Term
|
Definition
Increased white blood cell count.
(Note: what is "increased" depends on patient age & population group) |
|
|
Term
| What is reactive leukocytosis? |
|
Definition
| leukocytosis secondary to a disorder (infection, inflammation, auto-immune disease, etc.), or in reaction to a drug that promotes increased # of WBCs (neupogen, EPO, etc.) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| isolated elevated neutrophils (compared to "normal" for that patient's population) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| isolated elevated lymphocytes (compared to "normal" for that patient's population) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A hematopoietic neoplasm that involves bone marrow and peripheral blood; there are different types |
|
|
Term
| Normally, cellularity of bone marrow = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| technique for counting and examining microscopic particles (including parameters such as internal granularity, & antigenic composition), such as cells and chromosomes, by suspending them in a stream of fluid and passing them by an electronic detection apparatus. |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 main categories of things you would be looking for if you did a lumbar puncture? |
|
Definition
infection
neoplasia
CNS bleeding |
|
|
Term
| What hematopathology can involve the CNS, so you might want to do a lumbar puncture? |
|
Definition
| Acute Lymphogenous Leukemia (ALL) |
|
|
Term
| In flow cytometery, forwrad scatter gives information on cell: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In flow cytometry, side scatter gives information on cell ______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When diagnosing leukemia, flow cytometry is particularly helpful in determining the ________________ and the ____________________________ |
|
Definition
lineage
stage of development |
|
|
Term
| How do you label cells so that they can be detected by a flow cytometer? |
|
Definition
| you stick an antibody onto the cell with a fluorescent molecule attached to the Fc region |
|
|
Term
| How do you detect specific cell surface markers? |
|
Definition
| by mixing them with marked specific monoclonal antibodies |
|
|
Term
| What cell surface marker indicates that the cell is an immature blast of any kind? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 cell surface markers indicate that the cell is an immature myeloblast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 cell surface markers, together, indicate that the cell is a B cell lymphoblast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 cell surface markers, together, indicate that the cell is a T cell lymphoblast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 cell surface markers, together, indicate that the cell is a mature T cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 cell surface markers, together, indicate that the cell is a mature B cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is localized vs. generalized lymphadenopathy"? |
|
Definition
Localized: lmphadenopathy limited to one area of the body
Generalized: involves more than one area |
|
|
Term
| Infectious Mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr Virus) causes _____________ (localized/generalized) lymphadenopathy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute Nonspecific Lymphadenitis |
|
Definition
| enlarged, painful nodes, most often due to microbial drainage from infectious focus (ex., teeth, tonsils, skin, appendix, intestines) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hyperplasia of lymph follicles, caused by B-cell response to various antigens that activate humoral immune responses; causes large germinal centers (secondary follicles) surrounded by a collar of small resting naive B cells (mantle zone) |
|
|
Term
| What are some illnesses that can cause follicular hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
rheumatoid arthritis
toxoplasmosis (an infection due to the parasite Toxoplasma gondii)
early stages of HIV infection
etc. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hyperplasia of the paracortex of the lymph node; caused by stimuli that trigger T cell-mediated immune response (that is, viral infectious such as infectious mononucleosis) |
|
|
Term
| Infectious Mononucleosis Lymphadenitis is caused by infection with _______________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period from exposure to Epstein-Barr virus and development of Infectious Mononuclosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the Eptstein-Barr virus replicate? |
|
Definition
| in nasopharyngeal epithelial cells |
|
|
Term
| Who is most likely to get Infectious Mononucleosis? |
|
Definition
| adolescents & young adults |
|
|
Term
| Clinical features of Infectious Mononucleosis. |
|
