Term
|
Definition
| cytoplamic inclusion found in Parkinson's disease |
|
|
Term
| The Golgi apparatus's effect on certain amino acids |
|
Definition
- modifies N-oligosaccharides on asparagine
- adds O-oligosaccharides on serine and threonine
- adds mannose-6-phospate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes |
|
|
Term
| Source of ECM proteoglycans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. function of COPI vesicular trafficking protein
2. COPII?
3. clathrin |
|
Definition
1.retrograde, Golgi to ER
2. anterograde
3. trans-Golgi |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the herpes virus |
|
|
Term
| E2F is released when _____. This allows the cell cycle to go from ____. |
|
Definition
| Rb is phosphorylated. G1 --> S phase |
|
|
Term
| 5 Drugs that act on the microtubules |
|
Definition
mebendazole (antihelminthic)
griseofulvin (antifungal)
vincristine/vinblastine (anti-cancer)
paclitaxel (anti-breast cancer)
colchicine (anti-gout) |
|
|
Term
| What effects will high cholesterol or long-chain saturated fatty acid concentration have on the plasma membrane? |
|
Definition
| Increase the melting point and decrease the fluidity of the plasma membrane |
|
|
Term
| Cortisol and corticosteroids inhibit which enzyme in the prostaglandin- production pathway? |
|
Definition
Phospholipase A2
Phosphotidylinositol to arachadonic acid |
|
|
Term
| Types of endoperoxides and their functions |
|
Definition
Prostacyclin (PGI)- decreases: platelet aggregation and vascular, bronchial, and uterine tone, increases bleeding time
Prostaglandin (PGE or F)- increases uterine tone, decreases vascular and bronchial tone
Thromboxane- opposite of prostacyclin |
|
|
Term
| Two families of tyrosine kinase receptors |
|
Definition
growth factors= single-pass transmembrane protein
insulin and IGF-1= 2 alpha subunites to bind extracellular ligand and 2 beta subunits for tyrosine kinase activity |
|
|
Term
| Effect of prostaglandins on bronchial tone and vascular tone |
|
Definition
| decreased bronchial and vascular tone |
|
|
Term
Acetaminophen
MOA and clinical use |
|
Definition
reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, mostly in CNS. Inactivated peripherally.
Antipyretic and analgesic, but not anti-inflammatory. Used instead of aspirin in children to prevent Reye's syndrome. |
|
|
Term
NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen, indeomethacin, ketorolac)
MOA and clinical use |
|
Definition
reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase. Blocks prostaglandin synthesis.
No anti-platelet effect. Antipyretic, analgesic, and anti-inflammatory at twice the dose |
|
|
Term
| Why use celecoxib instead of NSAIDs? |
|
Definition
| less toxicity to the gastric mucosa |
|
|
Term
| Define permanent, stable and labile cells. |
|
Definition
Permanent- arrested in G0
Stable- can transition form G0 to G1 phase
Labile- constantly regenerating themselves due to absence of the G0 phase and a short G1 phase (skin, hair follicles, bone marrow) |
|
|
Term
| Granzyme B, from cytotoxic T cells, leads to the _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Immunologic substances that trigger apoptosis |
|
Definition
TNF-a
Granzyme B with help from perforin |
|
|
Term
| Tissues with a single blood supply that undergo pale infarction:________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokines are particularly important in the formation of granulomas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cell type plays a role in inflammation by generating fibrinogen and CRP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cell is most responsible for acute and chronic inflammation, respectively? |
|
Definition
acute- neutrophiles
chronic- macrophages |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for keloid scar |
|
Definition
| inject glucocorticosteroids into keloid --> disruption of collagen synthesis |
|
|
Term
| Type of collagen found in skin and granulation tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type of collagen in cartilage, vitreous body, and nucleus pulposus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type of collagen found in bone, skin, tendon, dentin, fascia, cornea, and late wound repair |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Triad of obstructive jaundice |
|
Definition
| Pruritus, dark urine pale stools |
|
|
Term
| Alcohol consumption and malignancy |
|
Definition
| Tumors of the head neck esophagus and liver BUT NOT PANCREATIC CANCER |
|
|
Term
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
At birth |
|
Definition
| Microscopic cysts are present at birth but too small to be detected by ultrasound. Manifests later in life |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Brief high frequency precordial sound heard in early diastole in patients with constrictive chronic pericarditis. It occurs earlier than an s3 ventricular gallop and may be confused with the opening snap of mitral stenosis. Constrictive pericarditis requires months or years to develop |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs inhibit platelet aggregation by inhibiting phosphodiesterase activity and increasing camp |
|
Definition
| Dipyridamole and cilostazol |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are go iib iiia inhibitors |
|
Definition
| Abciximab eptifibatide tirofiban |
|
|
Term
| The main mechanism of glucose induced inhibition of lac operon expression is |
|
Definition
| Depletion of cAMP not the repressir protein to the operator site |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Phenylephrinr methoxamine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Isoproterenol terbutaline ritodrine |
|
|
Term
| The primary mechanism of iron deficiency anemia is |
|
Definition
| Blood loss and NOT POOR NUTRITION |
|
|
Term
| What organelle becomes hypertrophied in hepatocytes with chronic phenobarbital use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does myometrial growth in pregnancy occur primarily as a result of hyperplasia or hypertrophy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blocking of the mesocortical pathway results in |
|
Definition
| an increase in the negative symptoms of psychosis |
|
|
Term
| Blocking of the mesolimbic pathway results in |
|
Definition
| relief of psychosis (target of neuroleptics) |
|
|
Term
| Lateral area of hypothalamus |
|
Definition
| hunger. destruction --> anorexia, failure to thrive. inhibited by leptin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| satiety. destruction (ex. cranipharyngioma) --> hyperphagia. stimulated by leptin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| coolin, parasympathetics, GnRH release |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatments for narcolepsy |
|
Definition
| amphetamines, modafinil and sodium oxybate |
|
|
Term
| Schizoid personality disorder |
|
Definition
| chosen social withdrawal, avoidant personality disorder is fear of social failure |
|
|
Term
| Congenital Rubella: cause of deafness |
|
Definition
| damages the cochlear duct, organ of corti, derived from surface ectoderm- the saccular portion of the otic vesicle |
|
|
Term
| Treatments for social phobia and performance anxiety |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Difference between classical and operant conditioning |
|
Definition
classical by association
operant by reinforcement |
|
|
Term
| If likelihood ratios are given which evaluation of diagnostic testing is most appropiate |
|
Definition
| predictive values or specificity over 1- specificity multiplied by the likelihood odds ratio |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of bupropion |
|
Definition
| hypokalemia and hypochloremia |
|
|
Term
| Function of superior colliculi |
|
Definition
| conjugate vertical gaze center |
|
|
Term
| From which brachial pouch is the epithelial lining of the palatine tonsil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which cranial nerve is responsible for head turning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pathologic- in UMN lesion, mandibular to mandibular reflex |
|
|
Term
| A woman involved in an accident cannot turn head to the left and has a right shoulder droop. Which structure is damaged? |
|
Definition
| Right sternocleidomastoid muscle, innervated by the spinal accessory nerve |
|
|
Term
| MOA of donepezil and rivastigmine (Alzheimer's disease) |
|
Definition
| Anti-acetylcholinesterases |
|
|
Term
| MOA of tropicamide and benztropine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs reduces premature uterine contractions? What is their MOA? |
|
Definition
terbutaline and ritodrine
Beta-2 agonists |
|
|
Term
| What is the action of tyrosine hydroxylase? It is inhibited by which drug? It needs what as a cofactor? |
|
Definition
tyrosine to DOPA
Metyrosine
Biotin |
|
|
Term
What are the actions of:
1. Hemicholinium
2. Vesamicol
3. Black Widow Spider toxin
4. Reserpine
5. a2s and M2s at presynaptic cleft
6. ATII at presynaptic cleft
7. Guanethidine and Bretylium
8. Amphetamines, Ephedrine, and Tyramine |
|
Definition
1. Prevents choline entry into axon
2. Prevents vesicular packaging of ACh
3. Increases ACh release
4. Prevents vesicular packaging of NE
5. inhibits NE vesicle release
6. increases NE vesicle release
7. Prevents NE vesicle release
8. Increase NE vesicle release |
|
|
Term
From where are the following hormones secreted:
Estradiol
Estriol
Estrone
Estrogen in males |
|
Definition
ovary
placenta
adipocytes
testes |
|
|
Term
| What amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis? |
|
Definition
| Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine |
|
|
Term
What is the female homologue to the following male structures:
1. Corpus spongiosum
2. Cowper/ bulbourethral glands
3. Prostate gland
4. Glans penis
5. Ventral penile shaft
6. Scrotum |
|
Definition
1. Vestibular bulbs
2. Bartholin glands
3. Skene glands
4. Clitoris
5. Labia minora
6. Labia majora |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common brain tumors in adults? |
|
Definition
1. Metastasis
2. Glioblastoma Multiforme
3. Meningioma/ Schwannoma |
|
|
Term
| What are the three most common primary brain tumors in children? |
|
Definition
1. Pilocytic Astrocytoma
2. Medulloblastoma
3. Epipendyoma |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effect of proteases in HAART therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adverse effect of metronidazole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the musculoskeletal signs of an internal capsule lesion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is given to patients on MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which a1 blocker does not have an effect on blood pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which a2 blocker is used to treat depression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common adverse effects of B-blockers |
|
Definition
| impotence, masked diabetic emergency |
|
|
Term
| What type of drug is oxybutynin and glycopyrrolate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| indirect cholingeric agonist |
|
|
Term
| ligand to receptor defect in CML |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is number needed to treat calculated? |
|
Definition
| 1 divided by absolute risk reduction (event rate in placebo group- event rate in treatment group) |
|
|
Term
Describe changes in bony structures seen in:
Rickets patients
Osteoporosis
Paget's disease
Osteopetrosis |
|
Definition
unmineralized osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae
trabecular thinning with fewer interconnections
Lamellar bone structure resembling a mosaic
spongiosa filling medullary canal with mature trabeculae |
|
|
Term
| Which two enzymes does lead inhibit? |
|
Definition
ALA dehydratase
Ferrochetalase |
|
|
Term
| typical traditional high potency antipsychotics (more likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms) |
|
Definition
| haloperidol, fluphenazine, pimozide |
|
|
Term
| atypical antipsychotics (treat both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia) |
|
Definition
| clozapine, risperidone, olazapine, quetiapine |
|
|
Term
| Typical low potency antipsychotics (more likely to cause antihistaminergic and anticholinergic effects) |
|
Definition
| chlorpromazine, thioridazine |
|
|
Term
| Which antigens assemble in HBV virion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antigens to which MHC are processed in the RER and which are processed in lysosomes? |
|
Definition
MHCI = RER
MHC II= lysosomes |
|
|
Term
Pyrimethamine antibiotic
MOA and Clinical Use |
|
Definition
antifolate
malaria and toxoplasmosis |
|
|
Term
| What type of enzymes are BRCA-1 and 2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Proto oncogene in small cell carcinoma of the lung |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which structures pass through the superior orbital fissure? |
|
Definition
| CN III-CNVI, the nasociliary branch of the trigemincal, and the superior opthalmic vein. |
|
|
Term
| Which structure pass through the inferior orbital fissure? |
|
Definition
| maxillary nerve, infraorbital vessels, and branches from the sphenopalatine ganglion |
|
|
Term
| Which structures pass through the optic canal? |
|
Definition
| the optic nerve and the opthalmic artery |
|
|
Term
Foramen Rotundum
Foramen Ovale |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antidepressants cause urinary retention, cardiac arrhythmias, orthostatic hypotension, and sedation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drugs that may cause seizures |
|
Definition
| Bupropion, Isoniazid if given w/o B6,Imipenem |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of aplastic anemia |
|
Definition
| skin rash, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, hepatoxicity (PTU), Methimazozle is tetratogenic |
|
|
Term
| Tumors that are associated with Psammoma bodies |
|
Definition
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
Meningioma
Malignant Mesothelioma |
|
|
Term
| Which thyroid cancer is associated with the following: RET oncogene and NTRKI, activation tyrosine kinases and BRAF gene (serine/threonine kinase) mutation |
|
Definition
Paillary carcinomas
Medullary is associated with RET gene mutation and activation of receptor tyrosine kinases |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| failure of the ventral and dorsla pancreatic buds to fuse at the 8th week. |
|
|
Term
| Complete failure to obliterate the ompalomesenteric duct results in |
|
Definition
| vitelline fistula, a small connection between the ileum and the outside of the body at the umbilicus |
|
|
Term
| Partial obliteration of the omphalomesenteric duct leads to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| between two defective viruses co-infecting the same host cell can yield a cytopathic wild-type genome. Recombination is gene exchange that occurs through the crossing over of two segmented viruses that infect the same host cell. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when co-infection of the host cell if two viruses leads to a progeny expressing both phenotypes of each virus. Wild type mutation does not occur however. |
|
|
Term
| symptoms of Conn's disease |
|
Definition
increased sodium retention --> hypertension
increased potassium retention --> paresthesia and muscle weakness (hypokalemia) |
|
|
Term
| Light microscopy of Reye's syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which amino acid does serotonin derive from and which cofactor is necessary for its synthesis? |
|
Definition
| tryptophan, dihydrobiopterin |
|
|
Term
| Bacterial infection associated with boiled eggs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of pramipexole and ropinerole? |
|
Definition
Stimulates dopamine receptors
treatment for Parkinson's |
|
|
Term
| What structures are derived from teh first brachial pouch? |
|
Definition
| middle ear, mastoid air cells, and eustachian tube |
|
|
Term
| What structures are derived from the 3rd brachial pouch? |
|
Definition
| thymus and inferior parathyroid glands |
|
|
Term
| Which cytokines inhibit Th2 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are monocytes in connective tissue called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amino acid substitution for Scikle Cel disease |
|
Definition
| valine for glutamic acid at pos. 6 of B globin chain |
|
|
Term
| what are the symptoms of serum sickness? |
|
Definition
| fever, urticaria, arthralgias, proteinuria, and lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure. |
|
|
Term
Caudal regression syndrome in newborns
associated maternal diseases
symptoms |
|
Definition
diabetes
agenesis of sacral and lumbar spine, falccid paralysis, dorsiflxed feet, and urinary incontinence. But there is a range of severity |
|
|
Term
| strict vegetarians are at risk for which vitamin def. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of infections do ammaglobulinemia patients present with? |
|
Definition
| extracellular, encapsulated organisms |
|
|
Term
| Which diarrhea producing bacteria form exotoxins prior to ingestion? Which ones form toxin after? |
|
Definition
Before- B. cereus, S. aureus- gram positive
After- E.Coli, Cholera, Shigella- gram negative |
|
|
Term
| What is the underlying cause of proteinuria in minimal change disease? |
|
Definition
| loss of charge selectivity |
|
|
Term
| What type of selectivity is the underlying cause of proteinuria in tubulointerstitial nephritis? |
|
Definition
| low molecular weight proteins cannot be reabsorbed in the proximal tubule (B2 microglobulin, immunoglobulin light chains, amino acids, and retinol binding protein) |
|
|
Term
| What is functional proteinuria? and what are the causes of functional proteinuria? |
|
Definition
caused by a change in glomerular blood flow
from exercise fever, emothional stress, or cold exposure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| another name for shiga like toxin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| leads to release of IL-1 and THF-a --> septic shock |
|
|
Term
| What is the virulence factor in most strains of E.coli causing neonatal meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of lymphocytes are more commonly involved in leukemia with a mediastinal mass? which lymphocytes are most commonly involved in leukemia in general? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antidepressant does not have sexual side effects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which fungus buds with germ tubes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ASPS1 gene mutation and difference from ASPS2 |
|
Definition
ASPS1 is a ch. 21q22 mutation, AIRE gene
it also has mucocutaneous candidiasis and autoimmune hypoparatyhroidism whereas type 2 is limited to adrenal insufficiency, Hashimoto's like, and type 1 DM |
|
|
Term
| 4th aortic arch on the right and left |
|
Definition
| right - subclavian, left- regresses |
|
|
Term
| What are some less memorable functions of IGF-1? |
|
Definition
decreased glucose tolerance -- diabetes, glucose tolerance test is part of acromegaly screening
increased osteoblastic activity
decreased collagen degradation, by inhibiting MMP-13 |
|
|
Term
| drugs that can cause aplastic anemia |
|
Definition
anti-hyperthyroidism (PTU, MTM)
anti- seizures (carbamazepine, phenytoin)
antibiotics (chloramphenicol, quinine)
benzenes |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of carbidopa? |
|
Definition
| inhibits dopa decarboxylase and thus production of dopamine in the periphery |
|
|
Term
| which transcritpion factors do MAP kinases (downstream of tyrosine kinases) phosphorylate? |
|
Definition
| FOS and JUN, growth promoters |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| macronodular adrenal hyperplasia, GNAS mutation leading to overstimulation of Gs --> increased cAMP |
|
|
Term
| Ectopic aldosterone producing adenomas can be caused by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most common cause of Addison's disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
malignancy of synctio/cytotrophoblastic tissue; not chorionic villi
tx with chemotherapy (methotrexate)if cancer is gestationally-derived, non-gestationally derived will not respond well to chemotherapy |
|
|
Term
| Two vaccinated illnesses have live and killed vaccine forms: which illnesses and what are the names of the live and killed types? |
|
Definition
influenza- intranasal= live, intramuscular= killed
polio- Sabine (oral)= live, Salk (IM)= killed |
|
|
Term
| Anti- smooth muscle cell antibody |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibody is distributed evenly between extravascular and intravascular pools? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aldesleukin, y interferon, oprelvekin
What are they?
