| Term 
 
        | What two drugs combine to make Bactrim? |  | Definition 
 
        | Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 drugs most commonly cause SJS? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bactrim, Amoxicillin and Allopurinol |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of sulfa drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhibit dihydropteroate synthase. An enzyme used in the first step of folic acid synthesis. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Pyrimethamine used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Treatment of toxoplasmosis, when combined with sulfadiazone. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two drugs together form Polytrim? What minimum age can you use this?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Trimethoprim and Polymyxin B. Minimum age: 2 months.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Trimethoprim NOT effective against? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Trimethoprim? |  | Definition 
 
        | BONE MARROW SUPPRESSION! And aplastic anemia (just like chloremphenacol and oral CAIs. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If someone is allergic to penicillin, what are they most likely also allergic to? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which cell wall synthesis blocker only comes in ointment form? Does it treat gram +/gram -/both? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bacitracin Treats gram + (ie. staph bleph)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two drugs combine to make polysporin? What two drugs combine to make neosporin?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Polysporin: Bacitracin (gram +) and Polymyxin B (gram -) Neosporin: Polysporin and Neomycin.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two penicillins are on NBEO? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amoxicillin and Dicloxacillin MOA: cell wall synthesis blockers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clavulonic acid is mixed with what to produce Augmentin? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does dicloxacillin differ from amoxicillin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amoxicillin is NOT resistant to penicillinase like dicloxacillin. Dicloxacillin is better gram - coverage. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do we typically treat with Dicloxacillin? What can it not treat? |  | Definition 
 
        | Treat: lumps and bumps. Hordeolum, bleph, eyelid infections. Cannot treat: MRSA
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two cephalosporins on NBEO? What is their MOA?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Cephalexin (1st gen, lumps and bumps) and Ceftriaxone(3rd gen, treat gonorrhea) MOA: Transpeptidase inhibitors
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a major adverse effect of cephalospoins? (besides the risk of SJS) |  | Definition 
 
        | Alters vit K absorption in the GI. Extreme caution in those patients taking warfarin- remember vit K = klot. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do fluoroquinolones work? |  | Definition 
 
        | DNA gyrase and topoisomerase blockers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do we typically prescribe fluoroquinolones for? (topically)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Contact lens related ulcers, corneal abrasions, bacterial conjunctivitis. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What age can we start to prescribe topical fluoroquinolnes? All except which one? |  | Definition 
 
        | Age 1. All except levofloxacin. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the major side effect of ORAL fluoroquinolones? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tendinitis! Contraindicated in pregnancy and adolescents. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two aminoglycosides on NBEO? What is their MOA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Gentamicin and Tobramycin. MOA: Bind 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Topical aminoglycosides are notorious for causing what SE? |  | Definition 
 
        | SPK and delayed reepithelialization |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of the tetracyclines? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bind to 30S subunit and prevent access of aminoacyl tRNA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the clinical uses of tetracyclines? |  | Definition 
 
        | Doxy for meibomianitis and acne rosacea (think- dries all oil glands up).  Doxy is also used for chlamydial infections. Minocycline for acne. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some SE of tetracyclines? |  | Definition 
 
        | CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY AND CHILDREN. Pseudotumor cerebri, bone growth retardation, discoloring of teeth. Minocycline specifically causes blue sclera or pigmented cysts on conj.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What three drugs cause aplastic anemia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Oral CAIs Chloramphenicol
 Trimethoprim
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are two major SE's of topical chloramphenicol? |  | Definition 
 
        | Aplastic anemia and optic neuritis. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of the macrolides? (Erythromycin, Azithromycin and Clarithromycin)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What macrolide is commonly used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis and to combat bleph? Bonus: how many oral doses of the medication to treat chlamydial infections?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Azithromycin (Azasite) 
 Oral dose for chlamydia: single 1-gram dose
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What serotypes for trachoma and what serotypes for inclusion conjunctivitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Trachoma: A-C Inclusion Conj: D-K
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What preservative is used in Azasite? Can you still use CLs? |  | Definition 
 
