112. AN "UNMARKED CROSSWALK" ONLY EXIST ___
a. At intersections
b. At marked crossings on streets
c. At intersections with sidewalks on either side
d. Where not marked
Definition
C
Term
113. A TEMPORARY PROHIBITION AGAINST DRIVING A COMMERCIAL MOTOR VEHICLE IS WHAT TYPE OR ORDER (522.003)
a. Prohibited - Operations
b. Restrained - Service
c. Restrictive - Operations
d. Out - Of - Service
Definition
D
Term
114. AN OPERATOR APPROACHING A RAILROAD GRADE CROSSING SHALL STOP IF A RAILROAD ENGINE APPROACHING WITHIN APPROX. ___ FT. OF THE HIGHWAY CROSSING EMITS A SIGNAL AUDIBLE FROM THAT DISTANCE
a. 500
b. 100
c. 1500
d. 2000
Definition
C
Term
115. AN OPERATOR EMERGING FROM AN ALLEY SHALL STOP THE VEHICLE ___ (545.256)
a. At the stop line
b. Before moving on a sidewalk
c. Before moving into a crosswalk
d. At the curb of the street
Definition
B
Term
116. AN OPERATOR MAY NOT EXCEPT MOMENTARILY TO PICK UP OR DISCHARGE A PASSENGER, STAND OR PARK AN OCCUPIED OR UNOCCUPIED VEHICLE WITHIN HOW MANY FEET OF A FIRE HYDRANT
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
Definition
A
Term
117. AN OPERATOR GIVING HAND SIGNALS SHALL GIVE THEM FROM ___
a. DRIVERS SIDE
b. LEFT SIDE OF VEHICLE
c. DRIVERS SEAT
d. ANY PLACE THAT SIGNAL IS VISIBLE
Definition
B
Term
118. AN OPERATOR MAY NOT DRIVE AT A SPEED GREATER THAN IS REASONABLE AND ___ UNDER THE CIRCUMSTANCES EXISTING (543.351)
a. Safe
b. Lawful
c. Prudent
d. Excessive
Definition
C
Term
119. A VEHICLE EQUIPPED WITH HAZARD LAMPS TO WARN OTHER VEHICLE OPERATORS OF A VEHICULAR TRAFFIC HAZARD SHALL HAVE THE LAMPS VIABLE AT A DISTANCE OF AT LEAST ___ FT. IN NORMAL SUNLIGHT
a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500
Definition
D
Term
120. A TURN SIGNAL LAMP MOUNTED ON THE REAR OF A VEHICLE SHALL EMIT ___ LIGHT
a. Red or amber
b. Amber or yellow
c. Red or yellow
d. Amber or yellow
Definition
A
Term
121. UNLESS PROVIDED OTHERWISE, A LIGHTING DEVICE OR REFLECTOR MOUNTED ON THE REAR OF A VEHICLE MUST BE OR REFLECT ___
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Red or yellow
d. Amber or yellow
Definition
A
Term
122. AN OPERATOR MAY NOT FOLLOW AN AMBULANCE CLOSER THAN ___ WHEN IT IS DISPLAYING HEADLIGHTS
a. 500
b. 50
c. AN assured clear distance
d. One car length per 10 mph
Definition
C
Term
123. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM LIGHT TRANSMISSION PERCENTAGE ALLOWABLE FOR WINDOW TINTING
a. 25
b. 33
c. 36
d. 39
Definition
A
Term
124. A PERSON HAS A DISABILITY IF THEY HAVE A/AN ___ THAT SUBSTANTIALLY IMPAIRS THE PERSONS ABILITY TO AMBULATE (681.001)
a. Mobility problem
b. Immobility problem
c. Restricted movement
d. Unrestricted movement
Definition
A
Term
125. A MOTOR VEHICLE IS ABANDONED IF THE MOTOR VEHICLE IS INOPERABLE, IS MORE THAN 5 YEARS OLD, AND HAS BEEN LEFT UNATTENDED ON PUBLIC PROPERTY FOR MORE THAN ___ HOURS
a. 24
b. 48
c. 36
d. 72
Definition
B
Term
126. A BUYERS TEMP. TAG IS VALID ___ DAYS FROM THE DATE OF PURCHASE OR UNTIL THE VEHICLE IS REGISTERED, WHICHEVER IS EARLIER
a. 60
b. 30
c. 21
d. 40
Definition
A
Term
127. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A RECOGNIZED WAY TO ESTABLISH THE FINANCIAL RESPONSIBILITY REQUIRED FOR THE OPERATION OF A MOTOR VEHICLE
a. Personal Bond
b. Surety Bond
c. Peace Bond
d. Savings Bond
Definition
B
Term
128. A ___ IS THE WIDTH BETWEEN THE BOUNDARY LINES OF A PUBLICLY MAINTAINED WAY, ANY PART OF WHICH IS OPEN TO THE PUBLIC FOR VEHICULAR TRAFFIC
a. Freeway
b. Highway or Street
c. Roadway
d. Throughway
Definition
B
Term
129. AN OPERATOR MOVING AROUND A ROTARY TRAFFIC ISLAND SHALL DRIVE ONLY TO THE ___ OF THE ISLAND
a. Right
b. Left
c. Inside Lane
d. Outside Lane
Definition
A
Term
130. An operator passing another vehicle shall return to an authorized lane of travel before coming within ___ feet of an approaching vehicle, if a lane authorized for vehicles approaching from the opposite direction is used in passing
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
Definition
D
Term
131. It is unlawful to operate an open bed pickup truck with a child younger than ___ in the open bed
a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 21
Definition
C
Term