What is its use? |
|
Definition
recombinant cytokines of IL-2, IFN- y and IL-11 respectively
A= renal cell carcinoma, metastatic melanoma
y= chronic granulomatous disease
o= thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| What is used to prevent nephrotoxicity in cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension, pleural effucion, hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
| sirolimus is also known as |
|
Definition
| rapamycin- binds FKBPs and inhibits mTOR --> no T cell proliferation |
|
|
Term
| toxicities of sirolimus (rapamycin) |
|
Definition
| hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Azathioprine
MOA
Clinical Use
Toxicity |
|
Definition
6- MCP precursor that interferes with nucleic acid synthesis in proliferating T cells
kidney transplantation and autoimmune disorders
bone marrow suppression, metabolized by xanthine oxidase so bone marrow suppression risk occurs in hyperuricemia patients and patients on xanthine oxidase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
Muromonab
MOA
Clinical Use
Toxicity |
|
Definition
blocks CD3 on T cells
immunosuppression after kidney transplantation
cytokine release syndrome, hypersensitivity reaction |
|
|
Term
abciximab
Target and Clinical Use |
|
Definition
| GP IIb/IIIa used to prevent cardiac ischemia in unstable angina and in patients with PCI |
|
|
Term
Bevacizumab and cefuximab
Target and clinical use |
|
Definition
VEGF, VEGF-R
colon cancer, metastatic small cell lung cancer, metastatic renal carcinoma, and recurrent glioblastoma multiforme |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
uses- immunosuppression, anti-angiogenic
mechanism of action- affects TNF-a
tetarogenic |
|
|
Term
Mycophenolate
MOA and clinical use |
|
Definition
inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase-->prevents the production of the nucleoside, guanine
blocks protein synthesis in proliferating T and B cells, transplant and lupus nephritis |
|
|
Term
| how do you treat the PAIRS autoimmune diseases? |
|
Definition
TNF-a inhibitors= infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab
can reactivate TB infection |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common subtype of renal cell carcinoma? What is its morphology and characteristics? |
|
Definition
clear cell carcinoma
appears clear due to high glycogen and lipid content in the tumor
lungs are the most common site of metastasis, then bone
paraneoplastic EPO and PTHrp secretion can occur, polycythemia occurs here whereas anemia occurs more often in signet ring carcinoma of the stomach (histological description is very similar) |
|
|
Term
| Which cancers are endemic to Sub-Saharan Africa? |
|
Definition
| Burkitt's and hepatocellular carcinoma due to Hep B and C |
|
|
Term
| where do primary brain neoplasms most often metastasize? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Specific sign of advanced left heart failure |
|
Definition
| supine dyspnea relieved by sitting up |
|
|
Term
| Non-specific signs of left sided heart failure |
|
Definition
chest tightness and wheezing on exertion
paroxysmal cough relieved by production of pink frothy sputum (gross) |
|
|
Term
| crescent formation diagnostic sign of what glomerular pathology? What can cause this pathology? |
|
Definition
RPGN leads to renal failure within weeks to months
anti-GBM antibodies with linear IgG and C3 deposits caused by Alport's, Goodpasture's, immune complex mediated with lumpy bumpy granular pattern caused by poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, SLE, antiphospholipid antibodies, IgA nephropathy, or Henoch Schonlein purpura, and pauci immune associated with vasculitises but can be idiopathic |
|
|
Term
| decreased C3 level is associated with |
|
Definition
| poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis- alternative but not classic complement pathway is activated |
|
|
Term
| decreased C4 levels is seen in |
|
Definition
| hereditary angioedema. C1 esterase inhibitor mutation so, classic complement pathway is constitutively activated, which permits unopposed breakdown of C4 by C1 esterase. |
|
|
Term
| Intracellular substance accumulation leading to splenomegaly is present in |
|
Definition
| Niemann Pick and Gaucher disease |
|
|
Term
| Proliferation of the lymphoid tissue in the spleen results from |
|
Definition
| infections, leukemia, and lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| Work hypertrophy in the spleen is due to |
|
Definition
| increased removal of damaged RBCs |
|
|
Term
| What is the first area damaged in global cerebral ischemia? Second? |
|
Definition
| pyramidal cells of the hippocampus and then neocortex and the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum |
|
|
Term
| single best screening test to confirm the clinical diagnosis of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does hypothyroidism lead to amennorrhea? |
|
Definition
| decreased T4 --> increased TRH release --> increased prolactin release |
|
|
Term
| Clear cytoplasm in normal jejunal cell villi is indicative of |
|
Definition
| abetalipoproteinemia can also lead to acanthocytes and neurologic defects |
|
|
Term
| series resistance describes blood flow in an individual organ |
|
Definition
| R artery+ R arteriole + R capillary + R venule + R vein |
|
|
Term
| Parallel resistance represents |
|
Definition
| coronary, splanchnic, renal, and cerebral circulation |
|
|
Term
| debrancher enzyme deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Predominant manifestation of galactokinase def. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Positive Trendelenburg sign |
|
Definition
| hip dips toward unaffected side when the patient STANDS on the affected leg- superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius and minmus |
|
|
Term
| What muscle does the inferior gluteal nerve innervate? |
|
Definition
| gluteus maximus, responsible for extension of the thigh at the hip and external rotation of the thigh --> difficulty rising or climbing stairs |
|
|
Term
| What muscles does the femoral nerve innervate? |
|
Definition
iliacus and sartorius- flexion of the thigh at the hip
quadriceps femoris- extension of the leg at the knee
knee reflex and anterior thigh sensation |
|
|
Term
| Which knee flexor (hamstring muscle) is not innervated by the sciatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| guanine nucleoside analogue against CMV DNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
| Infection which Pentamidine is used for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anitbiotic treats M. avium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| acyclovir is used to treat _____ infections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hep B and C, hairy cell leukemia, condyloma acuminatum, and KAposi's |
|
|
Term
| Alternative treatments for E. coli and K. pneumonia |
|
Definition
| colistin (polymyxin), trimethoprim |
|
|
Term
| S. pyogenes and C. Diphtheria treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Homebox genes, what are they? and mutations lead to |
|
Definition
Genes for DNA-binding transcription factors
Drosophilia- limbs develop in incorrect locations |
|
|
Term
| side effects of clopidogrel and ticlopidine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| IV anesthetic, barbituate, redistributes in skeletal muscle tissues |
|
|
Term
| What are at risk of injury during hysterectomies? Ligation of these structures leads to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| follicular hyperplasia with tall cells forming intrafollicular projections is seen in a form of what type of thyroid cancer |
|
Definition
| papillary, also Psammoma bodies |
|
|
Term
| The presence of colloid containing microfollicles suggests |
|
Definition
| benign follicular adenoma, vascular invasion only happens in follicular thyroid acner |
|
|
Term
Nerves that arise at the middle cerebraller peduncle
signs of lacunar stroke at the middle cerebral peduncle |
|
Definition
trigeminal
dysmetria and dysdiadochokinesia |
|
|
Term
| formula for statistical power and what does it measure |
|
Definition
| 1-B, is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, that is, it is the probability of finding a true relationship |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| rejection of the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is really true |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
occurs when researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when it is truly false
Beta is the probability of committing a type II error
1- beta is statistical power, it needs to be maximized (in other words beta is decreased) so a difference in the experiment is not missed |
|
|
Term
| What enzyme is responsible for tRNA charging? |
|
Definition
| aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase |
|
|
Term
| Bacteria which activate the lectin complement pathway? |
|
Definition
| salmonella, listeria, and neisseria |
|
|
Term
| What is the presentation triad of ADA SCID? |
|
Definition
1. severe recurrent infections- candida, PCP, common viruses (even if vaccinated against)
2. Chronic diarrhea
3. Failure to thrive |
|
|
Term
| What are the X-linked immunodeficiencies? |
|
Definition
Wiskott Aldrich
Bruton Agammaglobulinemia
CGD
Hyper IgM |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of Wiskott Aldrich disease |
|
Definition
| progressive deletion of T and B cells, high IgA, low IgM, thrombocytopenia, purpura, eczema, recurrent encapsulated bacterial infections |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of Ataxia Telangiectasia |
|
Definition
| IgA deficiency, troubel tracking movement with eyes, increased lymphoma and leukemia cancer risk, radiation sensivity, increased AFP in children, average age of death = 25 years |
|
|
Term
| Common infection in IL-12 def. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
def. IFNy --> neutrophils fail to respond to chemotatic stimuli
high IgE levels, eczema
recurrent cold S. aureus abscesses (like Job's boils in the Bible)
2 rows of teeth |
|
|
Term
| Where do uric acid stones due to tumor lysis syndrome occur? |
|
Definition
| In the collecting ducts due to the low urine pH in this area, uric acid is soluble at physiologic pH |
|
|
Term
| Which pathway is affected by Lesch Nyhan syndrome? |
|
Definition
| The purine SALVAGE pathway --> increased de novo purine synthesis |
|
|
Term
| Cells seen in CML blood smear |
|
Definition
| immature lymphoid cells, but very few blasts (sign of acute leukemia) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| left shift, less than 50000, ALP is normal or elevated, it is low in leukemia |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are used for management of heparin induced thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
| Lepirudin and argatroban- directly inhibit thrombin mediated fibrin formation |
|
|
Term
| What stage of malaria is chloroquine effective against? |
|
Definition
in the bloodstream, but not latent hepatic infections
retinopathy is a adverse effect |
|
|
Term
| What drug is effective at prevent malarial disease relapse? |
|
Definition
| Primaquine- also helps completely eradicate infections, not effective against chloroquine resistant strains |
|
|
Term
| Which hormones bind to cytosolic steroid receptors? |
|
Definition
Sex hormones, Vit D., aldosterone
the "cyt" for milky, salty sex |
|
|
Term
| Which hormones bind to nuclear steroid binding receptors? |
|
Definition
| glucocorticoids and thyroid hormones |
|
|
Term
| Which hormones bind to tyrosin kinases? |
|
Definition
| the growth factors, and the acidophils (growth hormone and prolactin -- JAK STAT tyrosine kinases) |
|
|
Term
| Which class of HAART therapy drugs cause GI intolerance, Cytochrome P450 inhibition, lipodystrophy, and hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
| Protease inhibitors (-navirs) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| AE of indinavir and atazanavir |
|
Definition
| nephrolithiasis, atazanavir also causes extreme jaundice |
|
|
Term
| Which NRTI is a nucleoTIDE analogue not a nucleoSIDE analog like the rest? |
|
Definition
| tenofovir, very commonly used |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bone marrow suppression, agranulocytosis, megaloblastic anemia |
|
|
Term
| treatment for occupational exposure of HIV |
|
Definition
| zidovudine and lamivudine |
|
|
Term
| AEs of didanosine, zalcitabine, stavudine |
|
Definition
pancreatitis, peripheral neuropathy
didanosine is most commonly associated |
|
|
Term
| AE of didanosine and stavudine |
|
Definition
| hepatic steatosis, increased LFTs |
|
|
Term
| Which HAART therapy drug can cause life-threatnening hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| false positive marijuana test, dementia |
|
|
Term
| which NNRTI is contraindicated in pts. with major depressive disorder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits HIV 1 integrase, used to incorporate viral DNA into host DNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| binds CCR5 thereby inhibiting gp120 conformational change, tropism test for R5 phenotype needs to be performed prior to use |
|
|
Term
| Caught masturbating in San Diego |
|
Definition
cryptoCOCCUS- MenINgitis
cyptoSPORIDIUM- DIarrhea |
|
|
Term
| Which antiretroviral class is known for causing pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
| NRTIs (the ones ending in "ine") |
|
|
Term
| What are the two nervous tissue bundles that run through the GI tract,and where are they located? |
|
Definition
Meissner's plexus- submucosa
Auerbach's myenteric plexus- outer layer of the muscularis externa |
|
|
Term
| Biopsy of a patient with esophagitis reveals large pink intranuclear inclusions and host cell chromatin that is pushed to the edge of the nucleus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Biopsy of a patient with esophagitis reveals enlarged cells, intranuclear, and cytoplasmic inclusions, and clear perinuclear halo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Biopsy of mass in parotid gland reveals a double layer of columnar epithelial cells resting on a dense lymphoid stroma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Protrusion of the mucosa in the upper esophagus |
|
Definition
| esophageal webs, Plummer Vinson syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Outpouching of all layers of the esophagus found just above the LES |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| basal cell hyperplasia, eosinophilia, and elongation of the lamina propia papilla seen in biopsy of esophagus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Goblet cells seen in the distal esophagus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A PAS stain on a biopsy obtained from a patient with esophagitis reveals hyphate organisms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism involved in chronic graft rejection? |
|
Definition
| Antibody-mediated vascular damage |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of scopolamine? |
|
Definition
| motion sickness, end of life care (reduce secretions) |
|
|
Term
| what is the treatment for Zollinger Ellison syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the arterial branches off of the common hepatic artery? |
|
Definition
The gastroduodenal --> superior pancreaticoduodenal and right gastro-omental arteries
The right gastric artery
The proper hepatic artery |
|
|
Term
| Side effects of cimetidine |
|
Definition
| anti-androgenic --> gynecomastia |
|
|
Term
| what happens to serum pH at the time of gastric acid secretion? |
|
Definition
| It rises slightly, becomes more alkaline |
|
|
Term
