Term
| Nearly all of calcium in the body is stored in what organ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most important hormone affecting Ca2+ concentration in blood in the adult? |
|
Definition
ParaThyroid Horomone (PTH)
(it increases Ca2+ in blood by releasing it from bone, increasing absorption in the intestine, & preventing the kidneys from excreting it)
(compare to calcitonin, which is very important in Ca2+ regulation in children, but not very important in adults) |
|
|
Term
| What 2 hormones tend to break bone down & increase Ca2+ serum concentration? |
|
Definition
ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH)
calcitriol (the hormonally active form of vitamin D) |
|
|
Term
| What hormone tends to decrease serum Ca2+ concentration and build up bone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do the following move Ca2+ from serum to bone, or from bone to serum?
ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH)
calcitonin
calcitriol |
|
Definition
ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH): Ca2+ from bone to serum
calcitriol: Ca2+ from bone to serum
calcitonin: Ca2+ from serum to bone
|
|
|
Term
| As serum Ca2+ goes up, _____ (calcitonin/parathyroid hormone) production increases, and _________ (calcitonin/parathyroid hormone) production decreases. |
|
Definition
calcitonin increases
PTH (ParaThyroid Hormone) decreases
(mnemonic: calciTONin TONEs down Ca2+ levels in the blood) |
|
|
Term
| _______ may complex with serum Ca2+, lowering serum Ca2+ concentration, and causing resorption of Ca2+ from bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2/3 of bone vasculature consists of vessels located in _________ and vessels that arise from those
1/3 of bone vasculature consists of vessels located in __________ and vessels that arise from those |
|
Definition
2/3 of bone vasculature is from the medullary canal of the bone
1/3 of bone vasculature is in the periosteum |
|
|
Term
A rod is placed in the medullary canal to stabilize the bone. How could this negatively affect the health of the bone?
|
|
Definition
| 2/3 of bone vasculature is in medullary canal; rod could interfere with bone vasculature |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 risks of using an external plate to stabilize a bone fracture? |
|
Definition
1. a plate requires a large opening, which could lead to infection
2. plate could destroy bone vasculature in the periosteum (1/3 of bone vasculature is in the periosteum)
3. plate could destroy bone stem cells in the periosteum |
|
|
Term
| When allowing a bone to heal, do you want to shield it from ALL stress? Why or why not? |
|
Definition
No, because the bone will heal weakly if it's never stressed. (But too much stress or movement will prevent the bone from healing) |
|
|
Term
| What is an osteoconductive scaffold? |
|
Definition
a scaffold on which bone can grow
(compared to an osteoinductive scaffold, which stimulates bone to grow) |
|
|
Term
| What is an osteoinductive scaffold? |
|
Definition
| a scaffold that stimulates bone to grow (ex., autograft bone transplants are osteoinductive & osteoconductive, while allograft bone transplants are only osteoconductive) |
|
|
Term
| What is autograft vs. allograft? |
|
Definition
an autograft is a transplant from one part of the self to another part of the self an allograft is a transplant from one person (or corpse) to another person |
|
|
Term
| How many pins do you need (at a minimum) if using external fixation to stabilize a bone fracture? |
|
Definition
| at least 4: 2 above the fracture and 2 below (otherwise, you'll get torquing) |
|
|
Term
| What does Bone Morphogenic Protein (BMP) do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two concerns about using Bone Morphogenic Protein (BMP) to increase bone growth? |
|
Definition
1. no one is sure how to dose (it's quickly excreted; a single dose seems to work fine) 2. we don't know if it can cause bone cancer) |
|
|
Term
| Are allograft bone transplants osteoconductive? Osteoinductive? Why or why not? |
|
Definition
They're osteoconductive--bone can grow on them
they're not osteoinductive. They don't induce bone growth because they're sterilized, and the sterilization ruins ability to induce bone growth |
|
|
Term
| Are autoograft bone transplants osteoconductive? Osteoinductive? |
|
Definition
yes, bone can grow on them & they can induce bone growth
(Unlike allograft bone transplants, autograft transplants are not sterilized before being implanted. Sterilization destroys the bone's ability to induce bone growth.) |
|
|
Term
| Where are autograft bone transplants most often harvested? |
|
Definition
| iliac crest of the pelvis |
|
|
Term
Put the 5 stages of bone fracture healing in order?
Callus formation
Fracture & inflammatory phase
Granulation tissue formation
Lamellar bone deposition
Remodeling
|
|
Definition
1. Fracture & inflammatory phase
2. formation of granulation tissue (the perfused, fibrous connective tissue that replaces a fibrin clot in healing wounds.)
3. Callus formation (Periosteal cells near the fracture and fibroblasts within granulation tissue become chondroblasts & form cartilage to bridge the gap of the fracture—the callus. Woven bone is deposited in the callus)
4. Lamellar bone deposition (replace woven bone with spongy lamellar bone)
5. Remodeling (osteoclasts gradually eat up spongy lamellar bone in places that would normally have compact bone & replace it with compact lamellar bone) |
|
|
Term
| What are some factors that will decrease the ability of a bone fracture to heal? |
|
Definition
Advanced age (>40 yo)
Comorbidities (ex., diabetes)
Drugs, such as
NSAIDs (given to people whose bone tends to overgrow after injury)
corticosteroids
smoking
poor nutrition
open fracture with poor blood supply multiple injuries
infection |
|
|
Term
| What drug can you give someone to increase blood flow to bone? |
|
Definition
nothing. Bone vessels are typically 100% open, so you can't open them any further.
(in fact, if you give a vasodilator, you'll probably dilate vessels in the skin and divert blood away from the bones) |
|
|
Term
| What would happen if you gave a vasodilator, such as histamine, to someone to increase blood flow to their bones? |
|
Definition
| the bone arterioles wouldn't open any further because they're typically 100% open. Instead, skin arterioles would open, diverting blood away from the bone. |
|
|
Term
| What would happen if you give Norepinephrine (which increases BP by vasoconstricting blood vessels) to someone to increase blood flow to their bones? |
|
Definition
| The vasoconstrictor would close bone arterioles, which decreases flow to bone (typically bone vessels are open 100%, but they can be constricted) |
|
|
Term
| What cells synthesize most of the collagen in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many kinds of peptide chains are in collagen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Collagen is made of ______ chains & ________ chains |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Collagen alpha chains consist of repeats of __ (#) amino acids |
|
Definition
3
(glycine, proline, lysine) |
|
|
Term
Alpha chains (the building blocks of collagen) consist of repeats of 3 amino acids: proline, lysine, and ______
What is the third amino acid, and why is only that amino acid appropriate for that spot in the chain?