132. An operator shall dim headlights when an approaching vehicle is within ___ feet
a. 1000
b. 500
c. 250
d. 200
Definition
B
Term
133. THE DOCUMENT THAT COMMANDS A SHERIFF OR CONSTABLE TO TAKE INTO THEIR POSSESSION THE PROPERTY, IF TO BE FOUND IN THEIR COUNTY, AND KEEP THE SAME SUBJECT TO FURTHER ORDERS OF THE COURT, IS KNOWN AS A WRIT OF ___
a. Garnishment
b. Possession
c. Replevin
d. Sequestration
Definition
D
Term
134. A DISTRESS WARRANT MAY BE FILED WITH A ___
a. Municipal Court
b. Justice of the Peace
c. County Court
d. District Court
Definition
B
Term
135. SEXUAL HARASSMENT IS AN ELEMENT OF WHICH OFFENSE
a. Abuse of official capacity
b. Official Oppression
c. Misuse of Official Position
d. Official Misconduct
Definition
B
Term
136. A CIVIL CITATION MAY BE SERVED ON ANY DAY EXCEPT A ___
a. Legal Holiday
b. Saturday
c. Sunday
d. National Holiday
Definition
C
Term
137. A WRIT INSTRUCTING THE TERNATE AND ALL PERSONS CLAIMING UNDER THE TERNATE TO LEAVE THE PREMISES IMMEDIATELY IS A WRIT OF ___
a. Sequestration
b. Garnishment
c. Possession
d. Attachment
Definition
C
Term
138. A mixed beverage permittee may normally sell and offer for sale mixed beverages between the hours of ___ on any day except Sunday
a. 7am and Midnight
b. 1am and Midnight
c. 10am and Noon
d. Noon and Midnight
Definition
A
Term
139. A SUBSTANCE THAT HAS AN ADDICTION FORMING OR ADDICTION SUSTAINING LIABILITY SIMILAR TO MORPHINE OR IS CAPABLE OF CONVERSION INTO A DRUG HAVING ADDICTION FORMING OR ADDICTION SUSTAINING LIABILITY IS CLASSIFIED AS A ____
a. Hallucinogen
b. Stimulant
c. Opiate
d. Depressant
Definition
C
Term
140. INHALANT PARAPHERNALIA SEIZED AS A RESULT OF AN OFFENSE IS SUBJECT TO ___
a. Summary Judgement
b. Summary Forfeiture
c. Auction
d. Adjudication
Definition
B
Term
141. THE MAJORITY CLASSIFICATIONS OF DRUGS INCLUDE NARCOTICS, DEPRESSANTS, STIMULANTS AND ____
a. Opiates
b. Amphetamines
c. Dilatants
d. Hallucinogens
Definition
D
Term
142. ____ MEANS A PRINCIPLE COMPOUND COMMONLY USED OR PRODUCED PRIMARILY FOR USE IN THE MANUFACTURE OF A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE
a. Immediate precursor
b. Drug paraphernalia
c. Counterfeit substance
d. Raw material
Definition
A
Term
143. THE TAKING OF A CHILD INTO CUSTODY IS NOT CONSIDERED A ___ EXCEPT FOR THE PURPOSE OF DETERMINING THE VALIDITY OF A SEARCH
a. Detention
b. Arrest
c. Apprehension
d. Restraint
Definition
B
Term
144. WHEN MAY A CHILD BE FINGER PRINTED WHEN TAKEN INTO CUSTODY
a. For conduct that constitutes a felony or misdemeanor punishable by confinement in jail
b. For conduct that constitutes a felony only
c. For conduct that constitutes a misdemeanor only
d. A child may not be finger printed without consent or the juvenile court
Definition
A
Term
145. A CHILD WHO IS ACCUSED, ADJUDICATED, OR CONVICTED FOR CONDUCT THAT WOULD NOT, UNDER STATE LAW, BE A CRIME IF COMMITTED BY AN ADULT IS A ___
a. Non-offender
b. Delinquent child
c. Child in need of supervision
d. Status Offender
Definition
D
Term
146. A PEACE OFFICER TAKING A JUVENILE INTO CUSTODY MAY DISPOSE OF THE CASE WITHOUT REFERRAL TO THE JUVENILE COURT IF ___
a. The child is taken before a magistrate prior to release
b. The child is taken to a certified detention center before release
c. The officer is following the guidelines of his/her department
d. The officer receives permission from the parent child
Definition
C
Term
147. THE DUTY OF A PARENT TO SUPPORT HIS OR HER CHILD EXIST WHILE THE CHILD IS A ____
a. Unemancipated Minor
b. Emancipated Minor
c. Unemancipated Teenager
d. Teenager
Definition
A
Term
148. ___ MEANS THE ADULT WITH WHOM THE CHILD RESIDES
a. Custodian
b. Guardian
c. Parent
d. Party
Definition
A
Term
149. A CHILD MAY BE DETAINED IN A JUVENILE PROCESSING OFFICE ONLY FOR ____
a. Intoxilyzer Proceeding
b. Medical Treatment
c. Pre-Trial Hearing
d. The Issuance of warning to the child
Definition
C
Term
150. A CHILD IS DEFINED AS A PERSON WHO IS AT LEAST ___ YEARS OF AGE AND UNDER 17 YEARS OF AGE
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
Definition
C
Term
151. THE ABSENCE OF A CHILD ON THREE OR MORE DAYS OR PARTS OF DAYS WITHIN A 4 WEEK PERIOD FROM SCHOOL IS ___