| The vagus nerve stimulates G cells to release gastrin; however, the administration of muscarinic antagonists such as atropine will not inhibit the release of gastrin. Why? |
|
Definition
The vagus nerve stimulates G cells using gastrin-releasing peptide, not ACh
Atropine does inhibit gastric acid secretion by inhibiting vagal stimulation of parietal and ECL cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use of tiotropium? |
|
Definition
| inhaled drug used to treat COPD |
|
|
Term
| competitive inhibitor Km Vmax and pharmacodynamics |
|
Definition
| increased Km, unchanged Vmax, decreased potency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| does renal disease have an effect of the loading dose and maintenance dose of the drug? |
|
Definition
| No, only maintenance dose depends on clearance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hereditary motor & sensory neuropathy, pes cavus
defect in anterograde kinesin axonal transport |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| antibiotics causing tendon rupture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In I cell disease where are the defective proteins secreted |
|
Definition
| outside of the cell instead of being localized to the lysosome |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| alteration of which enzyme leads to gain of resistance to NRTIs |
|
Definition
| thymidine kinase- NRTIs must be phosphorylated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 2nd generation H1 blocker = no sedation |
|
|
Term
| Antimicrobial causing skin rash w/ sun exposure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which diabetes medication decrease gluconeogenesis in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The short gastric arteries are derived from which artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| acute bacterial infection of the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| acute bacterial infection of the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics |
|
|
Term
| What is increased when orchidectomy is used as a treatment for prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
| DNA fragments- prostate undergoes apoptosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug do you give to patients on MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drug given for thyroid toxicosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is given to pts. w/ liver failure to reduce bleeding from varices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the antihypertensive used in aortic dissection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the antidote for theophylline toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of Pure Red Cell Aplasia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alport's syndrome inheritance pattern |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Menetrier's disease (not be confused with Meiere's disease) |
|
Definition
| Gastic hyperthrophy with protein loss, parietal cell atrophy, and increased mucous cells. Precancerous. Rugae of stomach are so hypertrophied that they look like brain gyri. |
|
|
Term
| Location of peptic ulcer disease: pain greater with meals leading to weight loss, increased risk of carcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Location of peptic ulcer: pain decreases with meals leading to weight gain. No risk of carcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which histamine blocker is known to decrease methemoglobin levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| AEs of H2 blocker toxicity |
|
Definition
| decreased renal excretion of creatinine |
|
|
Term
| Side effects of aluminum hydroxide antacid |
|
Definition
| constipation and hypophosphatemia, proximal muscle weakness, osteodystrophy, seizures |
|
|
Term
| Side effects of magnesium hydroxide antacid |
|
Definition
| diarrhea, hyporeflexia, hypotension, and cardiac arrest |
|
|
Term
| Side effects of calcium carbonate antacid |
|
Definition
| hypercalcemia, and rebound gastric acid increase |
|
|
Term
| What side effect can all antacids have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inhibitory Gastric Acid Hormones |
|
Definition
| Prostaglandins, somatostatin, secretin, GIP |
|
|
Term
| What are the three common places for stomach cancer metastasis? |
|
Definition
Virchow's node- left supraclavicular node
Krukenberg's- bilateral ovaries
Sister Mary Joseph's nodule- periumbilical |
|
|
Term
| what are two cancers that cause signet ring cells? |
|
Definition
| lobular carcinoma in situ, gastric adenocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
| side effects of odansetron |
|
Definition
| serotonin antagonism --> vasodilation -->constipation and HEADACHES |
|
|
Term
| Serotonin agonists are used to treat what common symptom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| stomach biopsy reveals neutrophils above the basement membrane, loss of surface epithelium, and fibrin-containing purulent exudate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Small intestine biopsy reveals small lymphocytes with irregular nuclear contours and proliferation of these lymphocytes into the mucosa and epithelial glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stomach biopsy reveals lymphoid aggregates in the lamina propia, columnar absorptive cells, and atrophy of glandular structures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diffuse thickening of gastric folds, elevated serum gastrin levels, biopsy reveals glandular hyperplasia wihtout foveolat hyperplasia |
|
Definition
| Zollinger-Ellison syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Effect prostaglandins have on the gastric lining |
|
Definition
| Protective, which is why NSAIDS which decrease prostaglandin production leads to ulcers. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin agonist which increases uterine tone leading to abortion. Beta 2 agonist terbutaline and ritodrine delay premature uterine contractions |
|
|
Term
| Which immunosupressant is a derivative of 6-mercaptopurine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunosuppressant causes phocomelia (underdevelopment of limbs and facial features) |
|
Definition
| thalidomide (used to be a morning sickness treatment, now used for multiple myeloma) |
|
|
Term
| Which immunosuppressant is nephrotoxic in 75% of patients? |
|
Definition
| cyclosporin (prevented by mannitol diuresis) |
|
|
Term
| Which immunosuppressant is an alkylating agent that requires bioactivation in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Retroperitoneal structures |
|
Definition
SADPUCKER
suprarenal glands, aorta and IVC, duodenum (ex. 1st part), pancreas (head and body), ureters, Colon (descending and ascending), kidneys, esophagus (lower 2/3rds), rectum (upper 2/3rds) |
|
|
Term
| Falciform ligament (connects, structures contained, derivative) |
|
Definition
liver to anterior abdominal wall
ligamentum teres
fetal umbilical vein |
|
|
Term
| Which ligament contains the portal triad? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which ligament can be compressed to control hepatic artery or portal vein bleeding in surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which ligaments need to be ligated during splenectomy? |
|
Definition
| gastrosplenic, splenorenal |
|
|
Term
| Which ligament contains the short gastric arteries and veins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which ligament contains the splenic artery and vein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the actions of GIP hormone? |
|
Definition
| decrease gastric H+ release, increase insulin release ( why oral glucose load is used more rapidly than IV) |
|
|
Term
| Motilin and its relationship with erythromycin |
|
Definition
| Motilin is secreted by the small intestine and it increases migrating motor complexes during sleep and in fasting state. It quickly moves food through the gut. Erythromycin is a motilin receptor agonist and it is given to post-ileal surgery pts. to move stuff along damaged GI system |
|
|
Term
| How is somatostatin regulated? |
|
Definition
| acid increases release, vagal stimulation decreases release |
|
|
Term
| Metoclopramide (MOA, clinical use, and adverse effects) |
|
Definition
MOA serotonin agonist and dopamine antagonist
TX. for gastroparesis in diabetic neuropathy
seizures |
|
|
Term
| Drugs known for seizure side effect |
|
Definition
| metoclopramide, bupropion, tramadol, enflurane, evening primrose oil |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| D2 antagonist, prokinetic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| serotonin agonist, prokinetic |
|
|
Term
| What enzymes are responsible for the rate limiting of carbohydrate digestion? |
|
Definition
| oligosaccharide hydrolases |
|
|
Term
| How is fructose absorbed? glucose and galactose? How are they all transported to the blood? |
|
Definition
facilitated diffusion by GLUT=5
Na dependent SGLT1
GLUT-2 |
|
|
Term
| causes of acute pancreatitis |
|
Definition
GET SMASHED
gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune disease, scorpion sting, hypercalcemia/hypertriglyceridemia, ERCP, Drugs (sulfa drugs, HIV NRTIs, and HIV protease inhibitor- ritonavir) |
|
|
Term
| What can acute pancreatitis lead to systemically? |
|
Definition
| DIC, ARDS--> respiratory failure, diffuse fat necrosis --> saponification (hypocalcemia), pseudocyst formation, hemorrhage, infection, and multiorgan failure. |
|
|
Term
| Difference between cyst and pseudocyst |
|
Definition
| pseudocysts lack epithelial and endothelial cells |
|
|
Term
what drug category has the following ending:
-ane
-azine
-tidine
- tropin |
|
Definition
inhalational general anesthetic (halothane)
phenothiazine neuroleptics (chlorpromazine)
H2 antagonists (cimetidine)
pituitary hormones (somatotropin) |
|
|
Term
| Insulin release is triggered by |
|
Definition
| hyperglycemia, GH, and cortisol |
|
|
Term
| which glucose transporter is on B islet cells? |
|
Definition
| GLUT-2, bidirectional, also found in liver, kidney, and entero-blood barrier of small intestine |
|
|
Term
| Diazoxide MOA, Clinical Use, Side Effects |
|
Definition
| Potassium Channel Agonist --> smooth muscle relaxation (hypertension) and inhibits insulin release (hyperglycemia, diabetes) |
|
|
Term
| Which glucose transporter is insulin responsive? |
|
Definition
| GLUT-4 skeletal and muscle, anabolic effects in these cells |
|
|
Term
| What enzyme converts glucose to sorbitol? What enzyme converts sorbitol to fructose? |
|
Definition
Aldose reducatase
Sorbitol dehydrogenase cells without sorbitol dehydrogenase- (Schwann cells, lens, retina, kidney)are susceptible to osmotic damage in diabetics |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for neuropathic pain in diabetics |
|
Definition
| Gabapentin, Pregabalin (also tx. for fibromyalgia) |
|
|
Term
| some differences between type I and type II diabetes |
|
Definition
type I- high insulin sensitivity (just can't get it), type II- low insulin sensitivity
type I- lymphocytic infiltrate, type II- amyloid deposit
Type I- ketoacidosis common, Type II- ketoacidosis rare
Type I- severe glucose intolerance, Type II- moderate to mild glucose intolerance |
|
|
Term
| Which tissues have aldolase reductase but lack sorbitol dehydrogenase? |
|
Definition
| kidneys, Schwann cells, lens and retina of the eye |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| almost always associated with excess glucagon, catecholamines, and corticosteroids <---common forms of stress (infection, severe medical illness, dehydration, drug abuse) |
|
|
Term
| Kimmelstiel- Wilson nodules |
|
Definition
| acellular nodules in the glomerulus due to acellular nodules |
|
|
Term
| why are type II diabetics less susceptible to DKA? |
|
Definition
| insulin present and it blocks lipolysis, no lipolysis no ketones, pancreas can burn out leading to severe DKA though |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| anion gap metabolic acidosis, leukocytosis, hyperkalemia but total body potassium and magnesium are very low |
|
|
Term
| When do you stop IV insulin in Type I DKA patients? |
|
Definition
| when the anion gap metabolic acidosis is cured, NOT JUST glucose levels |
|
|
Term
| Side effects of insulin secretion |
|
Definition
Type I diabetic patients
hypoglycemia, lipodystrophy, and weight gain. |
|
|
Term
| First generation sulfonylureas (names, MOA, clinical use, toxicities) |
|
Definition
tolbutamide, chlorpropamide
close B islet cell potassium channel
stimulates endogenous insulin release, so useless in type I DM
Disulfiram-like reactions |
|
|
Term
| Second generation sulfonylureas (name, action, use, toxicity) |
|
Definition
glyburide, glimepiride, glipizide
endogenous insulin release, useless in Type I
hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
| Metformin (site of action, use, toxicities and contraindications) |
|
Definition
liver and periphery (not pancreas) decreased gluconeogenesis in liver, increased glycolysis in all organs
used for late stage DM 2 (patients without islet function) PCOS, gestational diabetes
lactic acidosis
pts. w/ renal insufficiency (cleared through kidneys) and pts. receiving IV contrast |
|
|
Term
| Glitazones (names, action, use, toxicities) |
|
Definition
pioglitazone, rosiglitazone
increased insulin sensitivity by increasing action of PPAR transcription factor --> increased enzymes for glucose and lipid metabolism
Type 2 DM
weight, edema (esp w/ insulin injection), hepatotoxicity, heart failure (use with caution in CHF pts. --> MI) |
|
|
Term
| Sitagliptin and Saxagliptin |
|
Definition
| inhibitors of DPP IV, prolongs incretin actions --> decrease glucagon and increase insulin, delays gastric emptying |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| exenatide and liraglutide (AE- pancreatitis) |
|
|
Term
| What is normally secreted with insulin and decreases glucagon secretion and gastric emptying? |
|
Definition
| amylin (pramlintide is an amylin analogue) |
|
|
Term
Name that diabetic drug:
- lactic acidosis is a worrisome side effect, helps lower triglycerides and LDL cholesterol levles, hepatic serum transaminases should be monitored in pts. taking this drug, not associated with weight gain and is often used in overweight diabetics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name that diabetic drug: should not be used in patients with liver cirrhosis, elevated serum creatinine, or IBD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name that diabetic drug: not safe in settings of hepatic dysfunction or CHF, metabolized in liver, excellent choice in patients with renal disease, ALTs and ASTs need to be monitored for hepatotoxicity |
|
Definition
| Glitazones/ thiazolidinediones |
|
|
Term
| AChesterase inhibitors used to treat glaucoma |
|
Definition
| ectothiophate, physiostigmine |
|
|
Term
| Neostigmine is used to treat |
|
Definition
| ileus, urine retention, MG diagnosis and treatment (longer-acting than edrophonium, shorter than pyridostigmine) |
|
|
Term
| T or F both small and large intestine has Crypts and villi |
|
Definition
| False, large intestine has crypts but not villi, small intestine has both |
|
|
Term
| pH of gastric and colic mucosa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nateglinide, Repoglinide (use, action) |
|
Definition
Type 2 DM pts. with sulfa allergies
similar to sulfonylureas but bind to SUR-1 on B islet cells leading to ATP channel closure. More rapid, shorter duration |
|
|
Term
| where is folate absorbed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common symptoms of Whipple's disease? |
|
Definition
PAS macrophages in intestinal lamina propia, mesenteric nodes.