|
|
Definition
glycine
Every 3rd amino acid of each strand is in the center of the triple helix—only glycine (no side chain; just a hydrogen) fits |
|
|
Term
| Alpha chains (building blocks of collagen) mostly consist of triple repeats of _______, _________, and __________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the chemical name for vitamin C? |
|
Definition
| ascorbate or ascorbic acid |
|
|
Term
| What happens to collagen if there is not sufficient vitamin C? |
|
Definition
hydroxylated proline & lysine will be de-activated if their iron is oxidized from Fe2+ to Fe3+ (happens if the hydroxylation reaction doesn’t complete properly)
Hydroxylated lysine may be oxidized to form aldehyde or allysine, which react with lysine amino acids on other alpha chains to form cross-linkages within the collagen triple helix, so without vitamin C, there are fewer cross-linkages and collagen is weaker. |
|
|
Term
| What's the first thing that happens to proline & lysine in the endoplasmic reticulum of a fibroblast after the alpha chain (building block of collagen) is assembled? |
|
Definition
they are hydroxylated (-OH is added)
Hydroxylated lysine may be oxidized to form aldehyde or allysine, which react with lysine amino acids on other alpha chains to form cross-linkages within the collagen triple helix
|
|
|
Term
| Hydroxylated lysine in an alpha chain (building block of collagen) may be oxidized to form aldehyde or allysine. Why is that important? |
|
Definition
| Aldehyde and allysine react with lysine on another alpha chain to form cross-linkages within the collagen triple-helix |
|
|
Term
| Describe procallagen. How is it different form collagen? |
|
Definition
procallagen is the collagen precursor excreted by fibroblasts like collagen, procallegen is a triple helix of alpha chains unlike collagen, procallagen has some non-triple-helix regions at either end (N-terminus & C-terminus) |
|
|
Term
| A deficiency in what essential nutrient will weaken collagen by decreasing the ability of alpha chains to form cross-linkages? |
|
Definition
| vitamin C (ascorbic acid; ascorbate) |
|
|
Term
| Fibroblasts secrete _________, a precursor of collagen, into the extracellular matrix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enzymes called ________ cleave most of the non-helical bits off the ends of procllagen, forming _________ |
|
Definition
Procallagen peptidases
tropocollagen |
|
|
Term
| Why do fibroblasts excrete procollagen, not tropocollagen? |
|
Definition
tropocollagen tends to spontaneously aggregate into collagen fibrils procollagen has non-helical bits at either end that prevent it from spontaneously aggregating. If tropocollagen were formed within the fibroblast, fibril formation would interfere with actions of cell |
|
|
Term
| Tropocollagen tends to spontaneously: |
|
Definition
| aggregate into collagen fibrils |
|
|
Term
| A patient bruises easily, has corkscrew hairs, and has bleeding gums. What are these symptoms of? |
|
Definition
scurvy
(Lack of vitamin C-->low hydroxylation of lysine-->lack of formation of cross-linkages within collagen-->weak collagen) |
|
|
Term
| Lack of vitamin C-->low hydroxylation of lysine-->lack of formation of cross-linkages within collagen-->weak collagen--> _______(disease) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Osteogenesis imperfecta is a defect in genes encoding for ______________________________ (or genes encoding for proteins to process _______________________________) |
|
Definition
| alpha 1 or alpha 2 chains (building blocks of collagen) |
|
|
Term
| Bone consists primarily of __________ "rebar" with _________ "cement" |
|
Definition
collagen (specifically, type 1 collagen)
hydroxyapatite crystals |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta: |
|
Definition
thin, fragile bones loose joints scoliosis kyphosis dentinogenesis imperfect blue sclerae aortic root & valve disease mitral valve disease deafness (because bones of inner ear break) |
|
|
Term
| Why do people with osteogenesis imperfecta have blue sclera? |
|
Definition
| sclera is thin; can see pigment underneath |
|
|
Term
| Why may people with osteogeneis imperfecta go deaf? |
|
Definition
| because bones of the inner ear may break |
|
|
Term
| Using our knowledge of type I collagen structure, how much “healthy type I collagen” is produced in an individual with a heterozygous point mutation in COL1A1? |
|
Definition
75% of collagen is bad
COL1A1 is the gene for alpha-1 chains
COL1A2 is the gene for alpha-2 chains
Type I collagen is made of 2 alpha-1 chains & 1 alpha-2 chain.
Possible makeup of collagen in this person (where A1 is good alpha-1 chains & a1 is bad alpha-1 chains):
P(A1a1A2) = 0.5*0.5*1 = 0.25
P(a1A1A2) = 0.5 *0.5*1=0.25
P(a1a1A2) = 0.5 *0.5 *1 = 0.25
P(A1A1A2) = 0.5 * 0.5 * 1 = 0.25 (good collagen—no problems with alpha-1)
3/4 of type I collagen is bad |
|
|
Term
| Type 1 collagen is made of how many of what kind of chains? |
|
Definition
two alpha-1 chains one alpha-2 chain |
|
|
Term
| symptoms of Classic Ehlers-Danlos |
|
Definition
| Joint hypermobility Skin elasticity Skin fragility joint dislocations common Spontaneous swan-necking of fingers Severe hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints Hyperflexion of the wrist |
|
|
Term
| What is the most dangerous type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome? |
|
Definition
vascular
mutation in type III collagen alpha chains (found in skin & vessels) high risk of arterial ruptures |
|
|
Term
| multipotent stem cells found in embryonic mesenchyme (during embryonic development)in cellular layer of periosteum in endosteum, and within Haversian system |
|
Definition
| Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSC; aka osteoprogenitor cells) |
|
|
Term
| a thin layer of tissue that lines the medullary cavity (bone marrow) of long bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With induction by TGF-beta & Bone Morphogenic Proteins (BMPs), Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSC; aka osteoprogenitor cells) differentiate into: |
|
Definition
chondroblasts (and then chondrocytes)
(without induction, they differentiate into osteoblasts, and then osteocytes) |
|
|
Term
| Without induction by TGF-beta & Bone Morphogenic Proteins (BMPs), Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSC; aka osteoprogenitor cells) develop into |
|
Definition
osteoblasts (and then osteocytes)
(with induction by TGF-beta & BMPs, they become chondroblasts, and then chondrocytes) |
|
|
Term
| What determines whether a Mesenchymal Stem Cell (MSC; aka osteoprogenitor cell) differentiates into an osteoblast or chondroblast? |
|
Definition
induction by TGF-beta & Bone Morphogenic Proteins (BMPs)
with induction by TGF-beta & BMPs, MSCs develop into chondroblasts
without induction, they develop into osteoblasts |
|
|
Term
| the only cells found in mature cartilage (embedded in cartilage matrix) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does cartilage tissue contain blood vessels? Lymph vessels? Nerves?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecule makes up 75% of cartilage? |
|
Definition
water
(15% is collage, particularly type 2 collagen, and 10% are proteoglycans, especially aggrecan) |
|
|
Term
| 15% of cartilage is _______, which gives it its tensile strength |
|
Definition
collagen
(particularly type 2 collagen; 75% is water and 10% are proteoglycans, especially aggrecan) |
|
|
Term
| 10% of cartilage is _________, which forms a highly resilient gel with water |
|
Definition
proteoglycans (protein + glycosaminoglycans (GAGs))
(especially aggrecans; 75% is water, and 15% is collagen, especially type 2 collagen) |
|
|
Term
| a large aggregating proteoglycan that, with collagen II, forms the structure of cartilage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the hyaline cartilage on articular surfaces of bones (that is, surfaces that touch each other in moving joints). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 main types of cartilage |
|
Definition
Hyaline cartilage—most common (articular is a type of hyaline)
elastic collagen—like hyaline, but more elastin fibers--stretchier
fibrocartilage—like a mix of hyaline & fibrous tissue—tougher |
|
|
Term
| Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body. How are elastic cartilage & fibrocartilage different than hyaline cartilage? |
|
Definition
elastic collagen—like hyaline, but more elastin fibers--stretchier fibrocartilage—like a mix of hyaline & fibrous tissue—tougher |
|
|
Term
| Unlike most hyaline cartilage, articular cartilage doesn’t have a ________ |
|
Definition
| perichondrium (this is where the mesenchymal stem cells & fibroblasts hang out) |
|
|
Term
| arthritis is associated with increased degradation (proteolysis) of what proteoglycan? |
|
Definition
aggrecans
(a large proteoglycan that, with collagen II, forms the structure of cartilage) |
|
|
Term
| the process by which cartilage is formed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of glycosaminoglycan (GAG) is most common in proteoglycans in hyaline cartilage? |
|
Definition
hyaluronic acid
(note: the most common proteoglycan is aggrecan; the most common glycosaminoglycan is hyaluronic acid) |
|
|
Term
| chondroblasts exist in structures called __________ in the cartilage matirix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When chondroblasts stop dividing, they become |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do cartilage lacunae typically contain more than one chondrocyte? |
|
Definition
| it takes the chondrocyte a little while to realize that it's "painted itself into a corner" and stop dividing |
|
|
Term