a. Delinquent conduct
b. Conduct indicating a need for supervision
c. Habitual conduct
d. Truant conduct
Definition
B
Term
152. FIELD NOTES GIVE AN OFFICER THE ADVANTAGE OF BEING ABLE TO ___
a. Make repeated contact with witnesses and involved parties
b. Provide more details in reports and testimony
c. Rely on memory for most of the details of an even
d. Record personal observations that should not appear in reports
Definition
B
Term
153. BRIEF NOTIFICATIONS CONCERNING SPECIFIC EVENTS AND CIRCUMSTANCES THAT ARE RECORDED FRESH IN THE OFFICERS MIND AND USED TO PREPARE A REPORT ARE ____
a. Statements of Events
b. Interview tactics
c. Report Writing
d. Field Notes
Definition
D
Term
154. Chronological reports organize info by ____
a. When each thing happened
b. Where each thing happened
c. Who did each thing
d. Why each thing happened
Definition
A
Term
155. ___IS FAILING TO RETURN TO CUSTODY FOLLOWING A TEMP. LEAVE FOR A SPECIFIC PURPOSE
a. Unauthorized departure
b. Escape
c. Evading Arrest
d. Evasion
Definition
B
Term
156. PEACE OFFICERS ARE GRANTED THE AUTHORITY TO USE FORCE BY THE TEXAS ___
a. Occupation code
b. Constitution
c. CCP
d. Penal Code
Definition
D
Term
157. DEADLY FORCE IS NOT JUSTIFIED TO ____
a. Prevent Criminal Mischief at night
b. Preserves someone's life in an emergency
c. Prevent the imminent commission of arson
d. Prevent someone from committing suicide
Definition
D
Term
158. AN AMOUNT OF FORCE THAT IS INTENDED OR KNOWN BY THE ACTOR TO CAUSE, OR INA NY MANNER OF ITS USE OR INTENDED USE IS CAPABLE OF CAUSING DEATH OR SBI
a. Reasonable force
b. Deadly Force
c. Excessive Force
d. Necessary Force
Definition
B
Term
159. THREAT OF FORCE IS JUSTIFIED ONLY WHEN ___
a. The offender is an adult
b. The traffic stop is a felony
c. An arrest is being made
d. The use of force is justified
Definition
D
Term
160. A PERSON WHO USES FORCE AGAINST ANOTHER MAY BE ___ LIABLE IT THE FORCE IS JUSTIFIED
a. Civilly but not Criminally
b. Criminally but not civilly
c. Both criminally or civilly
d. Neither criminally or civilly
Definition
A
Term
161. EVEN THOUGH AN ACTOR IS JUSTIFIED IN USING DEADLY FORCE AGAINST OTHER, IF IN DOING SO HE RECKLESSLY KILLS AN INNOCENT THIRD PARTY, THE JUSTIFICATION IS ____ IN A PROSECUTION FOR THE RECKLESS OF THE INNOCENT THIRD PARTY
a. An affirmative defense
b. Unavailable
c. A defense
d. Unnecessary
Definition
B
Term
162. THE USE OF FORCE, BUT NOT DEADLY FORCE AGAINST A CHILD YOUNGER THAN ___ YEARS OF AGE IS JUSTIFIED IF THE ACTOR IS THE CHILDS PARENT
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 18
Definition
D
Term
163. A PERSON IS JUSTIFIED IN USING DEADLY FORCE AGAINST ANOTHER ___
a. If a reasonable person in the actor's situation would not have retreated
b. In order to prevent suicide
c. To prevent unlawful restraint
d. In response to verbal provocation
Definition
A
Term
164. THE USE OF FORCE AGAINST ANOTHER WHEN AND TO THE DEGREE THEY REASONABLY BELIEVE THE FORCE IS IMMEDIATELY NECESSARY TO PROTECT THEMSELVES AGAINST THE OTHERS USE OR ATTEMPTED USE OF UNLAWFUL FORCE
a. Self defense
b. Necessity
c. Public duty
d. Protection
Definition
A
Term
165. THAT DEGREE OF INFLUENCE THE OFFICER MUST EXERT OVER THE VIOLATOR TO TAKE HIM OR HER SAFELY INTO CUSTODY IS KNOWN AS ___
a. Control
b. Force
c. Strength
d. Constraint
Definition
A
Term
166. ____ ARE OBSTACLES TO EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION, AND OFFICERS SHOULD TRY TO ELIMINATE THEM IF POSSIBLE
a. Personal appeals
b. Constraints
c. Perspectives
d. Ethical appeals
Definition
B
Term
167. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS ONE OF THE HELPFUL TOOLS USED IN VERBAL PERSUASION
a. Empty Hand Control
b. Empathy
c. Modeling
d. Command
Definition
B
Term
168. ONE OF THE TOOLS AN OFFICER USES TO MAINTAIN A PSYCHOLOGICAL AND PHYSICAL EDGE IS ___
a. Demonstrated Alertness
b. Logical Necessity
c. Resistance
d. Aggression
Definition
A
Term
169. THE GOOD FAITH DEFENSE FOR AN OFFICER IS ENHANCED WHEN FOLLOWING THE ___ OF THE DEPARTMENT
a. Verbal Standards
b. Implied Policies
c. Fair Labor Standards
d. Written Directives
Definition
D
Term
