Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Series 7 (As of 2015)
Series 7 STC Chapters 1-24
657
Finance
Professional
11/06/2014

Additional Finance Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Nasdaq Level 1
Definition

Available to Registered Reps.

Represents the Highest Bid & Lowest Asking Price

Prices not guaranteed.

INSIDE MARKET ONLY

Term
Nasdaq Level 2
Definition

Available to NASD-approved subscribers.

Provides current quote and quote size.

Must guarantee firm quote of 100 shares.

Term
Nasdaq Level 3
Definition

Provides subscribers with all services of 1 and 2.

Allows market makers to

update their quotes.

Term

All-Or-None Underwritings

Definition
Underwriter must cancel the entire issue of any portion of the stock remains unsold.
Term
NASD 5% Markup Policy
Definition

Applies to OTC Secondary market transactions in non-exempt securities.

Term
Buy Stop Limit
Definition

Becomes a Limit order when triggered.

Occurs AT or BELOW stop limit price.

Term
Rule 144
Definition

Pertains to SECONDARY mrkts. Regulates sale of control and restricted securities (owned by directors/officers of a company)

 

Stipulates holding period, quantity limits,

manner of sale, & filing procedures.

Term
Rule 145 of 1933 Act
Definition

Protects stockholders of any company that proposes to reorganize its ownership structure.

MUST be sent FULL Disclosure (Proxy Statement)

 

Reclassification

Merger

Consolidation

Transfer of Assets

 

Applies to mergers, consolidations, reclassifications of securities, or transfers of corporate assets. This requires a company to provide written disclosures to shareholders in connection with the previously listed corporate actions. Stock splits, dividends, and the resulting changes in par value are specifically exempted from filing.


Rule 145 defines certain types of reclassifications of securities as sales subject to the registration and prospectus requirements of the Securities Act of 1933. Shares acquired through mergers, consolidations, and spinoffs involving exchanges of stock are all covered under the rule. The amount of shares is irrelevant.

Term
Rule 147: Intrastate Offerings
Definition

Offerings that take place entirely in one state are exempt from Registration when:

1. Issuer's OFFICE/80% INCOME in state.

2. 80% of ASSETS are in state.

3. 80% OFFERING PROCEEDS in state.

4. Broker/Dealer as underwriter has office in state.

5. All PURCHASERS are residents in state

 

Term
Regulation A
Definition
Permits issuers to raise up to $5 million in a 12mo period w/o full registration.
Term
Regulation D
Definition

SEC does NOT require registration of an offering if it's privately placed w/

 

ACCR investors or

Maximum: 35 NON-ACCR investors

 

According to Regulation D, certain conditions must be met for the securities to be exempt from the provisions of the Securities Act of 1933. The offering must be restricted to persons who are knowledgeable and experienced in business and financial matters and who are able to afford the economic risks involved. The issuer must provide the buyer with detailed financial information (this offering document does not need to be filed with the SEC). The number of nonaccredited purchasers must be limited to 35, and the offering must be made in direct negotiations between the issuer and the buyer or his purchaser representative. Also, the buyer must sign an investment letter stating that the purchase was made for investment and not for short-term trading purposes. The size of the offering is not limited and there is no limit as to the number of accredited investors.

Term
Largest to Smallest fees in Underwriting Spread.
Definition

1. Concession

2. Underwriting Fee

3. Mananger's Fee

 

 

Term
Rule 144 selling Restrictions
Definition

After holding shares FULLY paid for ONE year.

 

Can sell the greater of 1% total shares Outstanding

or Weekly Average of prior 4 wks trades

 

After TWO yrs, no Restrictions

Term
Ex-Date
Definition

The date a security trades, minus a dividend.

 

Orders entered BELOW market will be reduced.

(Buy Limit, Sell Stop, Sell Stop Limit)

Term
Securities Exchange Act of 1934
Definition

-First regulation of SECONDARY trading and trading Markets.

For Example: NYSE, Nasdaq

-Created the SEC.

-Gives Federal Reserve Board (FRB) regulatory oversight of Margin

Keywords: Secondary Markets, Trading Markets, Antifraud Rules, Margin: Regulation T, Created the SEC, This act registers *persons*(exchanges, firms, individuals) 

- Regulation of transactions in the secondary market, including antimanipulation rules and regs of the extenstion of credit in securities transactions

-Registration and regulation of broker-dealers

-Oversight of industry self regulatory organizations

-Registration and regulation of companies with securities trading in the secondary market, including regular financial disclosures, proxy rules, and insider reporting.

-tender offers (a formal offer to buy shares at a fixed price)

- The Federal Reserve Board (FRB) has the power to establish margin requirements for B/Ds. They regulate the extension of credit in the securities industry under Reg T. (Also Reg U and Reg X)


- This prohibits mutual fund dealers from extending credit on mutual fund shares until 30 days after their purchase.

Term
Securities Act of 1933
Definition

Regulates the Issuance of New Securities

 

Keywords: New Issues, Primary Markets, IPOs, Issuer Sales, Full Disclosure, Prospectus, Red Herring, "This act registers *paper*", The SEC never approves. This makes sense, because there isn't really a secondary exchange occuring in the primary markets.

 

New issues of securities must be registered under this Act.

 

The following securities are exempt from the filing reqs:

  • U.S. government and municipal securities
  • Securities of a small business investment company
  • Securities of a nonprofit organization

Nonexempt are..:

  • Securities of a publicly held finance company

Nonexempt securities are those that are subject to the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933.

Term
NASD Rule 2790
Definition
Prohibits the sale of new equity to:
1. Other BROKERS
2. Partners
3. Officers
4. Employees of firms in the syndicate or selling group.
5. Supported Families
Term
Principal Trade/Order
Definition
Order carried out by a B/D which involves the B/D buying or selling for its own account and at its own risk, as opposed to carrying out trades for the brokerage's clients.
Term
Riskless Trade/Principal
Definition
Two principal transactions occurring at the same price that are reported only once as an agency transaction.
Term
Dealer
Definition

Dealer acts as a principal in a transaction. (Takes ownership of assets and is exposed to inventory risk)

 

Agent facilitates a transaction on behalf of a client.

Term
New Issues
Definition

Sold at Public Offering Price WITHOUT Markup or Commission

 

When allocating bonds in a new municipal issue, presale orders normally have first priority. This is followed by group net, designated, and then member orders. The 5 MM in group orders and 5 MM in designated orders will be allocated. There are no bonds left for member orders.


  • Pre-Sale: These orders are entered before the syndicate wins the bid. Customers are willing to commit to buying bonds without specific information on exact price/yield.


  • Group Net: The proceeds of sales from these orders are placed in the syndicate bank account and distributed to members of the syndicate according to their participation upon completion of the underwriting.


  • Designated: These orders specify which member of the syndicate is to receive credit for the order. Note that they are filled after the group orders.


  • Member: Last place in the priority sequence are member orders. These are orders placed by members of the syndicate that want to buy bonds for their own proprietary inventory.


Term
Secondary Market Issues
Definition

Traded on an Agency Basis(COMMISSION) or Principal Basis (MARK-UP/MARK-DOWN)

 

 

Term
Rule 144a
Definition

Allows Nonregistered foreign and domestic securities to be sold to certain institutional investors in the US w/o holding period requirements. Buyer must be Qualified Institutional Buyer (QIB)

 

Under Rule 144A of the Securities Act of 1933, the owner of securities obtained through a private placement may resell those securities to a qualified institutional buyer (QIB) without the volume and holding-period restrictions of Rule 144. Qualified institutional buyers must have at least $100 million dollars of investable assets.

Term
Hypothecated 
Definition

Securities in a Margin Account used as collateral for money loaned from a brokerage.

 

B/D are allowed to Hypothecate customer securities up to 140% of the Customer's DEBIT BALANCE

Term
Inverted Yield Curve 
Definition

Short-Term Yields are HIGHER

than Long-Term Yields. 

 

Investors Buying Long-Term Bonds &

Selling Short Term Bonds.

 

When IR's decline, investors want to lock current rates by buying Long-Term debt. Increased demand increases the price & causes Yield on Long-Term debt to FALL.

 

Selling Short-Term debt depresses prices, causing Yield on Short-Term debt to RISE. 

