| Term 
 
        | What tax rate are cash dividends from stocks taxed at?
 |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | How are Capital gain distributions from mutual funds taxed? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | How are Long term capital gains taxed? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | How are mutual fund dividends taxed? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | how are Taxable retirement plan distributions taxed?
 |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | how is earned income taxed? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | How is the return of cost basis taxed? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | how are Life Insurance death benefits taxed? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | How are qualified distributions from a ROTH IRA taxed? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | How can a company pay it's shareholders? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cash dividend - preferential rate Stock splits -
 Stock dividends -
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        | Term 
 
        | Buyers have rights or obligations? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rights. Writers have obligations
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        | Term 
 
        | Writers have rights or obligations? |  | Definition 
 
        | Obligations. Buyers have rights.
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        | Term 
 
        | How many shares does a 'contract' hold? (in regards to writers and buyers of options) |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What does 'speculative' refer to? |  | Definition 
 
        | A lower grade investment. On Standard & Poor's it's any investment with a credit rating of BB, B, C and D. on Moody's Ba, B and C. |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | BBB or Baa is what grade of investment? speculative or investment grade? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | a bond's basis is higher than it's net yield, was it bought at par, discount? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is a Collateral Trust Certificate secured with? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | The net yield calculation lets us compute the % in terms of ______ interest. Before or after tax?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | After-tax.  Net always refers to after-tax |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | what is the word "authority" a clue to in regards to a bond issuer? |  | Definition 
 
        | a clue that the bond is a revenue issue. NOT a GO bond
 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | how often is interest paid on treasury notes? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the price on a treasury bond that is quoted at 5%? |  | Definition 
 
        | $950  (5% off of $1000 face value) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | 0 Coupon bonds create something called _____ |  | Definition 
 
        | phantom income, an annual tax liability |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the initial maturity of a Treasury Bill |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the initial maturity of a Treasury Note? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the initial maturity of a Treasury Bond? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Bonds are usually called when current interest rates are _____ than the bond's coupon?  (lower or higher) |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | A bond trading above par would have a YTM that is  ________ than it's coupon? (lower or higher)
 |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What would a holder of an 8% bond paying semiannual interest receive on each payment date?  $40 or $80? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the dollar price of a $1000 par value bond trading for 84.25? |  | Definition 
 
        | do the problem one step at a time 84.25 becomes 84.25 points. Multiply by $10 to get the dollar price. $842.50 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Call buying and put writing are _____ strategies? (bullish or bearish) |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following securities are typically issued with a strike price above the current market value of the stock? |  | Definition 
 
        | Warrants are issued with a strike price above the stock's current market value. Rights are issued at an exercise price below the stock's market value. |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is used by a corp as an inducement to purchase an upcoming debit? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | ________ are issued to existing common shareholders? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | US holders of ADR carry what risk? |  | Definition 
 
        | Currency risk. They track the value of their underlying security, which is non-dollar denominated |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Preferred stock holders are typically most concerned with which of the following investment objectives? (income or growth) |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | derivatives is another word for what? rights, warrants, options, calls
 |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | you're buying an option. The premium is $3 what is the cost for the contract? |  | Definition 
 
        | Multiply by 100 $3 x 100 = $300 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Bonds are always quoted as ______ of par? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Any bond said to be trading less than 100 is said to be trading at what? |  | Definition 
 
        | Discount. this is the FIRST collumn |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Unsecured corporate bond. an IOU. Debentures typically pay more than secured bonds due to risk.
 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What transactions are prohibited in a UGMA account? |  | Definition 
 
        | Margin transactions (since it would put the child into debt) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Investors seeking capital preservation would most likely invest in equities? T or F |  | Definition 
 
        | False. Treasuries or other vary conservative investments may be more suitable. |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Jack and Jill own a joint account. Jack calls and says liquidate the entire account. What do you do? Liquidate his portion? |  | Definition 
 
        | You must liquidate the account per his instructions. (the check must be written as the account is titled) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which type of authorization allows a 3rd party to remove/deposit money into a brokerage acct? POA or Full POA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Full POA's. Limited POA's allow a third party to enter orders only |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What kind of transfer is an ACAT transfer? |  | Definition 
 
        | A procedure used to transfer accounts to another brokerage firm. |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | a 1% move in a bond's yield is equal to the yield rising or falling how many basis points? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Monday a bond yields 7.21, Tues it's at 7.18. Which is true? A- The yield has fallen 3 percentage points
 B-The bond has risen in price
 C-The yield has fallen by 3 basis points
 |  | Definition 
 
        | B and C. When the yield of a bond drops that means that the dollar value has increased. (inverse relationship between price and yield)
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        | Term 
 
        | A portfolio manager is looking to produce income against an existing long position. What should she do? A-Sell Calls
 B-purchase calls
 C-purchase warrants
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Sell calls. This is referred to as "covered call writing"
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | an option contract giving the holder the right to buy the underlying security at a specific price, until a specific day. |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Buyers and sellers of closed-end funds will typically pay which of the following: Commissions  or sales charges |  | Definition 
 
        | commissions for close-end |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the basis for the calculation of a front-end sales charge (for mutual fund shares)? % of POP
 % of NAV
 % of mngmnt fee
 |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Do capital gains distributions to fund shareholders cause the NAV to drop or make not effect? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | A decline in value of one of the fund's positions will cause the NAV to drop or stay the same? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the three methods of registering securities w/the state? |  | Definition 
 
        | Notification (registration by filing) Coordination
 Qualification
 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is Freeriding and witholding |  | Definition 
 
        | refers to a broker-dealer allocating 'hot issue' or new issues to ALL EQUITY to their acct or other broker dealers, or employees or employees immediate family memembers |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 securities that are exempt from the registering requirement of the Act of '33? |  | Definition 
 
        | Government Securities Government Agencies (GMNA,Freddie Mac, etc)
 Municipal securities
 Commercial Paper
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        | Term 
 
        | for Reg D what is considered a 'wealthy individual'(therefore accredited)? |  | Definition 
 
        | $1M net worth / $200k income requirement |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Reg D offerings may be made to: |  | Definition 
 
        | Unlimited amt of securities Unlimited accredited investors
 35 non-accredited purchasers
 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is a restricted security? |  | Definition 
 
        | Purchased through Reg D - restricted (cannot be sold for 6 mo) |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | AKA Small issue exemption Sell up to $5M of stock within any 12 mo period w/out registering.
 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Rule 147 (AKA interstate exemption) |  | Definition 
 
        | 80% of company's assets must be in the state 80% of revenues must be generated from the state
 80% of the offerings must be used in the state
 100% of the shares must be sold to residents of the state.
 If all four requirements are met it does NOT need to be registered
 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Where do securities trade in the secondary mkt? |  | Definition 
 
        | on the floor of an exchange or OTC |  | 
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