170. A POLICE SUPERVISOR HAS A ___ DUTY TO INTERVENE TO STOP OFFICERS WHO ARE ENGAGING IN EXCESSIVE FORCE IN THEIR PRESENCE
a. AFFIRMATIVE
b. REQUIRED
c. MANDATORY
d. NECESSARY
Definition
A
Term
171. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONSIDERATION USED BY THE COURTS TO DETERMINE IF UNREASONABLE FORCE WAS USED
a. Motivation of force
b. Need for force
c. Area in which offense occurred
d. Reasonableness of force
Definition
C
Term
172. One of the greatest assets to use in dealing with a violator is ___
a. Crowd control
b. Self-control
c. Verbal judo
d. Compulsion
Definition
B
Term
173. HANDCUFFS ARE ONLY A ___ RESTRAINING DEVICE
a. Permanent
b. Temporary
c. Legal
d. Flexible
Definition
B
Term
174. WHEN 2 OFFICERS ARE INTERVIEWING ONE SUBJECT, THE 2ND OFFICER POSITION SHOULD BE ___
a. DIRECTLY BEHIND THE SUBJECT
b. DIRECTLY BEHIND THE PRIMARY OFFICER
c. TO THE RIGHT OR LEFT OF THE SUSPECT
d. TO THE RIGHT OR LEFT AHEAD OF THE PRIMARY OFFICER
Definition
C
Term
175. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A FORCE OPTION
a. Self-control
b. Balance
c. Awareness
d. Professional presence
Definition
D
Term
176. Weaponless strategies included ____
a. Verbal communication
b. Cultural awareness
c. Touching
d. Maintaining Distance
Definition
C
Term
177. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS CONSIDERED A RISK FACTOR IN THE PHYSICAL PROCESS OF ARREST
a. Officers equipment
b. Supportive spectators
c. Weather condition
d. V Formation
Definition
B
Term
178. JUSTIFICATION OF BATON USE INCLUDES
a. Physical stature of offender
b. Reasonable suspicion
c. Offenders perception
d. Weaponless strategies
Definition
A
Term
179. ONE OF THE ADVANTAGES OF THE REAR APPROACH TO SUSPECTS IS ___
a. May provoke physical resistance
b. Surprise
c. Loss of Surprise
d. Communication
Definition
B
Term
180. WHEN HANDCUFFING TWO SUSPECTS TOGETHER WITH ONE SET OF HANDCUFFS, IT IS RECOMMENDED TO HANDCUFF ____
a. Left hand to right hand
b. Right hand to left hand
c. Arms interlocking
d. Hands to rear
Definition
A
Term
181. WHICH COURT CASE DEALT WITH WARNING SHOTS
a. Jones V. Wittenberg University
b. Ware V. Reed
c. Tennessee V. Garner
d. Garrity V. New Jersey
Definition
A
Term
182. THE COMMISSION REQUIRES A MINIMUM OF ___ ROUNDS FOR BASIC HANDGUN QUALIFICATION
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
Definition
B
Term
183. THE MINIMUM FIREARMS QUALIFICATION IS ESTABLISHED AT WHAT PERCENTAGE OR THE TOTAL POSSIBLE SCORE
a. 85
b. 80
c. 75
d. 70
Definition
D
Term
184. RESEARCH HAS SHOWN THAT AN EFFECTIVE WAY TO IMPROVE ONES SKILL IN PROBLEM SOLVING IS TO WORK IN SMALL GROUPS, THINK ALOUD, AND ___
a. Work in separate groups
b. Express problems
c. Learn from each other
d. Use original problem solution
Definition
C
Term
185. THE SARA PROBLEM SOLVING METHOD INCLUDES
a. Solving
b. Searching
c. Scanning
d. Selecting
Definition
C
Term
186. THE OPERATOR OF AN AUTHORIZED EMERGENCY MOTOR VEHICLE MAY EXCEED A MAXIMUM SPEED LIMIT AS LONG AS THE OPERATOR DOES NOT ____
a. Endanger life or property
b. Extend the duration of the pursuit
c. Evade apprehension
d. Proceed past a stop sign
Definition
A
Term
187. FATIGUE POSES A THREAT TO SAFE DRIVING BY CAUSING ____
a. Longer reaction time
b. Increased confidence
c. Preoccupation
d. Unavoidable collisions
Definition
A
Term
188. THIS IS ONE OF THE MOST FREQUENT CONTRIBUTORS TO LAW ENFORCEMENT COLLISIONS
a. Peer Pressure
b. Backing
c. Traction
d. Capability
Definition
B
Term
189. ___ GENERALLY, REFERS TO GROUPS OF PEOPLE WITH COMMON ANCESTRY AND PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS
a. Ethnicity
b. Culture
c. Discrimination
d. Race
Definition
D
Term
190. IT IS IMPORTANT TO BE AWARE OF ONES ___ SO THAT ONE CAN DOUBLE CHECK DECISIONS TO ENSURE ACCURATE AND FAIR DECISION MAKING
a. Biases
b. Beliefs
c. Fears
d. Attitudes
Definition
A
Term
191. HAVING AN ADVERSE JUDGEMENT OR OPINION FORMED BEFORE HAND OR WITHOUT KNOWLEDGE OF OR EXAMINATION OF THE FACTS
a. Attitude
b. Discrimination
c. Prejudice
d. Stereotyping
Definition
C
Term
192. ____ IS AN ORGANIZATION AND RELATIVELY UNCHANGING COMBINATION OF A PERSONS KNOWLEDGE AND FEELINGS ABOUT SOMEONE THAT INFLUENCES THEM TO BEHAVE IN THAT WAY
a. Attitude
b. Culture