Term
Stock Rights
Definition

1. Transferring Rights to Family

2. Selling at the Market

3. Exercising Rights

 

 

Rights MAY NOT be redeemed for Cash 

Term
Variable Rate Bond
Definition
A Bond whose Coupon Rate is periodically adjusted to reflect current Interest Rates.
Term
Dealer
Definition
Specialist acting on his Own Account (as Principal).
Term
Standby Commitment
Definition

The Underwriter agrees to purchase the portion of the new securities issue that remains after a public offering.

 

Used with Rights Offerings.

 

Standby would never be used with Municipal Bond offerings since stock is not issued. 

Term
Regular Way Settlement
Definition

T+3 (3rd Business Day after the TRADE date)

 

  1. Municipal Securities
  2. Corporate Securities
  3. Government Agency Securities 
Term
T+1 Settlement
Definition

Settle next business day after Trade.

 

  1. T-Bills
  2. T-Bonds
  3. T-Notes
  4. Options 
Term
Same-Day/Cash Settlement
Definition

Money Market Securities transactions

settle Same-Day.

 

Cash Settlements 

Term
Bond Years
Definition
This is used to determine the net interest cost when an underwriter is bidding on a new issue of municipal bonds.
Term
Closed-End Investment Companies
Definition
  1. Shares trade in the Secondary Market
  2. Common Stock, Preferred Stock & Bonds
  3. Only Full shares can be purchased
  4. Prospectuses must only be used in the IPO
Price Determined by SUPPLY and DEMAND
Current Market Value (CMV) + Commission
 
Similar to Corporate Securities
Term
Open-End Investment Company / Mutual Fund (Classes)
Definition

Does not specify the # of shares it will issue. Can raise unlimited amount of capital by issuing new shares.

 

Must redeem shares 

 

Investors purchase shares from the co. at the

Public Offering Price (POP).

 

Class A usually has front end loads but small or nonexistent 12b-1 fees. Breakpoints. Not all the investor's money is put to work in the portfolio b/c of sales charges. The max sales charge is 8.5%, but that can only be assessed if the MF offers breakpoints and Rights of Accumulation. For each of these features the fund omits, the maximum sales charge is lowered according to a set schedule. It is prohibited by FINRA for a RR to engineer purchases just below the dollar amount of a breakpoint. The client should be reminded that LOIs can be used if all the funds are not currently available.

 

Class B generally have CDSC and slightly higher 12b-1 fees. Once the specified # of years has passed so there is no back-end fee due, most funds convert the Class B shares to Class A shares. RR's should not place large orders in Class B Shares. The client would likely be better off purchasing Class A shares since only these shares qualify for available breakpoints.

 

Class C shares have an up-front sales charge usually 1% plus an annual 12b-1 fee or level load that is usually equal to 1% of the fund's assets. If sold in less than 12-18 months after acquisition, the investor may also be hit with a CDSC. No conversion to Class A.

 

Other Classes - exist for employees of B/Ds, institutional investors, retirement plans, or other special categories of investors. The fund must disclose fully each class of shares it offers and the different sales charges and applicable 12b-1 fees in its prospectus.

 

If Class B Shares convert to Class A shares, why not invest in Class B shares up to a specific breakpoint, then invest in Class A after the conversion occurs?

 

RR's should not allocate a client's investments into several different fun families. This practice may result in the client not receiving a breakpoint that would have been available if all the funds were allocated to a single family.

Term
Mutual Fund's (POP) Calculation
Definition
Net Asset Value (NAV) per share + Sales Charge
Term
Growth Funds
Definition

Invest in stocks of companies whose business are growing rapidly.

 

Tend to reinvest profits for research & developement instead of paying dividends.

 

Focused on generating capital gains

rather than income. 

 

Growth - Common stocks

 

Conservative Growth - Blue-Chip, Large-Cap stocks

 

Aggressive Growth - Small-Cap and Mid-Cap stocks

Term
Income Fund
Definition

Stresses current income over growth.

 

Invests in stocks of companies w/ long histories of 

Dividend Payments

 

(Utility company, Blue-Chip stock & Preferred Stock) 

 

Less likely to decline in value and less likely to significantly appreciate in value than growth funds.

Term
NAV (Net Asset Value) AKA redemption or bid price
Definition

Assets (cash + current value of securities) - Liabilities / total number of shares outstanding.

 

MFs allow the investor to reinvest dividends and capital gains at the NAV.

 

Shares are redeemed at this price. This value must be calculated at least daily.

Term
Subchapter M
Definition

Requires a fund to distribute at least 90% of its net investment income to shareholders. The fund then pays taxes only on the undistributed 10%.

 

If the fund distributes 89%, it pays taxes on 100% of net investment income.

Term
Ex-Dividend Date for Mutual Funds
Definition

Set by the Board of Directors.

 

The Day AFTER the Record Date 

Term
Closed End Funds
Definition

These are a type of management company. These usually issue stock to the public once. Although they may issue additional shares later, they do not continuously issue new shares to the public or stand ready to redeem their shares for cash.

 

Once this investment company issues shares, these holdings trade in the secondary market, just like any other stock. If an investor wants to purchase shares in this company, he will need to buy them either on a traditional exchange or on Nasdaq. There is no prospectus delivery requirement on a secondary market purchase of these.

 

The price that an investor pays for his shares will be determined by the market forces of supply and demand. Unlike MFs, these may trade at a discount or a premium to their NAV. When buying or selling these in the secondary market, the investor pays a commission instead of a sales charge.

Term
A mutual fund is considered diversified if... (3 things)
Definition
  1. At least 75% of the assets are invested
  2. No more than 5% of the invested assets may be invested in any one company
  3. The company does not own more than 10% of the voting stock of any one company.

A diversified company must meet these standards at the time of investment. Subsequent market fluctuations or consolidations will not nullify the company's status as diversified. (This applies to #1 & #2, I don't see how it could apply to #3)

Term
SuperMontage
Definition

Displays trading interest at the Best price as well as the next 4 price levels (5 levels total) on bot the

Bid and Offer sides.

 

Increases Market Transparency

to allow for better Trading Decisions. 

 

 

Term
Private Placement
Definition

Exempt from Registration with the SEC.

 

New Issue to ACCREDITED Investors and a

Maximum of 35 NON-ACCREDITED Investors 

Term

Conversion Ratio

 

 &

 

Parity Price 

Definition

Conversion: Par Value / Conversion Price

 

 

 

Parity: Market Price / Conversion Ratio 

Term
Noncompetitive Bids
Definition

Bids are made by entities other than primary dealers.

 

Any amount remaining is auctioned to Primary Dealers with the Highest Bid (Lowest Yield) filled first.

Term
TSA (Tax-Sheltered Annuity)
Definition

Employees of 501(c)3 and 403(b):

  • Charities,
  • Religious Groups,
  • Sports Organizations
  • School Systems

ARE eligible for TSA

Term
Official Notice of Sale
Definition

Includes all the information necessary for a Dealer to make a bid (COMPETITIVE) on an issue.

  1. Size of the Offering
  2. Maturity Dates
  3. Date/Time/Place of Sale 

The amount of good faith deposit and expenses to be borne by the purchaser or issuer would be found in this.

Term
Security
Definition

Investment for Profit with management by a 3rd Party. An element of Risk must be present.

 

Variable Annuity

Options 

Term
Warrants
Definition

Makes debt instruments more marketable.

 

Allows the issuer to pay slightly lower interest rates. 

Term
Fed Funds Rate
Definition

Charged by Banks to other Banks

 

Due to deposits, withdraws, and loan demands, a bank may find itself with either an excess reserve position or a deficit reserve position. If a bank has excess reserves, it may lend additional funds to borrowers, including commercial banks that are in a deficit reserve position.

 

These short-term loans of excess reserves that banks lend each other are called the ______. The _____ is determined by supply & demand. Since _____ are short-term, they are considered money market instruments. Due to the short duration of the loan, the ______ is normally considered to be the most volatile interest rate. The effective ______ is published daily and shows the average rate charged the previous night for ______. Although the FRB does not directly set the ______, it does set a target. The open market operations of the FRB are designed to maintain the ____ within this prescribed range.

Term
Discount Rate
Definition
Set by the Federal Reserve Board.
Term
Immediate Annuity
Definition
A lump-sum payment is made, & distributions begin immediately. Distributions will fluctuate due to performance in the Separate Account.
Term
Negotiated vs Auction
Definition

OTC market is a Negotiated Market (market makers bargain during the trade).