Definition
fever
pharyngitis (sore throat)
generalized lymphadenopathy |
|
|
Term
| What 2 test results would you expect to see before you diagnosed Infectious Mononucleosis? |
|
Definition
first, Monospot (heterophile antibody) test result positive
if that's positive, check for presence of EBV-specific (viral capsid) antigens to confirm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a channel within the lymph node that allows the lymph to flow through the node |
|
|
Term
| What would you expect to see if you looked with a microscopes at the lymph node of a person with Infectious Mononucleosis? |
|
Definition
Expanded paracortex
Polymorphous cellularity
Immunoblasts
Reed-Sternberg-like cells
Follicular hyperplasia (note: means B-cell expansion)
Irregularly shaped follicles
Dilated sinuses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
large cells, either multinucleated or with a bilobed nucleus and a large nucleolus that looks like an inclusion body
• They are usually derived from a germinal center cell or B lymphocyte
• they are most often caused by Epstein-Barr Virus
• they must be present in order to diagnose Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but can also be found in reactive lymphadenopathy (such as Infectious Mononuclosis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Increase in the number and size of the cells that line lymphatic sinusoids
expanded lymph node sinuses |
|
|
Term
| Where might you expect to see sinus histiocytosis? |
|
Definition
In lymph nodes that drain:
cancers (esp. breast carcinoma)
draining areas of infection
areas of inflammation, such as areas near a joint prosthesis
(sinus histiocytosis--excess of monocytes or macrophages in lymph node sinuses) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| neoplasms of B-cell, T-cell, and Natural Killer-cell origin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
neoplasms that arise fromearly hematopoietic progenitors; includes:
Acute Myeloid Leukemias (AmL)
Myelodysplastic Syndromes
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| proliferative lesions of macrophages & dendritic cells |
|
|
Term
| Hodgkin lymphoma is a neoplasm of a minority of neoplastic ______________________ cells nd a majority of reactive non-neoplastic cells. |
|
Definition
Reed-Sternberg
(large, multi-nucleated or bi-lobed nucleus cell derived from germinal centers or B cells) |
|
|
Term
| Peripheral B cells are aka |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a type of cancer of the blood or bone marrow characterized by an abnormal increase of white blood cells in the peripheral blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a cancer in the lymphatic cells of the immune system, which typically present as a solid tumor of lymphoid cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a lymphoma characterized by a heterogenous cellularity comprising a minority of specific neoplastic cells (Reed-Sternberg cells) and a majority of reactive non-neoplastic cells |
|
|
Term
| Where does Hodgkins lymphoma arise? Where does it first spread? |
|
Definition
arises in a single lymph node or chain of nodes
first spreads to anatomically contiguous lymphoid tissue |
|
|
Term
| What kind of cells characterize Hodgkins lymphoma? |
|
Definition
Reed-Sternberg cells
(large, multi-nucleated or bilobed-nucleus cells that arise from germinal centers or B cells) |
|
|
Term
| Hodgin Lymphoma most commonly presents as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hodgkin Lymphoma predictably starts in ___________, then spreads to the______________, then to the _________, and finally to the __________________ and other tissues. |
|
Definition
lymph nodes
spleen
liver
bone marrow |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a group of neoplastic bone marrow disroders that affect myeloid stem cells; characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis, irreversible dysplasia in one or more of the major myeloid cell lines, cytopenias, & increased risk of development of acute myelogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
| With myelodysplasia, do you see more or fewer myeloid cells (of the affected line(s)) in the peripheral blood, and why? |
|
Definition
| fewer, because the neoplastic cells reproduce quickly, but they experience apoptosis in the bone marrow before entering peripheral blood |
|
|
Term
| People with myelodysplasia have an increased risk of developing: |
|
Definition
| acute myelogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
| Dysplastic changes to myeloid cells that are commonly associated with, but not specific for, myelodysplasia |
|
Definition
bi- or multinucleated erythroid precursors
hypogranulation of granulocytes
megaloblastoid nuclear changes(enlarged nuclei with lack of maturation)