c. Prejudice
d. Discrimination
Definition
A
Term
193. CHARACTERISTICS OF THE POLICE SUBCULTURE ARE
a. Objectivity and open mindness
b. Secrecy and solidarity
c. Optimism and liberalism
d. Objectivity and optimism
Definition
B
Term
194. WITHIN TRADITIONAL SERVICE MODEL MOST DECISIONS ARE MADE AT THE MANAGEMENT LEVEL WITH LITTLE ___ INVOLVEMENT
a. Supervisor
b. Commissioner
c. Court
d. Citizen
Definition
D
Term
195. EVERY LEO IS A CRIME PREVENTION OFFICER BY THE TECHNICAL DEFINITION AS WELL AS BY THE ___ RESPONSIBILITY OF THE JOB
a. Moral
b. Assigned
c. Specialized
d. recognition
Definition
A
Term
196. PREVENTION OF CRIME IS THE SOUNDEST OF ALL ____ THEORIES
a. Enforcement
b. Patrol
c. Criminological
d. Educated
Definition
C
Term
197. SPEED MOBILITY AND VISIBILITY INCREASE PREVENTATIVE POTENTIAL AND ARE ADVANTAGES OF ___ PATROL
a. Mounted
b. Patrol
c. Automobile
d. Bike
Definition
D
Term
198. WHEN AN OFFICER IS ALONE, MORE ___ IS DEVOTED TO PATROL FUNCTIONS AND DUTIES
a. Time
b. Attention
c. Observation
d. Service
Definition
B
Term
199. A ____ is able to take in everything around a given situation and then sort out the relevant from irrelevant
a. Inspector
b. Skilled observer
c. Detective
d. FTO
Definition
B
Term
200. PATROL OFFICER SHOULD PRACTICE THE TECHNIQUE OR REFRAINING FROM USING THE WORD "__" DURING THE VIOLATOR INTERVIEW IN VEHICLE STOPS
a. We
b. You
c. I
d. He
Definition
C
Term
201. If possible during a felony stop, offset the patrol vehicle to the ___ of the suspects car
a. Right
b. Left
c. Front
d. Rear
Definition
B
Term
202. INVESTIGATIONS AND ARREST AFTER THE OCCURRENCE OF A CRIME ARE CONSIDERED
a. Proactive
b. Reactive
c. Cooperative
d. Anticipatory
Definition
B
Term
203. OPERATION "ID" ENCOURAGES CITIZENS TO MARK THEIR PROPERTY WITH THEIR ____ NUMBER
a. Social Security
b. Drivers License
c. Vehicle Registration
d. Home Address
Definition
B
Term
204. WHICH PART OF THE 7 STEP VIOLATOR CONTACT METHOD GIVES THEM THE OPPORTUNITY TO EXPLAIN OR JUSTIFY
a. Greeting
b. Statement of Violation
c. ID of driver
d. Statement of action
Definition
B
Term
205. Conducting property checks questioning suspicious persons varying patrol patterns and high visibility describe what
a. Selective patrol
b. Selective enforcement
c. Preventative patrol
d. Apprehension patrol
Definition
C
Term
206. Proactive anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the action needed to remove or reduce that risk is crime ____
a. Prevention
b. Reduction
c. Recognition
d. Prosecution
Definition
A
Term
207. FLEXIBILITY WHERE THE USE OF MOTORIZED VEHICLES IS IMPRACTICAL HIGH VISIBILITY AND INTENSE PATROL ARE ADVANTAGES OF
a. Foot patrol
b. Selective enforcement
c. Bike patrol
d. Directed enforcement
Definition
C
Term
208. ONE OF THE OBJECTIVES OF PATROL IS TO ____
a. Question suspects
b. Conduct Crime Analysis
c. Preserve peace
d. Lower visibility
Definition
C
Term
209. THE 2 TYPES OF PROBLEM ARE PATROLS ARE ____ & ___
a. Preventative & Apprehension
b. Proactive, reactive
c. Automobile & foot
d. 1 officer & 2 officer
Definition
A
Term
210. Mail boxes, utility poles automobiles and brick walls are examples of _____
a. Cover
b. Security
c. Concealment
d. Shielding
Definition
A
Term
211. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE PERSISTENT SYMPTOMS OF INCREASED AROUSAL IN PTSD EXCEPT ____
a. Difficulty falling asleep
b. Difficulty concentrating
c. Irritability or outburst of anger
d. Ambivalence towards danger
Definition
D
Term
212. THE NORMAL RESPONSE TO TRAUMA FOLLOWS A SIMILAR PATTERN CALLED THE ____
a. Crisis reaction
b. Ripple effect
c. PTSD
d. Equilibrium Stage
Definition
A
Term
213. PHYSICAL AROUSAL ASSOCIATED WITH FIGHT OR FLIGHT CANNOT BE SUSTAINED EVENTUALLY IT WILL RESULT IN
a. Shock
b. Denial
c. Resentment
d. Exhaustion
Definition
D
Term
214. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT ONE OF THE ELEMENTS OF AN OFFENSE
a. Shock
b. Recoil
c. Guilt
d. Panic
Definition
B
Term
215. TO PREVENT THE DISQUALIFICATION OF FAMILY VIOLENCE VICTIMS FROM RECEIVING CRIME VICTIM COMPENSATION, OFFICERS SHOULD ARREST THE ___ INSTEAD OF ARRESTING BOTH PARTIES WHEN RESPONDING TO FAMILY VIOLENCE CALLS.