| thin layer of tissue outside of hyaline cartilage (except articular cartilage)& elastic cartilage that contains fibroblasts & Mesenchymal Stem Cells (MSCs) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Appositional growth of cartilage
|
|
Definition
type of growth of mature cartilage when newly-differentiated chondroblasts lay down matrix at perichondrium
(appositional = "side by side" or "next to"
compare to interstitial growth, the other type of growth of mature cartilage, in which older chondroblasts/chondrocytes regenerate matrix from lacunae) |
|
|
Term
interstitial growth of cartilage
|
|
Definition
type of growth of mature cartilage when older chondroblasts/chondrocytes regenerate matrix from lacunae
(compare to appositional growth, the other type of growth of mature cartilage, in which newly-differentiated chondroblasts lay down matrix at the perichondrium)
|
|
|
Term
| 2 ways that mature cartilage grows |
|
Definition
Appositional growth—newly-differentiated chondroblasts lay down matrix at perichondrium
Interstitial growth—older chondroblasts/chondrocytes regenerate matrix from lacunae |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
immovable joints (such as between skull bones)
(lit., "together joint") |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
slightly moveable joints (ex., teeth in jaw)
(lit., "both sides joint"--that is, it's neither fully immobile like a synarthrosis, nor fully mobile like a diarthrosis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
freely moveable joints (synovial joint)
(lit., "between joint") |
|
|
Term
4 parts of a synovial joint :
__________ (outermost part)
_____________ (lining)
______________(fluid)
_____________ (cartilage) |
|
Definition
fibrous capsule (continous with the periosteum of articulating bones)
synovial membrane (lines inside of fibrous capsule; secretes synovial fluid)
Synovial fluid (lubricating fluid that also acts as a shock-absorber and carrier of nutrients for cartilage; thin, watery, & slick like snot)
Articular cartilage on ends of bones |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one 6 types of synovial joints; only allows gliding or sliding movements
found between carpals of wrist and ankle, and between the spinous processes of the backbone
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one of the 6 types of synovial joints; allows flexion & extension in one plane (like a door hinge)
found between the humerus and ulna in the elbow & in the knee |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one of the 6 types of synovial joints; one bone rotates about another
between the ulna & radius in the elbow, between the skull and C1 (the atlas)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one of the 6 type of synovial joint; ike a ball & socket, but the “ball” is ovoid or oddly-shaped & fits into a matching “socket”, therefore allowing more limited range of motion than a true ball & socket joint (such as the hip)
found between the radius & the scaphoid bone of the wrist |
|
|
Term
| like a ball & socket joint, but the “ball” is ovoid or oddly-shaped & fits into a matching “socket” |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which allows greater range of motion: a ball-and-socket joint, or a condyloid joint? |
|
Definition
ball & socket allows a greater range of motion
condyloid is like a ball & socket, but the “ball” is ovoid or oddly-shaped & fits into a matching “socket”. The non-spherical shape limits movement more than true ball & socket (such as the hip)
condyloid permits movement in two planes, allowing flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and circumduction (movement in a circle). There is a condyloid joint between radius & the scaphoid bones of the wrist |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one of the 6 types of synovial joints; like 2 saddles with the convex parts meeting; permits similar movements to a condyloid joint: flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and circumduction (movement in a circle)
seen between the tibia and femur in the knee joint |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one of 6 types of synovial joints; the joint with the widest range of motion
the 2 ball-and-socket joints in the body are hip joints & shoulder joints |
|
|
Term
What's the difference between tendons & ligaments?
|
|
Definition
tendons connect muscle to bone or muscle to structure (ex., eye)
ligaments are one of 3 things:
1. fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone
2. a fold of the peritoneum or other membrane
3. the remnants of a tubular structure from the fetal life period |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a small bag off slimy fluid that is outside of the joint cavity; provides lubrication to a tendon or bone that slides over a joint |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a “space” that is normally filled with body tissue (ex., mouth filled with tongue)—sometimes can become a true space (esp. in pathology) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the compression of nerves, blood vessels, and muscle within a closed fascial compartment when there is excessive swelling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
end of long bone
(the middle of the long bone is the diaphysis; between the diaphysis and the epiphysis is a thin region called the metaphysis, which contains the growth plate in children)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
diaphysis
(lit, "between growth")
(the middle of the long bone is the diaphysis; the end is the epiphysis; between the diaphysis and the epiphysis is a thin region called the metaphysis, which contains the growth plate in children)
|
|
|
Term
| the area between the middle of a long bone & the end of the long bone |
|
Definition
| Metaphysis (the middle is Diaphysis & the End is Epiphysis) |
|
|
Term
| between epiphysis & metaphysis |
|
Definition
| epiphysial plate (or epiphyseal line) |
|
|
Term
| The bone receives 1/3 of its blood supply through the _______, and 2/3 through the__________. |
|
Definition
1/3 through the periosteum 2/3 through the marrow (medullary canal) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a group of related genes that transcribe proteins that regulate segmentation patterns in embryonic development
(side note: in flies, hox gene mutations can cause legs where the antennae should be or extra sets of wings; in humans, hox mutations are rare, but hand and foot deformities have been associated with hox mutations) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a signaling molecule that acts directly on cells to govern the pattern of tissue development (esp. the positions of the various specialized cell types within a tissue)
(ex., TGF-beta, sonic hedgehog, etc.)
note: morphogens are defined by function, not chemically
|
|
|
Term
| Just because there’s a pulse distal to a joint, doesn’t mean there are no occlusions in blood vessels around the joint. Why is that? |
|
Definition
| All synovial joints collateral circulation (>1 way for blood to flow) around the joint |
|
|
Term
| Why would someone take a glucocorticoid? |
|
Definition
| taken by people with auto-immune and/or inflammatory disorders because of the anti-inflammatory & immune suppressing features |
|
|
Term
| the most important glucocorticoid produced by the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What side-effect do glucocorticoids have on bone? |
|
Definition
| Multiple osteolytic (bone-dissolving) effects |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 osteolytic (bone-dissolving) effects of glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
Binds to receptors that inhibit transcription of osteocalcin in osteoblasts (Osteocalcin is a key extracellular matrix protein that promotes bone mineralization)
Induces osteoblast apoptosis
Increases osteoclast activity
Indirect osteolytic effects through other endocrine mediators of calcium regulation |
|
|
Term
Biphosphonates slow _______, but especially _______, and are used for:
|
|
Definition
Biphosphonates slow bone remodeling, but especially bone resoprtion.
They are used to preserve bone mass in people with osteoporosis, osteopenia, or other conditions that cause bone fragility, and also to treat Paget's disease of bone. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH) fragment that has an anabolic effect to replace lost bone density
Teriparatide is, thus far, the only drug that increases bone mass (other drugs slow loss but do not reverse it).
(PTH increases serum Ca2+, partially accomplishing this by increasing bone resorption. Thus, chronically elevated PTH will deplete bone stores. However, intermittent exposure to PTH will activate osteoblasts more than osteoclasts. Thus, once-daily injections of teriparatide have a net effect of stimulating new bone formation leading to increased bone mineral density.)
|
|
|
Term
| Biphosphonates help preserve bone mass, but they increase the risk of _____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the instructions for taking biphosphonates, and why? |
|
Definition
must be taken with water after an overnight fast at least 30 min prior to any other food or drink (biphosphonate is polar and not well absorbed, and food makes it worse)
must sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking (biphosphonate can cause severe esophageal irritation, and esophageal cancer) |
|
|
Term
| Is calcitonin an important hormone in adults? In children? |
|
Definition
Calcitonin is not important for adults. If you take out your thyroid, you have no more calcitonin, which causes no problems (you have to replace the thyroid hormone, but not the calcitonin).
