Term
| which mediators of inflammation are most likely to cause fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 2 major cytokines best for antiviral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what two complements are anaphylaxatoxins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what disease has TSH receptor autoantibodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what hypersensitivity causes arthritis, vasculitis, and glomerulonephritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| oncogene that causes burkitt lymphoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 tumor markers for prostate cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what symbol is female in pedigree |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| on pedigree what does a heterozygote of autosomal recessive look like |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inheritance of cystic fibrosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inheritance of glucose-6-phosphate DH deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inheritance of huntington disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| chromosomal deletion of cri du chat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HLA type of ankylosing spondylitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most common cancer in men and women |
|
Definition
men: prostate
women: breast |
|
|
Term
| what is the name of the type of cell one looks for in a test for SLE that involves patient macrophages being mixed with injured leukocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
calcinosis
raynauds
esophageal dismotility
scleroderma
telangestica |
|
|
Term
| what immune deficiency has tetany and fungal/viral infections |
|
Definition
| digeorge: decreased parathyroid leads to decreased Ca and tetany. decreased thymus leads to decreased immune system |
|
|
Term
| what do alcohol and barbituates do to p450 |
|
Definition
| induce causing more breakdown of drugs |
|
|
Term
| to minimize hearing damage aminoglycosides should never be combined with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| procanamide and hydralazine share common side effect |
|
Definition
| lupus like in slow acetylators |
|
|
Term
| antidote for opipod overdose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when moving a vertebral segment away from neutral, which is passed first: physiologic or anatomic barrier |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a patient presents with cool dry ropy right paraspinal area is this a chronic or acute problem |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a lumbar vertebraw is neutral and sidebent right which way is it rotated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what direction to the superior facets face |
|
Definition
BUM BUL BUM
cervical: back, up, medial
thracic: back, up, lateral
lumbar: back, up, medial |
|
|
Term
| sidebending occurs in what plane and axis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a patient complains of upper arm, which anatomic site to you evaluate and treat first |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is myofascial release direct or indirect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what clotting factors are affected by vitamin K |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 things that trigger sickling in sickle cell anemia |
|
Definition
low oxygen
dehydration
acidosis |
|
|
Term
| what pneumonia results in cold antibodies |
|
Definition
| mycoplasma (anti-RBC Ab cause hemolysis) |
|
|
Term
| what deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia and neurologial symptoms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of cell ruses in number after severe hemorrhage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a patient were infected with parasites what WBC would you expect to see increased in number |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what leukemia is associated with the philadelphia chromosome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what cell type is classic in hodgkins disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what disorder has osteolytic lesions of the skull and pelvis and bence jones proteins in the urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 features of virchows triad |
|
Definition
blood stasis
hypercoaguability
endothelial damage
(phlebothrombus risk factors/venous clots) |
|
|
Term
| what arteritis must be diagnosed early to prevent blindness |
|
Definition
| giant cell temporal arteritis |
|
|
Term
| what aneurysm is associated with polycystic kidney disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what congenital heart abnormality is characterized by continous machine like murmur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is eisenmenger syndrome |
|
Definition
| reverse of a left to right shunt to a right to left shunt leading to pulmonary HTN |
|
|
Term
| in ischemic heart disease what two conditions can ST elevation represent |
|
Definition
Q wave MI
prinzmetal vasospasm |
|
|
Term
| 4 major complications of a MI |
|
Definition
cardiogenic shock
muscle rupture
heart failure
arrhythmia |
|
|
Term
| are dyspnea and orthopenia a sign of left or right sided heart failure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what endocarditis are those with previously damaged or abnormal heart valves are more risk of getting, what is the organism responsible |
|
Definition
| subacute - strep viridans (strep of mouth, often mutans), E. coli, gram negatives |
|
|
Term
| what syndrome involving the pericardium may occur following a MI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
rheumatic fever diagnosis
migratory polyarthritis
carditis
subcutaneous nodules
erythema migrinatum
syndehams chorea (st. vincent's dance) |
|
|
Term
| 4 classifications of obstructive lung disease |
|
Definition
chronic bronchitis
emphysema
asthma
broncholyitis |
|
|
Term
| what restrictive lung disease is caused by habitual inhalation of irritants like coal dust |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DOC vaginal candidiasis and systemic candidiasis |
|
Definition
vaginal: miconazole
systemic: fluconazole |
|
|
Term
| DOC for neisseria meningitidis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DOC for neisseria gonorrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 anatomical aspects of cervical vertebrae (C2-7) that differ from spinal vertebrae |
|
Definition
transverasarum foramen
bifid spines
uncovertebral joints of luska |
|
|
Term
| what ligament connects the dense to the foramen magnum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what scalenes elevate the first rib |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if you are able to induce left translation what type of sidebending are you inducing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if the occiput is rotated right what direction is it sidebent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| you are about to perform OMT on cervical spine what area must you start |
|
Definition
| thoracic spine then start with OA |
|
|
Term
| antidote of acetminophen overdose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what anti-TB drug is hepatotoxic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drugs are P450 inducers |
|
Definition
"one pharmacetuical brings about rapid liver metabolism"
oral contraceptives
pnenytoin
barbituates
ethanol
rifampin
levodopa
methadone |
|
|
Term
| 2 major causes of lobar pnaumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 types of lung carcinoma |
|
Definition
small cell
squamous cell
large cell
adenocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
| hematuria and RBC casts are usually indicative what what general classification of glomerulonephritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most common nephrotic syndrome in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| three components of staghorn renal calculus, what is the cause |
|
Definition
infection
Magnesium, phosphate, ammonia |
|
|
Term
| cause and DOC of syphillis |
|
Definition
treponma pallidum
penicillin G |
|
|
Term
| what testicular germ cell tumor has high AFP, what ovarian tumor is the counterpart |
|
Definition
yolk sac tumor
endodermal sinus tumor |
|
|
Term
| what ovarian tumor has cysts lined with epithelium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5 major risk factors for endometrial carcinoma |
|
Definition
obesity
age >40
late menopause
early menarche
nullparity |
|
|
Term
| 5 major risk factors for breast cancer |
|
Definition
obesity
age >40
early menarche
late menopause
nullparity |
|
|
Term
| koplik spots in mouth indicate what disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what esophageal diverticulum involves all layers of esophagus, which is only mucosal |
|
Definition
all: true
mucosa: false/pulsion |
|
|
Term
| what do cloxacillin, oxacillin, and methacillin have in common with respect their their ability to kill pathogens |
|
Definition
b lactaminase resistant
kill strep and staph |
|
|
Term
| what generation of cephalsporins are cefmandole and cefoxitin in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of gastritis does H. pylori cause, why must it be treated ASAP |
|
Definition
chronic B type
can cause gastric carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| what is the risk of developing colon cancer in familial polyposis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if patient presents with lots of abdominal pain, little to no blood in stool, skip lesions of ileum what is the cause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 components of charcots triad, what abdominal disease does it represent |
|
Definition
RUQ pain, jaundice, fever
acute cholangitis |
|
|
Term
| where is the cause of jaundice if there is high serum unconjugated bilirubin, high serum conjugated bilirubin, and high serum both |
|
Definition
unconjugated: prehepatic
conjugated: post hepatic
both: hepatic |
|
|
Term
| how are hepatitis A and B transmitted and their incubation times |