 

Stock Exchanges like NYSE are Auction Markets.

Term
Derivative Security
Definition

Value is dependent on the value of another security.

 

Equity Option: Underlying stock

CMO: Underlying Mortgages

Term
Industrial Development Bonds (IDB)
Definition

Private purpose bonds.

 

Interest could subject the holder to

Alternative Minimum Tax (AMT).

Term
Maloney Act of 1938
Definition

-This act enabled the creation of nonexchange SROs (Self Regulatory Organizations), such as the NASD created in 1939 to oversee OTC trades.

 

-The NASD is one of the precursors to FINRA, created in 2007.

 

-Also enabled the creation of the MSRB (Municiple Securities Rulemaking Board) in 1975.

Term
Investment Company Act of 1940
Definition

Covers Mutual Funds (Open-End Management Companies) and other organizations that pool money from investors to make investments. This defines three different types of investment companies: face-amount certificate companies, unit investment trusts, and management companies. It further divides management companies into two categories: closed-end companies and open-end companies.

 

Mutual Funds must register with the SEC as an investment company.

 

Applies if the organization has more than 100 shareholders and a minimum of $100k in assets (the MF company needs to have at least this much in assets to be traded publically.) The organization must make annual reports to the SEC, and semiannual reports to shareholders. The organization may be exempt from this requirement if all of the investors are qualified investors.

 

MFs are required to pay the redemption proceeds (NAV) within 7 calendar days.

Term
Investment Advisors Act of 1940
Definition

-Defines an Investment Advisor and requires them to register as such with the SEC.

 

-Portfolio Managers count as investment advisors, but accountants, professors and others that give investment advice incidental to their profession without charging a separate fee for this service do not qualify. 

 

-Keywords: ABC Test: Advice, Business, Compensation; Incidental advisors excluded from requirements.

 

Excludes: -Accountants and lawyers who provide advice in a manner incidental to their profession

-Publishers

-Broker-dealers and their representatives

 

Term
Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970 (SIPA)
Definition

Enabled the creation of the SIPC (Securities Investor Protection Corporation). The SIPC is an industry-funded, not-for-profit insurance entity that covers the customers of brokerage firms incases where a firm becomes insolvent.

 

THE SIPC DOES NOT PROTECT THE CUSTOMERS AGAINST MARKET LOSSES.

 

Keywords: $500K coverage per single customer, $250K cap on cash coverage. Industry funded, not part of US Gov.

Term
Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Protection Act of 1988
Definition

Lots of scandals in the 80s led to criminal penalties as high as $5 million and/or 20 years in prison for insider trading convictions. This practice was already prohibited, but did not have specific penalties prescribed.

 

Keywords: Misues of Material, Nonpublic Information; Treble (3x) Damages; $5mil max fine; 20 Years Max Prison; Tippers & Tippees; Any Person Can Be In Violation Of Insider Trading Laws. 

Term
The Federal Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991
Definition

Cold calling restricted to people not on their Do Not Call List, which every entity is required to personally keep and maintain.

 

Calling times restricted to from 8 AM to 9 PM in the customer's time zone.

 

Call in / help lines are exempt from the regulation.

Term
US Patriot Act (2001)
Definition

Anti Money Laundering

(>$10k) Currency Transaction Reports (CTRs)

Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)

CIP Procedures 

Term
Investment Banking
Definition
This department works directly with issuers of stocks/bonds to arrange and structure the needed financing. Sometimes referred to as underwriters of securities. Can advise the issuer whether it should sell stocks, bonds, or a combination.
Term
Sales Professionals
Definition
Registered Representatives, Stock Brokers, or Bond Brokers. These people market products such as pension plans and college endowments to both retail investors and institutions.
Term
Trading Professionals
Definition
These people handle the execution of trades for both the firm's clients and the firms's own proprietary account. The trades occur in electronic marketplaces such as the Nasdaq, or hybrid marketplaces such as the NYSE.
Term
Operations Professionals
Definition
These people ensure that all paperwork, funds, and securities transfers associated with a trade (or processing) are handled efficiently and according to specific industry standards. They perform functins such as generating customer statements, confirmations, and tax records, as well as engaging in the transfer of securities and/or funds. They are also responsible for making sure that all firm and client assets are organized properly and safeguarded.
Term
CRD - Central Registration Depository
Definition
An automated database of information regarding the employment and discipinary histories of registered persons. This is used to process applications for agent registrations.
Term
Eligibility Proceeding
Definition

When a broker-dealer wants to hire an individual who is subject to stauatory disqualification, it must request permission through a/an __________.

 

If granted, the individual is subject to heightened supervision and a plan must be tailored to the specific person being supervised.

Term
All Outside Business Activities must be reported to the firm, excluding ________.
Definition
Charitable work.
Term
hypothecation agreement
Definition
A written agreement between a customer opening a margin account and a brokerage firm that pledges stock in theaccount as collateral for margin loans. The brokerage firm is permitted to sell the stock in the event that equity inthe account falls below a stipulated level.
Term

Normally, an employee of a FINRA member firm who wishes to open an account at another member firm must notify his firm and the executing firm, in writing, prior to opening a securities account. An exception is made if the employee effects transactions only in

_________

________

________

Definition
mutual funds, unit investment trusts, and variable annuities.
Term
Annual client gift limit
Definition

$100

 

MSRB rules prohibit gifts in excess of $100 per year to a person other than an employee or partner of the gifting individual, if such payments or services are in relation to the municipal securities activities of the employer or the recipient. (Therefore, a Christmas gift to the client valued at $125 would not be allowed.) However, costs incurred for business lunches or hotel accommodations for clients at business seminars are business expenses and are allowed as long as they are not frequent or excessive.

Term

SIPC covers up to...

 

SIPC does not cover...

Definition

$500k in assets, of which up to $250k may be cash.

 

more than this and the client becomes a general creditor, and will have a claim to the remainder of the company.

 

SIPC does not cover commodities accounts. Securities registered in the names of customers are not part of SIPC coverage and are returned to the appropriate individuals regardless of the amount.

Term
How long can a firm hold statements and trade confirmations while a client is traveling?
Definition

Traveling in the US: 2 months

Traveling outside the US: 3 months.

Term
Capital Tax Loss
Definition
Only $3000 in losses may be used to offset ordinary income per year.
Term
Types of Creditors
Definition

General creditors - 

Secured creditors - 

Unsecured creditors - 

Preferred Stockholders -

Common Stockholders -

Term
Authorizaed shares
Definition
When a corporation is incorporated it is authorized to issue a certain number of shares. A majority vote of the shareholders and a corporate charter revision is required to issue more shares. Because of this, most firms issue less shares than authorized so there is stock available for future use by the corporation.
Term

Treasury Stock

 

Outstanding Stock

Definition

-Stock reacquired by the corporation after it has been issued.

 

-Stock not reacquired by the corporation after it has been issued- receives dividends and has voting rights.

Term
Registrar
Definition
Hired to audit the transfer agency and make sure that there are not more shares of stock issued than is allowed by the corporate charter.
Term

-Declaration Date

 

-Record Date

 

-Ex-Dividend Date

Definition

-The date dividends are paid for a stock

 

-The date you must own the stock by to receive the next dividend

 

-Two business days before the Record Date - you must buy the stock by this date to receive the next dividend. One business day AFTER the Record Date for cash settlements (since they settle same day). For stock splits the ex-div date is the business day after the payment date. 

Term
Due Bill
Definition

When a share of stock was purchased before the ex-div date but was not received before the record date, then the seller will receive the next dividend, but will not be entitiled to it. A Due Bill will accompany the stock, demonstrating that the purchaser is owed the dividend.

 

Due Bills also accompany the shares traded that will undergo a stock split to ensure that the proper owner receives the shares.

Term
Blue Chip Stocks
Definition
High grade issues of major companies that have long and unbroken records of earnings and dividend payments. Common stock of large, well established, stable, and mature companies of great financial strength.
Term
Growth Stocks
Definition
High price/earnings ratio. Sales, earnings, and share of the market is expanding faster than the general economy. Generally no dividends as all earnings are put back into the company to fund research.
Term
Defensive stocks
Definition
Stocks that are resilient to recession- typically in necessities (food;) staples (tobacco, soft drinks, candy;) and necessary services (utilities.)
Term
Income Stocks
Definition
Pay high dividends in relation to their market price.
Term
Cyclical Stocks
Definition

steel, cement, machine tools, automobiles

 

These stocks have earnings that fluctuate with the business cycle. Common stock price follows the earnings.

