Term
1. The most common complications of a peptic ulcer are:
A. Jaundice
B. Obstipation
C. Bleeding
D. Perforation |
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Definition
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Term
2. Common symptoms of gastric cancer are:
A. Vomiting
B. Anorexia, weight loss
C. Postprandial abdominal heaviness
D. Jaundice |
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Definition
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Term
3. Which statement(s) is/are true about gastric cancer?
A. Surgical resection is the only curative treatment
B. Most of the patients diagnosed are operable
C. H. pylori is an etiologic factor
D. It is twice as common in women as in men |
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Definition
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Term
4. Symptoms of acute calculous cholecystitis:
A. Fever and leukocytosis
B. Obstipation
C. Stone(s) in the gallbladder on ultrasonography
D. Right upper quadrant pain |
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Definition
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Term
5. Common complications of acute cholelithiasis:
A. Development of retroperitoneal abscess
B. Development of pancreatitis
C. Development of hepatic malignancy
D. Gallbladder perforation |
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Definition
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Term
6. Main advantages of laparoscopic cholecystectomy:
A. Need for expensive laparoscopic instruments
B. Less pain than after the traditional cholecystectomy
C. Exploration of the abdominal cavity is easier
D. Better cosmetic results |
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Definition
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Term
7. Choose the correct establishment(s) about the anatomy of the liver!
A. The left lobe of the liver is bigger and contains more segments
B. The common hepatic artery comes right from the abdominal aorta
C. The portal vein is formed by the confluence of the splenic and superior mesenteric
veins
D. There are three major hepatic veins: left, right and middle |
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Definition
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Term
8. Etiologic factors of primary liver cancer are:
A. Cirrhosis from almost any cause (alcohol abuse, hemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, toxins)
B. Chronic hepatitis B and C virus infection
C. Metastasis of colorectal cancer
D. Longstanding chronic cholelithiasis |
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Definition
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Term
9. Potential treatment for metastatic neoplasms of the liver are:
A. Radiofrequency ablation
B. Angiographic embolisatio
C. Hepatic resection
D. Chemotherapy |
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Definition
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Term
10. Most common etiologic factors of acute pancreatitis are:
A. Pulmonary disease
B. Cholelithiasis
C. Colorectal malignancy
D. Alcohol abuse |
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Definition
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Term
11. Symptoms of acute pancreatitis:
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Decreased or absent bowel sounds