        | BAK. Contact lens wearers are advised agains contact lens use during treatment. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 drugs are listed in KMK as treating MRSA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bactrim, doxycycline and clindamycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which two TB drugs can be taken alone for latent TB? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which TB drug causes orange-pink urine or tears? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A patient is taking Isoniazid, what vitamin deficiency are you worried about? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the major SE of Ethambutol? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Trifluridine (Viroptic) contains what preservative? |  | Definition 
 
        | Thimerasol- harsh to cornea! |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of Retrovir? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Bone marrow suppression 2. Lactic acidosis
 3. Muscle breakdown
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ribavirin is used to treat what? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hep C (Ribavirin is always combined with Interferon)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of Ribavirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Retinal detachment 2. Ischemia (cotton wool spots)
 3. Retinal hemes
 4. Arterial or venous occlusions
 5. Optic neuritis
 6. Most common: Conjunctivitis!
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which HSV treatment comes in gel form? What two things do we treat with this?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Ganciclovir (Zirgan) Treat: HSV keratitis and CMV retinitis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When do we use Foscarnet (Foscavir)? |  | Definition 
 
        | When all other treatments failed. "safety net" This is an IV treatment for CMV retinitis.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Natamycin (Natacyn) used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antifungal. Treatment of fungal bleph, conjunctivitis, and keratitis by: Candida, Aspergillus, Fusarium, etc. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Amphotericin B used for? What is the major SE?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Broad spectrum anti fungal available in ointment, solution or IV form. Used for fungal keratitis. SE: Nephrotoxicity. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Nystatin used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antifungal, primarily oral and vaginal infections, not ophthalmic use. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti fungal is typically administered vis subconj injection for endophthalmitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti fungal is used for scalp, skin and nails? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 5 medications cause whorl keratopathy? |  | Definition 
 
        | CHAI-T 1. Chloroquine
 2. Hydroxychloroquine
 2. Amiodarone
 4. Indomethacin
 5. Tamoxifen
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does chloroquine work for parasite control? |  | Definition 
 
        | Causes a buildup of heme, this accumulation in the red blood cells is toxic to plasmodium (malarial) parasite. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some adverse effects of chloroquine? List 3. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Bullseye maculopathy 2. whorl keratopathy
 3. RPE mottling (1st sign of maculopathy)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Risks of Chloroquine retinopathy? -What dosage?
 -Treatment duration
 -What age?
 -Others
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Dosage>3mg/kg body weight 2. Treatment duration>5 years
 3. Age>60
 4. Liver disease, kidney disease and high body fat percentage
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the most common field defects in chloroquine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Central and paracentral scotomas |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Lice and scabies treatment. NOT around eyes... no ophthalmic use. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What part of the arachidonic acid pathway do NSAIDs block? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What part of the arachidonic acid pathway do steroids block? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What dose of chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine put a patient at a high risk of developing bulls-eye maculopathy? |  | Definition 
 
        | Chloroquine: 3mg/kg/day Hydroxychloroquine: 6.5mg/kg/day or 400mg/day
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hydroxychloroquine is used for what systemic conditions? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lupus, RA, malaria (prophylaxis and treatment) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Long term use of steroids can cause what syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cushings (moon face, buffalo hump) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the ocular effects of long-term steroid use? |  | Definition 
 
        | PSC cataracts Glaucoma (OHTN)
 Increased risk of secondary infections
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do we typically use triamcinolone (Kenalog) for? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Diffuse diabetic macular edema 2. Graves orbitopathy
 3. Intermediate and non-resolving posterior uveitis
 4. Chalazion removal
 5. Cystoid macular edema post cataract surgery
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of tramcinolone (Kenalog) injections? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased IOP Endophthalmitis (as with any injection)
 Depigmentation of the eyelid in dark-skinned individuals, after chalazion injection
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of hydrocortisone, triamcinolone and fluticasone? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is fluticasone (Flonase) typically used for? Ocular SE's?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Intranasal corticosteroid spray for allergic rhinitis. Ocular SE's: conjunctivitis, dry eye, PSC and increased IOP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Irreversible Cox-1 and Cox-2 inhibitor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What syndrome can be caused by children taking aspirin? At what age is it appropriate to take aspirin?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Reye's Syndrome. A rapidly progressive brain disease marked by encephlopathy, confusion and seizures. 
 Safe after 11 years old.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the most common SE's of aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI upset (gastric ulcers and bleeding) as well as bleeding complications in the eye. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the reversible Cox-1 and Cox-2 NSAID's? |  | Definition 
 