Arthralgias, cardiac and neurologic symptoms |
|
|
Term
| Major cause of intussuception in children |
|
Definition
| adenovirus bulks up Peyer's patches |
|
|
Term
| In addition to colon cancer, what is one of the most common causes of GI bleeding in the elderly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common causes of small bowel obstruction? |
|
Definition
| Adhesions, Bulge/Hernia, Cancer |
|
|
Term
| Total or subtotal atrophy fo the small bowel villi, plasma cells and lymphocyte infiltration in the lamina propia and epithelium, and hyperplasia/elongation of the crypts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does glucagon have on glycolysis? |
|
Definition
| In the fasting state, glucagon increases cAMP, which increases protein kinase A, which increases fructose bisphosphatase-1, decreases phosphofructokinase 2, decreased glycolysis so glucose can be put in blood |
|
|
Term
| Which enzyme converts glucose 6 phosphate to glucose? |
|
Definition
| Glucose 6 phosphatase, def. in Von Gierke's |
|
|
Term
| alpha 1,6 glucosidase def. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Necrosis seen in a recluse spider bite |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of heartburn in patients with CREST syndrome? |
|
Definition
| fibrous replacement of the muscularis --> esophageal dysmotility --> LES relaxation --> GERD |
|
|
Term
| Which hypercholesterolemia drug is used to increase HDL levels? |
|
Definition
| Niacin (also used for familial hypoalphalipoproteinemia- congenital low HDL) |
|
|
Term
| CO's affect on PaO2 and methemoglobinemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inheritance pattern in Hemophilia A and B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Side effect of bradycardia treatment |
|
Definition
| glaucoma (treatment for bradycardia is atropine) |
|
|
Term
| Why is acute intermittent porphyria intermittent? |
|
Definition
| As porphobilinogen and aminovulinic acid concentrations increase, they will cause feedback inhibition on the rate-limiting enzyme, ALA synthase |
|
|
Term
| The enzymes mutated in beta-thalassemia are responsible for which intracellular process? |
|
Definition
| transcription, processing, and translation of mRNA |
|
|
Term
| Will treatment of Strep Throat decrease the risk of developing rheumatic heart disease and glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
| No. Only rheumatic heart disease. Glomerulonephritis (Type III hypersensivity) will occur regardless of treatment. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the steps of base-excision repair |
|
Definition
| Glycosylases remove the defective base, and the corresponding sugar-phosphate is cleaved and removed by endonuclease, followed by the action of lyase. |
|
|
Term
| What are the "HYPER" problems caused by thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
| uricemia, calcemia, glycemia, lipidemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a neurological movement disorder characterized by sustained, involuntary muscle contractions, which force certain parts of the body into abnormal, sometimes painful, movements and postures |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| damage to the contralaterally subthalamic nucleus |
|
|
Term
| What structure is damaged in chronic noise-induced hearing loss? |
|
Definition
| the sensorineural cells in the Organ of Corti |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| mixed connective tissue disease |
|
|
Term
| Anti-glutamate decarboxylase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IgG antibodies seen in newborns |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common presentation of pts. w/ Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis |
|
Definition
| middle-aged male with a history of ulcerative colitis who presents with fatigue and elevated alkaline phosphatase |
|
|
Term
| Common presentation of pts. w/ primary biliary cirrhosis |
|
Definition
| middle-aged female with a long history of pruritis at night and fatigue who developed pale stool and xanthelasma |
|
|
Term
| Which structures are adjacent to the lateral ventricle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which structure is adjacent to the 3rd ventricle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which structure is in between the thalamus and the lentiform nucleus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which structure is directly caudal to the 3rd ventricle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the symptoms and mutation in xeroderma pigmentosum? |
|
Definition
pigmented dryskin, which manifests in the first year of life leading to skin atrophy and skin malignancies
autosomal recessive mutation in DNA excision repair |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of glycolytic enzyme def.? what is the result of a deficiency in pyruvate dehydrogenase? |
|
Definition
RBC hemolysis
Neurological defects |
|
|
Term
Negative HepBsAg
Positive HepBsAb
Positive HepBcAb |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Negative HepBsAg
Negative HepBsAb
Positive HepBcAb |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two compounds are used for the detection of NTDs in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| AFP and acetylcholinesterase |
|
|
Term
| What drug is used for drug-induced Parkinson's? |
|
Definition
| benztropine, dopamine agonists aren't used because they can precipitate psychosis symptoms |
|
|
Term
| what mechanism causes the symptoms in Fragile X symptom? |
|
Definition
| gene methylation of Fragile X syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Which structures descend through the popliteal fossa? |
|
Definition
| the tibial nerve, popiteal vein and artery |
|
|
Term
| Which muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot? |
|
Definition
| gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris muscles innervated by the tibial nerve |
|
|
Term
| What innervates the skin between the great toe and the second toe? What nerve innnervates the rest of the dorsum of the foot? |
|
Definition
deep peroneal nerve
superficial peroneal nerve |
|
|
Term
| What are the intracellular and extracellular potassium levels in DKA? |
|
Definition
| intracellular decreased, extracellular increased <-- via osmotic diuresis induced by glycosuria |
|
|
Term
| Describe the "on-off" phenomenom in advanced Parkinson's disease |
|
Definition
| an unpredictable, drug/dose-independent event in which the patient experiences a sudden loss of anti-Parkinsonian effects in otherwise successful levodopa treatment |
|
|
Term
| which histone is the only one located outside of the nucleosome core but still participates in nucleosome packaging? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are are Kayser-Fleischer rings identified? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or False: A symptom of fatty liver disease from alcoholism is portal hypertension. |
|
Definition
| False, fatty liver will not cause portal hypertension until it progresses to cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
| insulin growth factor is also called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the enzyme deficient in alkaptonuria? What is the key symptom in alkaptonuria? |
|
Definition
homogenisitc acid oxidase, which breaks down tyrosine to fumarate
ochronosis0 darkening of connective tissue, sclera, and urine, debilitating arthralgias (homogenistic acid is toxic to cartilage) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three ways homocystinuria can be caused? |
|
Definition
cystathionine synthase deficiency
decreased affinity for B6 on cystathionine
homocysteine methyltransferase (or B12) deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of homocystinuria? |
|
Definition
| mental retardation, osteoporosis, tall stature, kyphosis, lens subluxation (downward and inward), and atherosclerosis leading to early age stroke or MI |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause, main symptom and treatment for cystinuria? |
|
Definition
AR defect of renal tubular COLA amino acid transporter in the PCT
cystine staghorn calculi
acetazolamide is used to alkalinize the urine |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms and what substance causes the symptoms in MSUD? |
|
Definition
| increased a-ketoacids in blood --> CNS defects |
|
|
Term
| Hartnup disease (mutation and symptoms) |
|
Definition
AR mutation in neutral amino acid transport on renal and intestinal epithelial cells --> causes INCREASED tryptophan excretion (DECREASED reaborption) and DECREASED tryptophan absorption
leads to pellagra (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia) |
|
|
Term
| What is the DIRECT cause of pellagra? |
|
Definition
| niacin deficiency, could be due to tryptophan deficiency leads to niacin deficiency (Hartnup disease) |
|
|
Term
| deficiency in alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| growth & mental retardation, hyperactivity, musty odor, SEIZURES, ECZEMA, FAIR SKIN |
|
|
Term
| Drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics |
|
Definition
| phenytoin, ethanol, aspirin (PEA is round like a zero) |
|
|
Term
| Which weak acids are eliminated in the kidney? |
|
Definition
phenobarbital, methotrexate, and aspirin
overdose treated with bicarbonate |
|
|
Term
| What is a common weak base eliminated in the urine? |
|
Definition
amphetamines
treat overdose with ammonium chloride |
|
|
Term
| end result of Phase I metabolism in liver |
|
Definition
| drug usually still active |
|
|
Term
| end result of Phase I metabolism in liver |
|
Definition
| drug usually still active, or activates pro drug, phase I decreases in elderly |
|
|
Term
| end result of phase II metabolism in the liver |
|
Definition
| inactive renally excreted, also some patients are slow acetylators |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs can cause a disulfiram-like reaction? |
|
Definition
| metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, procarbazine, 1st generation sulfonylureas |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Quinidine, Barbituates, St. John's Wort, Phenytoin, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine, Chronic Alcohol Use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Macrolides, Amiodarone, Grapefruit juice, Isoniazid, Cimetidine, Ritonavir, Acute alcohol abuse, Ciprofloxacin, Ketoconazole, Sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
| what causes the brown color in brown pigmented gallstones? |
|
Definition
| infection in the biliary tract (E. Coli, A. lumbricoides, Opisthorchis sinesis) results in release of B-glucuronidase by injured hepatocytes and bacteria leading to hydrolysis of bilirubin glucuronides and increased amount of unconjugated bilirubin in bile (pigment) |
|
|
Term
| What enzymes converts cholesterol to bile acids? |
|
Definition
| 7a- hydroxylase. sufficient activity of this enzyme reduces the likelihood of cholesterol gallstone formation |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of digoxin toxicity |
|
Definition
| visual and abdominal disturbances, arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
| Where is the primary site that digoxin is stored in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What accounts for CMVs increased sensitivity to gancicylcovir? |
|
Definition
| differences in viral DNA structure |
|
|
Term
| what is a life-threatening symptom of appetite suppressants? |
|
Definition
| pulmonary hypertension, inadequate cardiac output and hypotension during exercise--> dizziness and fainting --> sudden death cor pulmonale |
|
|
Term
| What occurs when a ribosome encounters a stop codon? |
|
Definition
| releasing factors bind to ribosome and stimulates the release of the formed polypeptide chain and dissolution of the ribosome-mRNA complex. |
|
|
Term
| What is the binding site of transcription factor II D? |
|
Definition
| TATA box 25 bp upstream from gene's coding region |
|
|
Term
| What kidney abnormality results from internal hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
| acute tubular necrosis form hypoxia leading to oliguria, fluid overload, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis (no aldosterone activity) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the histology of acute tubular necrosis |
|
Definition
| light microscopy shows granular casts in the tubular lumen. flattening of tubular epithelial cells and tubular epithelial necrosis with denudation of the tubular basement membrane are also seen |
|
|
Term
| What is the rate-limiting step of gluconeogenesis? |
|
Definition
| fructose-1,6- bisphosphatase |
|
|
Term
| what cofactor drives kallikrien production? What are the effects of kallikrien? |
|
Definition
XIIa
activates plasmin and bradykinin production |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the effects of bradykinin on the body? |
|
Definition
| increased vascular permeability, increased vasodilation, pain |
|
|
Term
| Thrombocytopenia and hypercoagulability |
|
Definition
| Heparin induced throbocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for heparin induced thrombocytopenia |
|
Definition
| direct thrombin inhibitor, hirudin derivatives (lepirudin, bivalirudin), give warfarin until coagulation decreases |
|
|
Term
| treatment for heparin toxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| low molecular weight heparin, SubQ injection, binds Xa, longer half life, does not require monitoring |
|
|
Term
| In which patients are thrombolytics contraindicated? |
|
Definition
| patients with active bleeding, history of intracranial bleeding, recent surgery, known bleeding diatheses, or severe hypertension |
|
|
Term
| Explain the pathogenesis of Henoch Schonlein purpura |
|
Definition
| increased IgAs in the renal mesangium activates complement and leads to inflammation. Manifests cutaneously as leukoctoclastic vasculitis. increased serum IgA and immunocomplexes |
|
|
Term
| Describe rash in meningococcemia |
|
Definition
| starts in trunk and legs and spreads throughout the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| activation of GP Ib-IX receptors on platelets and makes them available for vWF binding |
|
|
Term
| Is PTT unchanged or prolonged in von Willebrand's disease? |
|
Definition
| It is prolonged vWF binds factor VIII and increases its half-life to 12 hours (w/o 2) |
|
|
Term
| What substance stimulates vWF release from Palade-Wiebl bodies in the endothelium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Glanzmann throbasthenia (mutation and lab testing) |
|
Definition
GP IIb-IIIa deficiency
increased bleeding time, normal platelet aggregation response to ristocetin, decreased platelet aggregation response to ADP |
|
|
Term
| Aspirin's effect on platelets |
|
Definition
| decreased platelet adhesion and aggregation due to deficiency in TxA2 |
|
|
Term
| Pressure atrophy is commonly associated with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| differences between colitis-induced and sporadic CRC |
|
Definition
| colitis-induced: affects younger patients, progress from non-polypoid lesions, have signet ring/mucinous morphology, develop p53 mutations followed by APC mutations (reversed in sporadic), distributed within proximal colon, multifocal in nature, higher histological grade |
|
|
Term
| Effects of improper descent of the hindgut |
|
Definition
| horseshoe kidney, anal agensis or imperforate anus |
|
|
Term
| effects of abnormal midgut rotation |
|
Definition
| intestine is fixed by fibrous adhesion bands that can cause intestinal obstruction |
|
|
Term
| When do alcohol withdrawal symptoms typically start? |
|
Definition
| 8-12 hours with insomnia, tremors, autonomic hyperactivity can lead to delirium tremens (seizures and hallucinations) on the third day |
|
|
Term
| baclofen (mechanism and clinical use) |
|
Definition
GABAb agonist
spastic conditions |
|
|
Term
| Why are anti-psychotics (phenothiazines and butyrophenones) contraindicated in pts. with alcohol withdrawal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ovoid or spherical hyaline masses are found in the glomerular mesangium of patients with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which diseases are associated with target cells? |
|
Definition
| HbC disease, Asplenia, Liver disease, Thalassemia ("THAL-) |
|
|
Term
| what allows RBCs to change shape as they pass through vessels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute intermittent porphyria (affected enzyme, accumulated substances, presenting symptoms and treatment) |
|
Definition
AD mutation in prophobilinogen deaminase
porphobilinogen, S-ALA, uroporphyrin( red wine-colored urine)