C. Elevated serum and urinary amylase levels
D. Severe epigastric or mid-abdominal pain |
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Definition
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Term
12. True establishments about the prognosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma are:
A. Following a Whipple procedure, survival averages about 18 months
B. If tumor cells extend to the margins of the resected specimen, long term survival is common
C. The mean survival following palliative therapy is 7 months
D. Overall 5-year survival is about 10 % |
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Definition
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Term
13. Disorders associated with secondary hypersplenism are:
A. Trauma
B. Myeloproliferative disorders
C. Chronic hemolytic diseases
D. Portal or splenic vein obstruction |
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Definition
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Term
14. Indications for splenectomy are:
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. GERD
C. Gastric cancer
D. Primary splenic tumor |
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Definition
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Term
15. Disadvantages of laparoscopic surgery:
A. Loss of tactile information
B. 2-Dimensional rendition on the screen
C. Magnified image
D. Expensive instruments |
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Definition
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Term
16. Which two are among the most common laparoscopic operations?
A. Inguinal hernia repair
B. Fabricius operation
C. Splenectomy
D. Cholecystectomy
E. Kidney transplantation |
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Definition
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Term
1. Select the correct statement regarding pancreas pseudocysts!
A. Percutaneous drainage is not advised due to the high rate of recurrence
B. Pseudocysts should always be treated surgically
C. Pseudocysts are always connected to the Wirsungian duct
D. Pseudocysts rarely grow bigger than 5-6cm
E. Pseudocysts are lined with granulation tissue |
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Definition
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Term
2. From the following substances which is produced in the islets of Langerhans?
A. Glucagon
B. Prostaglandin
C. Pepsin
D. Renin |
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Definition
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Term
3. In general, which procedure is NOT approved for the treatment of a gallbladder cancer?
A. Cholecystectomy + pancreatic resection + lymphadenectomy
B. Cholecystectomy + lymphadenectomy
C. Biliary stenting
D. Cholecystectomy + hepatic resection + lymphadenectomy
E. Cholecystectomy alone |
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Definition
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Term
4. Which is the most common histological type of the gastric cancer?
A. GIST
B. Lymphoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Adenocarcinoma |
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Definition
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Term
5. Which is NOT a damaging factor to the gastric mucosa related to the development of a peptic ulcer?
A. Pepsin
B. Gastric acid
C. H. pylori
D. Alcohol
E. Prostaglandins |
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Definition
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Term
6. From the following options which arteries provide the primary blood supply of the stomach?
A. Left and right gastric arteries, superior and inferior gastro-epiploic arteries
B. Superior and inferior gastric arteries, superior and inferior gastro-epiploic
arteries
C. Superior and inferior gastric arteries, left and right gastro-epiploic arteries
D. Left and right gastric arteries, left and right gastro-epiploic arteries |
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Definition
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Term
7. Which enzyme is produced in the pancreas in an inactive form?
A. Trypsin
B. Amylase
C. Lipase |
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Definition
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Term
8. Four days after an uneventful Billroth II gastric resection, a 55-year-old man suddenly develops severe
upper abdominal pain. On examination, his abdomen in rigid and he has a fever. The probable diagnosis
is:
A. delayed rupture of a contused spleen
B. postoperative acute cholecystitis
C. acute pancreatitis
D. wound infection
E. duodenal stump leak |
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Definition
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Term
9. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with splenomegaly?
A. Portal hypertension
B. Lymphomas
C. Spherocytosis
D. Sickle cell disease
E. Malaria |
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Definition
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Term
10. Which statement is true for pancreatic cancer in general?
A. The traditional procedure for a resectable pancreatic head malignancy is the Whipple operation
B. The majority of the tumors are located in the body of the pancreas
C. Thanks to the modern oncologic treatment modalities, the average survival now exceeds 2 years even in unresectable cases
D. Regarding histological types, 30% is ductal adenocarcinoma |
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Definition
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Term
11. Please select the structures that surgeons dissect during a normal laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
A. Common bile duct and hepatic duct
B. Cystic artery and common bile duct
C. Cystic duct and common bile duct
D. Cystic duct and cystic artery
E. Right hepatic artery and cystic duct |
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Definition
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Term
12. Which statement is true for acute pancreatitis?
A. ERCP is contraindicated in acute gallstone pancreatitis
B. The most common causes are alcohol abuse and biliary tract disorders
C. Surgery should be performed as early as possible in complicated pancreatitis
D. The basic pathomechanism is the bacterial digestion of the pancreatic tissue |
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Definition
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Term
13. From the following options select the scoring system currently used to help predict the severity of acute
pancreatitis:
A. SIRS-I
B. SAPS-II
C. ASA
D. APACHE-II |
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Definition
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Term
14. From the following options which is the most typical complication of a cancer in the head of the pancreas?
A. Obstruction of the common bile duct
B. Obstruction of the proximal ileum
C. Obstruction of the celiac trunk
D. Obstruction of the hepatic duct |
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Definition
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Term
15. Partial gastric resection is indicated in the following case:
A. large peptic ulcer as a first line of treatment
B. small antrum tumor with diffuse type Lauren classification
C. small antrum tumor with intestinal type Lauren classification
D. linitis plastica |
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Definition
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Term
16. Which of the following statement is NOT true for laparoscopic cholecystectomy when compared to an
open procedure?
A. Rate of complications is lower
B. Requires shorter hospitalization time
C. Yields better cosmetic results
D. Postoperative pain is less severe |
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Definition
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Term
17. From the following treatment options which is the most appropriate for a patient with suddenly developing
jaundice, proven gallstones and no signs of acute abdomen?
A. Conservative treatment with antibiotics
B. Urgent laparoscopic cholecystectomy followed by ERCP
C. Immediate open cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration
D. Delayed open cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration
E. Urgent ERCP followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy |
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Definition
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Term
18. Which of the following conditions presents an indication for hepatic resection?
A. Hepatitis C infection
B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
C. Budd-Chiari syndrome
D. Hepatitis B infection
E. Solitary liver metastasis |
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Definition
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Term
19. Which is the most characteristic sign of gastric perforation in the first hour?
A. Sharp epigastric pain
B. Colic right upper quadrant pain
C. Fever
D. Diarrhea
E. Sharp lower right quadrant pain |
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Definition
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Term
20. Which disease is treated by the Heller operation?
A. Crohn's disease
B. Congenital megacolon
C. Achalasia of the cardia
D. Hiatal hernia
E. Esophageal carcinoma |
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Definition
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Term
21. Which of the following conditions Helicobacter pylori infection is NOT associated with?
A. Chronic gastritis
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Gastric cancer
E. Acute gastritis |
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Definition
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Term
22. From the following options which characteristics or studies can preoperatively distinguish a benign gastric
ulcer from a cancer?