        | Indomethacin Ibuprofen
 Naproxen
 Piroxicam
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Patients with what disease are NEVER prescribed NSAID's? |  | Definition 
 
        | Heart disease. (Especially coronary artery disease or stroke) 
 These increase risk of bleeding and increase risk of MI/stroke
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the unique effects of indomethacin, not seen with other NSAID's? |  | Definition 
 
        | Whorl keratopathy and pigmentary changes (especially around the macula) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used for prevention and treatment of NSAID-induced ulcers? 
 Who should never take it?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Misoprostol (Cytotec) 
 Pregnant women should NEVER take it... main adverse effect is that it can cause miscarriages or premature labor.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID spares the Cox-1 pathway and only inhibits Cox-2? What benefit is this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Celecoxib. Benefit: Protects the gastric mucosa and limits bleeding effects.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the ocular effects reported with Sudafed use? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Diplopia 2. Blurred vision
 3. Caution in patients with increased IOP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 Antihistamines (H1 blockers) in the KMK book that are 1st generation? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Diphenhyramine (Benadryl) 2. Chlorpheniramine maleate (Chlor-Trimeton)
 3. Brompheniramine (Dimetane)
 4. Promethazine (Phenergan)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do 1st generation antihistamines cause sedation? |  | Definition 
 
        | CNS penetration (blood brain barrier) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of antihistamines? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Sedation 2. Dry eyes and mouth
 3. Anticholinergic effects including mydriasis
 4. Tachycardia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Promethazine (Phenergan) is used as an antihistamine, what ocular SE's does it have that are different from all other antihistamines? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Corneal epithelial keratopathy 2. Lenticular changes
 3. Pigmentary retinopathy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three 2nd generation antihistamines? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Loratadine (Claritin) 2. Fexofenadine (Allegra)
 3. Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What unusual SE can Cetirizine (Zyrtec) cause? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 H2 blockers are listed in the KMK book? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cimetidine (Tagamet) Ranitidine (Zantac)
 Famotidine (Pepcid)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are H2 blockers used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Healing and preventing stomach ulcers and acid reflux. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common SE for H2 blockers? What about Cimetidine (Tagament) specifically?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Diarrhea. 
 Cimetidine causes gynecomastia and loss of libedo
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 2 proton pump inhibitors are in the KMK book? |  | Definition 
 
        | Omeprazole (Prilosec) Esomeprazole (Nexium)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the first line therapy for peptic ulcer disease and gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug protects the stomach by creating a paste-like substance, for acute management of peptic ulcer disease? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which medication is used in a maintenance inhaler for COPD and asthma? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What medications are used in fast acting rescue inhalers? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Albuterol (Ventolin) 2. Levalbuterol (Xopenex)
 3. Terbutaline (Brethine)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What short-acting beta 2 agonist is primarily used in the treatment of arrhythmias, not asthma? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which bronchodilator has a caution of recommending to patients with narrow angles? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ipratropium (Atrovent) -Causes a mild dilation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two leukotriene receptor antagonists approved for asthma and bronchoconstriction? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Zafirlukast (Accolate) 2. Montelukast (Singulair)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which respiratory agent works by breaking bonds in proteins of mucous to reduce viscosity? Also used for filamentary keratitis. |  | Definition 
 
        | Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) 
 Topical form for filimentary keratitis (duh!)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) is used for RA. What are the SE's? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hepatoxicity, myelosuppression, Increased risk of opportunistic infections and lymphomas (including in the eye) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of cyclosporine (Neoral, Sandimmune)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhibiting release and production of Interleukin-2, which is responsible for T-lymphocyte activation. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of cyclosporin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Opportunistic infections Malignancies
 Hypertension
 Kidney dysfunction
 Most common for Restasis: ocular burning
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Azathioprine (Imuran) is used to treat what conditions? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rheumatoid arthritis Prevention of rejection of kidney transplants
 Can be used for ocular MG, but risk of secondary lymphomas outweighs benefits.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long are patients typically on Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) following breast cancer remission? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of tamoxifen (Nolvadex)? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Crystalline retinopathy 2. Whorl keratopathy
 3. Thromboembolism (CRVO and BRVO)
 4. Fatty liver
 5. Hot flashes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Can Tylenol be used during pregnancy? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Muscle relaxant, analgesic. 
 Caution in glaucoma patients!
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Tramadol (Ultram)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Agonist against Mu opiate receptor. 
 Not considered a true opiate.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What SE's do we worry about in patients taking Tramadol (Ultram)? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Dry mouth 2. Sedation
 3. Dizziness
 4. Nausea
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What medications (2) work on Mu, Kappy and Delta receptors? 
 What do their pupils look like? Dilated/Constricted
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Meperidine (Demerol) Oxycodone
 
 Pinpoint pupils.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the opioid antagonist is used to reverse the effects of opiates? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do patients take Sumatriptan (Imitrex) for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of sumatriptan (Imitrex)? |  | Definition 
 
        | NAION Myocardial Infarction
 Ischemic stroke
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the only drug (that we are learning) that causes anterior stellate cataracts? |  | Definition 
 
        | Phenothiazines! (Chlorpromazine and Thioridazine)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | "Pigmentation effects" Pigment on corneal endothelium
 Hyperpigmentation of the RPE
 Are both seen in what category of medication?
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two anti-parkinson meds? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bromocriptine (Parlodel) Amantadine (Symmetrel)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Besides Parkinsons use, what is bromocriptine (Parlodel) more commonly used for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two drugs are used for ADHD? |  | Definition 
 
        | Methylphenidate (Ritalin) Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can chronic, high-dose ADHD medications cause? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What medication is used for dementia? What one SE are we worried about?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Donepezil (Aricept) 
 SE: Lower IOP, so don't cut cold turkey- will lead to IOP spike
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can an excessive dose of Demerol cause? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased intracranial pressure and papilledema |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Increasing levels of what in the body is the primary method for treatment of depression? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why should we use Fluoxetine (Prozac) with caution in glaucoma patients? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Fluoxetine (Prozac)? |  | Definition 
 
        | SSRI, increases seratonin levels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of the TCA's: Amitriptyline (Elavil) and Imipramine (Tofranil)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Anticholinergic effects including: Dry eye, increased IOP, blurred vision and mydriasis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are two ocular SE's of the MAOI Phenelzine (Nardil)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What foods should be avoided while taking a MAOI? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tyramine containing foods: Wine
 Cheese
 Dried meats
 
 If combined with a MOI can cause a lethal hypertensive crisis.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MAOI's and TCA's can exacerbate systemic effects of what topical drug? |  | Definition 
 
        | Phenylephrine and other adrenergic agonists! AVOID phenyl.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Diazepam (Valium)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Binds GABA receptors and causes hyper polarization of neurons in the CNS by opening chloride channels. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Never use alcohol when taking this drug. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Phenytoin (Dilantin) used for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of Phenytoin (Dilantin)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Nystagmus, diplopia, EOM palsies, ataxia and gingival hyperplasia. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of the anticonvulsant Phenobarbital (Luminal)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sedation, respiratory depression, mydriasis, increase IOP and cycloplegia. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Topiramate is used for seizures. What ocular SE's are we worried about? |  | Definition 
 
        | Choroidal swelling that pushes the urea forward and causes acute angle-closure glaucoma! Bilateral. 
 Less severe: blurred vision, diplopia and nystagmus.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Decreases gluconeogenesis and increases glucose uptake. 
 **Does NOT cause hypoglycemia, so 1st line treatment**
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Most common SE with patients taking metformin and one we worry about. |  | Definition 
 