a. Primary Aggressor
b. Dominant Partner
c. Aggressive Partner
d. Defensive Partner
Definition
A
Term
216. ___ IS AN ACT BY MEMBER OF A FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD AGAINST ANOTHER MEMBER OF THE FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD THAT IS INTENDED TO RESULT IN PHYSICAL HARM, BODILY INJURY, ASSAULT, OR SEXUAL ASSAULT
a. Domestic Violence
b. Domestic Assault
c. Family Assault
d. Family Violence
Definition
D
Term
217. A PROTECTIVE ORDER IS EFFECTIVE FOR THE PERIOD STATED IN THE ORDER, NOT TO EXCEED ____.
a. 30 Days
b. 90 Days
c. 1 Year
d. 2 Years
Definition
D
Term
218. UP TO 80% OF CRISIS SITUATIONS AN BE DIFFUSED THROUGH ____
a. Counseling
b. Arrest
c. Listening
d. Separation
Definition
C
Term
219. A MAGISTRATE MAY EXTEND THE DETENTION PERIOD ON A PERSON WHO IS ARRESTED IN THE PREVENTION OF FAMILY VIOLENCE BY A PERIOD NOT TO EXCEED ___ HOURS
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 60
Definition
C
Term
220. ___ MEANS AN ACT BY AN INDIVIDUAL THAT IS AGAINST ANOTHER INDIVIDUAL WITH WHOM THAT PERSON HAS HAD A DATING RELATIONSHIP AND THAT IS INTENDED TO RESULT IN PHYSICAL HARM
a. Family Violence
b. Dating Violence
c. Domestic Abuse
d. Battery
Definition
B
Term
223. BEFORE A PEACE OFFICER MAY TAKE A PERSON BELIEVED TO BE MENTALLY ILL INTO CUSTODY WITHOUT A WARRANT THE OFFICERS BELIEF MUST BE BASED ON ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ____
a. Personal observation
b. Representation of a credible person
c. Request of a person
d. Circumstances under which the person is found
Definition
C
Term
224. THE SINGLE MOST COMMON FACTOR IN SUICIDE IS ___
a. Autism
b. Depression
c. Paranoia
d. Schizophrenia
Definition
B
Term
225. A COMMON STEREOTYPE ABOUT ALL PERSONS WITH MENTAL ILLNESS IS THAT THEY ARE ___
a. Distorted
b. Violent
c. Isolated
d. Emotional
Definition
B
Term
226. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A ROUTE OF EXPOSURE TO HAZARDOUS MATERIALS?
a. Ingestion
b. Inhalation
c. Absorption
d. Reduction
Definition
D
Term
226. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A ROUTE OF EXPOSURE TO HAZARDOUS MATERIALS?
a. Ingestion
b. Inhalation
c. Absorption
d. Reduction
Definition
D
Term
227. THE FACT THAT ALL SUBSTANCES, IN THE RIGHT AMOUNTS, BECOME TOXIC IS THE BASIS OF THE ___ CONCEPT
a. Toxicology
b. Hazardous Material
c. IDLH response
d. DOSE response
Definition
D
Term
228. A FLAMMABLE MATERIAL, AN EXPLOSIVE, A RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL, A HAZARDOUS MATERIAL, TOXIC SUBSTANCE, OR RELATED MATERIAL IS THE DEFINITION ____
a. Hazardous Substance
b. Toxic Substance
c. Hazardous Material
d. Toxic Material
Definition
C
Term
229. ___ IS A ROUTE OF EXPOSURE TO HAZARDOUS MATERIAL BY BEING CUT OR ABRADED BY AN CONTAMINATED OBJECT
a. Inhalation
b. Absorption
c. Injection
d. Ingestion
Definition
C
Term
230. ONE OF THE EFFECTS THAT A HAZARDOUS MATERIAL EVEN HAS ON THE ENVIRONMENT IS ___
a. Expense to governmental entities
b. Panic of the public
c. Exposure to carcinogens
d. Temporary damage to the water system
Definition
D
Term
231. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A NECESSARY DUTY WHEN CONDUCTING A PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATION?
a. Establish whether a crime has been committed
b. Locate and interview the victim and witness
c. Release evidence to the property owner
d. Protect the crime scene
Definition
C
Term
232. WHAT INFORMATION SHOULD THE ARRESTING OFFICER COLLECT FROM A VICTIM OF FAMILY VIOLENCE, AT THE TIME OF ARREST, TO ALLOW FOR AN ATTEMPT TO GIVE PERSONAL NOTICE TO THAT VICTIM OF THE IMMINENT RELEASE OF THE ACCUSED OFFENDER
a. Driver's license number
b. Address and telephone number
c. Social security number and driver license number
d. Driver's license number and protective order number
Definition
B
Term
233. WET EVIDENCE SUCH AS BLOODSTAINS SEMEN AND MUD MUST BE ___
a. Packaged in plastic bags
b. Allowed to dry before packing
c. Refrigerated
d. Wrapped in paper first
Definition
B
Term
233. WET EVIDENCE SUCH AS BLOODSTAINS SEMEN AND MUD MUST BE ___
a. Packaged in plastic bags
b. Allowed to dry before packing
c. Refrigerated
d. Wrapped in paper first
Definition
B
Term
234. DURING THE PROCESSING OF A CRIME SCENE, WHAT POTENTIAL PROBLEM SHOULD BE TAKEN INTO CONSIDERATION WHEN DETERMINING HOW AN AREA WILL BE SEARCHED
a. NUMBER OF PERSONS THAT WERE INVOLVED AT THE SCENE
b. TYPE OF CRIME THAT WAS COMMITTED
c. PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS OF THE AREA TO BE SEARCHED
d. LENGTH OF TIME SINCE THE CRIME WAS COMMITTED
Definition
C
Term
235. THE FIRST OFFICER RESPONDING TO AN OFFENSE AGAINST A PERSON SHOULD BE OBSERVANT OF ___ UPON ARRIVAL AT THE SCENE
a. Types of the offense committed