neuro defects precipitated by drugs
treat with glucose and heme which inhibit S-ALA synthase (rate-limiting step) |
|
|
Term
| Porphyria cutanea tarda (enzyme affected, accumulated substances, presenting symptoms and common associations) |
|
Definition
uroporphyrinogne decarboxylase
uroporphyrin (tea-colored urine- pink under Wood's lamp)
blistering cutaneous photosensitivity
HepC, hypertrichonosis, alcoholism |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common porphyria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which enzymes are inhibited in lead poisoning? What else does it inhibit? What are the symptoms of lead poisoning? What is the treatment for lead poisoning in adults and children? |
|
Definition
ferrochelatase and ALA DEHYRDRATASE
rRNA degradation
Lead lines in gingivae (Bruton's lines) and on epiphyses of long bones on x-ray (in children), encephalopathy, and Erythrocyte basophilic stippling, Abdominal colic and sideroblastic anemia, wrist and foot drop neuropathies
adults- dimercaprol and EDTA
children- succimmer |
|
|
Term
| What is the mutation in hereditary sideroblastic anemia? What are the lab results? What is the treatment? |
|
Definition
X-linked defect in S-aminolevulinic acid synthase gene
increased iron, normal TIBC, and increased ferritin
pyroxidine |
|
|
Term
| Which cancers are associated with polycythemia vera? |
|
Definition
| hepatocellular carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma, pheochromocytoma |
|
|
Term
| What are some non-cancerous causes of polycythemia? |
|
Definition
| Down syndrome and vera, COPD and obstructive sleep apnea |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of low calcium and high protein diets on calcium stone formation? |
|
Definition
| increased risk due to increased bone reabsorption, low protein diets are recommended, high protein diets increase acid load which increases bone resorption |
|
|
Term
| Which vitamin decreases endogenous oxalate production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common paramyxoviridae illnesses in infants and children |
|
Definition
| croup, bronchiolitis (RSV), mumps and measles |
|
|
Term
| what is the medically important arenavirus? |
|
Definition
| lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus- meningoencephalitis, transmitted by infected rodents, not person-to-person |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| poxvirus, more common in children, flesh-colored papules with an umbilicated center that typically contains white, curdlike material found in anogenital areas and trunk |
|
|
Term
| Councilman bodies are associated with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for minimal change disease |
|
Definition
| rapid response to corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
| Oval fat bodies in the urine are associated with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumors are usually radiosensitive? |
|
Definition
| high grade tumors, rapidly dividing |
|
|
Term
| antiphosholipid antibody syndrome |
|
Definition
common immune cause of hypercoaguability
lupus or anticardiolipin antibodies plus venous/arterial thromboembolism or frequent spontaneous abortions
typically associated with aPTT prolongation |
|
|
Term
| Folic acid deficiency causes |
|
Definition
| hyperhomocysteinemia which is a prothrombotic state |
|
|
Term
| somatostatin release is stimulated by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a heat stable toxin composed of: O antigen, core polysaccharide, and Lipid A (toxic component) |
|
|
Term
| where are the interferon proteins produced |
|
Definition
| gamma just T and NK cells, but a and B are made in many cell types |
|
|
Term
| Orotic aciduria (mutation, symptoms, treatment) |
|
Definition
AR mutation in either orotic acid phosphoribosyltransferase or orotidine 5-phosphate decarboxylase
megaloblastic anemia which can't be reversed with B12 and/or folate supplementation, failure to thrive, no hyperammonemia (as seen in ornitine transcarbamoylase def.)
oral uridine administration bypasses faulty step in pathway |
|
|
Term
| What drug inhibits ribonucleotide reductase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug inhibits thymidylate synthase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug inhibits dihydrofolate synthase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug inhibits the conversion of ribose 5-P to PRPP in de novo purine synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the rate-limiting step of purine synthesis? |
|
Definition
| glutamine PRPP aminotransferase |
|
|
Term
| Prokaryotic DNA polymerase which has 5' -->3' synthesis and a 3' --> 5' proofreading exonuclease and elongates the leading strand and lagging strand by adding deoxynucleotides to the 3' end |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prokaryotic DNA polymerase which degrades the RNA primer and fills in the gap with DNA in a 5' --> 3' direction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which eukaryotic DNA polymerase elongates the leading strand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which eukaryotic DNA polymerase elongates the lagging strand and synthesizes RNA primers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which DNA polymerase acts on mitochondrial DNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which DNA polymerase repairs DNA in eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the lab values in Ataxia Telangiectasia? |
|
Definition
| increased AFP in a child over 8 months of age |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism and symptoms of iron poisoning? |
|
Definition
cell death due to peroxidation of membrane lipids
acute- gastric bleeding, days later metabolic acidosis, weeks later- scarring leads to GI obstruction |
|
|
Term
Name the following cause of anemia:
a. Microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling
b. HIV positive patient with macrocytic anemia
c. normocytic anemia with red urine in the morning
d. normocytic anemia and elevated creatinine |
|
Definition
a. lead poisoning
b. zivudine
c. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
d. chronic kidney disease (due to decreased EPO) |
|
|
Term
| If two studies have similar results in terms of relative risk but reached disparate conclusions due to different p values, the most likely explanation for this difference is |
|
Definition
different sample size
small sample size makes a study underpowered |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| selecting hospital patients as the control croup |
|
|
Term
| The power of a study increases proportionally with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased unconjugated bilirubin is suggestive of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which medication used in treatment of HIV is known for causing bone marrow suppression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anemias are associated with aplastic anemia with B19? |
|
Definition
| sickle cell and hereditary spherocytosis |
|
|
Term
| Cure for hereditary spherocytosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name two causes of MACROangiopathic hemolytic anemia |
|
Definition
| prosthetic heart valves and aortic stenosis |
|
|
Term
| An 11 year old child presents with a chronic non-healing ulcer on his foot and imaging shows a small calcified spleen. What drug can improve his symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anemias display basophillic stippling? |
|
Definition
| thalassemia, anemia of chronic disease, iron deficiency anemia, lead poisoning |
|
|
Term
| The diepoxybutane (alkylating agent) test is used to find which abnormality |
|
Definition
| Fanconi's anemia (DNA repair defect) |
|
|
Term
| Describe procelain gallbladder |
|
Definition
| describes a bluish, brittle calcium laden gallbladder wall that develops in patients with chronic cholecystitis. Cholecystectomy is recommended because there is a high risk of gallbladder cancer. |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the effects of cricopharyngeal muscle dysfunction |
|
Definition
| cricopharyngeal muscle dysfunction is characterized by difficulty swallowing felt at the throat, nasal regurg, food aspiration may lead to pneumonia. Pharyngeal muscles are relied upon greater and increased intraluminal pressure can cause a herniation through the posterior hypopharynx--Zencker's with food regurgitation days after the meal |
|
|
Term
| scarring and traction in the esophagus results from |
|
Definition
| true diverticula associated with medistinal lymphadenitis |
|
|
Term
| foot drop is associated with pathology of which nerve |
|
Definition
| common peroneal, blunt trauma to the lateral leg superficial peroneal is only involved in eversion and sensory to the dorsal foot and distal anterior leg. presents with equinovarus- plantar flexed and inverted |
|
|
Term
| which muscles mediate foot eversion? |
|
Definition
| peroneus longus and brevis <--foot eversion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| purely sensory nerve that supplies the posterolateral leg and lateral foot |
|
|
Term
| Gross appearance of acute interstitial nephritis |
|
Definition
| grossly normal in shape and size |
|
|
Term
| Common and less common side effects of loop diuretics |
|
Definition
common- hypokalema, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia
less common- volume depletion, hyponatremia, decreased GFR, hypotension, ototoxicity(ethacryanic acid has the greatest risk) |
|
|
Term
| Cl channel duration or frequency: barbituates and benzodiazepines |
|
Definition
| barbituates-duration, benzodiazepines- frequency |
|
|
Term
| A lesion to a mainstem bronchus will lead to a radiograph displaying |
|
Definition
| opacified hemothorax and tracheal deviation away from the opacified side |
|
|
Term
| light microscopy in lactase deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lab values indicate the poorest prognosis in liver failure |
|
Definition
| hypoalbuminemia and prolonged PT- suggest a loss of the synthetic function of the liver |
|
|
Term
| Coagulative necrosis begins _____ hours after the onset of myocardial ischemia |
|
Definition
| 4- characterized by edema, hemorrhage, and wavy fibers |
|
|
Term
| Predominant light microscopy changes 4-12 hours after myocardial ischemi |
|
Definition
| coagulation necrosis and marginal contraction band necrosis |
|
|
Term
| Name three risk factors for endometrial cancer |
|
Definition
| nulliparity, early menarche and obesity. all caused increased estrogen stimulation of the endometrium |
|
|
Term
| most important risk factor for HPV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria produce a very narrow zone of beta hemolysis on sheep blood agar? |
|
Definition
| Listeria and Groups A and B Streptococcus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
decreased platelet count, increased bleeding time
defect in GP Ib- can't be bound to collagen by vWF |
|
|
Term
| Antibodies in idiopathic thrombocytopenix purpura |
|
Definition
anti-GpIIb/IIIa
increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow biopsy |
|
|
Term
| What is the life span of platelet (which is also the maximum life of platelets after a transfusion)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coagulability lab values in aspirin therapy |
|
Definition
| increased BT, normal PT and PTT (not affecting coagulation factors) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| irreversibly blocks ADP receptors |
|
|
Term
| Abciximab, tirofiban, eptibatide |
|
Definition
antibodies against GpIIb/IIIa on activated platelets; prevents aggregation
first line in acute coronary syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of streptokinase? |
|
Definition
| aids in conversion from plasminogen to plasmin. which cleaves fibrin and thrombin clots |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits factor Xa (enoxaparin is a LMWH that is MORE ACTIVE at activating ATIII against factor Xa) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| originates at L1 and L2 and courses along the psoas muscle, it innervates the scrotum/labia majora(genital branch) and cutaneously innervates the femoral triangle (femoral branch) |
|
|
Term
| Lymphatics from the glans penis and the clitoris drain into |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The external iliac nodes drain the |
|
Definition
| superficial and deep inguinal nodes and the deep lymphatics of the abdominal wall below the umbilicus |
|
|
Term
| The peg cells in the fallopian tubes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In females LH and FSH act at which cells respectively? |
|
Definition
LH- theca cells --> androgens
FSH- granulosa cells ->estradiol |
|
|
Term
| Define uniparental disomy |
|
Definition
| when child receives two copies of a chromosome from one parent and zero from the other |
|
|
Term
| When is the prevalence odds ratio used? |
|
Definition
| cross-sectional studies to compare prevalence in DIFFERENT populations |
|
|
Term
| What causes the rupture of the dominant ovarian follicle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What neoplasms are associated with HIV? |
|
Definition
| Primary CNS lymphoma, Kaposi sarcoma, Invasive Squamous cell carcinoma, Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of marginal cell lymphoma (lymphoma due to lymphocyte accumulation outside of immune tissue)? |
|
Definition
| Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Sjorgen's syndrome of the salivary gland, chronic gastritis (H.pylori) |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of the leukemoid reaction (increased WBCs, 80% neutrophils, 5-10% immature band forms)? |
|
Definition
| infection and stress, heat stroke, Down Syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot, Solid tumor paraneoplastic malignancy |
|
|
Term
| Describe Hodgkin's Lymphoma |
|
Definition
| one type of cell, extranodal involvement is rare (always continguous), mediatinal involvement common, TB-like symptoms, half are associated with EBV, bimodal age distribution, M>F, prognosis reflects number of Reed Sternberg cells |
|
|
Term
| describe nodular sclerosing lymphoma |
|
Definition
| Hodgkin's lymphoma, low RS/normal ratio, excellent prognosis, young adults, men=women |
|
|
Term
| Burkitt's lymphoma: type of lymphoma. What are the 'stars' in the 'starry sky'? |
|
Definition
NHL
macrophages ingesting tumor cells |
|
|
Term
| Where in the body does the sporadic form of Burkitt's lymphoma manifest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of NHL in adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the genetics in mantle cell lymphoma |
|
Definition
| t(11:14) --> rapid deactivation of cyclin D regulatory gene --> increased cyclin D |
|
|
Term
| what is the lymphoma equivalent of CLL? |
|
Definition
| Small lymphocytic lymphoma (different locations) |
|
|
Term
| Most common type of lymphoma in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ALL (epidemiology, symptoms, lab values) |
|
Definition
male, white, children
bone pain is common
TdT - immature lymphoblast marker, PAS positive, difficult to blood smear |
|
|
Term
| AML (epidemiology, lab values) |
|
Definition
mid-life with the same risk factors as aplastic anemia (especially cancer treatments)
PAS (-), auer rods which can cause DIC upon lysis, positive for some myeloid esterase, CD13/33 |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of Chronic Leukemias seen on Physical Exam |
|
Definition
| Lymphadenopathy and Splenomegaly |
|
|
Term
| CLL (epidemiology, lab values, prognosis) |
|
Definition
older white males in the western world (most common)
95% have B cell markers, smudge cells, AIH anemia (cold and warm)
10% will progress to ALL, tends to be indolent and is only monitored in older pts. |
|
|
Term
| CML (epidemiology, lab values, prognosis) |
|
Definition
adults 25-60
numerous basophils are LAP (-), precursors but not blasts predominate, bleeding tendency
Strong chance of progressing to AML 80% or ALL 20% |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of Multiple Myeloma |
|
Definition
| Hypercalcemia (cytokines increase osteoclast activity), Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lytic lesions/Back Pain |
|
|
Term
| Describe Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia |
|
Definition
| M spike= increased IgM -->hyperviscosity symptoms, amyloidosis, no lytic bone lesions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
8:21 associated with Down Syndrome
CD41 and CD61 (+), only AML that is CD13/33 (-)
Most common neonatal leukemia |
|
|
Term
| Describe the histology of Granulosa cell tumors |
|
Definition