A. Distance from the pylorus
B. Acid secretory studies
C. Clinical response to PPI treatment
D. Diameter (more than 2 cm)
E. Multiple biopsies |
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Definition
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Term
23. Which condition is NOT associated with an increased risk of gastric cancer?
A. Acute alcoholic gastritis
B. Helicobacter pylori infection
C. Adenomatous gastric polyps
D. Atrophic chronic gastritis |
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Definition
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Term
24. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of the Mallory-Weiss syndrome?
A. Rupture of the gastric mucosa
B. Bleeding from a gastric polyp
C. Mucosal rupture in the esophagus
D. Rupture of the esophageal mucosa and the gastric mucosa in the region of the cardia |
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Definition
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Term
25. The most frequent severe complication of a Roux-en-Y type gastric resection is:
A. dumping syndrome
B. septic shock
C. dehiscence of the duodenal stump (anastomotic leakage)
D. hemorrhage
E. dehiscence of the ileal stump (anastomotic leakage) |
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Definition
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Term
26. Regarding hepatic diseases, which statement is true?
A. When in doubt about the nature of a hepatic hemangioma, a percutaneous needle biopsy is recommended to confirm the diagnosis
B. Focal nodular hyperplasia usually turns into a hepatic malignancy
C. The liver has such a good regeneration potential that often as much as 75-80% of the hepatic volume can be removed during surgery
D. The liver has 7 functional segments |
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Definition
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Term
27. The most prevalent cause of mortality due to a duodenal ulcer can be:
A. an esophageal rupture associated with the regurgitation of the acidic gastric contents
B. peritonitis resulting from acute perforation
C. an untreatable disease
D. hemorrhage
E. pyloric obstruction and inanition |
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Definition
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Term
28. The treatment of choice for a symptomatic pancreatic abscess is:
A. antibiotic therapy without drainage
B. cystogastrostomy
C. external drainage
D. cystoenterostomy
E. pancreatic resection |
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Definition
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Term
29. Select the condition which is most likely to be candidate for laparoscopic splenectomy:
A. thalassemia with significant splenomegaly
B. polycythemia vera
C. splenic infiltration of pancreatic malignancy
D. portal hypertension
E. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura |
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Definition
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Term
30. All of the following factors cause acute pancreatitis, EXCEPT:
A. biliary stones
B. hemochromatosis
C. hypercalcemia associated with parathyroid dysfunction
D. alcohol
E. hyperlipidemia |
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Definition
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Term
31. Which of the following features reflect a poor prognosis in acute pancreatitis?
A. Reduced serum calcium level
B. High urinary amylase level
C. High surges of serum amylase levels
D. Hyperglycemia and glycosuria
E. Prolonged coagulation time |
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Definition
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Term
32. What is the most severe possible complication of acute cholangitis?
A. Development of stones in the common bile duct
B. Prolonged jaundice
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Duodenal perforation
E. Hepatic abscess |
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Definition
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Term
33. The incidence of biliary stones is supposed to increase after which of the following operations?
A. Splenectomy
B. Resection of the ileum
C. Subtotal gastrectomy
D. Resection of the jejunum
E. Resection of a liver lobe |
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Definition
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Term
34. Which of the following compounds is contraindicated following a liver resection?
A. Hypnotic analgesics
B. Vitamin K
C. Antibiotics
D. Albumin
E. Carbohydrates |
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Definition
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Term
35. Characteristic features of thrombocytopenic purpura include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. petechiae, ecchymoses or hemorrhages occur
B. subnormal platelet count in peripheral blood
C. the megakaryocyte count in the bone marrow is normal or increased
D. significant splenomegaly is present
E. it is more prevalent in females |
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Definition
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Term
36. A splenectomy has a beneficial effect in all the following hemolytic conditions, EXCEPT:
A. hemolytic anemia due to glucose-6-phosphate deficiency
B. sickle-cell disease
C. hereditary elliptocytosis
D. thalassemia
E. hereditary spherocytosis |
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Definition
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Term
37. Spontaneous rupture of the spleen may occur in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. portal hypertension