In children, calcitonin is important for building bone.
mnemonic: calciTONin TONEs down Ca2+ levels in the blood (by storing Ca2+ in the bones) |
|
|
Term
How does calcitonin's effectiveness compare to biphosphonates at blocking bone resorption?
When would you take calcitonin? |
|
Definition
less effective
calcitonin can be added to biphosphonate therapy if that alone is note enough. |
|
|
Term
| If you give adults supraphysiological doses of calcitonin, what happens? |
|
Definition
| It blocks bone resorption. |
|
|
Term
| If you want to give someone calcitonin, you can give them synthetic _________ calcitonin, or synthetic _________ calcitonin, which is much more effective. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side-effects of calcitonin? |
|
Definition
GI: nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, abdominal discomfort Cardiovascular: flushing Inflammation: local rash, systemic hypersensitivity reactions
Lots of side effects; big reason it’s only used as a 2nd line of treatment. Up to 45% of patients discontinue due to side-effects |
|
|
Term
| What is the net effect of Vitamin D on serum calcium & serum phosphate? |
|
Definition
increases serum calcium increases serum phosphate (net increase in total body calcium) |
|
|
Term
| The kidney converts vitamin D into its most effective form _________ in response to low serum calcium |
|
Definition
| calcitrol (this process is highly regulated to maintain stable serum calcium levels) |
|
|
Term
| What effect does vitamin D have on calcium & phosphate in the intestine? |
|
Definition
| vitamin D increase calcium & phosphate abosorption |
|
|
Term
| What effect does vitamin D have on calcium & phosphate in the kidney? |
|
Definition
| increases calcium & phosphate resorption |
|
|
Term
| What effect does vitamin D have on calcium & phosphate in the bone? |
|
Definition
resorbs calcium & phosphate from the bone if serum calcium & phosphate are low
(if serum Ca2+ and phosphate are NOT low, it won't cause resorption from the bone, but will increase calcium absorption in intestines and retention in kidneys, so give vitamin D to people in danger of bone mass loss) |
|
|
Term
| Vitamin D resorbs calcium & phosphate from the bone if serum calcium & phosphate are low. So why do you give it to people with low bone mass? |
|
Definition
| Because it also increase calcium & phosphate absorption form the intestines, & calcium & phosphate re-absorption in the kidneys (which means that serum levels of calcium will be higher and calcium will not be resorbed from bone) |
|
|
Term
| From what 2 sources do most people get their vitamin D? |
|
Definition
diet skin produces vitamin D using sunshine |
|
|
Term
| What happens if serum calcium levels fall very low (hypocalcemia)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Teriparatide is a PTH fragment that helps replace lost bone density. Why do you only give teriparatide short-term (less than 18 months)? |
|
Definition
stops working within 18 months rats given teriparatide for >18 months developed osteosarcoma (bone cancer) |
|
|
Term
| What overall effect does estrogen have on bone mass? |
|
Definition
| preserves bone mass by preventing bone re-sorption |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "stone bones"; a rare hereditary disease marked by abnormally dense bone; these bones tend to be brittle & prone to fractures (too much concrete; not enough rebar) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a localized dysregulation of bone turnover that involves increased bone resorption and increased bone formation. Results in formation of bone that is poorly organized, weaker, painful, and deformed.
(The cause may be a combination of genetic factors and viral infection) |
|
|
Term
| Estrogen induces synthesis of osteoprotogerin (OPG), which inactivates __________ on osteoblasts |
|
Definition
RANKL
Osteoblasts express RANKL, which tells osteoclast to start chewing bone |
|
|
Term
| In women, the most rapid bone mass density loss occurs |
|
Definition
| In the 5 years after menopause |
|
|
Term
| Why wouldn't you give every menopausal woman estrogen supplements for the rest of her life? |
|
Definition
| Estrogen tends to promote growth & metastases of cancer |
|
|
Term
| Gene for alpha-1 chains for type I collagen |
|
Definition
COL1A1 (COLlagen, type 1, Alpha-1) |
|
|
Term
| Gene for alpha-2 chains for type 1 collagen |
|
Definition
COL1A2 (COLlagen, type 1, Alpha-2) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| irregularly shaped bones in the sutures of the skull; most commonly associated with OI |
|
|
Term
| People with Osteogenesis Imperfecta tend to have a ________-shaped face and a __________-shaped chest. |
|
Definition
triangle-shaped face barrel-shaped chest |
|
|
Term
Hyperextensible skin Hypermobile joints Velvety skin Fragile skin (bruises & tears easily) Poor wound healing leading to widened, atrophic scarring Molluscoid pseudo-tumors (small spongy growths found over scars and pressure points, made up of fat surrounded by a fibrous capsule) on elbows & knees Spheroid bodies on shins & forearms Mitral valve prolapsed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tall Long limbs relative to trunk Arachnodactyly (“spider fingers”)—unusually long, slender fingers Frequent dolichocephaly (long, narrow head from front to back) with prominent brow Mitral valve disease Significant risk of aortic dissection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Marfan's due to a problem with fibrillin, or a problem with elastin? Explain how. |
|
Definition
Both. Marfan's is caused by a mutation in the gene for fibrillin (a glycoprotein that is the major structural component of extracellular microfibrils) Microfibrils form a network for elastin deposition, so elastin is also negatively affected. |
|
|
Term
| Marfan's is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes for _________ |
|
Definition
fibrillin
(fibrillin a glycoprotein that is the major structural component of extracellular microfibrils. Microfibrils form a network for elastin deposition, so elastin is also negatively affected.) |
|
|
Term
| the chromosomal complement of an individual, including the # of chromosomes & any abnormalities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal female karyotype is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Karyotype for a male with trisomy 21 (Down’s Syndrome) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the individual with this karyotype:
(47, XX, +21) |
|
Definition
| a female with trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| number of sets of chromosomes in a cell. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
when a cell or organism DOESN'T have an integer multiple of the haploid set of chromosomes because of monosomy or trisomy in one or more of the chormosomes. Monosomy and trisomy are two types of aneuploidy
ex., in humans, the haploid set of chromosomes is 23; the normal diploid set of chromosomes per cell is
2 * 23 = 46
This is euploidy. Monoploidy, or having 23 chromosomes per cell, and polyploidy, such as having 69 chromosomes per cell (note: polyploidy, unlike aneuploidy, by definition always affects ALL cells in an organism), would also be euploidy but would not be viable in a human embryo.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when or cell or organism that normally has 2n haploid chromosomes, has one chromosome that is 3n |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when or cell or organism that normally has 2n haploid chromosomes, has one chromosome that is 1n |
|
|
Term
| Aneuploidy usually occurs from ________ in meiosis I or meiosis II. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
when a cell OR organism has an integer multiple of the monoploid set of chromosomes (1n, 2n, 3n, 4n, etc.)
in aneuploidy, the cell or organism does NOT have an integer multiple of the monoploid set of chromosomes b/c of monosomy or trisomy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
when ALL cells in an organism have a loss or gain of a complete haploid set of chromosomes (1n, 3n, 4n, etc.)
(always lethal to embryo in humans) |
|
|
Term
Describe the individual with this karyotype: (47, XY, +21 / 46, XY) |
|
Definition
| This person is a male with Down syndrome mosaicism (some cells have 47 chromosomes with trisomy 21, and some have 46 chromosomes) |
|
|
Term
| What syndromes are caused by monosomy of autosomal chromosomes |
|
Definition
| none. monosomy of autosomal chromosomes is incompatible with life in humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Patau's syndrome
(Patau's syndrome causes cycloPism via holoProsencephaly; high risk of fetal death & 80% of children do not survive their first month) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Edwards syndrome
(Eighteen causes Edwards syndrome--high probability of fetal death; only 5-10% survive their first year) |
|
|
Term
| The only viable monosomy for humans is ________ syndrome |
|
Definition
Turner (sex chromosome monosomy, X)
(phenotypically female, short, webbed neck, infertile, learning difficulties but usually normal intelligence) |
|
|
Term
| What syndrome does this person have? (45, X) |
|
Definition
Turner syndrome
(phenotypically female, short, webbed neck, infertile, learning difficulties but usually normal intelligence) |
|
|
Term
What syndrome is being described?