ringed sideroblasts (erythroblasts that have a ring of hemosiderin around the nucleus due to metabolic derangements) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cells that descend from the Common Myeloid Progenitor:
Erythrocytes
Mast Cells
basophils
neutrophils
eosinophils
macrophages
& megakaryocytes (which give rise to thrombocytes, aka platelets) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| erythroblasts that have a ring of hemosiderin around the nucleus due to metabolic derangements |
|
|
Term
| At what age are you most likely to get myelodysplasia? |
|
Definition
70 years
(typically older than 50 years; rare in children) |
|
|
Term
| What are some risk factors for myelodysplasia? |
|
Definition
previous history of radiotherapy or chemotherapy
exposure to benzene (in cigarettes, agricultural chemical, and solvents)
family history of hematopoietic disorders |
|
|
Term
| Clincial features of myelodysplasia |
|
Definition
often asymptomatic
or, signs & symptoms depend on affected cell lineages (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) |
|
|
Term
| For aysmptomatic people with myelodysplasia, how is the disease often first identified? |
|
Definition
| blood cytopenia(s) identified as a part of a routine CBC |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose meylodysplasia? |
|
Definition
1. CBC & peripheral blood smear indicate cytopenia & dysplastic features (either routine or because of symptoms of cytopenia)
2. history & lab tests to rule out secondary causes of cytopenia
3. bone marrow with cytogenetics & flow cytometry to confirm |
|
|
Term
| How will myelodysplasia affect the microscopic features of the bone marrow? |
|
Definition
hypercellular
possibly increased blasts |
|
|
Term
| Why do people with Myelodysplastic disorder have an increased risk of acute leukemia? |
|
Definition
| sped up hematopoiesis increases the likelihood of pro-cancer mutation popping up |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for myelodysplasia |
|
Definition
highly variable depending on severity, patient's age, & tolerance of treatment
young & healthy--bone marrow transplant
middle--chemotherapy
old & frail--palliative care
mild myelodysplasia in older patient--maybe nothing |
|
|
Term
| What kind of infection is particularly likely to cause neutrophilia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an abnormally high number of neutrophils in the peripheral blood |
|
|
Term
| What kind of infection is particularly likely to cause lymphocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of infection is particularly likely to cause monocytosis? |
|
Definition
chronic
(also other causes of chronic inflammation) |
|
|
Term
| Monocytosis is most often seen with ________ inflammation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 most common causes of eosihophilia? |
|
Definition
allergic/hypersensitivity reactions
auto-immune diseases
parasitic infections |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of basophilia? |
|
Definition
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
(Basophilia is very uncommon in a reactive disorder. More often than not, it occurs as a result of a neoplasm) |
|
|
Term
| With reactive monocytosis, monocytes are more likely to have more ____________ and __________ than with neoplastic monocytosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of leukocyte has bright orange-red refractile granules and a segmented nucleus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of leukocyte has coarse, dense purple granules & a segmented nucleus obscured by granules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All acute leukemias consist of rapidly dividing _________ cells, while all chronic leukemias consist of rapidly dividing ____________cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does onset of symptoms take for acute leukemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does onset of symptoms take for chronic leukemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 cytogenetic abnormalities indicate a relatively favorable prognosis with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) with multilineage dysplasia has a __________________ prognosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute Myelogenous leukemia that was induced by previous chemotherapy or radiation has a ___________ prognosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what age are you most likely to get Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)? |
|
Definition
median age of incidence: 63 years
incidence increases with age
80-90% of AML occurs in adults (rare in children) |
|
|
Term
Why is therapy-related Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) increasing?
(Currently accounts for 10-20% of all AMLs) |
|
Definition
"therapy-related" is induced by chemotherapy or radiation therapy for previous cancers.