|
Definition
A: fecal oral (2-6wk)
B: blood, sex, pregnancy (2-6mo) |
|
|
Term
| if a patient is positive for anti-HBsAg what disease do they have |
|
Definition
| vaccinated for hepatitis B, no disease |
|
|
Term
| patient presents with cirrhosis, new onset diabetes, bronze skin, what is the disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| compare the finger abnormalities in RA and OA |
|
Definition
RA: PIP and MCP predominate
OA: DIP and heperdines nodules |
|
|
Term
| rule of three for thoracic vertebrae |
|
Definition
T1-3 spine is at the same level
T4-6 spine is 1/2 below
T7-9 spine is 1 below
T10 spine is 1 below
T11 spine is 1/2 below
T12 spine is at same level |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the primary motion of the thoracic spine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the pump handle, bucket handle, and caliper ribs |
|
Definition
pump: 1-5
bucket: 6-10
caliper: 11-12 |
|
|
Term
| what are the attachments of the diaphragm |
|
Definition
ribs 6-12
L1-3
xyphoid process |
|
|
Term
| in an inhalation dysfunction is the the key ribs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| prostaglandins and bradykinins share what common feature in terms of how we feel when we get sick |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what cell makes IL-1, what does it do |
|
Definition
macrophages make it
stimulates CD4 T cell
causes fever |
|
|
Term
| if there is no male to male transmission and the parents are not sick what is the inheritance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the HLA type of MS and nacrolepsy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the VRDL and FTA-ABS test result in a SLE patient, why |
|
Definition
VDRL positive because it tests for anti-cardiolipin (anti-phospholipid Ab) which is on syphillis and also made when SLE destories cells and they body sees the mitochondria membrane
FTA-ABS negative |
|
|
Term
| what clotting pathway does PTT, PT, and bleeding time test |
|
Definition
PTT: intrinsic
PT: extrinsic
bleeding time: platelet number |
|
|
Term
| what do the direct and indirect coombs tests evaluate |
|
Definition
direct: anti-Rb antibodies (like in pregnancy)
indirect: anti-RBC antibodies (warm/cold hemolytic anemia) |
|
|
Term
| what macromolecule is reliant on folic acid and vitamin B12 for synthesis, how is this related to anemia |
|
Definition
DNA
if you can't make DNA then cells stop dividing making large cells but less cells |
|
|
Term
| auer rods and myeloblasts are evidence of what disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| aminoglycosides are most effective against gram positives, gram negatives, or both |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of arterial inflammation is associated with hypersensitivity to tobacco |
|
Definition
| buerger's / thromboangiitis obliderans |
|
|
Term
| what disease do blue bloaters have, is it obstructive or restrictive |
|
Definition
chronic bronchitis
obstructive |
|
|
Term
| what drugs are P450 inhibitors |
|
Definition
"some pharmauticals can inhibit drug catabolism"
sulfonamides
pnehylbutazone
chloramphenicol
isonizid
dicumarol
cimetidine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what plane and axis is flexion |
|
Definition
plane: horizontal
axis: transverse |
|
|
Term
| what is the classic cell in hodgkins disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what athlerosclerosis is due to high serum calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what athlerosclerosis is due to malignant HTN |
|
Definition
| hyperplastic arterialLOsclerosis |
|
|
Term
| what athlerosclerosis is due to old age |
|
Definition
| hayline artheioLOsclerosis |
|
|
Term
| what athlerosclerosis is due to high lipid diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a 3yo japanese boy presents with very red hands and soles of the feet, conjunctivitis, what does he have |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if the atlas is sidebent left what is the rotation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if C5 is more easily translated left in flexion and there is equal translation right and left when in neutral and not as equal bilateral translation in extension what is the dysfunction |
|
Definition
C5 neutral
rotated right
sidebent right |
|
|
Term
| is serum calcium, phosphate, and alkaline phosphatase high, normal, or low in oestoperosis, osteomalacia, and pagets |
|
Definition
osteoperosis: normal
osteomalacia: low Ca and P, high AP
pagets: high AP |
|
|
Term
| what is the most common type of cartiladge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bone cancer is agressive, usually in pelvis and long bone marrow cavities, and more in young males |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why are the calves in duchenne muscular dystrophy large |
|
Definition
infiltration with fat and CT
hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
| what is the most common supratentorial tumor in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what CNS disorder has bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if one is spastic with increased DTR is it a lower or upper motor neuron lesion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the age of onset for MS, what is the physiological change |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the hormone produced in cushings syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what adrenal products are in excess in Conn's disease, what is the effect on serum Na levels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| contrast graves disease and plummers hyperthyroid size of follicle and colloid |
|
Definition
graves: small follicle, low colloid
plummer: large follicle, high colloid |
|
|
Term
| are the PTH and Ca levels high or low in hypoparathyroid and pseudohypoparathyroid |
|
Definition
hypoparathyroid: low PTH and Ca
pseydohypoparathyroid: high PTH and low Ca |
|
|
Term
| is DM1 or DM2 prone to ketoacidosis and obesity |
|
Definition
DM1 ketoacidosis
DM2 obesity |
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 organs involved in MEN1 |
|
Definition
pituitary adenoma
pancreatic carcinoma
parathyroid
adrenal adenoma: pheochromocytoma |
|
|
Term
| what are the ABC's of melanoma |
|
Definition
A: asymmetry
B: irregular borders
C: different colors
D: diameter >3mm
E: different elevations |
|
|
Term
| what skin disease is due to autoantibidoes against the intercellular junctions between keratinocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the two organs most affected by mercury poisoning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what guanine analog is DOC for herpes simplex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what color are gram positive bacteria after gram staining |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of colitis has a risk after use of broad spectrum antibiotics, what is the causative agent |
|
Definition
clostridium difficile, pseudomembranous
clindamycin |
|
|
Term
| what organ is destoried in acetminophen overdose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| of what are most renal calculi comprised |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of aneurysm are marfans patients most predisposed towards |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what germ cell tumor is associated with painlss enlargement of the testies and is often curavle because of its radiosensitivity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the causative agent of condyloma acuminatum and conduloma lata |
|
Definition
acuminatum: HSV
lata: syphillis |
|
|
Term
| what is the source of a-amanitin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a patient is + HBsAg what is their diagnosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a patient has rectal pain, bright red blood in stool, pseudopolyps on colonoscopy, what is the disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of tumors other than colon carcinoma are associated with turcots disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 subtypes of hodgkins and what type of reed sternburg to they have |
|
Definition
lymphocyte predominate: less RS cells (better prognosis) lymphostocystic RS B markers
nodular sclerosis: lacunar RS, 50/50 RS cells, moderate prognosis
mixed cellularity: classic RS with CD15
lymphocyte depletion class RS, high amounts of RS bad prognosis |
|
|
Term
| inheritance of achondroplasia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| compare and contrast gilbert and crigler najjar |
|
Definition
gilbert: decreased uridine diphosphoglucronlgransferase, mild impairment in uptake, evident in times of stress
crigler: severe impairment of uptake, chronic |
|
|
Term
| what cells of CD3a and CD5a stimulate |
|
Definition
mast cells
platelets
basophils |
|
|
Term
| what type of fungal infection is amphotericin used |
|
Definition
disseminated coccidiomycosis
rhizopus
fusarium
alternate for aspergillus, cryptococcal meningitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of bacterial has no cell wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the effect of botulinum toxin on neurons and clinically |
|
Definition
blocks ACh receptors at NMJ
1. constipation
2. flaccid paralysis decending
3. respiratory paralysis |
|
|
Term
| what are the O2 requirements for mycobacterium TB |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 most common causes of otitis media |
|
Definition
strep pneumo
H. influenzae |
|
|
Term
| most common cause of pneumonia in young adults |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 most common causes of meningitis in neonates |
|
Definition
1. GBS
2. E. coli
3. listeria |
|
|
Term
| most common cause of bacterial endocarditis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| only species of group A B-hemolytic strep |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| S. viridans: hemolytic nature, bile solubility, optochin sensitivity |
|
Definition
alpha hemolytic
bile insoluble
optochin resistant |
|
|
Term