Female phenotype
Short stature
Ovarian failure leading to primary amenorrhea & infertility
Coarctation (narrowing) of the aorta
Some renal anomalies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What syndrome does this person have? (47, XXY) |
|
Definition
Klinefelter syndrome
(male phenotype, but some more feminine physical characteristics such as less body hair and female-type fat distribution afte puberty; tall; infertile; learning disability but no retardation) |
|
|
Term
male phenotype small testes low levels of testosterone sterile due to seminiferous tubule atrophy tall with long arms & legs sparse body hair breast development learning disability but no retardation |
|
Definition
| Klinefelter syndrome (45, XXY) |
|
|
Term
Describe the person with this phenotype (47, XYY) |
|
Definition
This is a male with XYY syndrome
male phenotype fertile learning disabilities behavioral problems tall stature |
|
|
Term
| What syndrome does the person with this karyotype have? (47, XXX) |
|
Definition
triple X syndrome
(Female phenotype; Fertile; No major congenital anomalies; Slight cognitive impairment; 2 Barr bodies) |
|
|
Term
What genetic syndrome do these clinical signs describe?
Female phenotype
Fertile
No major congenital anomalies
Slight cognitive impairment
2 Barr bodies |
|
Definition
| triple X syndrome (47, XXX) |
|
|
Term
| balanced genetic abnormalities |
|
Definition
abnormalities that do not change gene dosage (re-arrange genes, but don’t gain or lose genes)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When part of DNA is cut out & flipped. The opposite strand has trouble matching up, leading to circles other strange shapes |
|
|
Term
| when part of chromosome is cut & moved |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A zygote experiences a translocation. Why might this cause more problems for the resulting person's child than for the person themselves? |
|
Definition
Translocation leaves the carrier with the same amount and type of genetic material (same gene dosage). Translocation will often not cause a problem for the carrier (person in which translocation occurs) UNLESS it breaks an important gene in half or moves an important gene relative to regulatory DNA (which changes expression)
But it could lead to unequal sorting in meiosis. The cell with the now-bigger chromosome has partial trisomy. The cell with the now-smaller chromosome has partial monosomy. |
|
|
Term
| what is a partial monosomy? |
|
Definition
| when part of 1 of the chromosomes is missing |
|
|
Term
unbalanced chromosome rearrangement
|
|
Definition
| a genetic abnormality in which you lose genes (change gene dosage) |
|
|
Term
Reciprocal Translocation (genetics)
|
|
Definition
| when 2 chromosomes are cut & exchange pieces |
|
|
Term
Robertsonian Translocation
|
|
Definition
when one chromosome is cut & donates a piece to another chromosome; aka non-reciprocal translocation
(in reciprocal translocation, 2 chromosomes are cut and exchange pieces) |
|
|
Term
| What is a compound joint? |
|
Definition
a joint that is more than one of the 6 basic types (ex.,knee is hinge & gliding)
(the 6 types are gliding, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle, and ball-and-socket joints) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ball-and-socket joint between the humerus & the scapula |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The anterior compartment of the arm contains the muscles for _________ |
|
Definition
flexion (remember: arm = upper arm) |
|
|
Term
| The posterior compartment of the arm contains the muscles for _________ |
|
Definition
| extension (remember: arm = upper arm) |
|
|
Term
| The bone on the pinkie side of the forearm is the ________. The bone on the thumb side of the forearm is the ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The anterior compartment of the forearm contains muscles for ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The nerve that provide motor innervation to anterior arm (flexion) and sensory innervation to anteriolateral forearm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The nerve that provides motor innervation to posterior arm, and to lateral posterior forearm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ____ and ________ nerves are together responsible for all of forearm flexors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ nerve is responsible for most extensors in the forearm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve spirals around humerus and can be cut if humerus is fractured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 major terminal branches of the brachial plexus. |
|
Definition
musculocutaneous axillary radial median ulnar |
|
|
Term
| What nerve provides motor innervation to the shoulder and sensory to a patch of skin on upper lateral arm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve is most likely to be damaged by dislocation of glenohumoral joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Motor nerve for the 1.5 forearm flexor muscles not innervated by median nerve, & all of the hand muscles not innervated by median nerve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve is sensory for entire little finger & medial half of ring finger? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 nerves can be damaged by compartment syndrome of anterior compartment of forearm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 nerves are most likely to be cut if humerus is broken? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| motor nerve for most flexor muscles of forearm & many of hand |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sensory for much of anteriolateral part of hand (that is, thumb-side of the palm) & part of back of thumb & some fingers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A single artery with several names branches to the upper limb. At the top, it's called the ________. As it travels through the underarm, it’s re-named the __________. As it enters the arm, it's re-named the ____________. |
|
Definition
subclavian artery axillary artery brachial artery |
|
|
Term
| The major blood vessel of the arm |
|
Definition
brachial artery (remember: arm = upper arm)
(this vessel is called the subclavian artery where it branches off from the aorta/brachocephalic artery, renamed the axillary artery in the shoulder, and then renamed the brachial artery in the upper arm)
|
|
|
Term
| Just anterior of the elbow, the brachial artery divides into the _________ & __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the brachial artery divide into the radial & ulnar arteries? |
|
Definition
| just anterior to the elbow |
|
|
Term
| splits off fromthe brachial artery & travels around the humerus with the radial nerve |
|
Definition
| deep brachial artery (profunda brachii) |
|
|
Term
| The _________ artery spirals around the humerus with the radial nerve &, like the radial nerve, is in danger of being cut if the humerus is factured. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _______ and ________ arteries anastamose (re-join) in the hand |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A flat muscle with fascicles (bundles of muscle fibers) extending obliquely from the tendon
may be shaped like a feather (bipennate muscle), or like half of a feather (unipennate muscle), or the tendon may be branched (multipennate muscle)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a muscle shaped like a feather; fibers extend obliquely from a central tendon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a muscle shaped like half of a feather; a tendon runs the length of the muscle, oblique fibers extend from one side of tendon
|
|
|
Term
| A type of pennate muscle wherein the diagonal muscle fibers are in multiple rows with the central tendon branching into two or more tendons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do people most commonly get osteomyelitis? (where does the infection come from) |
|
Definition
| Contiguous spread (that is, infection spreads from tissue near bone to bone) |
|
|
Term
Who is most likely to get osteomyelitis from continguous spread: adults/children men/women what diseases predispose? |
|
Definition
most likely to get osteomyelitis adults males diabetics |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common isolate from osteomyelitis acquired through contiguous spread from nearby infected tissues? |
|
Definition
staph aureus (but it's often polymicrobial) |
|
|
Term
| If a bone is innoculated with a bacterium during an open fracture (a common occurence), how long will it take for osteomyelitis symptoms to show up? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do you most commonly get staph aureus from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are you most likely to get pseudomonas aeruginosa from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surgery in which both joint surfaces are replaced with artificial materials, usually metal and high-density plastic. |
|
|
Term
| surgery in which both joint surfaces are replaced with artificial materials, usually metal and high-density plastic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| spread of infection from blood (used to describe bone infections) |
|
|
Term
| Who is most likely to get osteomyelitis from hematogenous seeding, and why? |
|
Definition
children
because their bones are growing and, thus, very well vascularized |
|
|
Term
| Where does osteomyelitis most frequently occur in children, and why? |
|
Definition
in the metaphysis of long bones
because the metaphysis contains the growth plate, which is very well vascularized |
|
|
Term
| Why does osteomyelitis in children most often occur in the metaphysis of long bones? |
|
Definition
Osteomyelitis in children most often occurs as a result of hematogenous seeding from blood infections. The metaphysis is where the bones are most quickly growing, so they are highly vascularized. |
|
|
Term
A child with a blood-borne disease has
Chills
High fever
Malaise
Local pain around the metaphysis of the femur
Swelling around the metaphysis of the femur
Bone culture is negative
What are you concerned about, and why? |
|
Definition
Osteomyelitis in the metaphysis of the femur.