B. leukemia
C. polycythemia vera
D. infectious mononucleosis
E. malaria |
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Definition
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Term
38. Gastric carcinoma develops most frequently in the region of the:
A. cardia
B. fundus
C. pyloric and antral region
D. gastroesophageal junction
E. corpus |
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Definition
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Term
39. From the following options which CANNOT be used in the treatment of achalasia?
A. Heller's myotomy
B. Self-expandable stent implantation
C. Balloon dilatation
D. Intraluminal cryotherapy |
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Definition
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Term
40. All of the following procedures are appropriate for the treatment of verified choledocholithiasis, EXCEPT:
A. endoscopic papillotomy and extraction of biliary calculi
B. percutaneous extraction of biliary calculi using a Dormia-basket
C. choledochotomy and T-tube drainage
D. transduodenal sphincteroplasty |
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Definition
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Term
41. Regarding the prognosis of gastric adenocarcinoma, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The intestinal histological type carries a better prognosis than the diffuse type
B. Cure rates of 80 to 90 % are obtained for lesions confined to the mucosa
C. The polypoid macroscopic type carries a better prognosis than the diffusely infiltrating type
D. Length of survival is improved by chemotherapy and radiation therapy after curative
resection |
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Definition
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Term
42. The pathologic lesion characteristic of the Mallory-Weiss syndrome is:
A. laceration of the mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction
B. rupture of the gastric mucosa
C. rupture of the esophagus
D. hemorrhage from a gastric polyp
E. acute gastritis |
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Definition
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Term
43. Which of the following disorders is associated with an elevated serum a-fetoprotein level?
A. Carcinoma of the pancreas
B. Carcinoma of the colon
C. Crohn's disease
D. Carcinoma of the liver
E. Carcinoma of the gall bladder |
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Definition
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Term
44. Which of the following is the anatomic border between the left and right lobes of the liver?
A. The line connecting the "ligamentum teres hepatis" and the inferior vena cava
B. The line connecting the fossa of the gall bladder and the fossa of the inferior vena cava
C. The line connecting the falciform ligament and the inferior vena cava
D. The line connecting the fossa of the gall bladder and the "bare area"
E. The line connecting the falciform ligament and the "bare area" |
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Definition
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Term
45. Which statement is NOT true for gastric cancer in general?
A. A CT scan helps to assess the infiltration of the surrounding organs/tissues
B. In linitis plastica only total gastrectomy is considered oncologically radical
C. The most frequent signs are weight loss, abdominal pain, vomiting or bleeding
D. The generally accepted complex treatment of gastric cancer is surgery, irradiation, chemotherapy and hormone therapy |
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Definition
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Term
46. What is NOT considered a frequent complication after splenectomy?
A. Subphrenic abscess
B. Postsplenectomy fever
C. Bleeding
D. Pulmonary embolisation |
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Definition
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Term
47. Which operation is the most commonly accepted in acute necrotizing pancreatitis?
A. Pancreatic resection + drainage
B. Necrectomy + drainage
C. Pancreatoduodenectomy
D. Cholecystectomy + drainage of the cystic duct |
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Definition
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Term
48. What is NOT a typical symptom of in peptic ulcer disease?
A. Abdominal or epigastric pain
B. Bloating
C. Melena
D. Nausea, vomiting
E. Fresh blood in the stool |
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Definition
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Term
49. The most severe complication after a Billroth-II gastric resection is:
A. dehiscence of the duodenal stump
B. thrombophlebitis
C. dehiscence of the Roux-en-Y anastomosis
D. dehiscence of the esophageal stump
E. hemorrhage |
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Definition
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Term
50. The landmark delineating the junction of the antral and fundic regions on the lesser curvature of the stomach
is the:
A. Mayo-vein
B. angular incisure
C. gastroduodenal artery
D. left gastric artery
E. gastroepiploic artery |
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Definition
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Term
51. Stress ulcers have been observed in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. during penicillin administration
B. in central nervous system lesions
C. after salicylate ingestion
D. after alcohol ingestion
E. after severe burns |
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Definition
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Term
52. A 45-year-old female patient has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Three days following the
procedure, she gradually develops signs of acute abdomen and has fever. The possible cause maybe, EXCEPT:
A. perforation of the transverse colon
B. development of acute pancreatitis
C. injury of the hepatic duct
D. injury of the common bile duct
E. pulmonary embolism |
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Definition
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Term
53. All of the following are true for the pain associated with pancreatitis, EXCEPT:
A. unremitting (generalized) pain
B. an abrupt onset
C. colic subcostal pain
D. the pain radiates through to the back
E. diffuse mid-abdominal pain |
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Definition
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Term
54. From the following options which is the most common type of weight reduction surgery?
A. Billroth-I resection with jejunal loop
B. Total gastrectomy with Roux-en-Y anastomosis
C. Bilateral femoral amputation
D. Laparoscopic adjustable gastric banding
E. Laparoscopic adjustable esophageal banding |
|
Definition
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Term
55. Which of the following procedures is performed on the stomach?
A. Selective vagotomy
B. Wilson fundoplication
C. Miles operation
D. Choledochojejunostomy with Roux-en-Y anastomosis |
|
Definition
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Term
56. Approximately what is the normal diameter of the common bile duct in adults?
A. 10-12mm
B. 2-4mm
C. 6-8mm
D. 4-6mm
E. 1-2mm |
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Definition
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Term
57. Which is not a typical complication of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A. Postoperative bile leakage
B. Hematoma under the liver
C. Common bile duct lesion
D. Dissection of the cystic duct |
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Definition
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Term
58. Metabolic consequences of a gastric resection include:
A. metabolic alkalosis
B. steatorrhea
C. calcium deficiency
D. macrocytic anemia
E. iron-deficiency anemia |
|
Definition
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Term
59. All of the following statements are valid regarding gastric polyps, EXCEPT:
A. gastric polyps have a propensity for multiple occurrence
B. gastric polyps are not expected to undergo malignant transformation
C. gastric polyps may develop first after puberty
D. gastric polyps develop on atrophic gastric mucosa
E. gastric polyps can develop as a feature of familial disease |
|
Definition
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Term
60. Which vessel provides the blood supply of the pancreas?
A. Celiac trunk
B. Both
C. Superior mesenteric artery |
|
Definition
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|
Term
61. Which is the most common form of the gallbladder perforation?
A. Development of a cholecysto-phrenic fistula
B. Free perforation with diffuse peritonitis
C. Development of a cholecysto-enteric fistula
D. Localized perforation with pericholecystic abscess |
|
Definition
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Term
62. Which is an absolute contraindication of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A. Second trimester pregnancy
B. Previous upper abdominal surgeries
C. Inability to tolerate general anesthesia
D. Old age
E. Gallbladder longer than 10cm |
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Definition
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Term
63. What is the gold standard treatment of symptomatic cholelithiasis?
A. Single-port cholecystectomy
B. Shock wave lithotripsy
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatograpy
D. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
E. Open cholecystectomy |
|
Definition
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|
Term
64. In an operable pancreatic head malignancy which is considered the most successful operation?
A. Biliodigestive bypass
B. Total pancreatectomy
C. Pancreatoduodenectomy |
|
Definition
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|
Term
65. Which disease is characterized by a mid-abdominal, "beltlike" pain?
A. Diverticulitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Colonic cancer
D. Gastric perforation
E. Appendicitis |
|
Definition
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|
Term
66. What is the most common benign tumor of liver?
A. Hepatic metastasis from a benign colorectal lesion
B. Focal sparing
C. Hepatocellular cancer
D. Focal nodular hyperplasia
E. Hemangioma |
|
Definition
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|
Term
1. Which is/are true about wound healing?
A. Primary healing is simpler and requires less time
B. Primary intention occurs when tissue is clearly incised
C. Secondary intention occurs in open wounds
D. Most infected wounds and burns heal secondary |
|
Definition
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|
Term
2. Possible methods for preventing surgical infections:
A. Use of LMWH
B. Surgery in a sterile operating room
C. Surgical hand washing
D. Use of antibiotic prophylaxis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. Symptoms of tetanus:
A. Opisthotonos
B. Spasms of the facial muscles
C. Happiness without a cause
D. Diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. Which of the following conditions forman absolute indication for a scheduled surgery?
A. Confirmed cancer of the ascending colon
B. Asymptomatic gall stones
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D. Asymptomatic inguinal hernia
E. Symptomatic gall stones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. Which of the following intervention are performed on with a diagnostic intent?
A. Breast augmentation
B. Submandibular lymph node biopsy
C. Total colectomy in FAP
D. Staging mediastinoscopy |
|
Definition
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|
Term
6. Which is/are true statement(s) about inguinal hernias?
A. Successful repair requires that any correctable aggravating factors be identified and treated
B. The complications of incarceration, obstruction and strangulation are greater threats than are the risks of operation
C. The most common cause is the weakness of the posterior inguinal wall
D. Inguinal hernias should always be repaired unless there are specific contraindications |
|
Definition
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|
Term
7. Operations for inguinal hernia repair are:
A. Shouldice
B. TAPP
C. Miles operation
D. Lichtenstein operation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. Possible etiologic factors for incisional hernia are:
A. Postoperative wound infection
B. Poor surgical technique
C. Length of the incision
D. Postoperative physical activity |
|
Definition
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|
Term
1. During a laparoscopic surgery, with what gas is the abdominal cavity traditionally insufflated?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrogen
E. Helium |
|
Definition
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|
Term
2. From the following options, which is the best definition of the Calot's triangle?
A. An anatomic space bounded by the common hepatic duct, the cystic duct and the inferior edge of the liver
B. An anatomic space bounded by the cystic artery, the common hepatic artery and the inferior edge of the liver
C. An anatomic space bounded by the common hepatic duct, the cystic vein and the inferior edge of the liver
D. An anatomic space bounded by the gallbladder, the common bile duct and the inferior edge of the liver |
|
Definition
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|
Term
3. What is the principle of the Lichtenstein operation?
A. A synthetic mesh is placed over the defect, thus strengthening the abdominal wall
B. Using a laparoscopic approach, a synthetic mesh is placed over the defect, thus strengthening the abdominal wall
C. The internal oblique muscle is approximated to the transverse abdominal muscle, thus strengthening the abdominal wall
D. Using a laparoscopic approach, a synthetic mesh is placed behind the defect, thus strengthening the abdominal wall
E. The internal oblique muscle is approximated to the inguinal ligament, thus strengthening the abdominal wall |
|
Definition
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|
Term
4. What is the principle of the Bassini operation?
A. An absorbable mesh is placed over the defect, thus strengthening the abdominal wall
B. The internal oblique muscle is approximated to the inguinal ligament, thus strengthening the abdominal wall
C. A non-absorbable mesh is placed over the defect, thus strengthening the abdominal wall
D. The internal oblique muscle is approximated to the transverse abdominal muscle, thus strengthening the abdominal wall |
|
Definition
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|
Term
5. Which statement is true for an irreducible inguinal hernia?
A. Due to the incarceration of the hernia contents, an urgent surgery is required
B. The contents of the hernia sac cannot be returned to the abdominal cavity
C. It is usually difficult to return the contents of the hernia sac to the abdominal cavity
D. Non-surgical treatment is usually sufficient in these cases |
|
Definition
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|
Term
6. Select the surgical intervention which is routinely NOT performed by laparoscopic means!
A. Gastrectomy
B. Inguinal hernia repair
C. Splenectomy
D. Cholecystectomy
E. Adrenalectomy |
|
Definition
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|
Term
7. Which of the following abbreviations stands for a laparoscopic surgery?
A. SNB
B. TAPP
C. VATS
D. APR |
|
Definition
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|
Term
8. Select the correct definition of the vital indication for surgery!
A. Surgery performed on any of the vital organs
B. The surgery is a vital part in the therapeutic plan of the disease
C. The disease can only be treated by surgical means, the timing can be chosen
D. The disease can only be treated with an urgent/immediate surgery |
|
Definition
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|
Term
9. From the following options which is true for the tetanus infection?
A. It is caused by bacteria from the Enterococcus species
B. It is caused by bacteria from the Staphilococcus species
C. It is caused by bacteria from the Escherichia species
D. It is caused by bacteria from the Streptococcus species
E. It is caused by bacteria from the Clostridium species |
|
Definition
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10. What is the main principle in the treatment of a perianal abscess?
A. The wall of the abscess should be carefully removed
B. The abscess should be drained and the wound closed primarily
C. The abscess should be drained and rinsed with local antibiotics
D. The abscess should be drained and the wound left open |
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11. From the following options which is true for necrotizing fasciitis?
A. The leading sign is the formation of skin rashes/blisters
B. It spreads alongside the long bones under the subcutaneous tissue
C. It is caused exclusively by Clostridium species
D. It spreads across the fascial planes within/under the subcutaneous tissue |
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12. In which of the following situations are you allowed to operate on a patient without a prior written consent?
A. Patient under guardianship with a confirmed colonic cancer
B. Adult patient with ruptured aortic aneurysm
C. Minor patient with symptomatic cholelithiasis
D. Adult patient with stable aortic aneurysm
E. Adult patient with symptomatic cholelithiasis |
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Definition
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13. When was the first human laparoscopic cholecystectomy performed?
A. In the 70s
B. In the 90s
C. In the 60s
D. In the 80s |
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Definition
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14. Which of the following famous surgeons was awarded with Nobel price?
A. Theodor Billroth
B. Theodor Kocher
C. Eduardo Bassini
D. Cesar Roux |
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15. Which is NOT considered a wound healing complication?
A. Seroma
B. Primary wound healing
C. Keloid formation
D. Dehiscence |
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Definition
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16. The most significant advantage of the tension-free inguinal hernia repair over the conventional techniques
is:
A. Yields better cosmetic results
B. The rate of recurrence is lower
C. The patient can leave the hospital sooner
D. It's cheaper than the Bassini operation |
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Definition
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17. From the following options which factor does NOT impair the wound-healing process?
A. Jaundice
B. Chemotherapeutic drugs
C. Mobilization of the patient
D. Anemia |
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Definition
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18. Which pathogen is the common cause of gas gangrene?