More people are getting cancer because of increased population age, and more people are surviving cancer because of better treatments. |
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)? |
|
Definition
previous hematopoietic disorders (especially MyeloDysplastic Syndrom, MDS, or MyeloProliferative Disorder, MPD)
previous exposure to chemotherapy or radiation therapy (or, by accident, to similar chemotoxins or radiation)
genetic abnormalities (ex., Down syndrome) |
|
|
Term
| What typically kills people with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)? |
|
Definition
| bone marrow failure when too much of it is replaced with leukemic cells |
|
|
Term
| Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is aka |
|
Definition
| Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) |
|
|
Term
| Clinical features of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML). |
|
Definition
signs & symptoms are related to decreased hematopoiesis:
anemia
leukopenia
thrombocytopenia
later: leukemia cutis, gingival hypertrophy, intraretinal hemorrhages,& petechiae, infections & abscesses, |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)? |
|
Definition
1. clinical features of some kind of myeloid cytopenia
2. peripheral blood smear shows blasts
3. Flow cytometry will classify the disease as Acute Myelogenous Leukemmia (AML) or Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)
4. Cytogenetics further classify for prognostic information |
|
|
Term
| 90% of patients with Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) will show _______________ in peripheral blood smear. |
|
Definition
| blasts (myeloid precursor cells) |
|
|
Term
| What abnormality in the peripheral blood smear or bone marrow is diagnostic for acute leukemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a symptom of leukemia
the infiltration of neoplastic leukocytes or their precursors into the epidermis, the dermis, or the subcutis, resulting in clinically identifiable cutaneous lesions (bumps and/or red or plum-colored discolorations) |
|
|
Term
| What mouth symptom do some people with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) have? |
|
Definition
| overgrowth of gum tissue (gingiva) |
|
|
Term
| What 3 cells do myeloblasts mature into? |
|
Definition
neutrophil
eosinophil
basophil |
|
|
Term
| What do myeloblasts look like? |
|
Definition
large nucleus with nonaggregated chromatin
prominent nucleoli (paler purple spots in the nucleus)
fine azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)? |
|
Definition
chemotherapy
(no surgical options because there is a body-wide distribution of myeloblasts) |
|
|
Term
| What is the malignant cell in Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)? |
|
Definition
| lymphoblasts (immature precursors of lymphoid WBCs) |
|
|
Term
| Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL) is classified according to: |
|
Definition
whether the neoplastic lymphoid cells develop into B or T cells
cytogenetic profiles |
|
|
Term
| Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL) is aka |
|
Definition
| Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) |
|
|
Term
| Most common type of childhood cancer. |
|
Definition
| Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL) |
|
|
Term
| At what age does the incidence of Acute Lymphoid Leukemia peak? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinical features of Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)? |
|
Definition
Most signs and symptoms related to decreased hematopoiesis:
anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)? |
|
Definition
1. clinical features of some kind of cytopenia
2. peripheral blood smear shows blasts
3. flow cytometry classifies as Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) or Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)
4. cytogenetic further classify for prognostic information |
|
|
Term
| What do you see in a bone marrow biopsy of someone with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)? |
|
Definition
hypercellularity
and unusual % of cell are lymphoid precursors |
|
|
Term
| What do you see in a bone marrow biopsy of someone with Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)? |
|
Definition
hypercellularity
an unusual % of cell are myeloid precursors |
|
|
Term
| What do lymphoblasts look like? |
|
Definition
large, dark purple nucleus (condensed nuclear chromatin)
small nucleoli (lavender spots)
scant, agranular cytoplasm. |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)? |
|
Definition
chemotherapy
(no surgical options because there is a body-wide distribution of lymphoblasts) |
|
|
Term
| MyeloProliferative Disorders (MPD) |
|
Definition
Groups of neoplastic clonal proliferation of myeloid stem cells with maturation into a myeloid derived cell.