| what organism is associated with waterhouse friderichsen syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the gram stain of E. coli |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what two bacteria are arranged in growth pattern like chinese characters |
|
Definition
cornebacterium diptheria
listeria monocytogenes |
|
|
Term
| two major toxins made by clostridium perfringens and the disease caused by them |
|
Definition
alpha toxin: gas gangrene
enterotoxin: food poisoning |
|
|
Term
| compare E. coli, salmonella, and shigella in terms of gram stain, motility, and lactose fermentation |
|
Definition
E. coli: gram negative, motile, ferments
Salmonella: gram negative, motile, no ferment
shigella: gram negative, immotile, no ferment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what organism causes pneumonia with cirrent jelly sputum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what comma shaped organism causes rice water stool |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pasteurella is a common pathogen in wounds caused by? what 2 infections does it cause? |
|
Definition
dog/cat bites
cellulitis
osteomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| what organism creates green blue exudate or pus, smells musty, and often infects burns |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is most illness and morbidity of TB due to the primary or reactivation infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what two bacterial genera where commonly confused with fungi due to the filamentous and branching growth? how are they different in terms of natural habitats and oxygen requirements |
|
Definition
gram positive rods
actinomyces: infects contact lenses, water, soil mouth, sinuses
nocardia: acid fast, in soil and lungs |
|
|
Term
| what is the causative agent of lyme, what is the name of the buch and the lesion |
|
Definition
borella burgdoferi
bulls eye rash, erythema chromcum migrans |
|
|
Term
| in what form is chalmydia infective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common agent of non-gonoccal urethritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 typhi, their cause, and their vector |
|
Definition
epidemic: R. prowazekii, flying squrriel, human, lice
endemic: R. typhi - rats and fleas
scrub: R. tustugamushi - rodents and mites |
|
|
Term
| what demyelinating disease follows viral infection, affects PNS, mostly motor, ascending muscle weakness and paralysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 5 structures must be present for it to be a typical rib |
|
Definition
head
neck
tubercle
angle
shaft |
|
|
Term
| the spine of the scapula is at what vertebral level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| route of transmission and incubation time for hepatitis C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the composition of most kidney stones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what two species of bacterial are associated with development of struvite |
|
Definition
proteus morabalis
staph saphrophiticus |
|
|
Term
| what organs are affected by MEN 1 |
|
Definition
pituitary adenoma
adrenal pheochromocytoma
parathroid
pancreas carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| what organs are effected by MEN 2 |
|
Definition
adrenal medulla pheochromocytoma
thyroid medullary carcinoma
hyperparathyroid |
|
|
Term
| describe feet of friedreich's ataxia patients |
|
Definition
| pes cavus: cave in sole, high arches |
|
|
Term
| is ALS are disease of UMN, LMN, or both |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what two bones when fractures are notoriously prone to avascular necrosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is there increased conjugated or unconjugated bilirubin in gilberts, crigler najjar, dubin johnson, rotor |
|
Definition
gilbert: UC
crigler: UC
dubin: C
rotor: C |
|
|
Term
| what is the difference in terms of formation, components and dangers associated with complete vs incomplete hydatiform mole (used Rehymer explination thought it was better) |
|
Definition
complete: fertilized empty egg with 2 sperm (46 chromosomes). COMPLETE mom absence. COMPLETE villi edematous/hydropic. trophoblasts COMPLETELY cover villi (more b-hCG). COMPLETE risk for choriocarcinoma
partial: fertilize 1 egg with 2 sperm. PARTIAL genetic material correct. PARTIAL fetal formation. PARTIAL circumference of trophoblasts around hydropic villi. villi PARTIALly have edema, some are normal. PARTIAL risk of choriocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
| 20yo make, bloody stool for 1y, abd pain, symptomatic arthritis, iritis. top of DDX list for the bloody stool is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the causative agent of 5th disease, what are two other names |
|
Definition
parvovirus B19
slapped cheek disease
erythema infectiousum |
|
|
Term
| compare chicken pox and small pox synchrony of evolution |
|
Definition
chicken pox are in all different stages
small pox are all in the same stage |
|
|
Term
| what type of cosackie is associated with myocarditis and what type hand foot and mouth disease |
|
Definition
B is myocarditis
A hand foot mouth |
|
|
Term
| what causes measles and german measles |
|
Definition
measles is rubeola
german measles is rubella |
|
|
Term
| what type of disease does rotavirus cause, what family is the virus in |
|
Definition
gastrenteritis in kids
reoviridae |
|
|
Term
| 4 classes of antibiotics that inhibit translation in bacteria |
|
Definition
aminoglycosides
macrolides
tetracyclines
chloramphenicol
clindamycin |
|
|
Term
| what do methotrexate, trimethoprim, and pyrimethamine have in common |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA of rifampin, what disease does it treat |
|
Definition
transcription inhibitor
TB |
|
|
Term
| what level does the spinal cord end in most people |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is the lumbar spine more susceptible to herniation |
|
Definition
| the posterior ligament is thinner |
|
|
Term
| what is the primary flexor of the hip |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does a small fergusons angle affect the curvature of the spine |
|
Definition
| small means they have a flat back with little lordosis |
|
|
Term
| if a patient has a herniated L3 disc what root is affected |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the major types of spina bifida and what does each represent |
|
Definition
occulta: laminae malformation, hair or nevi
meningocele: meningies malformation
meinogomyeloele: meninges malformation and herniation of nerve roots
rachischisis: full or open to CNS |
|
|
Term
| what is the term for anterior displacement of the vertebrae with respect to the one inferior |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what dermatone is the umbilicus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the vector for hanta virus, what infection does it cause |
|
Definition
deer mice urine, feces, saliva
respiratory infection |
|
|
Term
| what is the causative agent of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
kuru
CJV
CJV varient
bovine encephalitis
scarpie
fatal familial insomnia
gerstmann straussler scheinker |
|
|
Term
| what is the term for a virus that integrates itself into the host genome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what HIV glycoprotein mediates HIV binding to the CD4 receptor, which mediates HIV fusion to the cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is cryptococcus a yeast or mold |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a tissue specimen of infected area reveals cigar shaped budding yeast what is the cause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a slide made from a vaginal swab is examined and germ tubes and pseudohyphae are found what is the infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| stages of plasmodia development |
|
Definition
1. sporozoite injected
2. in liver 30min
3. developed into merozoites
4. enter RBC
5. A. make more merozites which lyse RBC every 48h (72h for malariae)
5. B. gametocyte released and sucked into mosquito and turns into sporozoite |
|
|
Term
| what species of plasmodium is the most severe and life threatening |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the causative agent of kala-azar, what is another name for this disease |
|
Definition
leshmania donovani
black sickness |
|
|
Term
| what is the vector and cause of chagas disease |
|
Definition
T. crusi
kissing/reduvidd bug |
|
|
Term
| DOC for entamoeba histolytica |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| compare location of schistoma mansoni, japonicum, hematobium |
|
Definition
mansoni: colon
japonicum: SI and liver
hematobium: bladder |
|
|
Term
| what is the generic term for cestode |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what nematode causes perianal puritis especially at night |
|
Definition
pinworm
enterobius vermicularis |
|
|
Term
| if the Km of an enzyme is high what is the affinity of the substrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| by what two amino acids does trypsin cleave, does it cleavy carboxy or amino side |
|
Definition
lysine and argining
carboxy |
|
|
Term
| what AA is the source of GABA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the molecular type (macromolecule) of all exotoxins |
|
Definition
| polypeptides proteinaceous |
|
|
Term
| what PAS character do mucosal macrophages in whipples disease have |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is takayasu disease called pulseless disease |
|
Definition
| granulomas on aorta decrease recoil and decrease pulse |
|
|
Term
| which are motile: E. coli, salmonella, shigella |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what antibody type crosses the placenta |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA for killing of plasmodium by chloroquine |
|
Definition
makes heme toxic
lyses RBC
inhibits DNA
alkalizes food vacoule |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
kills liver hyponozites
kills gametocytes to decrease spread |
|
|
Term