Term

ADRs

 

Sponsored and Unsponsored

Definition

American Depository Receipts

 

Used to represent a claim to foreign securities which are held in US Banks abroad. They are priced in US Dollars and issue USD Dividends. Shareholders are not protected from foreign currency risk.

 

The company can pay a depositary bank to issue ADR shares in the US. If they do not do this, the shares are unsponsored and will trade OTC on the OTC Pink Market.

Term
Common Stock
Definition

-Voting rights

-Greater potential for capital appreciation than preferred stock

-Ownership stake in the company

-Right to a Stock Certificate

-Right of Transfer

-Right of Inspection

-Right to receive dividend (not guaranteed-decided by the board of directors)

Term
Preferred Stock (2 Types)
Definition

-More likely to receive regular dividend payments than common stock

-Higher priority if the company goes bankrupt

-Issued with a specific dividend rate

-Ownership stake in the company

-Right to a Stock Certificate

-Right of Transfer

-Right of Inspection

-Right to receive dividend (not guaranteed, but more likely)

 

  1. Participating preferred stock - This allows the owners to share in the extraordinary earnings of a company. Essentially, participating preferred has a stated dividend, but these shareholders may receive more than that amount based on the profits of the issuing company. 
  2. Cumulative preferred stock - This will add all unpaid dividends to a future payment if a cash dividend is to be paid to common shareholders. A collateral secured bond provides the holder with safety due to it being backed by a specific asset of the issuer; however, the issuer will pay no more than the bond's stated rate of interest. Common stock will pay only cash dividends if they are declared by the company s board of directors.
Term
Corporate Dividend Exclusion
Definition

<20% of shares of the other corporation => 70% of dividend income is tax free

 

>= 20% of shares of the other corporation owned => 80% of dividend interest is tax free

Term
Cost Basis of inherited securities
Definition
The inheritied stock is considered a long term holding regardless of how long the deceased party held it.
Term
Bond Pricing Conventions
Definition

Par Value is $1000, trading at 110 pts is $1100, etc.

 

Corporate Bonds trade in 1/8 pts ($1.25), Treasury Notes and Bonds trade at 1/32 pts ($0.3125)

 

Treasury Note Ex: 99.08 = 99 8/32 % = $992.50

Term
Put Options
Definition
Give the owner the right to sell a predetermined amount of a predetermined stock at a predetermined price on a predetermined date.
Term
Option
Definition

A contract between two parties that gives one of them the right to buy or sell a security at a set price for a limited period.

 

 

Sometimes referred to as derivatives because they derive value from the underlying value of the security.

 

Uses: Hedging, speculation, or income.

 

The lifespan of an option is usually <9months, but can be <=3 years

Term
Market Value of a Stock
Definition
Shares Outstanding * Market Price Per Share
Term
Par Value of a Stock
Definition

Minimum Price Per Share as stated in the Corporate Charter.

 

Has no relation to market price.

 

Today many stocks are issued without a par value, or if they are required to have one, the corporation sets it at the lowest possible monetary increment (ex. $0.01)

Term
Split offering
Definition
Part initial distribution, part secondary distribution. Some of the profit goes to the company, some goes to the selling shareholders. If an offering is split, this fact must be disclosed.
Term

PIPE Offering

Private Investment in Public Equity

Definition

A private placement of unregistered securities by a corporation that already has publicly traded securities outstanding. A Broker-Dealer assists in distributing these securities to a small group of accredited investors.

 

When a PIPE offering is announced, the company's share price will often decline due to public perception that the company is in need of capital but has limited means to obtain it.

 

A PIPE offering will also dilute the publicly held stock.

Term
Spin-off Transactions
Definition

This allows a company to split into two companies. For example, Sears and Sears Canada. The corporation does this by issuing a stock dividend of 100% of its ownership interest as shares of the new corporation to all of the owners of the original corporation stock.

 

Usually the Spin Off Corporation and the Original Corporation do better seperately than they would have done had they remained one corporation.

Term
Reverse Merger
Definition
How a private corporation can become a publicly traded corporation. The private corporation purchases all the publicly traded shares of a shell company and then merges the two companies into the one new publicly traded corporation.
Term
Underwriter
Definition

A Broker-Dealer that helps corporations or municipalities raise money by arranging for a new offering of stocks or bonds. An investment banker buys the full new issue from the issuing corporation and resells it to the public.

 

Lead Broker Dealer [performs due diligence]

|

Syndicate Manager (managing underwriter)

/\

Syndicate [financial liability]

/   \

Selling Group [no financial liability]

[placement agents]


Munis 

This entity assists the issuer in pricing the securities and sometimes helps to structure the financing and preparing the official statement (the disclosure document used in muni offerings.)

 

This entity can be chosen as part of a negotiated sale, or this entity can be assigned as a result of winning with the lowest bid in a competitive sale. If the issuer wants to sell bonds through a competitive bid, it will advertise by means of a Notice of Sale. This will contain info like sizem maturity and coupon rate of the issue and info related to the bidding process.

 

If the issue was not negotiated, then the syndicate members are bound together by the syndicate letter, which indicates the preliminary amount of bonds to be sold by each member, how long this entity will last, and the liability (divided/undivided) of each syndicate member. The return of the signed syndicate letter indicates the member's acceptance of the terms.

Term
POP
Definition
Public offering price
Term
Registration Document
Definition

Public document filed with the SEC. Provides full disclosure of all material information about the issuer and the offering. The prospectus is an abbreviated version of this document. The managing underwriter will be held liable for all omissions and inaccuracies.

 

Required by the Securities Act of 1933 when issuing securities.

 

Must include:

-The character of the issuer's business

-A balance sheet no older than 90 days prior to the filing of the registration statement

-Financial statements that show profits and losses for the latest three fiscal years.

-The amount of capitalization and use of the proceeds of the sale

-Monies paid to affiliated persons or businesses of the issuer

-Shareholdings of senior officers, directors, and underwriters

-Identification of individuals holding at least 10% of the company's securities

Term

Blue-Sky Laws

 

Definition

Applicable state laws codified in the Uniform Securities Act (USA)

 

3 Types of State Registration for the issue of securities:

  1. Filing (Notification) - Submit an application to the State Administrator requesting approval to offer securities.
  2. Coordination - Done simultaneously with a federal registration and becomes effective at the same time.
  3. Qualification - Meet specific state requirements. Becomes effective at the discretion of the Administrator

These apply to :

Registered representatives & Securities issued by a REIT


But not to:

Commercial paper Securities issued by the City of Chicago

Term

Prospectus Delivery Requirements:

 

  1. Nonlisted IPO
  2. Nonlisted Follow-On Offering
  3. IPO of a security to be listed on an exchange or Nasdaq
  4. Exchange-listed or Nasdaq follow-on offering
  5. Mutual Funds
Definition

If a security is sold in the aftermarket within a certain time period after the stock issue, the final prospectus must be provided to the purchaser. All buyers of the primary offering receive the final prospectus at the time of their purchase.

1. 90 days

2. 40 days

3. 25 days

4. No requirement

5. Must be received prior to any purchase orders being processed.

Term
Exempt Securities
Definition

Securities that are exempt from the registration and prospectus requirements of the 1933 Act.

NOT exempt from the antifraud provisions of the act

Ex:

  • US Government and US Government Agency Securities
  • Municipal securities
  • Securities issued by nonprofit organizations
  • Short Term Corporate Debt Instruments w/ maturity <=270 days
  • Securities issued by domestic banks and trust companies
  • Securities issued by small business investment companies

 

Term
Exempt Offerings
Definition

Regulation A: <= $5,000,000 sold over 12 months - still requires the fililing of an offering statement, and an offering circular must be given out to prospective purchasers.

Regulation DPrivate Placements where 1. the issuer has reason to believe the buyer is a sophisticated investor 2. The buyer has access to a private placement memorandum which contains the same information that a prospectus would contain. 3. the issuer is assured (perhaps through a lock-up agreement) that the buyer does not intend to make a quick sale of the securities. 4. The securities may not be sold to more than 35 nonaccredited investors.