Characterized by proliferation of one or more myeloid series cells that matures (unlike Myelodysplasia, in which the cells experience apoptosis before they leave the bone marrow) |
|
|
Term
| MyeloProliferative Disorders (MPDs) are ___________ leukemias. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Four major types of MyeloProlifertive Disroders (MPD): |
|
Definition
1. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
2. Polycythemia Vera
3. Essential thrombocytosis
4. Primary myelofibrosis |
|
|
Term
| Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is proliferation of: |
|
Definition
| granulocytes (enutrophils, eosinophils, basophils), and possibly platelets |
|
|
Term
| Polycythemia Vera is proliferation of: |
|
Definition
| RBCs, and possibly platelets |
|
|
Term
| Essential thrombocytosis is proliferation of: |
|
Definition
| megakaryocytes (which break up to form platelets |
|
|
Term
| Primary myelofibrosis is proliferation of: |
|
Definition
fribroblasts (the cells that create & maintain connective tissue)
granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)
megakaryocytes (which break up to form platelets |
|
|
Term
| Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocytosis, and Primary Myelofibrosis are all types of: |
|
Definition
| MyeloProliferative Disorder (MPD) |
|
|
Term
| When are you most likely to develop a myeloproliferative disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All Chronic Myeloid Leukemai (CML) is caused by the creation of the gene ______________, usually by the translocation ______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) |
|
|
Term
| Nearly all (98%) of polycythemia vera is caused by _______________ mutation |
|
Definition
JAK2 (V617F)
(note: this mutaiton is also the basis of the majority of essential thrombocytosis & primary myelofibrosis) |
|
|
Term
| What mutation is responsible for nearly all polycythemia vera, and the majority of essential thrombocytosis and primary myelofibrosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 MyeloProliferative Disorders (MPD) are caused by the mutation JAK2 (V617F) the majority of the time? |
|
Definition
polycythemia vera
essential thrombocytosis
primary myelofibrosis |
|
|
Term
| Imatinab (Gleevec) is a specific treatment for what kind of hematopoietic disorder? How does it work? |
|
Definition
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
In CML, the PCR-ABL tyrosine kinase is stuck "on", causing the cells to replicate too much. Imatinab binds to PCR-ABL and turns it off. (Also binds to some other tyrosine kinases, which causes side-effects but could also lead to other treatments) |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 ways that BCR-ABL develops resistance to Imatinab (Gleevec). |
|
Definition
1. additional mutations in BCR-ABL protein --> reduced imatinat (gleevec) binding)
2. amplification of BCR-ABL gene locus (possible due to chromosome instability) means you need more imatinab (gleevec) to work |
|
|
Term
| IL-3 encourages myeloid progenitor cells to differentiate into: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IL-5 encourages myeloid progenitor cells to differentiate into: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IL-6 encourages ___________, _______________, and _____________ to differentiate into: |
|
Definition
stem cells
myeloid progenitor cells
lymphoid progenitor cell
all lineages |
|
|
Term
| IL-11 encourages myeloid progenitor cells to differentiate into: |
|
Definition
| basophiles, platelets, & erythrocytes |
|
|
Term
| GM-CSF encourages myeloid progenitor cells to differentiate into: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| G-CSF encourages myeloid progenitor cells to differentiate into: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| M-CSF encourages myeloid progenitor cells to differentiate into: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IL-6 assists hematopoietic stem cells in: |
|
Definition
self-renewal
(also encourages them to differentiate) |
|
|
Term
| IL-5 is primarily produced by _________ cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During inflammation, IL-6 is produced by __________ and ______________ |
|
Definition
activated macrophages
endothelial cells |
|
|
Term
| IL-6 stimulates the liver to: |
|
Definition
| produce acute-phase (inflammation) proteins, like CRP) |
|
|
Term
| What are some secondary causes of neutropenia due to decreased production? |
|
Definition
cytotoxic drugs
leukemia
tumors (lymphoma or metastatic) |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 main causes of neutropenia due to increased destruction? |
|
Definition
Splenomegaly (spleen sequesters & destroys neutrophils, RBCs, and platelets)
Auto-Immune injury (ex., in Systemic Lupus Erythematous, SLE, the body produces a lot of auto-antibodies, some of which destroy RBCs)
Overwhelming infections (WBCs used up faster than can be made) |
|
|
Term
| Neutrophils live __________ (time. The lifespan is _________ (longer/shorter) if they are activated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a life-threatening obstetric complication usually considered to be a variant of pre-eclampsia.