| what type of staph is associated with UTI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what stain is used for cryptococcus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what enzyme does methotrexate inhibit, what effect does this have, what product is no longer made |
|
Definition
| inhibits folate which stops dihydrofolate reductase so you cannot turn dihydrofolate into tetrahydrofolate and thus cannot make nucleotides |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| common contaminating agent of bodies of water with leptospira interrogans |
|
Definition
| rat, mouse, cat, dog urine |
|
|
Term
| what HLA is associated with psoriatic arthritis, what other disease are associated with this HLA |
|
Definition
B27
ankylosing spondylitis
reactive arthritis |
|
|
Term
| what is the number one cause for amenorrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is prader willi due to maternal or paternal deletion of 15q11-13 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| explain the pentose phosphate shunt |
|
Definition
glucose + Mg + Ca > NADPH + H
NADPH + H + FAD + glutathione reductase > glutathione
glutathione + H20 + glutathione peroxidase > 2 H20 |
|
|
Term
| most common side effects of cisplatnin |
|
Definition
peripherial neuropathy
ototoxicity
nephrotoxicity
severe vomiting |
|
|
Term
| most common side effects of cyclophosphamide |
|
Definition
| hemorrhagic cystitis and fibrosis |
|
|
Term
| most common side effects of bleomycin |
|
Definition
pulmonary fibrosis
extravasion |
|
|
Term
| what enzyme is missing in phenylketonuria |
|
Definition
| pnenylalanine hydroxylase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
dermatitis
diarrhea
dementia |
|
|
Term
| stops from phenylalanine to the production of epinepherine |
|
Definition
pnenylalanine + phenylalanine hydroxylase > tyrosine
tyrosine + tyrosinase > dopa
dopa > dopamine > NE
NE + vitamin C and Ca > epi |
|
|
Term
| what amino acids build up in maple suryp urine disease |
|
Definition
| isoleucine leucine valine |
|
|
Term
| what kind of sugar is glucose based on the number of sugars it has |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hexokinase vs glucokinase: location and affinity for glucose |
|
Definition
hexokinase: most tissues, low affinity
glucokinase: liver, B islet cells, high affinity |
|
|
Term
| what types of glycocidic bonds exist between sugars of sucrose, glycogen and cellulose |
|
Definition
sucrose a1,2
glycogen a1,4, a1,6
cellulose B1,4 |
|
|
Term
| lactose intolerance is due to a defect in what enzyme |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| main clinical effects of fructosuria vs fructose intolerance |
|
Definition
fructosuria: benign, fructose in urine
fructose intolerance: fructose builds in kidney and liver causing failure and hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
| why does von girke not invade skeletal muscle |
|
Definition
| no gluconeogenesis in muscle |
|
|
Term
| what COX inhibitor has no anti-inflammatory activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 enzymes involved of breaking down glycogen into glucose |
|
Definition
glucose-6-phosphatase
phosphorlyase
glucomutase |
|
|
Term
| what 2 mucopolysaccharidoses have defect in a=L iduronidase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| are these FA saturated or unsaturated: palmitic, linoleic, linolenic, oleic |
|
Definition
palmitic: saturated
lnoleic: poly unsaturated
linoleic: poly unsaturated
oleic: mono unsaturated |
|
|
Term
| what is enterohepatic circulation |
|
Definition
| liver > bile > GB > bile ducts > sphinctor of oddi > duodenum > ileum > liver |
|
|
Term
| 4 components of a triglyceride and glycerophospholipid |
|
Definition
TG: glycerol + 3 FA
glycerophospholipid: glycerol + 2 FA + 1 phospholipid with specific head |
|
|
Term
| what type of lipid is lecithin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of lipid is cardiolipin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what sphingolipidosis is associated with blindness and a cherry red macula and is more common in jews |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what enzyme is defective in gauchers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the mechanism of photosensitivty associated with prophyrias |
|
Definition
sun turns prophinogen into porphoryn
oxygen causes porphoryn to release ROS
ROS causes photosensitivty reaction |
|
|
Term
| what steps of heme synthesis does lead inhibit |
|
Definition
ALA dehydrogenase
ferrocheltilase |
|
|
Term
| what 2 metabolic processes does the liver use to maintain glucose levels |
|
Definition
glycogenolysis
gluconeogenesis |
|
|
Term
| in normal non fasting person what is the only energy sources for the brain and for RBC, what about in starvation |
|
Definition
non fasting: both use glucose
starvation: brain can use ketones, RBC need glucose |
|
|
Term
| what is the disorder caused by thiamine deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what virus causes measles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which cosackie virus causes myocarditis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| doxycycline or ceftriadone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what ribosome subunit is acted on by aminoglycocides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what ribosome subunit is acted on by tetracyclines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what ribosome subunit is acted on by chlorphenicol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what ribosome subunit is acted on my macrolides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in what developmental stage are plasmodia when they are injected into human body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the cause of infectious mononucleosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
stops macrophage lysosome formation
builds up in joints best |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
first line is NSAID
DOC colchisine |
|
|
Term
| how many vertebrae is the sacrum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 accessory ligaments of the sacrum and their attachment |
|
Definition
sacrotuberosus: sacrum, ischial tuberosiry
sacrospinous: sacrum, ischial spine
iliolumbar: iliac crest, L5-5 |
|
|
Term
| what is the first ligament to become tender in a lumbosacral dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 functions of the piriformis |
|
Definition
external rotation
abduction
extension |
|
|
Term
| what nerve roots constribute to the lumbar plexus, sacral plexus, and sciatic nerve |
|
Definition
lumbar: T12-L4
sacral: L2-S4
sciatic: L2-S3 |
|
|
Term
| 4 types of sacral motion, under what conditions, what horizontal axis |
|
Definition
inherent (S2): craniosacral, superior axis
respiratory: horizontal
postural: transverse S3
dynamic: oblique |
|
|
Term
| if L5 is rotated left what direction is the sacrum rotated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if L5 is sidebent left what side is an oblique axis of the sacrum engaged |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what enzyme in the glycolytic pathway is inhibited by ATP and citrate but activated by AMP and 2,6-diphosphate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what effect does phosphorlyation have on hormone sensitive lipase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what class of steroid are glycocholate, taurocholate, cortisol, DHEAS |
|
Definition
glycholate: bile acids
cortisol: glucocorticoids: DHEAS androgen |
|
|
Term
| what layer of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone, cortisol, and testosterone |
|
Definition
zona glomerulosa: ALD
zona fasicularis: cortisol
zona reticularis: testosterone |
|
|
Term
| do the testies make glucocorticoids and ALD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in male peripheral metabolism and two molecules is testosterone converted to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what cells of the ovary have the same chlesterole dependent pathway as the same productions of that pathway as leydig cells of the testes |
|
Definition
| theca cells produce androgen |
|
|
Term
| in the granulosa cells of the ovary what two molecules is androstendione converted to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does female peripheral metabolism differ from male peripheral metabolism with regard to cholesterol dependent products |
|
Definition
male: DHT > androsteindione, estrone, testosterone
female; estrol > androstendione, estrone, testosterone |
|
|
Term
| does the corpus luteum make esteogrn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in 17a-hydroxylase deficiency what hormones are deficient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in 21a-hydroxylase deficiency what hormones are deficient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in 11b-hydroxylase deficiency what hormones are deficient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is fat lysis stimulated by insulin, glucogen, or growth hormone |
|
Definition
| glycogen and growth hormone |
|
|
Term
| what are the purines and pyrimidines |
|
Definition
purines: adenosine, guanine
pyrimidines: uracil, thymidine, cytosine |
|
|
Term
| in lesch nyhan defective HGPT causes inability to salvage purines so they are degraded to this molecule which is the cause of the symptoms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the segment of bacterial DNA that consists of promoter, operator, and one or more structural genes is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many structural genes are associated with promoter in prolaryotic genome and eukaryotic genome |
|
Definition
monocystrionic in eukaryotes
polycystronic in prokaryotes |
|
|
Term
| if one has a seated flexion test positive on the left and there is a sacral oblique axis on what side will it be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does the standing flexion test evaluate that the seated flexion does not |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if the right ASIS is inferior and the right PSIS is superior and there is a positive standing flexion test on the right what is the innominate dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if the right ASIS is super and the right PSIS is superior and there is a positive standing flexion on the right, what is the inomniate dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 causes of superior pubic shear |