| unilateral with lipid content, small, cuboidal cells that grow in cords or sheets, Call-Exner bodies- small, glandlike structures that contain an acidophilic material, suggestive of immature ovarian follicles. thecomas are similar but are benign |
|
|
Term
| Extraneoplastic symptoms of Granulosa cell tumors |
|
Definition
| precocious puberty, fibrocystic breast changes, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms and Lab values of Klinefelter's syndrome |
|
Definition
long legs, small penis and testes, and absence of male secondary sex characteristics, gynecomastia, and decreased IQ
47 XXY, elevation of FSH and estradiol, reduced testosterone, estrogen:testosterone ratio determines the extent of feminization |
|
|
Term
| What is pseudomyxoma peritonei? |
|
Definition
| a condition where the peritoneal cavity fills with mucin due to widespread intraperitoneal metastasis- associated with mucinous cystadenocarcinoma progression |
|
|
Term
| Dysgerminomas (epidemiology and differentiating characteristics) |
|
Definition
ovarian equivalent to testicular seminoma, most common in younger women 10-30
does not secrete estrogen |
|
|
Term
| Which germ cell tumor secretes excess thyroid hormone? |
|
Definition
| Teratoma (the most common germ cell tumor) |
|
|
Term
| The withdraw of progesterone causes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complex atypical hyperplasia of endometrium is associated with |
|
Definition
| prolonged exposure to estrogen without opposing progesterone, seen in obese women on HRT |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| increased FSH secretion due to no negative feedback |
|
|
Term
| A human fetus with 46 XY genotype has testes with normally functioning Leydig cels but total absence of Sertoli cells. Which of the following phenotypes is most likely to develop? |
|
Definition
| Both male and female internal genitalia and male external genitalia (MIF is not produced, but Testosterone (epididymus and vas deferens) and DHT are still made by Leydig cells) |
|
|
Term
| For which type of leprosy is the lepromin skin test positive? |
|
Definition
| tuberculoid leprosy ( lepromatous leprosy is negative because of a weak cell-mediated response Th2) |
|
|
Term
| Absence of melanocytes in the skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Melanocytes fail to produce melanin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reduced transfer of melanin to keratinocytes, redistribution of existing melanin within the skin |
|
Definition
| postinflammatory hypopigmentation |
|
|
Term
| Increased melanosome aggregates within the melanocyte cytoplasm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hyperplasia of stratum corneum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| abnormal retention of nuclei in the stratum corneum |
|
|
Term
| What gene mutation is found in 40-60% of patients with melanoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Genetic mutation in Glioblastoma |
|
Definition
| overexpression of growth factors |
|
|
Term
| Genetic mutation in Glioblastoma |
|
Definition
| overexpression of growth factors |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for dermatitis herpetiformis |
|
Definition
| gluten-free diet and dapsone |
|
|
Term
| Where is metastatic breast cancer most likely to travel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary histologic finding in patients with eczematous dermatitis? |
|
Definition
| spongiosis- epidermal accumulation of edematous fluid in intercellular spaces |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an increase in thickness of the stratum spinosum, commonly associated with psoriasis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| excessive granulation in the stratum granulosum of the epidermis, seen in lichen planus |
|
|
Term
| Histologic finding in shingles |
|
Definition
| multinucleated inclusion-bearing giant cells, acantholysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| loss of intercellular connections in stratum spinosum |
|
|
Term
| Histologic findings in warts |
|
Definition
| cytoplasmic vacuoles in keratinocytes and hyperplasia of the epidermis |
|
|
Term
| Vitamin deficiency characterized by dermatitis, cheliosis, glossitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the light reflex pathway |
|
Definition
| optic nerve --> ipsilateral pretectal nucleus, located in the superior colliculus-->ipsilateral and contralateral Edinger-Westphal nuclei (reaches contralateral through posterior commissure) --> ciliary ganglion --> sphincter of the iris |
|
|
Term
| What is prescribed to prevent recurrent calcium stones in adults when dietary modifications are unsuccessful? |
|
Definition
| citrate- citrate binding free ionized calcium |
|
|
Term
| What is the pH required for the formation of uric acid and cystine stones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the structural genes of the lac operon? |
|
Definition
| B galactosidase, galactoside permease, B galactoside transacetylase |
|
|
Term
| Histology shows flask-shaped ulcer if submucosal abscess of colon ruptures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency: where is the misfolded gene found?, what type of inheritance is it? |
|
Definition
proteins found in ER
codominant mutation |
|
|
Term
| Hepatic Adenoma: Risk factors, symptoms |
|
Definition
OCP use, anabolic steroids, Von Gierke's and Cori's
RUQ pain is possible but usually asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for Hepatic Angiosarcoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| yellowing of skin without scleral icterus |
|
Definition
| carotemia- excess carotene, can't have jaundice without icterus |
|
|
Term
| Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis (prognosis, diagnosis, treament) |
|
Definition
can progress to cirrhosis, lead to hepatocellular carcinoma, worsen Hep C progression
Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy is the gold standard
Lifestyle modifications, TZDs, possibly metformin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| alters fat metabolism by inhibiting pancreatic lipases |
|
|
Term
| Sibutramine (MOA and contraindications) |
|
Definition
sympathomimetic serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
avoid SSRIs and MAOIs, contraindicated in CAD, cerebrovascular disease, CHF, arrhythmia |
|
|
Term
| S3 ventricular gallop reflects |
|
Definition
| an increased rate of filling of the LV during middiastole. Therefore it reflects the volume of regurgitant flow recycled back during diastole. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| that the LV is reaching its limit of LV compliance during the end of diastole |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of lithium toxicity? Which drugs can lead to increased lithium levels? |
|
Definition
neuromuscular excitability, irregular course tremors, fascicular twitching, agitation, ataxia, and delirium
thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and NSAIDs. Lithium levels are increased with HCTZ the same way calcium is. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for lithium toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cardinal manifestation in Von Gierke's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood lactate levels are low after exercise |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
COMT inhibitors
blocks peripheral methylation and degradation of levodopa, allowing more to reach the brain. Tolcapone is another COMT inhibitor but unlike entacopone, tolcapone is associated with hepatotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| Amantidine's use in Parkinson's treatment |
|
Definition
| enhances the endogenous effect of dopamine, believed to by increasing synthesis, release, and re-uptake |
|
|
Term
| Name 4 dopamine agonists used in Parkinson's treatment |
|
Definition
| bromocriptine, pergolide, pramipexole, ropinerole |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| central MAO-B inhibitor- neuroprotective, used in Parkinson's tx. |
|
|
Term
| Use of trihexyphenidyl and benztropine |
|
Definition
| inhibit central muscarinic receptors, used for drug-induced Parkinson's and in patients with tremor as the predominant symptom also respond well |
|
|
Term
| Clinical manifestation of right-sided (ascending colon) colon cancers |
|
Definition
| exophytic mass, no intestinal obstruction, symptoms of iron def. anemia, anorexia, malaise and weight loss |
|
|
Term
| Clinical manifestations of left-sided (descending colon) colon cancer |
|
Definition
| infiltrative, partial intestinal obstruction resulting in change in stool caliber, constipation, cramping, abdominal pain, abdominal distention, nausea, and vomiting |
|
|
Term
| Difference in symptoms between brachiocephalic and superior vena cava obstruction |
|
Definition
| brachiocephalic involves only one side of the face neck chest and arms. the right brachiocephalic also drains the right lympatic duct, which drains lymph from the right upper extremity, the right face and neck, the right hemithorax, and the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| monosodium urate crystals |
|
|
Term
| Deposits in calcific tendonitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe histologic findings in lung hamartomas |
|
Definition
| solitary lung nodule with popcorn calcifications, most common benign lung tumor. Lung is the most common location for hamartomas. Contain islands of mature hyaline cartilage, fat, smooth muscle and clefts lined by respiratory epithelium. Hamartomas are composed of cartilage, fibrous and adipose tissue. |
|
|
Term
| Bronchioalveolar carcinoma description |
|
Definition
| variant of adenocarcinoma, found in lung periphery, distributes along alveolar septae without vascular or stromal invasion, appears as a peripheral mass or as a pneumonia-like consolidation |
|
|
Term
| How does HCTZ cause hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis? |
|
Definition
| intravascular volume depletion, stimulates aldosterone release... |
|
|
Term
| How does HCTZ causes hyperuricemia? |
|
Definition
| hypovolemia stimulates uric acid reabsorption in the PROXIMAL TUBULE. |
|
|
Term
| How do thiazides cause hyperlipidemia? |
|
Definition
| By increasing plasma cholesterol and LDL |
|
|
Term
| How do thiazides cause hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
| decreased insulin secretion and glucose uptake by the tissue, may cause impaired carbohydrate tolerance |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for idiopathic hypercalciuria and recurrent calcium stone nephrolithiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Symptoms associated with HYPOnatremia |
|
Definition
| neurologic (altered mental status, seizures, etc.) |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of Hypophosphatemia (commonly seen in alcoholics) |
|
Definition
| muscle weakness and paralysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| eggshell calcification of hilar nodes and birefringent silica particles surrounded by fibrous tissue |
|
|
Term
| Histologic finding of berylliosis |
|
Definition
| non-caseating granuloma with or without hilar adenopathy, indistinguishable from sarcoidosis without obvious associated particles |
|
|
Term
| An ascending aortic aneurysm is often associated with what valvular abnormality |
|
Definition
| aortic regurgitation, dilated aortic valve root |
|
|
Term
| True or False: cancer cells have high telomerase activity. |
|
Definition
| Mostly false. Cancer cells are immortal because these cells continue to divide without aging and shortening of their telomeres. |
|
|
Term
| Postauricular lympadenopathy is associated with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for traveler's diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MOA of nystatin and amphotericin B |
|
Definition
| polyene antifungal which binds to ergosterol molecules causing pores in the fungal cell membrane |
|
|
Term
| Why is nystatin not used for systemic fungal infections? |
|
Definition
| it is not absorbed from the GI tract |
|
|
Term
| Lysozyme: what is it? how does it work? |
|
Definition
antimicrobial enzyme found in secretions and neutrophils
it hydrolyzes bonds in the peptidoglycan cell wall |
|
|
Term
| In which hypersensitivity reaction is TNF-a elevated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tabes dorsalis physical examination |
|
Definition
| loss of vibratory and position sensing (esp at night w/ loss of visual cues) involvement of the dorsal roots cause loss of pain sensation, paresthesias, and painful crises. areflexia and loss of bladder function can also occur. Argyll Robertson pupil and positive Romberg sign are found |
|
|
Term
| Erythema nodosum is associated with |
|
Definition
| S. pyogenes, S aureus, coccidiodomycosis, histoplasmosis, and blastomycosis, chlamydia, crohn's, sarcoidosis, and others |
|
|
Term
| Anterior uveitis (inflammation of the iris) is associated with |
|
Definition
| Herpes viruses, syphilis and Lyme disease HLA B27 related diseases and sarcoidosis |
|
|
Term
| How does macrosomia develop in an infant born from a diabetic mother? |
|
Definition
| hyperinsulinemia results in increased fat deposition and enhanced fetal growth |
|
|
Term
| Birth defects in children born of a mother with poorly controlled diabetes |
|
Definition
| macrosomia, caudal regression syndrome, neural tube defects, ventricular septal defect, transposition of blood vessels, rectal atresia, and renal agenesis. |
|
|
Term
| What keeps a fetus euthyroid? |
|
Definition
| maternal thyroid hormones, TSH tests must be performed to test whether the infant is hypothyroid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| localized pleural thickening with calcification, particularly of the parietal pleura of the posterolateral mid-lung zones of the diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| Where is coal worker's pneumoconiosis normally found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cell marker suggests a good prognosis in ALL? |
|
Definition
| blasts cells positive for CD10 CALLA antigen |
|
|
Term
| resistance to tetracyclines and sulfonamides is due to |
|
Definition
| decreased uptake and/or increased efflux |
|
|
Term
| Ras overexpression is seen in cancers involving which organs |
|
Definition
| pancreatic, gallbladder, colon, endometrial, thyroid, lung |
|
|
Term
| Describe ventricular remodeling after an MI |
|
Definition
| infarcted region is fibrosed and thinned, dysfunction leads to volume overload, the remaining viable myocardium is hypertrophied as compensation --> dilated ventricular hypertrophy (contrasted with concentric ventricular hypertrophy due to pressure overload seen in pts with longstanding hypertension) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the structural cardiac changes seen due to aging |
|
Definition
| predominantly a shortening in teh apex-to-base dimension accompanied by leftward bowing of teh lower interventricular septum (sigmoid septum) |
|
|
Term
| How does cholelithiasis progress to acute calculous cholecystitis? |
|
Definition
| stones disrupt the protective mucus layer, leaving the epithelium exposed to the detergent action of the bile salts. prostaglandins released in the gallbladder wall further incite inflammation of the mucosa and deeper tissues, and gallbladder hypomotility ensues. The increasing distention and internal pressure within the gallbladder eventually result in ischemia. FINALLY, bacteria invade the injured and necrotic tissue, causing an infection, cholecystitis |
|
|
Term
| Clinical triad of fat embolism syndrome |
|
Definition
acute-onset neurologic abnormalities, hypoxemia, and a petechial rash
hypoxemia- PE, neurologic abnormalities- precapillary AV shunts opened due to increased pulmonary pressure, petechial rash due to platelet adherence to fat globules |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Valsalva maneuver |
|
Definition
| carotid massage or Valsalva maneuver increase sensation from vagal baroreceptors --> increased vagal stimulation of the heart --> increased refractory period in the AV node, adenosine is recommended if Valsalva maneuver fails |
|
|
Term
| Hip flexor that lies over the iliac fossa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the innervation and function of the gluteus minimus and medius muscles? |
|
Definition
Superior gluteal nerve, prevents the contralateral side of the pelvis from dipping when that leg is elevated off the ground (so dip in the right means left muscles and nerve are affected)
Trendelenburg sign |
|
|
Term
| Innervation and action of the gluteus maximus muscle |
|
Definition
inferior gluteal nerve
major extensor of the thigh at the hip |
|
|
Term