* Hemolytic anemia
* Elevated Liver enzymes and
* Low Platelet count |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a medical condition in which hypertension arises in pregnancy (pregnancy-induced hypertension) in association with significant amounts of protein in the urine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 causes of liver disease in pregnancy |
|
Definition
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Liver disease in toxemia (Pre-eclampsia)
HELLP syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common malignant neoplasm found in the liver, by far? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Multiple cancer masses in the liver often indicate: |
|
Definition
metastatic carcinoma
(cancer that arises in the liver will typically be just one mass) |
|
|
Term
| Half of metastatic cancers are from the __________, __________, and ____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the prognosis of metastatic carcinoma spreading to the liver? |
|
Definition
| not good; the majority of patients die within one year after diagnosis of liver metastasis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the structure of a biological specimen that is too small to be seen with an optical microscope, but can be observed by electron microscopy. |
|
|
Term
| What shape are RBCs? Waht advantage does that give? |
|
Definition
biconcave
increases surface/volume ratio |
|
|
Term
| A RBC has a diameter about the same as what other feature seen in peripheral blood smears? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| RBCs stain _________ with H&E. |
|
Definition
pink
(they are acidophilic/eosinophilic) |
|
|
Term
| Wear on proteins leads old RBCs to assume a ____________ shape, and be removed by ____________ in the spleen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Immature form of erythrocytes released into peripheral blood. |
|
|
Term
| Normally, reticulocytes make up __________% of circulating RBCs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test do you typically use to detect the percent of reticulocytes that make up the RBCs in the peripheral blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ratio of _________ to ____________ is a useful indicator of erythropoiesis. |
|
Definition
| reticulocytes to erythrocytes |
|
|
Term
| What will you see if you stain a reticulocyte with methylene blue? What does that indicate? |
|
Definition
blue dots or squiqqle
presence of rRNA |
|
|
Term
| What do reticulocytes have that erythrocytes do not? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following do erythrocytes have? Reticulocytes?
nucleus
whole mitochondria
degenerating mitochondria
rRNA |
|
Definition
Erythrocytes have none of those
Reticulocytes have rRNA & whole & degenerating mitochondria. They don't have a nucleus |
|
|
Term
| The structureal integrity of erythrocytes depends on a scaffolding of ___________, linked to the membrane by ______________, ___________, and ____________ |
|
Definition
spectrin
ankyrin
band-3
band 4.2 |
|
|
Term
| Hereditary spherocytosis is most commonly due to mutations affecting the proteins ____________ and ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| RBCs get 90% of their energy form ____________ and 10% from ________________ |
|
Definition
glycolysis
the pentose phosphate pathway/hexos monophosphate shunt (that side pathway of glycolysis that produces NADPH) |
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Term
| What are the 2 primary things that the RBC needs energy for. |
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Definition
1. to maintain ion balance (no energy-->no Na+-K+-ATPase pump-->ion and water imbalance-->explodes)
2. to maintain reducing environment (no NADPH-->no glutathione-->oxidative damage) |
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Term
| How much energy does it take to bind O2 or CO2 to hemoglobin? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
segs are segmented neutrophils (mature neutrophiles; their nucleus is segmented into 5 lobes)
bands are immature neutrophils (their nucleus is in a single rainbow-shaped band) |
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Term
| What color are primary granules in neutrophils? What color are secondary granules? |
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Definition
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Term
| Bands (immature neutrophils) are more __________ (color) than Segs (mature neutrophils). Explain why. |
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Definition
blue
because bands contain primary granules, which are blue-purple, but not secondary granules, which are pink.