|
Definition
tight rectus abdomnius
pregnancy/labor
trauma
posterior innominate |
|
|
Term
| if the right ASIS is more lateral and there is a positive standing flexion test on the right what is the likley innominate dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what sacral dysfunction is VERY common in post partum females |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common sacral shear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the pt has left on left, what type of sacral dysfunction is this |
|
Definition
| physiological, forward torsion |
|
|
Term
| if there is a sacral dysfunction what area should be evaluated and treated first |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the class of drug for cantopril and enalapril |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what changes occur in electrolytes, urea, and glucose with thiazides |
|
Definition
decreased Na and K
increased Ca and uric acid
hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
| what region of DNA encodes a single protein in prokaryotes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the major DNA polymerae in prokaryotes, what are its functions |
|
Definition
| RNA polymerase III: proofread, exonuclease, catalyze DNA replication |
|
|
Term
| what type of polymerase makes the leading strand in eukaryotic DNA replication, what are its other functions |
|
Definition
| polymerase E: acts as helicase (UNABLE to proofread or do exonuclease) |
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 germ layers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the median and medial umbilical ligaments were what structure in the fetus |
|
Definition
median: urachius
mediaL: umbiLicaL artery |
|
|
Term
| what branch of the branchial arch are the muscles of mastication and facial expression derived |
|
Definition
1st mastication
2nd facial expression |
|
|
Term
| from what pharyngeal pouches are the thymus and inferior parathyroids derived |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where are the cervical cysts located, from what fetal structure do they derive |
|
Definition
anterior lateral neck
remnent of pharyngeal cleft |
|
|
Term
| what duct evuntally develops into vas deferens and epididymis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what duct evuntally develops into fallopian tubes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what structures pass through the foramen ovale |
|
Definition
V3
accessory meningeal artery |
|
|
Term
| what structures pass through the foramen spongiosum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what structures pass through the superior orbital fissure |
|
Definition
CN 3, 4, 6,
superior opthalmic vein
sympathetic nerves |
|
|
Term
| what is the innervation of the lateral rectus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the innervation of the superior oblique |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what muscle is relaxed in horner syndrome, why |
|
Definition
muellers muscle
disrupted sympathetic control |
|
|
Term
| what muscle is responsible for midrasis and miosis |
|
Definition
sphinctor pupiale - miosis
dilator pupiale - mydriasis |
|
|
Term
| pt has injury to right 12th CN to what side will that patients tongue deviate when he attempts to protrude his tongue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which pterygoid operates to open the mouth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what laryngeal muscle is NOT innervated by the recurrent laryngeal, what is the innervation |
|
Definition
| crycopharyngeal - superior laryngeal |
|
|
Term
| what muscle is paralized in scapular winging, what nerve |
|
Definition
serratus anterior
long thoracic nerve |
|
|
Term
| what nerve roots supply the musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, and ulnar nerve |
|
Definition
MCT: C5-6
axillary: C7
radial: C7
ulnar: C8-T1 |
|
|
Term
| what cutaneous loss is associated with unlar nerve, musculocutaneous nerve, and radial nerve damage |
|
Definition
ulnar: fingers 4.5-5 and lateral hand
MCT: lateral forearm
radial: lateral posterior forearm and hand without tips |
|
|
Term
| what nerve risks injury with a fracture to the humerus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of fracture is a fracture of the distal radius |
|
Definition
| collies: land on outstretched hand |
|
|
Term
| for the hip what is the primary abduction, adductor, internal rotator, external rotator |
|
Definition
abd: gluteus medius
add: adductor magnus and minimus
external: gluteus maximus
internal: gluteus medius and minimus |
|
|
Term
| what type of glomerular disease has crescents |
|
Definition
| rapid proliferative glomerular nephritis |
|
|
Term
| what are the categories of RPGN |
|
Definition
1) Ab- idiopathic, goodpastures
2) immune complex- idiopathic, SLE, henoch purpura, post strep
3) ANCA- idiopathic, wegeners, micropolyangitis, polyarteritis nodosa |
|
|
Term
| what type of glomerulonephritis is goodpastures disease |
|
Definition
nephritis
anti-glomerular BM disease
rapid proliferative later |
|
|
Term
| if a pt presents with inhaled dysfunction of ribs 3, 4, 5 what rib should you treat first |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the main motion of the OA, AA, and upper cervicals |
|
Definition
OA: F/E
AA: rotation
cervicals: rotation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DOC esophageal candidiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what generation of cephalosporin is cefazolin, cefoxitin, and ceftriaxone |
|
Definition
cefazolin 3
cefoxitin 2
ceftriaxone 3 |
|
|
Term
| what is the antidote to warfarin OD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the antidote to benzo OD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug is used to eliminate tapeworms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug is used to eliminate flukes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the innervation of the hamstrings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the innervation of the quadriceps |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the muscles of the hamstrings |
|
Definition
biceps femoris
semitendinosus
semimembranosis |
|
|
Term
| how is foot movement affected by a peroneal nerve injury |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| contents of superior, middle, posterior, and anterior mediastinum |
|
Definition
superior: thymus, aortic arch, esophagus, trachea
anterior: nothing
middle: heart
posterior: esophagus |
|
|
Term
| at what point in the cycle of heart contraction and relaxation is the blood flow through the coronary arteries the greatest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what three arterial trunks come from aorta and feed abdominal viscera |
|
Definition
celiac: stomach
superior mesenteric: transverse colon, SI
inferior mesenteric: sigmoid colon |
|
|
Term
| three shunts caused by portal HTN |
|
Definition
esophageal varices
hemorrhoids
caput medusa |
|
|
Term
| where is McBurney's point |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the triad for peridonitits |
|
Definition
rebound tenderness
rigidity of muscles
abdominal pain |
|
|
Term
| what are the layers of spermatic cord superificial to deep |
|
Definition
skin
superificial fascia
cremasteric muscle
peritoneum (internal spermatic fascia)
tunica vaginalis (loose CT)
testies |
|
|
Term
| where does the ovarian artery originate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| compare brocas aphasia with wernickes aphasua |
|
Definition
wernickes: cannot understand but can speek fluently
brocas: can understand but cannot speak |
|
|
Term
| what artery supplies the lateral cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what artery supplies the medial cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5 signs associated with transient ischemia involving vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency |
|
Definition
ataxia
nausea
facial muscle weakness
vertigo
diplopia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what CN do facial expression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what CN do sensory for viscera |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what CN connects to Ed West nuclei |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what CN connect to inferior salivary nuclei |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what CN connect to dorsal motor nuclei |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what part of striatum atrophies in huntington disease |
|
Definition
| caudate, putamen, frontal cortex |
|
|
Term
| what part of the brainstem is lost in parkinsons disease |
|
Definition
| substantia nigra and locus cerilleus |
|
|
Term
| what part of basal ganglion (and its two structures) is site of copper accumulation in wilsons disease |
|
Definition
| centicular nuclei: putamen and globus pallidus |
|
|
Term
| that thalamus recieves all sensory input except for one |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what part of the brainstem is destoried in wallenburg syndrome, what artery causes it |
|
Definition
lateral medulla
posterior superior cerebellar artery |
|
|
Term
| if contralateral body pain and temperature sensation is lost what tract has been injured |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what occurs if the cortocospinal tract is damaged |
|
Definition
| UMN damage: decreased motor, spastic paralysis contralateral hemiparesis of trunk and limbs |
|
|
Term
| what lesion tops the ddx if there is muscle weakness and loss of sensation in the right arm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what lesion tops the ddx if there is muscle weakness and loss of sensation in the left leg |
|
Definition