b. Persons and vehicles in the area
c. Report filing procedures
d. Plan of a crime scene search
Definition
A
Term
236. ___ OF WITNESSES IS WHEN WITNESSES INCLUDING OFFICER ARE ORDERED BY THE JUDGE TO LEAVE THE COURTROOM STAY CLOSE TO THE COURTROOM AND NOT DISCUSS THE CASE WITH OTHER WITNESSES OR JURORS
a. Exclusion
b. Dismissal
c. Subpoena
d. Calling
Definition
A
Term
237. DURING THE ___ EXAMINATION THE PROSECUTOR ELICITS FACTS FROM THE OFFICER WHO DIRECTS HIS TESTIMONY TO THE JURY OR JUDGE
a. Redirect
b. Re cross
c. Direct
d. Side bar
Definition
C
Term
238. The ___ sketch is useful when no camera is available
a. Perspective
b. Projective
c. Schematic
d. Detailed
Definition
A
Term
239. IN ORDER TO FACILITATE PROPER ORIENTATION OF A CRIME SCENE SKETCH, ____
a. A legend must be present
b. A scale must be prepared to ΒΌ "
c. An arrow pointing to the north must be present
d. It must be enlarged for court purposes
Definition
C
Term
240. A ___ is the explanation of symbols used to identify objects in the sketch
a. Map point
b. Symbol sector
c. Identification section
d. Ledged
Definition
D
Term
241. WHEN CONDUCTING A CRIME SCENE SEARCH, A STRIP SEARCH IS AMONG THE MOST EFFICIENT ___ SEARCHES
a. Outside
b. Inside
c. Suspect
d. Vehicle
Definition
A
Term
242. THE OBJECT OF A CRIME SCENE SEARCH IS TO LOCATE PHYSICAL EVIDENCE AND TO ___
a. Determine what crime was committed
b. Determine which items were present
c. Collect and identify unusual items
d. Establish an area that shall remain secure
Definition
A
Term
243. WHEN A SERIOUS INJURED VICTIM IS STILL CONSCIOUS UPON ARRIVAL THE OFFICER SHOULD
a. Obtain proper identification of the victim
b. Determine why the victim was at the scene
c. Ask the victim if there were any witness present
d. Check the victims criminal record
Definition
A
Term
244. SEXUAL ASSAULTS ARE ACTS OF ___
a. Frustration
b. Hate
c. Desire
d. Violence
Definition
D
Term
245. THE STANDARD USED TO DETERMINE THE GUILT OR INNOCENCE OF A PERSON CRIMINALLY CHARGED IS ___
a. Reasonable doubt
b. Probable cause
c. Reasonable suspicion
d. Shown cause
Definition
A
Term
246. ___INCLUDES ALL MEANS BY WHICH AN ALLEGED FACT IS ESTABLISHED OR DISPROVED
a. Investigation
b. Evidence
c. Autopsy
d. Trial
Definition
B
Term
247. THE LEGAL SIGNIFICANCE OF EVIDENCE REST IN IT INFLUENCE ON THE ___
a. Investigator
b. Prosecutor
c. Jury
d. Attorney
Definition
C
Term
248. WHAT IS THE BODY OR SUBSTANCE OF A CRIME CALLED?
a. Evidence
b. Corpus Delecti
c. Motive
d. Element
Definition
B
Term
249. THE LAWFUL SEARCH FOR PEOPLE LAND OR THINGS USEFUL IN RECONSTRUCTING THE CIRCUMSTANCES OF AN ILLEGAL ACT OR OMISSION AND THE MENTAL STATE ACCOMPANYING IT IS AN ____
a. Criminal investigation
b. Interrogation
c. Crime scene search
d. Crime scene sketch
Definition
A
Term
250. EXAMPLES OF ____ARE WHAT YOU SEE, HEAR, OR SMELL THAT INDICATED THERE MAYBE CRIMINAL ACTIVITY
a. Suspicion
b. Cause
c. Justification
Definition
A
Term
251. According to the Texas Occupations Code, section 217.11, under continuing education requirements, a peace officer appointed to their first supervisory position must attend training on supervision issues within _________ following the date of appointment as a supervisor.
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 24 months
d. 48 months
Definition
C
Term
252. According to the Texas Occupations Code, section 217.11, the Chief Administrator of an agency that has licensees who are in non-compliance shall, within__________of receipt of "notice of non-compliance", submit a report to the commission explaining the reasons for such non-compliance.
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 24 months
d. 48 months
Definition
A
Term
253. According to the Transportation Code (547.333) an operator approaching a vehicle from the rear within_______feet, shall dim his headlights.
a. 300
b. 500
c. 200
d. 1000
Definition
A
Term
254. According to the Family Code, "After adjudication, a juvenile will be ta ken to a _______________.
a. juvenile processing office
b. secure correctional facility
c. secure detention facility
d. juvenile detention facility
Definition
B
Term
255. According to the Family Code, "A juvenile being held prior to adjudication, will be held at a______________ "
a. juvenile processing office
b. secure correctional facility
c. secure detention facility
d. juvenile detaining cell
Definition
C
Term
256. According to Written & Verbal Communications (15.3.1) " A sentence is a group of words that express a _________ "
a. thought
b. incomplete though t
c. statement
d. complete thought
Definition
D
Term
257. According to Written & Verbal Communications (15.3.1) " A________ occurs when pieces of important information are left out of a sentence".