A. Streptococcus
B. Clostridium
C. Pseudomonas
D. Aspergillus |
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Definition
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19. Select the diseases that pose an absolute indication for surgery.
A. Obstructing colonic cancer
B. Stones in the common bile duct causing jaundice
C. Large, symptomatic pancreatic pseudocyst
D. Duodenal ulcer
E. Enlarged axillary lymph nodes |
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Definition
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20. Select the FALSE statement!
A. Indirect inguinal hernia is the most common of the external abdominal wall hernias
B. Obesity and liver cirrhosis can aggravate the development of umbilical hernias
C. Incisional hernia can develop wherever there is a scar on the abdomen
D. Reducible hernias require urgent operation within 12 hours |
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Definition
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21. Using of which anticoagulants requires close monitoring of the hemostatic parameters?
A. Clopidogrel
B. Low molecular weight heparin
C. Ca-Heparin
D. Aspirin |
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Definition
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22. Which of the following operations CANNOT be used in the treatment of an inguinal hernia?
A. TAPP (transabdominal pre-peritoneal hernia repair)
B. Lichtenstein operation
C. Shouldice operation
D. Bassini operation
E. Mayo operation |
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Definition
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23. From the following options which is characteristic to modern age surgery?
A. Lack of general anesthesia limits the feasibility of major abdominal interventions
B. Limited use of related resources (imaging techniques, laboratory tests, endoscopy)
C. Generally low degree of specialization
D. Research oriented, evidence based development of surgery |
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Definition
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24. Characteristics of the medieval medicine and surgery in Europe:
A. Clerical blessing on autopsies
B. Treatment was based on anatomical and physiological knowledge
C. Surgery practiced by barber surgeons
D. High social status of surgeons |
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Definition
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25. What is the typical rate of recurrence after a Lichtenstein inguinal hernia repair?
A. Between 2-5%
B. Between 5-10%
C. Above 10%
D. Under 2% |
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Definition
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26. Which of the following statements is true for Hesselbach's triangle?
A. Is found in a single plane of the inguinal floor and is bounded by the superior
epigastric artery, inguinal ligament, and rectus sheath
B. Defines the boundaries of a low lumbar hernia
C. Defines the inguinal floor in the region of a direct inguinal hernia
D. Is bounded medially by the inferior epigastric vessels |
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Definition
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27. Which of the following statements is/are true for hernias in general?
A. Mesh implantation has no benefit in direct inguinal hernia
B. Femoral hernias are more common in males than in females
C. Risk of incarceration is higher in hernias with a large orifice
D. The indirect inguinal hernia is the most common hernia in males |
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Definition
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28. Which of the following microorganisms is considered the pathogen of the pseudomembranous colitis
associated with antibiotic therapy?
A. Staphylococcus species
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Clostridium tertium |
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Definition
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29. Pilonidal sinuses frequently develop in:
A. young adult females
B. middle-aged patients
C. elderly patients
D. young adult males |
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Definition
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30. Generalized (diffuse) bleeding following surgical procedures may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. sepsis
B. an undiagnosed coagulopathy
C. insufficient closure of the wound
D. fibrinolysis or defibrination
E. a massive transfusion |
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Definition
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31. All of the following factors contribute to the disruption of abdominal surgical wounds, EXCEPT:
A. hypoproteinemia
B. early mobilization
C. frequent coughing
D. surgical site infection
E. anemia |
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Definition
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32. Case Study: A 23-year-old girl developed shaking chills, high-grade fever, and chest pain after obtaining
a 75 ml blood transfusion. Select the most likely cause of these symptoms:
A. an infected blood product
B. the presence of cold agglutinins
C. a pyrogenic reaction
D. a hemolytic transfusion reaction
E. citrate toxicity |
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Definition
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33. Which of the following facilitates collagen deposition during the process of wound healing?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Endothelial cells
C. Capillary network
D. Epithelial cells
E. None of the above |
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Definition
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34. Which one of the following options stands for a laparoscopic hernia repair surgery?
A. Onlay or sublay eversion technique
B. TAP and TEPP
C. TAPP and TEP
D. Lichtenstein and Shouldice operation |
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Definition
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Term
35. Among all the severe complications of blood transfusions, the most common problem is:
A. circulatory overload
B. hypokalemia
C. disease transmission
D. hemolytic reactions
E. alkalosis |
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Definition
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36. Which of the following diseases can be most likely transmitted by a blood transfusion?
A. Lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Hodgkin's lymphoma
C. Serum hepatitis
D. Myeloblastic leukemia
E. Erythrocytosis |
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Definition
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37. The commonly occurring paronychia of the fingers is caused by:
A. frequent injury to the delicate skin of the fingers
B. extremely heavy contamination of the skin of the hand
C. excessive use and exposure of the hand and fingers during work |
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Definition
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38. Mild infections of the hand can progress to potentially severe infections because:
A. the skin of the hand is a particularly heavily contaminated area of the body
B. the hand often sustains injury when it is infected
C. there are numerous tendons with a poor blood supply and the maintenance of any required immobilization is difficult |
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Definition
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39.The most efficient method for the prevention of a wound infection after the operation of a perforated appendicitis:
A. flushing the wound with antibiotic solutions
B. none of the above
C. rinsing the subcutaneous tissues with disinfectant solution
D. drainage of the peritoneal cavity
E. sprinkling the wound with sulphonamide powder |
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Definition
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40. In the case of clean, closed wounds, the most common source of a Staphylococcus infection is:
A. dust
B. bedside instruments
C. bedclothes
D. bacterial flora of the patient or hospital personnel
E. the ambient air of the operating theatre |
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Definition
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41. Paronychia of the finger is best treated by which of the following types of incisions?
A. A "J-shaped" incision at a 3 mm distance from the distal unguicular margin
B. Halfway between the unguicular margin and the pulp of the finger
C. Any incision that ensures adequate drainage from the phalanx
D. At a considerable distance from the distal unguicular margin
E. A wide "fishmouth" shaped incision |
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Definition
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42. From the following options which is the most appropriate definition of tetanus?
A. A medical condition characterized by a prolonged relaxation of skeletal muscle fibers
B. A medical condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of smooth muscle fibers
C. A medical condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of skeletal muscle fibers
D. A medical condition characterized by a prolonged relaxation of smooth muscle fibers |
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Definition
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43. From the following famous physicians who was NOT a surgeon?
A. William Halsted
B. Theodor Kocher
C. Ignác Semmelweis
D. Theodor Billroth
E. János Balassa |
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44. The keloid:
A. has a tendency for malignant transformation
B. is less prevalent in blacks
C. develops in clean wounds
D. is sensitive to antibiotic therapy
E. is an agglomeration of fibrous tissue |
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Definition
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45. Select the correct statement regarding an open incisional hernia repair:
A. During the Lichtenstein operation the mesh is fixed to the rectus sheath
B. Incisional hernias cannot develop after laparoscopic procedures
C. Hernia repair with strong sutures yields equal results as the tension-free techniques
D. The contents of the hernia sac must always be checked for signs of infarction |
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1. Diagnostic symptoms of achalasia:
A. Dysphagia
B. Weight gain
C. Retention of ingested food in the esophagus
D. Radiologic evidence of dilated body of the esophagus |
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Definition
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2. Which statement(s) is/are true about the treatment of hiatal hernias:
A. Operative repair is indicated in most cases since complications are frequent
B. The surgery could be performed only laparoscopically
C. PPI is always enough
D. It is unnecessary to excise the hernia sac |
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Definition
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3. Choose the right answers about esophageal cancer:
A. Preoperative radiation therapy may convert an unresectable growth to a resectable one
B. After potentially curative resection, survival for 5 years is more than 50%
C. The operation is easy to perform and has great results
D. Esophageal carcinoma is treated by surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy or a combination of these methods |
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1. What is the main role of the endoscopic ultrasound in the staging of an esophageal cancer?
A. It helps determine the supraclavicular lymphatic status
B. It helps determine the exact size of the tumor
C. It helps determine the presence of liver metastases
D. It helps determine the presence of pulmonary metastases |
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Definition
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2. Which is NOT a sign of the perforation of the cervical esophagus?
A. Fever
B. Dysphagia
C. Free air in the abdominal cavity
D. Pain
E. Subcutaneous emphysema |
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Definition
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3. From the following options which is NOT a typical sign of a Zenker's diverticulum?
A. Sharp pain when swallowing
B. Gurgling sounds when swallowing
C. Regurgitation of undigested food
D. Dysphagia |
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Definition
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4. Which diagnostic modality CANNOT be used to assess the depth of malignant infiltration in esophageal
cancer?
A. Endoscopy and biopsy
B. Endosonography
C. CT scan
D. PET-CT |
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Definition
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5. Which of the following conditions requires urgent surgery?
A. Large symptomatic paraesophageal hernia
B. Paraesophageal hernia with erosion
C. Paraesophageal hernia with incarceration
D. Paraesophageal hernia with severe reflux |
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Definition
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6. What is the most common type of surgery in esophageal malignancies?
A. Subtotal esophageal resection
B. Mucosal excision
C. Segmental esophageal resection
D. Total esophageal resection |
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