| right anterior cerebral artery |
|
|
Term
| in what dermatome is the anus, umbilicus, bit toe |
|
Definition
anus: S5
umbilucus: T10
Toe: L5 |
|
|
Term
| if L5 transverse process articulates or is fused with the sacrum what is the disorder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what gene makes gp41, gp120, p24, reverse transcriptase in HIV |
|
Definition
gag: p24 (capsid)
pol: reverse transcriptase
env: gp160 > gp120 (binds CD4) + gp21 (binds CCR5) |
|
|
Term
| what comma shaped organism is renowned for causing ricewater stool and transmitted in contaminated water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the duration of pain for a MI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is thromboxane a pro-coagulant |
|
Definition
| used by platelets to stick together |
|
|
Term
| what nerve root is tested by biceps reflex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if you wanted to test ROM of shoulder what would be the best |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common cause of brachial plexus injury, what nerve roots is it |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what tests are positive in thoracic outlet syndrome |
|
Definition
apleys scratch test
roo test
absens (the arm to the side and loose pulse thingy) |
|
|
Term
| how does adhesive capsulitis develop |
|
Definition
| injury and immobilization allows for adhesions to form in healing |
|
|
Term
| what is the normal carrying angle of the female arm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are two primary supinators of the forearm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the technical term for tennis elbow and strain of what group of muscles (flexors or extensors) caused it |
|
Definition
lateral epicondylitis
extensors |
|
|
Term
| three tests for carpal tunnel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what nerve is entraped in carpal tunnel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if the MCP and DIP are extended, and the PIP is constracted, what is the hand deformity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what nerves are damaged in bishops deformity |
|
Definition
unlar: if the pinky and ring cannot be lifted
median: if the pointer and middle are stuck up and the pt cant bend them down |
|
|
Term
| what is the main difference in the mechanism of action between straptoinase and TPA |
|
Definition
TPA only lyses thrombin that is already bound(causes less unintended bleeding)
streptokinase lyses all thrombin |
|
|
Term
| what is the general mechanism of the 4 classes of anti arrhythmic drugs |
|
Definition
1) decreases Na
2) BB
3) decreases K
4) CCB |
|
|
Term
| what two classes of inotropic agents do digoxin and digitoxin belong |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the formula for calculating mean blood pressure |
|
Definition
| systole - 1/3(systole-diastole) |
|
|
Term
| what is the formula for calculating CO |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the formula for calculating TPR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the formula for calculating renal clearance |
|
Definition
C = (solute in urine x volume in urine) / solute in plasme
AKA C = (pee x pee) / blood |
|
|
Term
| which regulates bicarbonate and which regulates CO2, kidney or lung |
|
Definition
lung CO2
kidney bicarbonate |
|
|
Term
| what is the formula for elasticity |
|
Definition
E = 1 / compliance
E = change in pressure / change in volume |
|
|
Term
| what is the formula for compliance |
|
Definition
| C = change in volume / change in pressure |
|
|
Term
| what ion channel is open in upstroke of action potential |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is the Na/K channel active, facillitated, or secondary active transport. what about Na/glucose |
|
Definition
Na/K - active
Na/glucose - facillitated |
|
|
Term
| what is the major PROPHYLACTIC agent for asthma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 2 receptor types if stimulated result in cAMP increase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 3 hormones or drugs increase cGMP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| with G proteins which one inhibits adenylate cyclase, which stimulates it, which activates phospholipase C |
|
Definition
Gi inhibits
Gs stimulates
Gq phospholipase C |
|
|
Term
| what type of nerve fiber innervates skeletal muscles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the diameter of a skeletal muscle fiber in comparison with others |
|
Definition
| large, myelinated, fast A-alpha fiber |
|
|
Term
| what two types of nerve fibers are involved with afferent and efferent innervation of muscle spindles |
|
Definition
afferent: alpha 1 and 2
efferent: gamma |
|
|
Term
| what touch receptors sense pressure, touch, pain/temp, vibration |
|
Definition
pressure: merkel
touch: meissners, follicle sensors
vibration: pancinian
temp: free nerve endings
pain: free nerve endings |
|
|
Term
| describe the elasticity in presbyopic patients |
|
Definition
decreased elasticity due to aging
(need reading glasses) |
|
|
Term
| does the slow or fast phase of eye movement determine direction of nystagmus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the results of the rinne and webber in conduction deafness |
|
Definition
webber: lateralize to the bar ear bc not distracted by other sounds
rinne: BC > AC |
|
|
Term
| what does sympathetic stimulation do to bronchi, GI sphincters, pupils, GI motility |
|
Definition
bronchi: dilate
sphincter: contract
pupil: mydriasis (contract iris dilator)
motility: decrease |
|
|
Term
| which cholinergic receptors are on sweat glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which adrenergic receptor causes bronchidilation, presynaptic sympathetic inhibition, sympatheitc stimulation in heart, vasoconstriction in the GI tract |
|
Definition
bronchodilation B2
presynapse inhibition A2
sympathetic heart B1
vasocon Gi A1 |
|
|
Term
| what is the parasympathetic stimulation of the SA/AV in the heart, what does it cause to happen |
|
Definition
left vagus: AV node decreased conduction and atrium contraction
right vagus: SA node decrease frequency |
|
|
Term
| what component of muscle measures the muscle length |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when the muscle spindle is activated what does it do to the muscle |
|
Definition
| activate it (causes pain and tightness) |
|
|
Term
| which has higher glycolytic capacity red or white skeletal muscle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does Ca bind to in activating skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, and heart muscle |
|
Definition
skeletal: traponin C
smooth: calmodulin
heart: traponin C |
|
|
Term
| what does the a wave represent in assessing cardiac pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in what part of the lung is perfusion the greatest, where is ventilation the greatest |
|
Definition
base (area 3): perfusion > ventilation
apex (area 1): ventilation > perfusion |
|
|
Term
| what level of te brainstem may a transection occur that will have no effect on respiration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what adrenal disorder has overproduction of androgens |
|
Definition
| 11 and 21 enzyme thingy deficiency (virilization) |
|
|
Term
| what adrenal disorder has overproduction of mineral corticoids |
|
Definition
| 17 enzyme thingy deficiency (conns) |
|
|
Term
| what adrenal disorder has over production of glucacorticoids |
|
Definition
| 21 enzyme thingy deficiency (cushings) |
|
|
Term
| what is the primary motion of T11 and T12 |
|
Definition
| flexion and extension (the rest of the thoracic is rotation!!) |
|
|
Term
| what rib dysfunction has the ribs stuck down, what is the restriction, what is the key rib |
|
Definition
dysfunction: inhaled
restriction: exhaled
key: bottom rib |
|
|
Term
| what gender is dysplastic spondylolisthesis most common, what type of spondylolisthesis is it, when does the initial deficit occur |
|
Definition
F>M
type 1
congenital, birth it is present
symptomatic 7-9yo |
|
|
Term
| what is the first line drug for newly diagnosed DM2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what defect results in each hyperlipidemia: 1, 2a, 2b, |
|
Definition
1) LPL deficiency
2a) LDL receptor defect
2b) b100 defect
3) apo E deficiency
4) VLDL and underutilization |
|
|
Term
| how many kcal/g of energy is made by the metabolism of carbs, fat, proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the primary disturbance causing respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis |
|
Definition
respiratory CO2
metabolic decreased bicarb |
|
|
Term
| what are the two normal Hb in an adult |
|
Definition
HbA (a2, B2)
HbA2 (a2, gamma2) |
|
|
Term
| what Hb is elevated in hyperglycemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 situations that reduce O2 binding to Hb |
|
Definition
acidic
CO
increased temp
1,3-DPG |
|
|
Term
| what are the two primary functions of albumin |
|
Definition
carry lipid soluble things in the blood
create oncotic pressure to draw water in |
|
|
Term
| which part of the circulatory system holds the largest volume of blood, which has the greatest cross sectional area, which has the most resistance |
|
Definition
largest: veins
area: capillaries
resistance: arteriOLES |
|
|
Term
| what two vessels does the ductus arteriosus connect, if patent what body part recieves full oxygendation despite PDA |
|
Definition
pulmonary artery and aorta
head and upper extremities because the PDA comes after the first branches off the aorta |
|
|
Term
| at what part of the renal tubule do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors function, loop diuretics, and thiazides |
|
Definition
CA: PCT
loop: thick descending limp of henle
thiazide: DCT |
|
|
Term
| what part of kindy resorbs glucose and AA, which secretes K |
|
Definition
resorbs: PCT
secretes: collecting duct |
|
|
Term
| what is the normal value of GFR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is the ICF increased decrease or unchanged in hypotonic dehydration, hypotonic hydration, isotonic dehydration |