Bone cultures are negative in 50% of cases of osteomyelitis; the clinical signs and symptoms are consistent with osteomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common isolate from osteomyelitis acquired through hematogenous seeding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 most common isolates from osteomyelitis acquired through hematogenous seeding? |
|
Definition
Staph aureus Strep pneumonia Haemophilus influenzae type B (less common than it used to be b/c there’s a vaccine) |
|
|
Term
| Osteomyelitis due to hematogenous seeding is rare in adults, but when it does occur, where does it most often occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are older adults more likely to get osteomyelitis of the spine due to hematogenous seeding than younger adults? |
|
Definition
Elderly are more prone to:
pelvic infections
retrograde flow in veins
Theoretically, retrograde flow from pelvic tissues (urethra, prostate, bladder) to lumbar vertebrae can explain the spread of pelvic infections preferentially to lumbar vertebrae. |
|
|
Term
| 2 Most common isolates in osteomyelitis of the spine due to hematogenous seeding. |
|
Definition
Staph aureus coagulase-negative staph (such as staph epidermidis) |
|
|
Term
| An elderly patient with a bladder infection reports insidious pain & tenderness of spine. What are you concerned about? |
|
Definition
osteomyelitis of the spine (they may also have fever & motor & sensory deficits, but nearly all cases of osteomyelitis of spine involve insidious spine pain) |
|
|
Term
| How does diabetes affect risk for osteomyelitis, and why? |
|
Definition
increases
because vascular insufficiency prevents the immune system from patrolling as efficiently as normal |
|
|
Term
| What is typically cultured from osteomyelitis due to vascular insufficiency (such as in patients with diabetes)? |
|
Definition
Typically polymicrobial with aerobic & anaerobic organisms
Coagulase + staph (ex., staph aureus)
Coagulase neg staph (ex., staph epidermidis)
Strep Enterococcus |
|
|
Term
| What is unusual about osteomyelitis in IV drug users? |
|
Definition
| It occurs in unusual locations: Sternoclavicular Sternochondral join Sacroiliac join Pubic symphysis |
|
|
Term
What microbe is most commonly isolated from all types osteomyelitis? (except osteomyelitis in people with sickle cell anemia) |
|
Definition
staph aureus (salmonella is the most common in sickle-cell anemia; staph aureus is 2nd most common) |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common isolates from osteomyelitis in people with sickle-cell anemia? |
|
Definition
Salmonella (only kind of osteomyelitis that is not most commonly caused by staph aureus, tho s. aureus is also common) Staph aureus Other gram negatives |
|
|
Term
| Why do people with sickle-cell anemia most often get osteomyelitis due to salmonella infection? |
|
Definition
Sickle-shaped RBCs cause frequent blood vessel blockages, which leads to small areas of necrosis
Salmonella more easily leaves the gur through necrotic areas
Bones with vascular insufficiency are more easily infected |
|
|
Term
A child with sickle-cell anemia complains of
pain in the humerus a weeks spiking fever, & chills they have a raised WBC count (leukocytosis)
What are you most concerned about? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is osteomyelitis difficult to diagnose in people with sickle-cell anemia? |
|
Definition
| because the main symptom of osteomyelitis is bone pain, and sickle-cell anemia can cause bone pain due to ischemia |
|
|
Term
| Is staph aureus coagulase + or coagulase negative? |
|
Definition
| staph aureus is coagulase + |
|
|
Term
| Is Staph epidermidis coagulase + or coagulase negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test would you use to distinguish staph aureus from staph epidermidis (and other less-pathogenic types of staph)? |
|
Definition
coagulase test
staph aureus is coagulase + staph epidermidis & other less-pathogenic types of staph are coagulase negative |
|
|
Term
| How does staph aureus use coagulase as a virulence factor? |
|
Definition
| staph aureus may use coagulase in its cell wall to coat itself with plasma proteins & disguise itself from the immune system |
|
|
Term
| describe a test for the presence of coagulase |
|
Definition
| Coagulase causes plasma to clot, so put the bacteria in plasma & see if it clots (clots = coagulase +) |
|
|
Term
| Describe a catalase test. |
|
Definition
catalase is an enzyme that turns peroxide into water & oxygen:
H2O2 –(catalase)--> H2O + O2
put the bacteria in peroxide & see if it causes bubbles |
|
|
Term
| Are staphylococci catalase + or catalase negative? |
|
Definition
| Staphylococci are catalase + |
|
|
Term
| Are streptococci catalase + or catalase negative? |
|
Definition
| Streptococci are catalase neg. |
|
|
Term
| Are enterococci catalase + or catalase negative? |
|
Definition
| Enterococci are catalase neg. |
|
|
Term
| Are enterococci catalase + or catalase negative? |
|
Definition
| Enterococci are catalase neg. |
|
|
Term
| What test would you use to distinguish staph from strep? |
|
Definition
catalase test (staph is catalase +; strep is catalase negative) |
|
|
Term
| When would you use a solid growth medium vs. a liquid growth medium? |
|
Definition
Solid growth media are used for identifying & separating out a pure colony Liquid growth media are used for growing lots of bacteria that have already been purified |
|
|
Term
| Is e. coli gram + or gram negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is staph gram + or gram negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is strep gram + or gram negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Shigella gram + or gram negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Maconkey Agar (MAC) only allows _____________ to grow Its appearance starts out ______; turns _______________ in presence of ________ colonies |
|
Definition
gram-negative bacteria translucent red-orange hot-pink lactic-acid fermenting |
|
|
Term
| Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA) only allows _____________ bacteria to grow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You grow some bacteria on a Blood Agar Plate (BAP). How do you know if the bacteria is alpha-hemolytic, beta-hemolytic, or gamma-hemolytic |
|
Definition
Alpha-hemolytics—green b/c reactions with hemoglobin Alpha Arranges iron
Beta-hemolytic—clear b/c it lyses RBCs Beta Blanks out Blood
Gamma-hemolytic—no change (not hemolytic) Gamma is Gormless (stupid) |
|
|
Term
| High salt level in Mannitol Salts Agar (MSA) only permits salt-happy bacteria (like _________) to grow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mannitol Salts Agar normally appears _________, but turns _________ in the presence of ___________. |
|
Definition
hot pink neon yellow Coagulase-positive staphylococci (such as staph aureus) |
|
|
Term
| Bile esculine agar contain __________, which only allow __________ to grow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bile Esculin agar normally appear _________, but turns ___________ in the presence of ____________. |
|
Definition
yellow (like urine) black enterococci (eterococci break down esculin into insoluble iron salts, producing black rings) |
|
|
Term
| Differentiate between the alpha-hemolytic S. pneumoniae and other alpha-hemolytic streptococci based on Optochin sensitivity test. |
|
Definition
The growth of streptococcus pneumonia is inhibited in the presence of an optochin disc This helps differentiate between s. pneumonia & other alpha-hemolytic streptococci (such as strep viridians) which are optochin resistant |
|
|
Term
| Unlike most alpha-hemolytic strep, streptococcus pneumonia is sensitive to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Strep pneumoniae is
alpha-hemolytic beta-hemolytic gamma-hemolytic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bacitracin discs can be used to differentiate between ___________ strep & ________ staph |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You have a beta-hemolytic microbe, but you're not sure if it's staph or strep. What test would you do & how would you interpret the results? |
|
Definition
You would test sensitivity to bacitracin discs
Beta-hemolytic strep (ex., strep pyogenes) is bacitracin sensitive Beta-hemolytic staph (ex., staph aureus) is bacitracin resistant |
|
|
Term
| Beta-hemolytic strep is _________ to bacitracin. Beta-hemolytic staph (ex., staph aureus) is __________ to bacitracin |
|
Definition
| Beta-hemolytic strep (ex., strep pyogenes) is sensitive to bacitracin. Beta-hemolytic staph (ex., staph aureus) is resistant to bacitracin |
|
|
Term
| You suspect that a woman has osteoporosis. Would you x-ray her? Why or why not? |
|
Definition
| No. X-rays usually don't show osteoporosis. Use dual-energy absorptiometry instead. |
|
|
Term
| A person has bone mass 2.25 standard deviations below the mean. What do they have? |
|
Definition
osteopenia
1-2.5 StD < mean is osteopenia >2.5 StD < mean is osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
| A person has a bone mass 2.75 standard deviations below the mean. What do they have? |
|
Definition
osteoporosis
1-2.5 StD < mean is osteopenia >2.5 StD < mean is osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
| A person has a bone mass 0.5 standard deviations below the mean. What do they have? |
|
Definition
Nothing (yet)
1-2.5 StD < mean is osteopenia >2.5 StD < mean is osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
| A childhood disease caused by lack of vitamin D. |
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Definition
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Term
| Vitamin _______ is a cofactor for mineralizing bone |
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Definition
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Term
| What are 2 causes of vitamin D deficiency? |
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Definition
severe malnutrition (frequent in developing countries; rare here) Decreased sun exposure (esp. people of African descent in places near the poles) |
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Term
| A child has little bead-like knobs of bone on the ribs. What is this called and what is it an early sign of? |
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Definition