Rule 147: for an instate only offering 

Regulation S: for a non-US offering by a US security. No Debt resales to US investors for 40 days, no Equity resales to US investors for 1 year.

 

An immediate family member of an employee (an RR) of a member firm may be a restricted person. Immediate family members include a spouse, children, parents, siblings, in-laws, and any other person who is materially supported by an employee of a member firm. An exception exists if a nonsupported, immediate family member buys the IPO from a different broker-dealer.

Term
Accredited Investor
Definition

A financial institution (such as a bank), a large tax-exempt plan, or a private business development company. Could also be a director, executive officer, or general partner of the issuer, or an individiual who has either...

  • A Net worth of $1mil or
  • An income of at least $200K (or $300K combined with a spouse) for each of the past two years with the anticipated continuation of this income level

Under Rule 144A of the Securities Act of 1933, unregistered securities may be resold only to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs). Qualified institutional buyers are entities that have at least $100 million of investable assets. The term institution includes insurance companies, trust funds, investment advisers, investment companies, employee benefit plans, or other types of institutional investors. Individual investors, even if they are deemed to be accredited investors, are not considered to be QIBs.

Term
Lock-Up Agreements
Definition
Once a company goes public, the investors who owned shares from before the IPO have to wait a period of time before they can sell their shares. It is typically 6 months. Designed to prohibit management and venture capitalists from immediately liquidating their shares, as this would cause the company to gain less capital from the IPO. The shares obtained before the IPO are restricted and carry a legend stating that they are not registered with the SEC, rendering them illiquid.
Term

Rule 144

 

Definition

Concerned with the sale of restricted stock and affiliate (control) stock.

 

Holding periods - restricted stock must be held for 6 months. control stock - no holding period

 

Filing Requirement - Must file Form 144 to notify the SEC at the time of placing the order to sell the securities. Filing not required if <5000 shares and <=$50,000. If shares are not sold within 90 days of filing, an ammended notice must be filed.

 

Volume Limitation:

Max( 1% of shares outstanding,

Avglast 4 weeks(weekly trading volume) ) [if on nasdaq]

Applies to control stock 4eva, applies to restricted stocks from 6 months after going public to 1 year after.


Broker-Dealers may solicit using Rule 144 if the client has indicated an unsolicited interest in the last 10 business days, or if another broker has indicated an interest in the security in the last 60 days.

Term

Rule 144A

 

Definition

Permits the sale of restricted securities to QIBs (Qualified Institutional Buyers) without the conditions imposed by Rule 144. Unable to be used if the securities are in the same class as those listed on Nasdaq, like convertibles and warrants. Cannot be used if the securities are issued by a registered investment company.

 

Ex of QIBs: Insurance companies, Registered Investment Companies, Small Business Development Companies, Pension Plans, Certain Bank Trust Funds, Corporations, partnerships, certain non-profits, registered investment advisors...

 

The QIB must be purchasing for their own account or for the account of another QIB. The QIB must own $100 mil "of securities of issuers not affiliated with the QIB." Exception: Broker-Dealers need only $10 mil "..."

 

The seller must have a reasonable belief that the buyer is a QIB, and must inform the buyer that they are selling using Rule 144A.

Term

Rule 145

 

Definition

In the case of mergers or when stocks are reclassified, or when assets are transferred from one corporation to another, it is classified as sales that are subject to the registration and prospectus requirements of the 1933 Act.

 

Must file using Form S-4

 

 

Term
Rule 147:
Definition

Can be used to provide an excempt offering of securities in the borders of one state if:

  • 80% of the company's gross revenues are derived from operations within that state.
  • 80% of the company's assets are located within that state
  • 80% of the proceeds of the offering are used to expand facilities within that state
  • 100% of the purchasers are principal residents of that state. 

Rule 147 stock may not be sold out of state until 9 months after the last Rule 147 sale.

Term
Green Shoe Clause
Definition
In instances where new issues are in great demand, the underwriters may request this clause which allows them to buy additional shares from the issuer and sell a maximum of 15% over the original amount.
Term
Stabilization Bid
Definition
The underwriters try to maintain the price of the new issue by biding on shares being sold in the open market. can only bid up to the offerring price. They will only do this when there is low demand for the stock, b/c otherwise the value of the stock would be higher than the issue price.
Term

Restricted Persons [New Issue Rule]

&

Exemptions

Definition

Member firms and all associated persons (employees)

An immediate family member of an employee of a member firm IF

  • the family member lives in the same household, or gives/receives material support consisting of >25% of income. 
  • the employee is employed by the member firm that is selling the new issue
  • The employee has the ability to control the allocation of the new issue (Portfolio Managers)

Also restricted are Portfolio Managers, Finders and Fiduciaries, Persons who own >10% of a broker dealer.

 

Exemptions

  • Investment companies registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940
  • The general or separate account of an insurance company
  • A common trust account
  • An account in which the beneficial interest of all restricted persons does not exceed 10% of the account.
  • Publicly traded entities other than a broker-dealer or its affiliates that engage in the public offering of new issues
  • foreign investment companies
  • ERISA accounts, state and local benefit plans, other tax exempt plans under IRS Code 501(c)(3)
  • Broker Dealers may purchase shares if the offering is undersubscribed.
  • if a restricted person had already owned shares for a year prior to the offering date, then they may participate in the offering if doing so will keep their equity interest at the same level. If this exemption is used, then the new shares may not be sold for 3 months after their acquisition.
  • Employees of the issuer, parent company of the issuer, or subsidiary of the issuer may purchase shares of a new issue if the issuer specifically directs securities to them.
Term

QIU

Qualified Independent Underwriter

Definition

May be required by FINRA in cases of self underwriting or underwriting of an affiliate (ownership of >=10% either way.) The QIU would have no conflicts of interest with the issuer.

 

Must have been manager of comanager of 3 public offerings of a similar size and type during the three years prior to the filing of the registration statement for the offering. The disclosures must explain the conflicts of interest & the name and role of the QIU & a brief statement regarding the role and responsibilities of the QIU. The Member Firm must notify FINRA once the offering is complete.

Term
Disclosure of a Control Relationship
Definition

If a broker-dealer that is controlled by a public company has a customer who wishes to purchase the stock of that company, the broker dealer must disclose the control relationship to the customer prior to accepting the order. If the initial disclosure was verbal, a written disclosure must be provided to the client prior to settlement.

 

A registered representative for ABC Brokerage has just been elected president of the Harper Valley School Board. The school district is going to float a new serial issue of general obligation bonds backed by ad valorem taxes. ABC Brokerage's relationship to the school district can be described as a control relationship. 


A control relationship exists when a brokerage firm or an employee of a firm is in a position to control or influence the issuance of securities by an issuer.

Term
Principal Capacity
Definition

If a firm sells the stock to the customer from its own inventory, then it is acting as a dealer (principal). 

  • The firm is a principal
  • it is taking a risk
  • the firm is acting as a dealer
  • it earns a markup or markdown
Term
Agency Capacity
Definition

If the firm does not have the inventory to act as the principal, the firm's job is to go out and obtain the stock for the client and place it in that client's account. This action is also known as brokering a trade.

  • The firm is acting as an agent
  • The firm is acting as a broker
  • It is not at risk
  • It earns a commission

Agency Cross counts as a commision based trade although both clients are with the same firm.

Term
Regulation M
Definition
Underwriters, Issuers, and other distribution participants are not allowed to participate in the secondary market of stock that is being offered in a distribution. This is to prevent the price manipulation of the security being distributed. An exception to this is stabilization bids. Stabilization must be disclosed in the prospectus and requires periodic reporting the the SEC.
Term
Penalty Bid
Definition
The managing underwriter may reclaim a selling concession from a syndicate member if their customer buys the new issue and then immediately sells it back to the syndicate at the stabilizing bid. Since the broker who sold the security to the customer will not receive any of the concession from the sale, they will not be happy with the client, and will be likely not to sell primary offerings to them again in the future.
Term
Concession
Definition
The cut of the underwriting spread that the Selling Group receives.
Term
New Issues - Limitations on Research
Definition

If a firm is a manager or comanager of a recent offering by a public company, neither they nor their analysts may publish research reports or make public appearances for the security for 40 days after the offering for IPOs, or for 10 days for secondary offerings.