|
Definition
hypotonic dehydration: increased
hypotonic hydration: decreased
isotonic dehydration: no change |
|
|
Term
| in what part of kidney is the macular densa, what does it sense |
|
Definition
| DCT, Na concentration decreases |
|
|
Term
| what is the renin level in Bartter's syndrome, what is the BP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what metabolic process does niacin prevent in adipocytes, what is the primary adverse drug reaction |
|
Definition
stops lipoprotein lipase
flushing, puritis |
|
|
Term
| what enzyme is inhibited by statins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cimetidine and ranitidine block what receptor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what molecule transports Fe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the main products of mucous cells, parietal cells, and chief cells |
|
Definition
mucous: bicarbonate, mucous
chief cells: pepsinogen
parietal cells: HCl, intrinsic factor |
|
|
Term
| what is the direct result of secretin release |
|
Definition
stomach motility
bicarb pancreas secretion |
|
|
Term
| what is the direct result of CCK release |
|
Definition
pancreatic exocrine secretion
gallbladder contraction |
|
|
Term
| what disease is defined by hyperaldosteronism |
|
Definition
| ALD producing adenoma (Conn's syndrome) |
|
|
Term
| effects insulin has on liver metabolism |
|
Definition
increases glyconeogenesis
decreases gluconeogenesis
decreases glycogenolysis
decreases FA oxidation
increases lipogenesis |
|
|
Term
| what age does separation anxiety occur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what age does a baby sit alone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what age does a baby stand holding onto nearby objects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what age does a baby stand alone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what ages does a baby walk alone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the IQ ranges for mild MR, moderate MR, severe MR, and profound MR |
|
Definition
mild: 55-79
mod: 40-55
severe: 25-40
profound: <25 |
|
|
Term
| define operant conditioning |
|
Definition
permanent effects
punishment for behavior |
|
|
Term
| define classical condtioning |
|
Definition
effects do not last
rewarded for good behavior
works better on reflexive behavior |
|
|
Term
| what do nodules (micro/macronodular) indicate about the liver |
|
Definition
| had liver injury and regeneration |
|
|
Term
| what vertebral level is the sternal notch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at what vertebral level is the sternal angle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the main motion in assessing the OA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of hypersensitivity has uticaria, erythema, bronchiole constriction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what AB is associated with RA, SLE, celiac, and wegeners |
|
Definition
RA: anti-IgG aka RF
SLE: anti-dsDNA, anti-smith
celiac: anti-glidan
wegeners: c-ANCA |
|
|
Term
| what type of cell is stimulated by IL4 and IL5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what effect does NO have on the vessels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the moa dipyridamole, why is it used |
|
Definition
decreases PDE which decreases TXA2 which decreases platelet ADHESION
with warfarin: decreases clots in replacement valves
with aspirin: chronic platelet adhesion prevention
radiotracers: stress tests |
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA doxorubicin, what is the classic side effect |
|
Definition
decreases topoisomerase II which makes Fe ROS by decreasing IP3
cardiotixicity, red urine |
|
|
Term
| what disease is endemic to south west US and is arked by fever, cough, arthralgia |
|
Definition
| coccidioidomycosis / valley fever |
|
|
Term
| what disorder has personality changes, intelluctual deterioration, autonomic motor dysfunctions, and occurs as a result of HIV infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 antibiotics most common to cause pseudomembranous collitis |
|
Definition
clindamycin
cephalosporin
ampicillin |
|
|
Term
| largest joint in the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ligament of the knee that connects to the ant tibia and post femur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ligament of the knee that connects to the post tibia and the ant femur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ligament of the knee that prevents knee hyperextension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does a positive anterior drawer test indicate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| test for a meniscus injury |
|
Definition
apleys compression
mcmucrrys |
|
|
Term
| 2 divisions of the sciatic nerve |
|
Definition
| tibia and femoral (peroneal) |
|
|
Term
| what nerve roots make the femoral nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a patient complains of superificial knee pain on medial aspect of the leg half way between the ankle and the knee, what dermatome is it |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what dermatome is the big toe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| achilles reflex is what nerve root |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| patellar reflex is what nerve root |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what degree of angulatioon for the femoral head is normal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what degree of angulation for the Q angle is normal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the three positions of pronation |
|
Definition
dorsiflex
external rotation
abduction |
|
|
Term
| a pt presets with supinated right foot what can be said about the fibular head |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what nerve can be damaged by a posterior fibular head |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common compartment syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pt presents with ankle sprain, there is trace laxity, only involves that anterior talofibular ligament, what is the degree and type of sprain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the components of odonahues triad |
|
Definition
medial meniscus
medial collateral
ACL |
|
|
Term
| which position of the ankle is most stable |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which set of ligaments are the most common involved in ankle sprains |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of blocker is prazosin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what receptors do dobutamine, dopamine, and isoproterenol stimulate |
|
Definition
dobutamine B1
dopamine D1 B1
isoproterenol B1 B2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what cholenesterase inhibitor is used to test for myasthenia gravis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between denial and repression |
|
Definition
denial: pretending like it didnt happen even though you know it did
repression: auctally not remembering it happened, supression of emotion and memory |
|
|
Term
| when does REM begin when a nacroleptic falls into a narcoleptic state |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between central and obstrictuve sleep apnea |
|
Definition
central: medulla chemoreceptors are not sensing or not working
obstructive: physical block |
|
|
Term
| list the 5 stages of dying |
|
Definition
denial
anger
barganing
depression
acceptance |
|
|
Term
| what neurotransmitters are high or low in schizophrenia, depression, alzheimers, anxiety |
|
Definition
schizophrenia high DA
depression low SE/DA/NE
alzheimers low DA high ACh
anziety low GABA |
|
|
Term
| compare conciousness, speed on onset and reversibaility of delirium and dementia |
|
Definition
delirium: acute, reversible, some conciousness
dementia: chronic, irreversible, concious |
|
|
Term
| personality type where someone feels better than others all the type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| personality type with dramatic emotion personality that may have some level of sexual promiscuity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what category of disorders are phobias, agoraphobia, PTSD in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does the duration of symptoms compare between somatization and conversion disorder |
|
Definition
somatization lasts years
conversion lasts days to weeks |
|
|
Term
| if a schizophrenic presents with hallucinations and delusions what type of symptoms are these classified as under heading of schizophrenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at what point in the night does a person with major depression have the most difficulty remaining asleep |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of epilepsy is marked by 3sec spike and domes on EEG during attack |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the two major signs of opioid intoxication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 4 major signs of opioid withdrawal |
|
Definition
nausea/vomiting
sweating
fever
muscle aches |
|
|
Term
| 4 risk factors for physical child abuse |
|
Definition
parent hx of abuse as child
poverty
premature or low birth weight
parent drug abuse |
|
|
Term
| 2 risk factors for sexual child abuse |
|
Definition
single parent home
parent does drugs |
|
|
Term
| what percent is included in +/-1, +/-2, +/23 standard deviation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| probability that a negative test result is actually negative |
|
Definition
| negative perdective value |
|
|
Term
| probability that a positive test result is actually positive |
|
Definition
| positive perdictive value |
|
|
Term