| Which cancers are found above and below the pectinate line? |
|
Definition
above- adenocarcinoma
below- squamous cell carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| Describe the similarities shared by enterobacteriaceae |
|
Definition
| all species have a somatic O antigen on their endotoxin, K capsule related to virulence, H antigen related to motility, glucose fermenters, oxidase negative |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gram negative bacteria UTI, better indicator than leukocyte esterase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| PABA antimetabolite, inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase, inhibits folic acid synthesis, bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
| What drugs cause photosensitivity? |
|
Definition
SAT for a photo
Sulfonamides
Amiodarone
Tetracyclines |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of sulfonamide toxicity? |
|
Definition
| nephrotoxicity (tubulointerstitial nephritis), photosensitivity, kernicterus in infants, displacement of other drugs from albumin (like warfarin) |
|
|
Term
| Drugs associated with sulfa allergies |
|
Definition
| sulfonamides, celecoxib, furosemide, probenecid, thiazides, TMP-SMX, sulfasalazine, sulfonylureas, acetazolamide |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause Steven-Johnson Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Penicillins, Sulfa drugs, Seizure drugs, Allopurinol |
|
|
Term
| Trimethoprim, pyrimethamine: MOA and toxicity |
|
Definition
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, bacteriostatic
megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia--all are alleviated with folinic acid (leucovorin) supplementation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bacteriocidal, reduced by bacteria to reactive metabolite against ribosomes
UTI cystitis (not pyelonephritis) by E. Coli or Staph Saprophyticus (not Proteus), safe in pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| treatment for vancomycin resistant |
|
Definition
| linezolid and streptogramins (quinupristin/dalfopristin) |
|
|
Term
| Why are fluoroquinolones contraindicated in pregnancy and children? |
|
Definition
| damage to cartilage, only used in children with cystic fibrosis |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the immune system's response to Salmonella infections and treatment considerations |
|
Definition
monocytic response
antibiotics may prolong carrier state in GI tract infection |
|
|
Term
| Discuss symptoms and prognosis of Salmonella typhi infection |
|
Definition
found only in humans, fever, diarrhea, rose spots on abdomen
has potential to remain in gallbladder and cause a carrier state |
|
|
Term
| Shigella flexneri is associated with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Discuss Yersinia enterocolitica |
|
Definition
| common in day care centers, causes mesenteric adenitis which mimics Crohn's disease or appendicitis |
|
|
Term
| classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis |
|
Definition
| chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcification |
|
|
Term
| Key difference between falciparum and vivax |
|
Definition
vivax/ovale - dormant in liver- need primaquine
falciparum- occlusion in cerebrum- coma, kidneys- renal failure, lungs- pulmonary edema |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of Trichinella spiralis |
|
Definition
| myositis and periorbital edema |
|
|
Term
| bilateral acoustic schwannoma |
|
Definition
| NF2, cerebrellarpontine angle |
|
|
Term
| Cranial nerve responsible for eyelid opening |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| anticancer drug that prevents breast cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drug inhibits ribonucleotide reductase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the rate limiting step in purine synthesis? |
|
Definition
| glutamine PRPP aminotransferase |
|
|
Term
Which structures perforate the diaphragm at these levels:
at T8: IVC
at T10: esophagus, vagus
at T12: aorta, thoracic duct, azygous vein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of Salmeterol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antidote for methylxanthine toxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cyproheptadine (Drug Type, Use) |
|
Definition
| Antihistanime, appetite stimulant |
|
|
Term
| Promethazine (Drug Type, Use) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chlorpheniramine (Drug Type, Use) |
|
Definition
| Antihistamine, OTC allergy/cold |
|
|
Term
| Hydroxyzine (Drug Type, Use) |
|
Definition
| Antihistamine, sedation, itching |
|
|
Term
| Meclizine (Drug Type, Use) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lung lobes does abestosis infect? |
|
Definition
| lower lobes, the other pneumoconioses affect upper lobes |
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of pneumonia in COPD exacerbation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of pneumonia in neonates |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of pneumonia in children between 1 month and 1 year |
|
Definition
| RSV, most common viral cause |
|
|
Term
| What pneumonia stains with silver stain but not with Gram Stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the infectious agent in an 80 year old man with pneumonia of Gram negative rods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Location of exotoxin genes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heat stability of exotoxin compared to endotoxins |
|
Definition
destroyed rapidly at 60 C except staph. enterotoxin
endotoxin- stable at 100 C for one hour |
|
|
Term
| What encodes the diphteria toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Compare Actinomyces with Nocardia |
|
Definition
Nocardia is aerobic and acid fast
Actinomyces is anaerobic and not acid fast |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nocardia, Pseudomonas, TB, Bacillus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
sulfa- nocardia
actinomyces- penicillin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hypersensitivity, rash with mononucleosis, pseudomembranous colitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Empiric treatment for neonatal infection |
|
Definition
| ampicillin with gentamicin |
|
|
Term
| Which side of the brain is associated with creativity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cephalosporin: bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella
1st generation cephalosporin + gram positives |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
H. influenzae, Enterobacter aerogenes, Neisseria, Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella, Serratia
2nd generation cephalosporin |
|
|
Term
| LAME: bacteria not covered by cephalosporins |
|
Definition
| Listeria, Atypical pneumonias, MRSA, Enterococci |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cross Hypersensitivity, disulfiram reaction with ehtanol, nephrotoxicity with aminoglycosides, vitamin K def. |
|
|
Term
| Aztreonam (MOA, Use, Toxicity) |
|
Definition
binds PBPs, synergisitc with aminoglycosides
Gram Negatives only
mild GI upset, no cross sensitivity, used in renal insufficiency aslo |
|
|
Term
| what is imipenem always administered with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Thrombophlebitis, Red Man syndrome from histamine release |
|
|
Term
| broad spectrum for appendicitis |
|
Definition
| imipenem/cilastatin, meropenem |
|
|
Term
| What can lead to a falsely negative PPD test? |
|
Definition
| anergic- steroids, malnutrition, immunocompromised, sarcoidosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hemolysis and methemoglobinemia
G6PD def. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dapsone, rifampin, clofazimine |
|
|
Term
| Which mycobacterium causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| meningococcal meningitis prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The bulbis cordis gives rise to |
|
Definition
| the right ventricle and smooth parts of the left and right ventricle |
|
|
Term
| The left horn of the sinus venosus gives rise to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The right horn of the SV gives rise to |
|
Definition
| the smooth part of the right atrium |
|
|
Term
| The right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein gives rise to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which germ layer gives rise to the retina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What germ layer gives rise to the spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart defects cause early cyanosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| symptoms of MELAS syndrome |
|
Definition
| neuromuscular lesions, small infarcts in the occipital lobes bilaterally, ragged red muscle fibers, and lactic acidosis |
|
|
Term
| What does the sis proto oncogene encode for? |
|
Definition
| PDGF overexpression is seen in astrocytomas and osteosarcomas |
|
|
Term
| describe histidine degradation |
|
Definition
| FIGLU --> THF --> Glutamate --> TCA |
|
|
Term
| Which substrates of gluconeogenesis will the branched amino acids become? |
|
Definition
valine and isoleucine --> succinyl CoA,
leucine --> acetyl CoA |
|
|
Term
| Compare N2O (poorly soluble gas) and halothane (highly soluble gas) |
|
Definition
| compared to halothane N20 needs a smaller amount to saturate the blood, has a rapid rise in tension of gas in the blood, rapid equilibration with the brain, and rapid onset of action |
|
|
Term
| Which muscle fibers are more affects in myotonic dystrophy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| aromatase inhibitor (blocks estrogen production) |
|
|
Term
| Which receptor does the B subunit of diphtheria toxin bind to?> |
|
Definition
| heparin-binding epidermal growth factor receptor on cardiac and neural muscle cells |
|
|
Term
| Essential tremor (inheritance pattern, treatment) |
|
Definition
autosomal dominant
propanolol |
|
|
Term
| Clinical use of benzotropine |
|
Definition
| treat tremor in Parkinson disease as well as counteract the extrapyramidal side effects of neuroleptic medications like haloperidol |
|
|
Term
| treatment for status epilepticus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which structures lie posteriorly and anteriorly to the medial malleolus respectively? |
|
Definition
p- posterior tibial artery, tibial nerve, and tendons of the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and the tibialis posterior
a- saphenous nerve and great saphenous vein |
|
|
Term
| How are drugs used to treat inflammatory disorders of the bowel and skin metabolized in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MOA of B blockers for glaucoma treatment |
|
Definition
| decreased aqueous humor production |
|
|
Term
| How do anticholinergic drugs cause glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| narrow angle glaucoma by narrowing the anterior hcamber and obstructing the trabecular meshwork |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for endometriosis |
|
Definition
| danazol- partial agonist at androgen receptors (progesterone antagonist) also used for hereditary angioedema |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| endometrial glands outside the uterus, chocolate cysts, pain during menstration and intercourse, normal sized uterus, infertility, injury to extra-endometrial structures are replaced be endometrial tissue which responds to estrogen resulting in bleeding- chocolate cysts, nodularity of uterosacral ligaments and fixed retroversion of the uterus |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a frameshift mutation and a nonsense mutation? |
|
Definition
nonsense- substitution
frameshift- insertion or deletion |
|
|
Term
| What is a conservative mutation? |
|
Definition
| when one amino acid is replaced with a similar amino acid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits neuronal high frequency sodium channels, reducing their ability to recover from inactivation |
|
|
Term
| Clinical uses for haloperidol |
|
Definition
| neuroleptic- schizophrenia, acute psychoses, acute maina, and Tourette syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Clinical uses fro propanolol |
|
Definition
| essential tremor, migraine prophylaxis, reduction of portal venous pressure to prevent variceal bleed |
|
|
Term
| True or false: hemophilias cause increased bleeding time? |
|
Definition
| false, only qualitative or quantitative platelet disorders cause an increased bleeding time (von Willebrands disease) |
|
|
Term
| TH1 and TH2 cells: which one is involved in Crohn's and which one in UC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From what molecule is beta endorphin derived from |
|
Definition
| POMC, endogenous opioids also play a role in endocrine and emotional function, as a result ACTH and MSH also have similar physiologic functions as endorphins |
|
|
Term
| Hurthle bodies, distinguished from benign adenomas by capsular or vascular invasion |
|
Definition
| follicular thyroid cancer |
|
|
Term
| Histology of anaplastic thyroid cancer |
|
Definition
| large multinucleated osteoclast-like cells |
|
|
Term
| Describe the borders and common location of femoral hernia |
|
Definition
medial border- pubic tubercle and lacunar ligament
lateral border- femoral vein
posterior border- Cooper's ligament of the pectinate
mostly occurs in the right leg |
|
|
Term
| Most common site of metastasis for choriocarcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Macroscopic examination of choriocarcinoma |
|
Definition
| soft and white with extensive areas of necrosis and hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
| which is associated with breast cancer? tamoxifen, raloxifene |
|
Definition
| tamoxifen, raloxifene has been shown to reduce breast cancer |
|
|
Term
| Where does lead bind to on enzymes? |
|
Definition
| sulfahydryl groups common on heme synthesis enzymes |
|
|
Term
| Classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis |
|
Definition
| hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis |
|
|
Term
| Which infections are acquired intrapartum? |
|
Definition
| herpes, Chlamydia, Neisseria, GBS |
|
|
Term
| Which protein is absent in Dubin Johnson syndrome? |
|
Definition
| MRP2 multidrug resistance protein 2 |
|
|
Term
| What causes deconjugation of bile acids? |
|
Definition
| bacteria remove glycine from taurine, results in lipid malabsorption |
|
|
Term
| describe a subfalacine herniation |
|
Definition
| cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx cerebri, potentially compressing the anterior cerebral artery |
|
|
Term
| describe tonsillar herniation |
|
Definition
| cerebellar tonsils displace through foramen magnum and compress the medulla |
|
|
Term
| Which type of cancer does abestos exposure most likely lead to ? |
|
Definition
| bronchogenic carcinoma not mesothelioma |
|
|
Term
| What nerve and artery are most likely to be injured with a humeral fracture? |
|
Definition
| radial nerve and deep brachial artery |
|
|
Term
| What are the malabsorptive complication of Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
| oxalate kidney stones, anemia, hypoproteinemia, B12 and folate def., gallstones |
|
|
Term
| Describe Schwannomas (cell origin, tumor marker, histology) |
|
Definition
neural crest
S-100
spindle cells w. oval nuclei |
|
|
Term
| Anti-depressant associated with hypertensive crisis following food intake |
|
Definition
| MAO inhibitors- phenelzine, tranylcypromide, isocarboxazid, selegiline |
|
|
Term
| treatment for serotonin syndrome toxicity |
|
Definition
| cyproheptadine- serotonin antagonist |
|
|
Term
| What do the crescents in RPGN consist of? |
|
Definition
| fibrin and plasma proteins |
|
|
Term
| What causes a child to perform Gower's sign? |
|
Definition
| proximal muscle weakness not fibrofatty replacement of calves |
|
|
Term
| Which kidney stones are radiolucent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals are also known as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Activation of which opioid receptors in the CNS is most likely to be responsible for apnea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which atypical antipsychotic causes prolonged QT interval? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The virulence of cryptococcus neofromans is |
|
Definition
| its capsular polysaccharide |
|
|
Term
| Conformational change of adenylyl cyclase requires which nucleotide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which enzyme is deficient in McArdle's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary mechanism of maintaining blood glucose in the fasting and starved state? |