 

Other firms participating in the deal (syndicate and selling group members) must maintain a quiet period for 10 days after an IPO. No restriction for secondary offerings.

 

An exception exists for "Hot News" when the issuer is subject to certain unexpected news events.

Term
Market Center
Definition
A place where orders are sent for execution.
Term
Short Sale
Definition

The client does not own any shares of the security. They must first borrow the shares of securities from the firm and then execute a sale.

 

Executed from a margin account. Broketage firms provide short sellers with stock they have borrowed from other margin customers. The short seller is obligated to return the borrowed shares as well as any dividends received.

Term
Bid Price
Definition
The highest someone is willing to pay for a security
Term
Ask Price
Definition
The lowest price a seller is willing to accept for a security.
Term
Stock Spread
Definition
The difference between the ask price and the sell price. Actively traded stocks have narrower spreads than inactively traded stocks.
Term
Round Lots and Odd Lots
Definition
Round lots are orders for 100 shares. Odd lots are less than 100 shares. 567 shares would be 5 even lots and one odd lot of 67 shares, all on the same order ticket.
Term
Limit order
Definition
Entered when a customer wishes to buy or sell securities at a specific price. The order will only go through at that price or better.
Term
Stop (Loss) Order
Definition

Sell Stop Order - Placed below the market price of the position. Once the position trades at or below x price, the sell stop order is activated and the position is sold at the market price.

Buy Stop Order - Placed above the market price of the position. Once the position trades at or above y price, the position is sold at the market price.

Sell Stop Limit Order - the same as a Sell Stop Order, but will not execute unless the price is at or higher than the stop price.

Buy Stop Limit Order - the same as a Sell Stop Order, but will not execute unless the price is at or lower than the stop price.

Term
Cash Dividend Adjustments
Definition

The price will be reduced by the amount of the dividend on the ex-div date for the following order types:

  • Buy Limit
  • Sell Stop
  • Sell Stop Limit

Because they are all orders that are placed below the market price. On the ex-div date the value of the stock drops by the amount of the dividend, so if this adjustment were not made, then these orders would activate prematurely.

 

The order price is adjusted in a similar way for shares that are Ex-Rights. (The price of the stock will be diluted by the introduction of new shares, so if 25% more shares are introduced, the share price should reduce by ~25%)

Term
(GTC) Open Order
Definition
Unlike a day order, this order stays open until executed or canceled.
Term
At-The-Open
Definition
This is an order to buy or sell at the opening price. If it cannot be executed at the opening, it will be canceled.
Term

Market on Close

(MOC Order)

Definition
This is an order to buy or sell at the closing price.
Term

Limit on Close

(LOC Order)

Definition
This is an order to buy or sell near the close at a particular price or better.
Term
Not-Held (NH)
Definition
Gives the firm discetion as to the time and price on an order. If the firm does not execute or does not obtain the best price, it will not be held responsible.
Term
Immediate-or-Cancel (IOC)
Definition
As much of the order as possible must be executed immediately. The portion not immediately executed is canceled.
Term
Do Not Reduce (DNR)
Definition
All orders are adjusted for stock splits and stock dividends unless the client requests that the order should not be reduced. Orders placed below the market are also reduced for stock dividends and the like unless these instrux are given.
Term
Extended-Hours Exposure
Definition
This qualification tells the firm the client wants the order exposed to premarket/aftermarket trading sessions. Since there is less liquidity during these hours, special disclosures must be given to clients seeking to trade in these less liquid periods.
Term
Processing a Transaction
Definition
Order Dept (Wire Room) -> Purchase and Sales Dept -> Margin Dept -> Cashiering Dept -> Reorganization Dept
Term
Riskless Principal
Definition
The capacity a firm is acting in when it buys into its own inventory to fill preexisting customer orders. For example, the firm buys from an outside dealer and then sells those shares at the same price, plus a markup, to its customers that placed the trades.
Term
Market Maker
Definition
A dealer who is always ready to buy or sell a specific stock. As both a buyer and a seller, they quote two different prices, the bid and the ask price.
Term
Net Basis
Definition
When a firm buys shares from an outside dealer to resell to its customers at a different price. The dealer makes its profit off of the spread, and the profit is not disclosed on the customer's confirmation. FINRA rules place disclosure and consent requirements on dealers executing these sorts of trades with customers.
Term
Super Display Book
Definition
An automated routing system used on the NYSE
Term
Fair and Orderly Market
Definition
A market where there is price continuity and reasonable depth. The Designated Market Maker will buy and sell in their own account to keep the spread between the bid and ask for each stock low (~$0.05) and the DMM will sometimes sell short in order to provide liquidity in times when there is a large difference in the supply and demand.
Term
Stopping Stock
Definition
A DMM, as a courtesy to a public customer, may guarantee an execution price while trying to find a better price for the customer.
Term
Subject Quote
Definition
A quote subject to confirmation with the market maker before the order can be transacted.
Term
Workout Quote
Definition
When a dealer receives an inquiry about the availability of a block of stock that a client had previously indicated an interest in buying or selling. Before a firm quote can be given, the client must be contacted to see if the individual is still interested in buying or selling the stock.
Term

Bid Wanted (BW)

Offer Wanted (OW)

Definition

When a seller asks the buyer to suggest a purchase price.

When a dealer asks a seller to suggest a sell price.

Term
Proxies
Definition
The person who is authorized to vote on behalf of shareholders that cannot vote on corporate matters in person.
Term
Nasdaq Eligibility
Definition
  • a majority of the issuer's board of directors must be independent
  • an audit committee consisting solely of independent directiors must be maintained
  • Shareholders must be provided with annual reports and quarterly and other reports must be made available
  • proxies must be solicited and statements provided to shareholders for all meetings
  • issuers must refrain from taking certainactions or issuing securities that would unfairly reduce or restrict the voting rights of existing shareholders
Term
OTCBB
Definition
Over The Counter Bulletin Board - Securities may not be quoted on the OTCBB unless the issuer files periodic financial info with the SEC or another applicable regulator.
Term
Pink OTC Market
Definition
lists the market makers for each stock included and their phone numbers. Operates an electronic messaging service called the pink link.
Term
The Fourth Market
Definition
refers to direct institution to institution trading, without the sercives of a broker-dealer. Most are internal crosses set up by money managers who handleseveral institutional accounts. Proprietary trading systems (PTSs) set up to facilitate institution to institution trading are sometimes referred to as part of this market, however, the SEC does not consider them part of this market.
Term
ECNs (Electronic Communication Networks)
Definition
Market centers that allow for the quoting and trading of exchange listed securities with the objective of bringing buyers and sellers together. They charge subscribers a fee to use their system and act as an agent, not in principal capacity.
Term
Dark Pools
Definition
A source of liquidity for large institutional investors and high frequency traders that does not disseminate quotes. This system can be operated by broker dealers or exchanges, and allows these investors to buy or sell large blocks of stocks anonymously. The objective is to trade with the least amount of market impact, with low transaction costs.
Term
CQS (Consolidated Quotation System)
Definition

provides quotations for listed securities that are traded in markets outside of the primary marketplace where the security is listed.

 

 provides subscribers with bid/asked quotations for securities listed on national exchanges, including quotes from OTC market makers in those securities (the third market).

Term
Regulation NMS (National Market System)
Definition

Order Protection Rule - Electronic trades must take place on the market with the best price

Locked Markets - occurs when a market center displays a bid at the same price as the current lowest offer made by another market center

Crossed Markets - occurs when a market center displays a bid above the ask price for another market or vice versa.

Limitations on Quote Increments - Broker Dealers are prohibited from accepting bids, offers, or indications of interest for NMS stocks at certain increments. if the stock is trading >$1, the increments must be pennies. If less than a dollar, it must be increments of at least $0.0001.