a. sentence fragment
b. run on sentence
c. dangling participle
d. paraphrase
Definition
A
Term
258. According to Written & Verbal Communication (15.3.1) "A_______ is created when the period or other end mark is not placed at the end of a sentence".
a. sentence fragment
b. run-on sentence
c. sentence modifier
d. complex paragraph
Definition
B
Term
259. ___________doubles preventive enforcement. (24.3.4)
a. two-officer patrol
b. one officer patrol
c. combination foot-auto patrol
d. bicycle patrol
Definition
B
Term
260. In making a high risk patrol stop, if it is not possible to use the offset position with your patrol car, you should position the patrol car at an angle facing the_______ to the suspect vehicle. (24.5.2)
a. Left front
b Right front
c. Left side
d. Right side
Definition
B
Term
261. According to TCOLE rule 217.21, Annual Firearms Proficiency Requirements for Fully Automatic Weapon, requires at least_______ timed magazine reload(s).
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Definition
A
Term
261. According to TCOLE rule 217.21, Annual Firearms Proficiency Requirements for Fully Automatic Weapon, requires at least_______ timed magazine reload(s).
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Definition
A
Term
262. According to TCOLE rule 217.21, Annual Firearms Proficiency Requirements for Patrol Rifle must include at least______ timed reload (s).
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Definition
A
Term
263. According to TCOLE rule 217.21 , Annual Firearms Proficiency Requirement for a Handgun, must include at least 50 rounds of ammunition with at least_____ timed reload (s).
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
Definition
D
Term
264. According to the Texas Transportation Code, an operator may not follow an ambulance closer than_____ when it is displaying emergency lights. (545.407}
a. 500 feet
b. 50 feet
c. an assured clear distance
d. one car length per 10 mph
Definition
A
Term
265. In Traffic Direction, the correct whistle signal for GO is ....
a. one long blast
b. two short blast
c. two long blasts
d. three short blasts
Definition
B
Term
266. In Traffic Direction, the correct whistle signal for STOP is...
a. one long blast
b. two short blasts
c. two long blasts
d. three short blasts
Definition
A
Term
267. According to the Texas Transportation Code, an operator on a two lane, two way roadway, approaching a Stationary Emergency Vehicle displaying Emergency Lights, shall ______
a. vacate the lane nearest the emergency vehicle
b. reduce speed by 20 mph
c. reduce speed by 15 mph
d. reduce speed & vacate the lane
Definition
B
Term
268. According to the Texas Transportation Code, an operator on a two way , two lane roadway, posted at 20 mph, approaching a stationary Police Vehicle displaying emergency lights, shall ....
a. reduce speed by 20 mph while passing
b. reduce speed to 5 mph while passing
c. reduce speed by 10 mph while passing
d. vacate the lane nearest the Police Vehicle while passing
Definition
B
Term
269. According to the Texas Transportation Code, no one can be licensed to operate a motor vehicle younger than________ years of age.
a. 18
b. 15
c. 16
d. 17
Definition
B
Term
270. According to the Texas Transportation Code, Which of these "Traffic Control devices" does NOT require an operator to yield ?
a. Yield sign
b. Stop Sign
c. Flashing Red Signal
d. Flashing Yellow Signal
Definition
D
Term
271. According to sec. 541.301,which of the following is not considered "traffic" when on a Highway ?
a. pedestrians
b. vehicles
c. conveyances
d. animals
Definition
D
Term
272. According to sec. 541.301,"To be considered traffic, vehicles upon a highway must be there for the purpose of ________"
a. travel
b. driving
c. use of a controlled access highway
d. parking
Definition
A
Term
273. According to sec. 541.301,which of the following is considered "Traffic" upon a highway ?
a. a man riding a horse along the shoulder
b. a girl herding a dairy cow along the grass easement adjacent to the shoulder of the roadway
c. a man operating a motor vehicle along the roadway
d. all the above
Definition
D
Term
274. According to objective 13.3.6, which of the following is not conducive to drug smuggling in rural areas of Texas ?
a. small airports
b. clandestine airports on private property
c. farm to market highways used as landing strips
d. creeks, rivers & bayous used to smuggle drugs
Definition
D
Term
275. In the historical development of police service models or styles, in which era was the Professional Police Model developed ? (2.1.2)
a. 1900 through the 1940's
b. 1950 through the 1970's
c: 1980 through the 1990's
d. 2000 through today
Definition
B
Term
276. . According to the Texas Transportation Code (545.421) "Fleeing from the Police in a Motor Vehicle"
is what level offense ?
a. class C misdemeanor
b. class B misdemeanor
c. State Jail Felony
d. 3rd degree Felony
Definition
B
Term
277. According to the Texas Penal Code (38.04) A person that intentionally flees from a person he knows is a Texas Peace Officer attempting to lawfully arrest him and he uses a motor vehicle to flee and he has no prior convictions for this offense, is guilty of what level offense ?
a. Class B misdemeanor
b. Class A misdemeanor
c. State Jail Felony
d. 3rd degree Felony
Definition
C
Term
278. Title 18, Section 241 & 242, of the U.S. Codes deals with Deprivation of Civil Rights of a citizen & Conspiracy to deprive civil rights of a citizen. These violations are -_____________
a. State criminal offenses
b. Federal criminal offenses
c. Federal civil offenses
d. State civil offenses
Definition
B
Term
279. The office of Sheriff was created in the Texas Constitution in Article _____
a. 2
b. 5
c. 18
d. 23
Definition
B
Term
280. The office of Constable was created in the Texas Constitution in Article________
a . 2
b. 5
c. 18
d. 23
Definition
B
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