|
Definition
| hepatic glycogenolysis (for 1 day in starved state), adipose release of FFA, muscle and liver, which shift fuel use from glucose to FFA, hepatic gluconeogenesis from peripheral tissue lactate and alanine, and from adipose tissue glycerol and propionyl CoA |
|
|
Term
| Which substance does H. pylori excrete in order to survive in the stomach? |
|
Definition
| urease- carbon dioxide and ammonia |
|
|
Term
| Antagonism of which receptors are responsible for causing neuroleptic malignant syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antagonism of which receptors are responsible for causing neuroleptic malignant syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does renal cell carcinoma origniate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| abrupt onset of hypertension in a patient younger than 20 or older than 50, and depressed serum K levels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What category of blood pressure medications is preferred in the treatment of aortic dissection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substances act on smooth muscle myosin light chain kinase? |
|
Definition
calcium channel blockers --> calmodulin --> inhibition
epinephrine, prostaglandin --> increased cAMP --> inhibition |
|
|
Term
| Which antihypertensives should be avoided in patients with sulfa allergy? |
|
Definition
| loop and thiazide diuretics |
|
|
Term
| What artery supplies the right ventricle? |
|
Definition
| the acute marginal artery off the RCA |
|
|
Term
| Which cytokines promote smooth muscle cell migration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common locations of atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| abdominal aorta > coronary artery > popliteal artery > carotid artery |
|
|
Term
| What is Monckeberg arteriosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| benign calcification esp. in media of radial and ulnar arteries, pipestem arteries |
|
|
Term
| What is arteriolosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| hyaline thickening of small arteries due to chronic hypertension or diabetes. onion skinning malignant hypertension |
|
|
Term
| Where does ezetimibe work? |
|
Definition
| prevent cholesterol reabsorption at small instestine brush border; doesn't affect vitamin absorption |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| upregulate LPL --> increased TG clearance |
|
|
Term
| What amino acid is a precursor to porphyrin/heme? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| CO= rate of O2 consumption/ arterial venous O2 difference |
|
|
Term
| Nerve damaged in loss of forearm pronation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nerve damaged in loss of arm abduction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nerve damaged in weak lateral rotation of arm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| artery running with axillary nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| artery running with radial nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which exotoxin works by activating Gs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which exotoxin works by disabling Gi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which exotoxin works has an adenylate cyclase, bypassing G protein involvement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What portion of the thalamus relays infomation from the cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia to the motor cortex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What portion of the thalamus relays information from the mamillothalamic tract to the cingulate gyrus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What portion of the thalamus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the thalamus results in memory loss if destroyed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which portion of the brain is responsible for delayed gratification? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What weak opioid is commonly used in chronic pain control prior to prescribing stronger opioids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for overly intoxication with benzodiazepines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the containdications to sumatriptan use>? |
|
Definition
| CAD, Prinzmetal Angina, pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| What is the usual treatment for migraine headaches? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would you suspect as a cause of headache in a patient using topical retinoic acid for acne? |
|
Definition
| vit A toxicity --> pseudotumor cerebri |
|
|
Term
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description?
a/ pseudopalisading necrosis
b/ psammoma bodies
c/ perivascular pseudorosettes
d/ Homer-Wright pseudorosettes |
|
Definition
a/ glioblastoma
b/ meningioma
c/ ependymoma
d/ medulloblastoma |
|
|
Term
| What fundamental problem creates Potter syndrome? |
|
Definition
| bilateral renal agenesis from malformation of the ureteric bud |
|
|
Term
| diuretic used in patients with sulfa allergies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a teenager presents with nephrotic syndrome and hearing loss. What is the disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pathology is associated with waxy casts in the urine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pathology is associated with neuropathy and AV nodal block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pathology is associated with painless jaundice? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| treatment of cystine kidney stones |
|
Definition
| alkalinization of the urine |
|
|
Term
| Histologic appearance of renal cell carcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Gram - organism causes corneal infections in contact wearers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drugs have ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity as side effects? |
|
Definition
| aminoglycosides, vancomycin, loop diuretics, cisplatin |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses for tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
| V. cholera, acne, chlamydia, ureaplasma, mycoplama, tularemia, h. pylori, borrelia, rickettsia |
|
|
Term
| Which tetracycline shoudl be used for patients with reanl failure? |
|
Definition
| doxycycline, fecally eliminated |
|
|
Term
| What should you never take with tetracyclines? What are teh side-effects of tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
milk, iron, antacids, divalent cations inhibit absorption
GI distress, discoloration of teeth, inhibits bone growth in children |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of non-adherence in macrolide use>? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic causes cholestatic hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use and side-effects of chloramphenicol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| quinupristin/ dalfopristin |
|
|
Term
| What causes gray man syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antifungal deposits in keratin-containing tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| roseola, exanthem subitem, high fevers for several days (febrile seizures) that breaks, onset of diffuse rash, |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| all humans infected by age of 5, rash similar to roseola-- not as severe |
|
|
Term
| Which HPV serotypes cause squamous cell carcinoma? verrucae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Virus associated with brassy cough? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Viral causes of aspetic meningitis |
|
Definition
| enterovirus, echovirus, coxsackievirus |
|
|
Term
| drug class for Lyme disease or Rocky Mountain spotted fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for Gram negative rods in patients with renal insufficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| BIG GUN (effective v. G + cocci, G - rods, and anaerobes) |
|
Definition
| meropenem, iimipenem with cilastatin |
|
|
Term
| used as solo prophylaxis against TB |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All viruses are haploid except ______ which is diploid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which DNA virus replicates in the cytoplasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which RNA virus replicates in the nucleus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which virus acquires its envelope from the nuclear membrane> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
calicivirus
picornavirus
reovirus
parvirus
adenovirus
papillomavirus
polyomavirus |
|
|
Term
| Which DNA virus is not icosahedral? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which DNA virus carries its own DNA dependent RNA polymerase? RNA polymerase DNA polymerase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name that glomerular disease
IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: diffuse capillary thickening |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: hypercellular glomeruli |
|
Definition
| Acute post-streptococcal GN |
|
|
Term
Name that glomerular disease
IF: linear pattern of immune complex deposition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name that glomerular disease
EM: spiking of the GBM due to electron dense subepithelial deposits |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| signet ring cells in the ovary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pigmented hamartomas in the iris |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| No milk production in the postpartum period |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Low pH and vaginal discharge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Menorrhagia with enlarged uterus and no pelvic pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Uterine pathology with definitive diagnosis and treatment is by laprascopy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inner layer of chorionic villi, makes cells, sac, amnion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| outer layer of chorionic villi, secretes B-hCG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What prenatal ultrasound finding is a clue that the fetus may have Down Syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe Williams syndrome |
|
Definition
elfin facies, mental retardation, hypercalcemia (increased sensitity to Vit D), well-developed verbal skills, extreme friendliness, cardiovascular problems
chromosome 7 |
|
|
Term
| What developmental structure removes nitrogenous waste from fetal bladder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What developmental structure forms is a fetal placental structure that secretes hCG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| worsens with age, more common in women |
|
|
Term
| Buspirone (MOA Use and adverse effects) |
|
Definition
generalized anxiety but not panic disorders
serotonin agonist, dopamine antagonist
hypothermia,increased prolactin and growth hormone, headaches |
|
|
Term
| Which barbituates cause laryngospasm |
|
Definition
| methohexital and thiopental |
|
|
Term
| What are the withdraw symptoms of barbituates? |
|
Definition
| tremors, anxiety, cardiac arrest |
|
|
Term
| Choral Hydrate (MOA, clinical use, adverse effects) |
|
Definition
ACh derivative
hypnotic
unpleasant taste, epigastric distress |
|
|
Term
| In which patients are barbituates contrindicated? |
|
Definition
| patients with porphyrias, increased porphyrin synthesis |
|
|
Term
| Which drug is used for alcohol dependence? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria is associated with rheumatic heart disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| binds cyclophilin which inhibits calcineurin --> less activation of NFAT --> less IL-2 |
|
|
Term
| Besides gout, what else is allopurinol used for? |
|
Definition
| leukemia, to prvent tumor lysis-associated urate nephropathy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| PABA antimetabolite, which inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase needed to make dihydrofolic acid in bacterial cells |
|
|
Term
| Side effects of cimetidine toxicity |
|
Definition
| P450 inhibitor, antiadrogenic effects (prolactin release, gynecomastia, impotence, decreased libido); can cross BBB (dizziness, confusion, headache) and placenta. Both cimetidine and ranitidine decrease renal excretion of creatinine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sulfadialyzine, pyramethamine (TMP-SMX) |
|
|
Term
| Treatments for cryptococcus in AIDS pts. |
|
Definition
flucytosine and amphotericin
fluconazole |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits DNA synthesis by conversion to 5-fluorouracil by cytosine deaminase |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of bisphosphonates |
|
Definition
| corrosive esophagitis, osteonecrosis of the jaw |
|
|
Term
| Which cerebral artery has caudaul/tonsillar loops? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the impairment in Friedrich's ataxia? |
|
Definition
| mitochondrial functioning, especially in the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| GIST, paraganglioma, pulmonary chondroma |
|
|
Term
| teratogenic effect of ACE-I |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| thyroid gland pathology with non-caseating granulomas |
|
Definition
| subacute thyroiditis, de Quervain's (hypothyroidism, painful, increased ESR, jaw pain) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
GABAb agonist- muscle relaxant (hiccups), prevents hyerthermia in ectasy toxicity
Baclofen is primarily used for the treatment of spastic movement disorders, especially in instances of spinal cord injury, cerebral palsy, and multiple sclerosis. Its use in people with stroke or Parkinson disease is not recommended. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| generalized vasorelaxation, constricts efferent arteriole and dilates afferent arteriole --> increased GFR and Na filtration without compensatory reabsorption in the distal nephron (aldosterone antagonist) |
|
|
Term
| Ploidy and number of chromosomes in spermatogonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ploidy and number of chromosomes for primary spermatocyte |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ploidy and number of chromosomes for secondary spermatocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ploidy and number of chromosomes for spermatids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antidote for cyanide poisoning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drugs used for reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs |
|
Definition
| acetylcholinesterase inhbitors (possibly with atropine to prevent muscarinic side effects of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the transmission of Toxocara canis |
|
Definition
| food contaminated with eggs; causes granulomas (if in retina --> blindness) and visceral larva migrans |
|
|
Term
| What component of the microbe is responsible for the organism's shape and protects against osmotic pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component of the microbe is responsible for inducing IL-1 and TNF-a? |
|
Definition
| Lipotechoic acid and Lipid A |
|
|
Term
| What is the antigen in the lipid A molecule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common location for malignant breast tumors |
|
Definition
| upper outer quadrant of the breast |
|
|
Term
| What is Paget's disease of the nipple associated with? |
|
Definition
| underlying ductal carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| What are the bacterial toxins encoded in a lysogenic, specialized phage: |
|
Definition
A- ShigA-like toxin
B- Botulinum toxin
C- Cholera toxin
D- Diphtheria toxin
E- Erythrogenic toxin in GAS |
|
|
Term
| Creatinine clearance estimates |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cholinergic antagonist, diagnostic testing for asthma |
|
|
Term
| contents of cryoprecipitate |
|
Definition
| fibrinogen, factor VIII, factor XIII |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe McCune Albright syndrome |
|
Definition
| polyostotic fibrous dysplasia characterized by multiple unilateral bone lesions associated iwth endocrine abnormalities (precocious puberty) and cafe au lait spots |
|
|
Term
| Name four Type IV hypersensitivity reactions |
|
Definition
| Type 1 DM, MS, Guillain Barre, Hashimoto's thyroiditis |
|
|
Term
| C. botulinum disease transmission in adults and children |
|
Definition
adults- ingestion of preformed toxin
children- ingestion of bacterial spores in honey |
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