Term
Trade Reporting
Definition
During the hours of operation, transactions in equity securities must be reported within 10 seconds after execution to the appropriate system (TRF, ORF, TRACS) Transactions in TRACE-eligible securities (corporate debt) must be reported within 15 minutes after execution.
Term
Order Clearing
Definition
Once the order has been filled, the P&S area takes over. This department's primary function is to ensure that what happened in the trading markets matches up with the orders sent out by the firm. The P&S area is responsible for official notification of the executions to both the firm's internal clients and the contrabroker on the other side of a transaction.
Term
DTCC Notification (Depositiory Trust and Clearing Corp)
Definition
A securities depository and a national clearinghouse for the settlement of transactions in equities, corporate, municipal, and US government bond, mortgage backed securities, money-market instruments, and OTC derivatives. The function is to automate and centralize the clearing and settlement of trades among its members. Most major financial institutions in the US are members. The primary goal of this system is a relentless drive to eliminate physical securities in order to increase the speed and reduce the cost of clearing and settling trades.
Term
DTC (Depository Trust Company)
Definition
Most securities are held electronically in the name of the b/d or another nominee name. This process is referred to as holding book-entry positions and is carried out by this company.
Term
Buy In / Sold Out
Definition
Term
OATS (Order Audit Trail System)
Definition
This system enables FIRA to review market activity effectively regarding customer orders within a member firm, to conduct surveillance, and to enforce rules. This system records the life of an order from receipt, to routing, to modification if applicable, and then to either cancellation or execution.
Term
Confirmations
Definition

must include whether the B/D acted as agency or as a principal. The contrabroker also generates a confirm, and the two confirms should be compared to see if they agree. If an error is discovered, the party in error should send out a corrected confirmation within one business day.

 

The MSRB requires a municipal dealer to indicate to a customer through a written confirmation the capacity in which the dealer acted. The municipal dealer must disclose if it acted as an agent for the customer, as a principal for its own account, or as an agent for a third party. If the municipal dealer acted as an agent for a third party, the municipal dealer must disclose the name or promise to provide the name of the third party. Also, the amount of money received from the third party by the municipal dealer is required. 


If the municipal dealer is a market maker, this is not required to show up on the confirm.

Term
DK (Don't Know)
Definition
When a B/D sends a trade confirmation to the contrabroker but does not receive one in return. The party receiving the confirmation is required to notify the confirming party promptly by telephone and within onebusiness day, send a written notice, return receipt requested, indicating nonrecognition of the transaction. Within four business days of the trade, the B/D will then send the contrabroker a DK notice, questioning whether a trade occurred. The contrabroker must then examine its records to determine whether the transaction did occur. If a member believes that a transaction is clearly erroneous, it may cancel the trade upon notification and approval of FINRA. If, after verification, the dealer believes a trade occurred, if should immediately notify the nonconfirming party by telephone and send, within one business day, a written notice, return receipt requested, to the nonconfirming party, indicating failure to confirm. As soon as it receives a phone call from the dealer, the nonconfirming party should try to establish whether a trade occurred. If it determines that a trade did occur, the nonconfirming party should immediately notify, by phone, the confirming party and, within one business day, send a written confirmation. If the trade cannot be confirmed, a written notice should be sent promptly to the confirming pary indicating nonrecognition of the transaction.
Term
Proxy Contest
Definition
A process whereby one company attempts to acquire another company by convincing shareholders to vote out the present management. If a registered rep advises a shareholder on how to vote in a proxy contest and stands to benefit from the advice somehow, they may be considered a participant and be required to file information schedules with the SEC.
Term
Tender Offer
Definition
Takes place when an entity offers to buy a corp's shares at a premium to the current market price. Usually done for the purpose of acquiring control of the company or gaining representation on the board of directors.
Term
1. capping and 2. pegging
Definition

the attmept to prevent a stock from

(1. rising above / 2. falling below) a certain price.

Term
Insider Trading Limitations
Definition

Not permitted to make short swing profits in the stock of the corporation in which they are insiders. If an insider sells the stock at a profit within 6 months of its acquisition, or sells stock for a profit that was held 6 months or longer and then repurchases it within 6 months of the sale, the corp may sue for recovery of the profit (disgorgement.)

 

Insiders may not short the stock of the company in which they are insiders unless they are shorting against the box.

 

Insiders cannot write uncovered calls, but can write covered calls.

Term
WSPs
Definition
Written Supervisory Procedures
Term
Information Barrier Procedures / Policies may include:
Definition
  • Physical seperation of trading, investment banking, and sales areas.
  • Limiting employee access to certain restricted areas of the firm such as trading desks
  • Limiting employee access to electronic and physical records
  • Making sure sensitive material is not left out in the open
  • Requiring employees to wear identification badges to prevent unauthorized persons from entering the firm
  • Supervision of interdepartmental communications
  • Supervision of employee email and phone communication
  • Education and training of employees regarding these procedures.
Term

Insider Trading Sanctions of 1984 (ITSA)

Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988 (ITSFEA)

Definition

requires B/Ds to establish, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of the B/D's business, to prevent the use of material nonpublic info by the BD or associated person. Any individual who uses insider information may be laible for trading violations.

  • a system for monitering employee's personal trading and trading in firm proprietary accounts
  • restriction or monitering of trading in securities where the firm has access to insider information
  • procedures to restrict access to files containing confidential information, including the establishment of information barriers
  • education of employees regarding insider trading issues

Consequences:

  • Civil Penalties<=3x amount of gain or loss avoided in the transactions. The insider trader may also have to give up the profits earned.
  • Criminal Penalties: Subject to fines up to $5mil and/or imprisonment for 20 years for EACH violation.
  • Bounties: The bounty for providing info about insider trading may be rewarded by the SEC <=10% of penalty.
Term
Restricted and Watch Lists
Definition
Includes securities that employees are either restricted or prohibited from trading, or issues that are subject to closer scrutiny by the member firm. The restrictions and limitations associated with the lists apply to both employees and to solicited transactions with customers.
Term
SEC Reg FD (Fair Disclosure)
Definition

If Senior Company Officials communicate nonpublic material info to analysts or investors, the company must also disclose the info to the public at large at the same time if intentional, or within 24 hours if unintentional, or at the opening of the market if it happens on a holday or over the weekend.

 

The company must file form 8-K with the SEC or by some other method that is reasonably designed to reach a broad spectrum of the investing public.

Term
"Circuit Breakers"
Definition

US equities experience higher volatility when there is a natural disaster or terrorist attack. Under certain circumstances, trading may be suspended.

 

Level 1: 7% decline

9:30 AM - 3:25 PM

15 minute trading halt

 

Level 2: 10% decline

9:30 AM - 3:25 PM

15 minute trading halt

 

Level 3: 20% decline

ANYTIME

Trading halts for the remainder of the day

 

If there is a halt in the trading of a security that underlies option contracts, then the exchange on which the option trades makes the decision to stop trading the option contracts.

Term
Municipal Bonds
Definition

Bonds issued by states and local governments

 

Traders establish positions in secondary market municipal bonds for a broker-dealer. An underwriter is involved in the distribution of new issues.

Term
Research Restrictions in the Secondary Market
Definition

No Trading ahead of research

Information barriers between the research and trading departments.

Term
Par Value (principal, face amount)
Definition

The amount that the issuer agrees to pay the investor when the bond matures.

 

Most bonds are sold initially at this value, but they can be sold for less (selling at a discount) or more (selling at a premium)

Term
Coupon Rate
Definition
The bond's fixed rate of interest
Term
Frequency of Bond Interest Payments
Definition
Semiannually, twice a year
Term
Variable or Floating Rate Securities
Definition
In some cases, the coupon rate of the bond will adjust to market conditions as interest rates move up or down.
Term
The real interest rate of a bond
Definition
Coupon rate minus Inflation Rate
Term
Zero Coupon Bonds
Definition
These bonds pay no interest, instead they pay a large lump sum at maturity that makes up for the difference in interest. If this bond is a municipal bond, there are no phantom income taxes related to the change in value of the bond over time. Otherwise, the owner of this bond may owe taxes on the gains yearly despite not actually receiving any money in the form of interest yet.
Term
On Thursday Sept 15 an investor purchases for regular-way settlement, $10,000 face value of a 10% corporate bond that matures on December 1st, 2035. How many days of accrued interest and what dollar amount of accrued interest is the investor required to pay?
Definition

109 days, $302.78

 

  • Corporate & Municipal bonds assume all months have 30 days.

 

  • Use the Maturity Date to figure out the last interest payment date, June 1st

 

  • Settlement is 3 business days from the purchase date, so the bond settles on Sept 20th. Interest is accumulated up to but not including the settlement date.