rachitic rosary early sign of rickets |
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Term
| What are signs of rickets that appear in the head? In the chest/trunk? |
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Definition
Craniotabes—abnormal softening/thinning of skull Late closing of fontanels Large head, protruding forehead
Rachitic rosary—little beads on ribs (Early sign of rickets) Kyphosis Pigeon chest with depressed ribs |
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Term
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Definition
abnormal softening/thinning of skull
(seen in Rickets) |
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Term
| What 3 things would you do for a child with rickets? |
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Definition
increase Vitamin D intake increase Phosphate intake increase exposure to sunlight |
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Term
| Vitamin D deficiency in adults causes _________ |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
soft bones
slightly or moderately bow-legged (not extreme like in rickets)
(osteomalacia is a disease caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults; it's the adult form of rickets) |
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Term
| What is the most obvious sign of rickets in a child? |
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Definition
| bent legs (usually bow-legged, but may be knock-kneed) |
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Term
| A person with renal failure has osteoporosis. They didn't have it before renal failure. What is their bone condition called, and how did renal failure cause it? |
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Definition
renal osteodystrophy
there is a failure to keep the proper amount of Ca2+ and phosphorous in the blood, either because the kidneys fail to retain sufficient Ca2+ and phosphorous, or because dialysis clears more Ca2+ and phosphorous from the blood than the kidneys do, (or a combination)
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Term
osteitis cystica is caused by an excess of ______________, and primarily affects __________ bones.
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Definition
ParaThyroid Hormone (PTH)
small |
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Term
| A localized bone disease of unknown etiology marked by increased osteoclastic & osteoblastic activity |
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Definition
Paget's disease of bone
(it probably has both genetic and viral elements, but we don't really know what causes it) |
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Term
| Mosaic tile pattern in bone cross-section is diagnostic for _________________ |
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Definition
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Term
| A child with a history of several bone fractures has visual deficits, facial paresis, and hearing loss. Why? |
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Definition
The child has osteopetrosis--too much bone mineralization leads to dense, brittle bones. Can also squeeze nerves exiting skull thru small foramena
Optic nerve-->visual deficits Facial nerve-->facial paralysis auditory nerves-->deafness |
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Term
| “Erlenmeyer flask” appearance of epiphysis points to ____________ |
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Definition
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Term
| What would you see if you looked at the cross-section of a long bone from a child with osteopetrosis? |
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Definition
| thick bone with little or no bone marrow |
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Term
| Why do children with osteopetrosis tend to have recurrent infections? |
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Definition
the bone mineral fills up the bone marrow leading to neutropenia (too few white blood cells) & anemia (too few red blood cells)
neutropenia--> recurrent infections |
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Term
| What cells make new bone when the bone is growing? What cells maintain mature bone? |
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Definition
osteoblasts make new bone osteocytes maintain bone |
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Term
| What cells do osteoblasts descend from? |
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Definition
| Osteoprogenitor cells (aka mesenchymal stem cells, or MSCs) |
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Term
| When one side of bone breaks & other doesn’t (in children) |
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Definition
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Term
| Plastic deformation of a bone |
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Definition
| when the bone bends without breaking |
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Term
| What features of bone fractures are suspicious for child abuse? |
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Definition
Breakage of several posterior ribs in baby—typical of squeezing injury Metaphyses corner fractures are typically due to twisting injury—suspicious for child abuse Spiral fractures are not typically consistent with falling down (unless they say they caught their foot & twisted). If they say “they fell down” & it’s a spiral fracture, that’s suspicious Fractures of different stages of healing Skull fractures in more than one place |
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Term
| Metaphyses corner fractures are typically due to what kind of injury? |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you know if swelling is compartment syndrome or edema? |
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Definition
If you immobilize it and aren’t restricting it or pushing on it, edema doesn’t hurt Compartment syndrome hurts! Also, compartment syndrome may start to turn purple |
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Term
| If you can’t palpate pulses in the extremities, check with a ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| If you can’t palpate pulses in the extremities, check with a ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you do a capillary refill test? |
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Definition
Hold limb higher than heart (ideally) Squeeze tip of finger or toe until it turns white Don’t squeeze nail bed, because it may refill faster than fingertip
Normal refill time is <2 sec in neonates, <3 sec |
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Term
| For most people, normal capillary refill time is_________. |
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Definition
less than 2 s (exception: for neonates it's <3 s) |
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Term
| For neonates, normal capillary refill time is_________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The best way to control hemorrhage from an open wound is by _________ |
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Definition
| direct pressure on the wound (apply sterile dressing to the open wound) |
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Term
| How will a splint help control bleeding? |
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Definition
| A splint will help control blood loss via tamponade (stopping blood flow by constricting the blood vessel via an outside force) |
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Term
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Definition
| stopping blood flow by constricting the blood vessel via an outside force |
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Term
| early signs & symptoms of compartment syndrome |
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Definition
Severe, constant pain out of proportion to apparent severity of injury Visible swelling Palpable tenseness of compartment Pain on palpation Pain on passive stretch of muscle Paresthesia—tingling, pricking sensation, or numbness |
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Term
| late signs & symptoms of compartment syndrome |
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Definition
Paresis—impaired movement, or partial loss of movment Pallor Pulseless (late sign) |
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Term
| Compartment syndrome can result from any injury to ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| What kinds of injuries are at high risk for compartment syndrome? |
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Definition
Tibial & forearm (radius, ulna) fractures Injuries immobilized in tight dressings or casts Severe crush injury to muscle Localized, prolonged external pressure to an extremity Increased capillary permbeability secondary to reperfusion of ischemic muscle Burns Excessive exercise |
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Term
| Why is systemic blood pressure important in assessing compartment syndrome? |
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Definition
Compartment syndrome occurs when capillary flow to the compartment is impaired by tamponade from external pressure form the compartment. The lower the systemic BP, the lower the compartment pressure that causes compartment syndrome |
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Term
| If you think someone has compartment syndrome, but you're not sure, what test can you do? |
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Definition
| There is a needle-like device that measures intramuscular pressure |
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Term
| How do you stabilize hips with a sheet? |
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Definition
fold the sheet smoothly so that it's wider than the pelvis(do not roll the sheet) place the sheet under the patient’s pelvis so it is centered over the greater trochanters (NOT over the pelvis) if using a backboard, place the sheet on top of the backboard) wrap very tightly and clip in place |
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Term
What are these devices for (or what can they be used for)?