| probability an ill patient will have a positive test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| probablity a healthy patient with have a negative test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for the number of people who have a specific disease at a given point in time per 100,000 people |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for the number of new people that develop a specific disease in a year per 100,000 peple |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in a randomized clinical trial what type of error results in rejection of the null hypothesis even though the null hypothesis is true |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in observed cohort what is the term for ability of a test to test what is ment to test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for how well the test results can be reproduced |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what two components are needed for someone to be involuntairly treated |
|
Definition
mentally ill
AND
in danger of self or others |
|
|
Term
| what 4 situations are parental consent not needed in treatment of a minor |
|
Definition
emergency
pregnancy
STF
judge determined |
|
|
Term
| what government insurance is for the poor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what government insurance is for the elderly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of bladder is created by spinal cord damabe above the sacral cord |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of bladder is created by damage of the sensory nerves flaccid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are three major drugs that enhance NMJ blockers |
|
Definition
CCB
halothane
aminoglycocides |
|
|
Term
| what is a common indication for scopolamine use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 6 major SE of estrogen treatment |
|
Definition
nausea
vomiting
endometrial hyperplasia
DES- clear cell CA in daughters |
|
|
Term
| 3 main SE of progesterone tx |
|
Definition
hirsturism
increased LDL and decreased HDL
weight gain and acne
depression |
|
|
Term
| what type of blood and liver disorder can result from OPCs |
|
Definition
tumor of liver benign adenoma
clots |
|
|
Term
| what color are gram positive after gram stain |
|
Definition
first step: crystal violet stains blue purple
last step: safranin changes it to blue violet |
|
|
Term
| what triggers classical and alternate pathway for complement system |
|
Definition
classic: antigen antibody complexes
alternate: endotoxin, cobra venom, fungi capsules |
|
|
Term
| compare botulinum toxin and tetanospasmin where is it made |
|
Definition
botulinum: muscle flaccid, produced in body
tetanus: muscle spasm, preformed toxin |
|
|
Term
| compare and contrast hypotonic dehydration and hypertonic dehydration in terms of ICV and ECV and causes |
|
Definition
hypotonic: increased ICV, decreased ECV, osmotic diarrhea, vomiting, addisons (Na loss)
hyper: decreased ICV, increased ECV, sweat, DI (water loss) |
|
|
Term
| what organ is ACE found in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what part of the nervous system is activated by LSD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the street drug that causes agressive, fearless behavior |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what opioid receptors causes analgesia, sedation, and respiratory depression |
|
Definition
analgesia and respiratory depression - Mu
sedation - kappa |
|
|
Term
| besides pain control what can codine do |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does fentanyl compare to morphine in potency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what neurotransmitter does TCA block |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 3 foods high in tyramine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are indications for use of lithium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the effect of nicotine on blood pressure |
|
Definition
low dose increases it
high dose decreases it |
|
|
Term
| what type of reflex is define as visceral stimuli by making a response in somatic structures innervated by the same vertebral segment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of reflex is occuring when a chronic biceps strain results in respiratory difficulties secondary to diaphragm dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is then sympathetic collateral ganglion associated with the greater splanchnic nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the sympathetic collateral ganglion associated with the lesser splanchnic nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the sympathetic collateral ganglion associated with the least splanchnic nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what nerve root innervates the small intestine with the exception of part of the duodenum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a pt had an ovarian cyst you might have dysfunction in visceral or somatic structures innervated by what nerve root? what cutaneous landmark would be included in possible reflex sites in the aformentioned situation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what effect does PS has on papillary muscles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the result of PNS on the adrenal medulla, GI sphinctors, and penis |
|
Definition
medulla - none
relax GI sphinctors
erect penis |
|
|
Term
| what is the result of sympathetic stimulation of the skeletal muscle, arteries, salivary glands, and intestines |
|
Definition
muscle: increased glycogenolysis
constrict arteries in skin (a1)
relax arteries in muscles (B2)
thicken salivary secretions
decrease motility and secretion |
|
|
Term
| what are 5 major physiologic effects that stimulated H1 receptors have |
|
Definition
nasal and bronchial mucous
bronchiole constriction
intestinal smooth muscle contraction
stimulate sensory nerve endings
vasodilation |
|
|
Term
| what is the main physiologic effect of stimulated H2 |
|
Definition
| increase HCl inthe stomach |
|
|
Term
| what anesthetic agent has the potential to cause malignant hyperpthermia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| besides supporting homeostasis, maintaing healthy metabolism, and supporting the whole patient what is the FIRST step in treating any dysfunctions involving facillitated spinal cord segments |
|
Definition
| treat dysfunctional segment |
|
|
Term
| after treating the dysfunctional segment, what are the next three steps in treating a facillitated dysfunction |
|
Definition
decrease hyperSNS
fluid balance
manage PNS |
|
|
Term
| describe how rib raising has effect it does |
|
Definition
alters pressure on sympathetic chain
fascia eound rib head is same as around sympathetic chain |
|
|
Term
| in decreasing sympathetic contribution to a facilitated segment, what structures should be assessed after rib raising |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name the collateral ganglia |
|
Definition
preaortic
celiac
superior mesenteric
inferior mesenteric
cervical |
|
|
Term
| why do all cervical ganglia result in heart problems |
|
Definition
| they all contribute to the cardiac plexus |
|
|
Term
| which chapmans points are used for assessment and which for treatment |
|
Definition
anterior assess
posterior treat |
|
|
Term
| where is the chapmans reflex point for the sinuses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where is the chapmans reflex point for the liver |
|
Definition
| costeosternal of 5 and 6 on right |
|
|
Term
| where is the chapmans reflex point for the appendix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where is the chapmans point for the retina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what structures comprise the clinical throacic inlet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 4 diaphragms should be assessed and released when adressing lymph drainage |
|
Definition
cervicothoracic
craniocerivcal
pelvic
abdominal |
|
|
Term
| what should always be done first lymph pumps or diaphragms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 4 anatomic transition sites of fascia, in common compensatory which way to each go |
|
Definition
craniocervical - left
cervicocthoracic - right
thoracolumbar - left
lumbosacral - right |
|
|
Term
| what nerve roots make the pelvic splanchnic nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the parasympathetic innervation to the mucous membrane of the sinuses and nasal mucosa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what cranial nerve is affected by manipulation of the sphenopalatine gangliona |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what structure may be manipulated to balance the vagus nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the sympathetic innervation to the pancreas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the symptathetic innervation to the gallbladder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the primary method for modulating the pelvic splanchnic nerves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the three components of the primary respiratory mechanism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the dural attachments |
|
Definition
cranial bones
foramen magnum
C2-3
S1 posterior |
|
|
Term
| in craniosacram extension what happens to the midline bones and cranial diameter and sacrum |
|
Definition
midline paired bones internally rotate
nutation of sacrum
increased AP diameter |
|
|
Term
| in cranial torsion what is the dysfunction named for |
|
Definition
| greater wing of sphenoid that is superior |
|
|
Term
| what is the purpose of th eCV4 method |
|
Definition
| increase CRI by decompressing the SBS |
|
|
Term
| what type of cranial dysfunction is marked by cephalic deviation of the sphenoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DOC petit mal seizure, aka |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| metoclopramide and odanzatron |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| diarrhea, draws water in via osmosis |
|
|
Term
| to what calss of drugs (2 answers) to lorazepam, diazepam, triazolam and chlordiazepoxide belong |
|
Definition
anoxiolytic
benzodiazepines |
|
|
Term
| barbituates have high suicide potentional, what is the common way for them to cause death in overdose |
|
Definition
| decrease chemoreceptor response to CO2 causing hypoxia |
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|