("girls are so much more mature than boys") |
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Term
| Why are bands less effective at killing microbes than segs? |
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Definition
| because they haven't yet developed secondary granules |
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Term
| What 3 features of segs (mature neutrophils) incidate that they are relatively quiet biosyntheticlaly? |
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Definition
mostly heterochromatin
no endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
few mitochondria |
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Term
| Do segs (mature neutrophils) have a lot or few mitochondria? In what kind of environment (metabolically speaking) are they capable of functioning? |
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Definition
few
many kinds, from well-oxygenated to anoxic |
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Term
| What 2 chemicals stimulate the release of mature neutrophils from bone marrow? |
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Definition
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Term
| Nuetrophils live ___________ in peripheral blood & up to ___________ in tissues |
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Definition
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Term
| What happens to neutrophils after they produce a respiratory burst? |
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Definition
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Term
| What cell is the main constituent of pus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the nucleus of a mature neutrophil. |
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Definition
| 5 dark purple lobes attached to each other by a "string" of chromatin |
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Term
| Describe the nucleus of a band (immature neutrophil) |
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Definition
| purple rainbow-shaped band, mostly unsegmented (may being to segment as it approaches maturity) |
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Term
| Describe the nucleus of an eosinophil |
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Definition
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Term
| Eosinophils contain lots of large, visible __________ granules that appear as _________ (color) dots. |
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Definition
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Term
| The center of each specific granule in an eosinophil is made of ________________, a protein that is cytotoxic to helminths, protozoa, and bacteria, and ______________ |
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Definition
Major Basic Protein (MBP)
hydrolytic enzymes |
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Term
| Describe the specific granules of an eosinophil. |
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Definition
oval
"tiger eye"--darker, with a paler streak in the middle along the long axis. |
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Term
| Explain the following mnemonic: Eosinophils have Eyes |
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Definition
| eosionphil specific granules look like "tiger eye" marbles (darker, with a lighter streak acrsos the middle) in electron microscopy |
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Term
| Eosinophils help protect against __________, _____________, and __________________ |
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Definition
helminths
protozoa
bacteria |
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Term
| If you have an unusually high eosinophil level, you should first expect an infection of what type of microbe? |
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Definition
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Term
| Eosinophils circulate in peripheral blood for ____________ before moving into tissues. |
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Definition
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Term
| Eosinophils are primarily found in the __________, ___________, and the _______________. |
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Definition
spleen
lymph nodes
GI tract |
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Term
| What kind of leukocyte is primarily responsible for mucosal inflammatory and allergic reactions? |
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Definition
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Term
| The least common leukocyte (much less than 1% of leukocytes). |
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Definition
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Term
| Basophils are filled with granules that are very ____________ (color) when stained with H&E. |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the basophil nucleus. |
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Definition
| bi-lobed, but it's obscured in light micrographs between the numerous granules. (You may or may not be able to make out a vague shape beneath the granules). |
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Term
| Describe the appearance of basophil specific granules in electron microscopy, compared to eosinophil granules. |
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Definition
more round (less oval)
not tiger eye appearance (dark all the way through or dark with a lighter center; no light streak) |
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Term
| What cell is filled with granules that stain intenseley blue purple on H&E (like basophils), mediates allergic reactions (like basophils), and has an uncertain developmental relationship with basophils. |
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Definition
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Term
| Eosinophils produce histaminase and arylsulfatase, which limit ____________________ reactions. |
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Definition
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Term
| Largest of the leukocytes. |
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Definition
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Term
| What 3 things do basophil granules contain? |
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Definition
histamine
proteoglycans
chemotactic factors (ex., for eosionphils) |
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Term
| What causes a basophil to degranulate? What kind of hypersensitivity reaction is this? |
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Definition
binding to an allergen/antigen
type 1 (immediate) |
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Term
| In what 3 situations are you most likely to see basophilia? |
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Definition
1. acute hypersensitivity
2. viral infection
3. chronic inflammation |
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Term
| How does monocyte size compare to RBC size? |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the appearance of a monocyte nucleus & cytoplasm after H&E stain. |
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Definition
large, bean-shaped nucleus (indented, but not "lobed") light blue cytoplasm with many faintly stained granules ("dusty" looking)
[image] |
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Term
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Definition
| the outward passage of blood cells through intact vessel walls |
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Term
| Monocytes circulate in peripheral blood for about __________, then leave circulation and enter tissue by diapedesis. In the tissue, the monocyte becomes a ____________ |
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Definition
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Term
| What happens to monocyte lysosomes when the monocyte becomes a macrophage? |
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Definition
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Term
| Are monocytes aerobic or anaerobic? |
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Definition
| they can be either as necessary (allows continuous lysosomal activity in a variety of environments) |
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Term
| Monocytes become ___________ in the liver, _____________ in the lung, _____________ in the bone, ________________ in the skin, _______________ in the brain, and _____________________ in the spleen |
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Definition
Kuppfer cells
alveolar macrophages
osteoclast
langerhans
microglia
red pulp |
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Term
| Monocyte granules contain __________, _________, and ___________ |
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Definition
| myeloperoxidase, elastase, TNF-alpha |
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