MAST trousers pneumatic antishock garments the SAM Sling from The Seaberg Company the Traumatic Pelvic Orthotic Device, or T-POD, from Cybertech the PelvicBinder device |
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Definition
| stabilizing a broken pelvis |
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Term
| Ask the patient to abduct the index finger to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to abduct the thumb (thenar abduction) to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to flex the tip of the index finger to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
| anterior interosseus (a branch of the median) |
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Term
| Ask the patient to flex the elbow to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to extend the thumb & fingers to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to abduct the arm (use the deltoid) to test the motor function of the ___________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to extend the knee to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to aduct the leg to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to flex the toes to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to evert the ankle (turn the sole out) to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe everting the ankle |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe inverting the ankle |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to dorsiflex the ankle & toes to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to plantar flex the ankle to test the motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to abduct the hip to test motor function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Ask the patient to extend the leg back (using the glutes) to test the function of the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the little finger to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the index finger to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the lateral forearm to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the first dorsal web space of the hand (that is, the web space between the thumb & index finger, on the back of the hand) to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the lateral shoulder to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
axillary (remember: shoulder badge sensory distribution) |
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Term
| Test sensation on the anterior knee to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the medial thigh to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the sole of the foot to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the lateral dorsal part of the foot to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation on the dorsal first web space of the foot (the web space between the big toe & the 2nd toe, on the top of the foot) to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Test sensation anywhere on the foot to test sensory function of the __________ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Elbow injury is most likely to damage the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Wrist dislocation is most likely to damage the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| A break in the distal humeral shaft is most likely to damage the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Anterior shoulder dislocation is most likely to damage the _________ or ________ nerves |
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Definition
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Term
| A break on the proximal humerus is most likely to damage the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Dislocation of the knee is most likely to damage the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Posterior hip dislocation is most likely to damage the _________ nerve |
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Definition
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Term
| Fracture of the acetabulum is most likely to damage the _________ or _______ nerves |
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Definition
| superior gluteal, inferior gluteal |
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Term
| What originates at the back of spine (T6-T12), thoracolumbar fascia, inferior 3 or 4 ribs, and iliac crest, and inserts at the floor of intertubercular groove of the humerus? |
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Definition
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Term
| What nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the latissimus dorsi do? |
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Definition
| pulls the shoulders down & back (as in rowing) |
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Term
| What originates at back of the atlas (C1), axis (C2), & C3 & C4 vertebrae, and inserts on the top of the scapula? |
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Definition
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Term
| What innervates the levator scapulae? |
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Definition
| fourth and fifth cervical nerves |
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Term
| What does the levator scapulae do? |
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Definition
helps the trapezius shrug the shoulders if the shoulder is fixed, the levator scapulae tilts the neck to the same side as the contracting muscle & rotates the neck in the same direction |
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Term
| What originates at the back of vertebrae T2 to T5 & inserts at the medial border of the scapula, from about the level of the scapular spine down to the scapula's inferior angle? |
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Definition
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Term
| What innervates the rhomboid major? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the rhomboid major do? |
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Definition
helps to hold the scapula (and thus the arm) onto the ribcage works with the levator scapulae & trapezias to shrug the shoulder retracts the scapula (pulls it towards the vertebral) |
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Term
| What originates at the back of C7 & T1 & inserts at the medial border of the scapula, at the base of the spine of the scapula? |
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Definition
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Term
| What innervates the rhomboid minor? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the rhomboid minor do? |
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Definition
Fixes scapula to ribcage Helps rhomboid major adduct & retract scapula (pulls them medially & toward the back) |
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Term
| What back muscle originates at vertebrae T11-L & inserts on the lower border of the 9th through 12th ribs |
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Definition
| serratus posterior inferior |
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Term
| What innervates serratus posterior inferior? |
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Definition
| intercostal nerves T9 through T12 |
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Term
| What does the serratus posterior inferior do? |
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Definition
draws the lower ribs backward and downward to assist in rotation and extension of the trunk This movement of the ribs also contributes to forced expiration of air from the lungs. |
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Term
| What originates at vertebrae C7, T2, T3 and inserts on the upper borders of the 2nd through 5th ribs? |
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Definition
| serratus posterior superior |
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Term
| What innervates the serratus posterior inferior? |
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Definition
| 2nd through 5th intercostal nerves |
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Term
| What does the serratus posterior superior do? |
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Definition
| elevates the ribs, which aids in inspiration |
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Term
| How many major divisions does the trapezius have? |
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Definition
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Term
| What originates at external occipital protuberance of skull and the top half of the spine, and inserts onto the scapula? |
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Definition
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Term
| What muscle elevates the scapula (shrugs shoulders), adducts the scapula, and pulls down on the scapula, as well as helping support the weight of the arm? |
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Definition
| trapezius (it has 3 parts which can act separately) |
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Term
Explain the following mnemonic:
Optochin Outs pneumOnia |
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Definition
| Unlike most alpha-hemolytic strep, streptococcus pneumonia is sensitive to optochin |
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Term
Explain the following mnemonic:
Eighteen is Edward's
thirteen starts with a consonant
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Definition
trisomy 18 causes Edward's syndrome
trisomy 13 causes Patau's syndrome |
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Term
Explain the following mnemonic
You give to the dread chromosome Roberts. He gives nothing back to you. |
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Definition
Robertsonian (Non-reciprocal) Translocation is when one chromosome is cut & donates a piece to another chromosome
(vs. reciprocal, when the 2 chromosomes exchange pieces) |
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Term
|
Definition
| Elbow injury is most likely to damage the ulnar nerve |
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Term
Explain the mnemonic:
Pink turns yellow, kill a fellow |
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Definition
Mannitol Salts Agar is a high-salt agar that only allows the growth of salt-happy bacteria (staph)
It normally appears hot pink, but turns neon yellow in the presence of the more virulent Coagulase-positive staphylococci (such as staph aureus). |
|
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Term
| what genetic disorder causes spontaneous swan-necking of fingers? |
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Definition
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Term
What nerve runs down the front of the thigh & innervates the skin on the front of the thigh & knee?
What branch of this nerve innervates the skin on the lateral thigh? |
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Definition
femoral
superficial femoral
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Term
What nerve innervates the skin on the medial part of the thigh?
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Definition
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Term
Is the median or the ulnar nerve affected by carpal tunnel syndrome? |
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Definition
median
the ulnar nerve passes above the carpal tunnel |
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Term
What nerve innervates the:
Hypothenar muscles
all of the interosseous muscles (abductors & adductors)
third and fourth lumbricals (flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joints)
the adductor pollicis and
part of the flexor pollicis brevis. |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of collagen is the "rebar" in bone to hydroxyapatite's "cement"? |
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Definition
type 1 collagen
(the most abundant collagen in the body) |
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Term
| Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is caused by mutations in genes for ________ |
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Definition
collagen chains
(Ehlers-Danlos is most commonly caused by imperfections in type 3 collagen, but is caused by a variety of collagen defects,
osteogenesis imperfecta is most commonly caused by imperfections in type 3 collagen, but is caused by a variety of collagen defects
at this level, we mostly need to distinguish between the two clinically, not genetically) |
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Term
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Definition
A layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the cartilage of developing bone (that is, it surrounds elastic and hyaline cartilage except for articular cartilage, and not fibrocartilage). Contains mesenchymal stem cells and fibroblasts, and functions in growth and repair of cartilage. Once vascularized, the perichondrium becomes the periosteum.
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Term
|
Definition
A protein secreted by osteoblasts that increases bone calcification
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