        | Common: diarrhea Worried about: lactic acidosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do the sulfonylureas do? (Glucotrol, Diabeta, Micronase, Diabinese)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Increase secretion of insulin by beta cells, decrease glucagon release and increase sensitivity to insulin. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Pioglitazone (Actos) is used for what? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increase glucose uptake in muscle and fat tissues. Were introduced to combat insulin resistance (cause of type 2) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What ocular complication do we look for with patients taking Pioglitazone (Actos)? |  | Definition 
 
        | New or worsening macular edema. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism and requires replacement of T4? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of Levothyroxine (Synthroid)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pseudotumor cerebri in children Hyperthyroidism in adults (obviously!)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Adverse ocular effects of estrogens? Major systemic effect?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Dry eyes 2. Optic neuritis
 3. Papilledema due to pseudotumor cerebri
 
 4. Systemic: Venous blood clots!
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 drugs can cause NAION? |  | Definition 
 
        | Viagra Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
 Amiodarone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of Viagra and Levitra? |  | Definition 
 
        | NAION Color changes (especially cyanopsia)
 Blurred vision
 Photosensivitiy
 Flushing and headaches
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which three medications shrink the prostate? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Prazosin (Minipress) 2. Terazosin (Hytrin)
 3. Tamsulosin (Flomax)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What prostate shrinking med can cause floppy iris syndrome? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What anti-hypertensive meds cause a dry cough? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Losartan (Cozaar) is what class of medication? |  | Definition 
 
        | Angiotensin 2 Receptor Antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do the beta-blockers Propranolol (Inderal) and Labetalol (Trandate) work? |  | Definition 
 
        | Block release of renin from the kidney. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MG patients should not take this type of HTN medication |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do calcium channel blockers work for HTN? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease in intracellular free calcium which decreases peripheral vascular resistance. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two calcium channel blockers more commonly  have cardiac effects? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where on the nephron loop does the diuretic Furosemide (Lasix) work? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where on the nephron does the diuretic group of Thiazides: Hydrochlorothiazide and Chlorothiazide work? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What SE do the Thiazides have on vision? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acute transient myopia, acute angle-closure glaucoma. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two potassium sparing diuretics? Where do they work on the nephron? |  | Definition 
 
        | Spironolactone (Aldactone) and Triamterene (Dyrenium) 
 Works on the late DCT and collecting duct
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which diuretic block aldosterones action on the tubule? |  | Definition 
 
        | Spironolactone (Aldactone) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where in the nephron does Mannitol work? |  | Definition 
 
        | Trick! The whole nephron as an osmotic diuretic. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of dry eye do diuretics cause? |  | Definition 
 
        | Aqueous deficient dry eye |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | IV Mannitol is contraindicated in which patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pulmonary edema Dehydration
 CHF
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clonidine (Catapres) quickly lowers BP. What are the SE's? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dry mouth Sedation
 Impotence
 Severe rebound hypertension
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Digoxin (Lanoxin) is used to treat what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of Digoxin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Retrobulbar optic neuritis Blue-Yellow color defects
 Entopic phenomenon (snowy vision, dimming vision, flickering lights)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is amiodarone typically used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antiarrhythmic medication. Specifically for supraventricual and ventricular tachyarrhythmias.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of Amiodarone? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. NAION 2. Whorl keratopathy
 3. Anterior subcapsular lens deposits
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When should Warfarin be discontinued prior to cataract surgery? |  | Definition 
 
        | 96-115 hours before (i.e.. 4 doses) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some of the SE's of Clopidogrel (Plavix)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased risk of bleeding, GI upset, rash. The medications effects on platelets are irreversible!
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Increased risk of bleeding in these three medications in particular |  | Definition 
 
        | Warfarin Coumadin
 Dipyridamole
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What medication group lowers LDLs and increases HDLs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Statins. Lovastatin, Simvastatin and Atorvastatin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE's of the statin medications? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hepatotoxicity, myopathy (muscle pain or inflammation) 
 *Contraindicated in pregnancy*
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which medication is especially useful in lowering VLDLs and triglycerides? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is used in combination with a HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (the statins) to lower LDL? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cholestyramine (Questran) |  | 
        |  |