 

June - 30 days

July - 30 days

August - 30 days

September 19 days

= 109 days

Term
Accrued interest on treasury bonds vs corporate/munipal bonds
Definition

Treasury bonds is calculated based on actual days of months of the year, unlike C/M bonds, which calculate it as if months had 30 days each. 

 

January - 31 days

February - 28 days

March - 31 days

 

April - 30 days

May - 31 days

June - 30 days

 

July - 31 days

August - 31 days

September - 30 days

 

October - 31 days 

November - 30 days

December - 31 days

Term
term bond issue vs serial bond issue
Definition
  1. all bonds issued at the same time mature on the same date. These  are quoted on the basis of a dollar price.
  2. the bonds issued at the same some mature on sequential years. These are quoted on a yield-to-maturity basis. 
Term
Bearer Bonds
Definition

No longer issued in the US. The bond holder holds a physical certificate with interest coupons that they clip off and bring to the bank to receive their payment. The name of the bond holder is not recorded. When the bond matures, the certificate is turned in for the maturity amount.

 

A municipal bearer bond does not require endorsement (signature) by the owner.

Term

Bonds registered as principal only

vs

Fully registered bonds

Definition
  1. like bearer bonds, interest coupons are clipped off and redeemed at the bank, but the owners name and address is recorded for the purposes of receiving written notices and payment of the principal amount at maturity.
  2. name and address recorded for purposes of receiving written notices, payment of the principal, and payments of interest. The interest payments are received as a check from the issuer ever 6 months.
Term
Book Entry Bonds
Definition
No physical certificate for the bond, ownership is evidenced by means of a computer entry of the owner's name and address. GNMA & FNMA securities and all negotiable US Treasury and goverment agency debt is issued this way.
Term
convertible bonds - parity
Definition
when the market price of the bond is equal to the price of the common stock derived from the conversion.
Term
Bond's nominal yield
Definition
the same as a bond's coupon rate
Term
bond's current yield
Definition

measures the annual interest that the investor receives from the bond compared to its current market price.

 

Annual Interest Rate * Par Value

                                                    

Market Price

Term
yield to maturity
Definition

This one is a big old mystery - Neither the book nor the internet want to give me a relaiable equation for it. However, when the bond is bought at a discount, it is higher than the nominal yield and the current yield, and when it is bought at a premium, it is less than both of those. If the bond is bought at par, it is apparently equal across the board.

 

≈ 2*(Yearly interest payment + [Par - Market Price])

                                                                           

Par + Market Price

Term
Basis Points
Definition
1/100 of a percent of interest
Term
Fluctuations of bond values due to changes in interest rates
Definition
  • Prices of Long Term Bonds tend to fluctuate more (have longer duration) than bonds with shorter maturites (with shorter duration) because they are more sensitive to interest rate swings.
  • The price of bonds selling at a discount fluctuate more than bonds selling at a premium
  • Yields of newly issued short term bonds will fluctuate more than yields for long term bonds.
Term

Normal Yield Curve

Inverted Yield Curve

Flat Yield Curve

Definition
  1. Lower yields in shorter maturities and higher yields in the longer maturities (because yields increase as maturities lengthen)
  2. Unusual. Seen when the demand for money exceeds the supply. When interest rates are high (such as when there is high inflation) you might see this.
  3. Similar yields across all maturities. 
Term
Refunding Bonds
Definition
When the issuer of a bond simultaneously calls old bonds and issues new ones at a lower interest rate
Term
Credit Risk
Definition
The risk that an issuer may default on interest and/or principal payments and cause investors to lose all or part of their investment.
Term
Call protection
Definition
a restriction placed on how soon the call feature can be exercised, typically 5-10 years from the date of issue.
Term
Call Premium
Definition
Excess payment that an issuer pays the investors to compensate them for the call risk.
Term
Continuous call
Definition
A call feature that can be exercised at any time after the first call date
Term
Partial (Lottery) Calls
Definition
As opposed to whole calls, some bonds can be called early while others are left outstanding.
Term
Catastrophe Call Provisions
Definition
If bonds are issued to fund the building of a bridge, and a natural disaster causes the construction to be destroyed, the issuer would use insurance proceeds to pay back the investors early.
Term
Prerefunding
Definition

If an issuer wishes to lock in an interest rate before they can call the previously issued bonds, they can issue new bonds (called the refunding issue), use the proceeds of the issue to buy government securities, place those securities in an escrow account in a bank that ensures that the securities on deposit as well as their earnings will be used to pay the interest and principal on the outstanding issues.

 

Since the issue is now secured by escrowed securities, the issuer is no longer responsible for payment of interest and principal. Also, the original rights and liens the bondholders had under the bond agreement are eliminated. This is referred to as defeasance. The original issue is defeased.

Term
Yield to worst
Definition

If a bond is callable, both the yield to maturity and the yield to call must be calculated. The bond investor must be told the lower of the two outcomes. This disclosure is placed on the client's confirmation.

 

In order to comply with this disclosure rule, bonds selling at a discount must be quoted on a yield to maturity basis. Conversely, bonds selling at a premium must be quoted based on thee lower of the yield to maturity or the yield to call.

Term
Sinking funds
Definition
funds that bond issuers deposit money into in order to redeem their bonds. This ensures that a debt will be retired in an orderly fashion. The indenture may require that this fund be established or the issuer may set one up independently
Term
Indenture
Definition
Term
Put Provisions
Definition
The opposite of a call provision. Gives bondholders the right to redeem the bond on a specified date or dates prior to maturity. Usually redeemable for the par value, but may be redeemable at a discount or a premium.
Term
Variable Rate Demand Note
Definition
The issuer will periodically readjust the interest rate. At the time of this adjustment, investors can demand that the issuer puchase the obligations at par on the same day.
Term
Senior Securities
Definition
If a corporation goes bankrupt bondholders and other creditors must be satisfied before the stockholders can claim any of the remaining assets. For this reason, bonds are referred to as _______.
Term
The Trust Indenture Act of 1939
Definition

A corporation issuing more than $10 million of debt must provide an indenture (agreement) between the issuer and the trustee (usually a bank or trust company) who will act on behalf of the bondholders. All the terms of the issue must be spelled out in detail in the indenture, which the trustee signs on the bondholders' behalf.

 

Some terms that the indenture will include:

  • assets pledged (if any)
  • redemption features
Term
Closed-End Indenture vs Open End Indenture
Definition
  1. The corporation is not allowed to issue new bonds secured by the same claim on the same assets as the bonds of the original issue. This prevents the security behind the the bonds from being diluted.
  2. The corporation is permitted to issue additional bonds secured by the same assets as the original issue. Because the protection of the bondholders is able to be diluted, the indenture will usually require that the corporation meet a specific level of earnings before new bonds can be issued. (Earnings test or additional bonds test)
Term
Secured Bonds
Definition

A type of corporate bond that is backed by certain assets that the corporation owns, as well as the corporation's full faith and credit. In the event of a bankruptcy, the trustee will take possession of the assets and liquidate them on the bondholders' behalf.

 

Ex:

  • Mortgage Bonds: secured by a first or second mortgage on real property. Usually issued serially over a number of years. Once a group of bonds is paid off, new bonds are issued, backed by the same property. (Real Estate)
  • Equipment Trust Certificates: secured by a specific piece of equipment that the corporation owns that is used in its business. The trustee holds legal title to the equipment until the bonds are paid off. Usually used by railroads, airlines, shipping companies. (Equipment)
  • Collateral Trust Bonds: secured by third party securities owned by the issuer. The securities are placed in escrow as collateral for the bonds. (stocks or bonds)
Term
Rolling Stock
Definition
Railroad equipment that may be used to secure equipment trust certificates.
Term
Unsecured Bonds
Definition

Known as notes or debentures. Secured only by the corporation's full faith and credit. If the issuer defaults, the holders of these securities have the same claim to assets as any other general creditor, before the stockholders, but after the secured bondholders.

 

Sometimes a new issue of this type of bond can have an even lesser claim to assets than the company's other bonds of this type issued earlier. These are called subordinated debentures.

Term
Liquidation Rights in order (7)
Definition
  1. wages
  2. taxes
  3. secured creditors including secured bonds
  4. general creditors including debentures
  5. subordinated creditors including subordinated debentures
  6. preferred stockholders
  7. common stockholders
Term
Fallen Angels
Definition
Bonds that began with an investment grade rating (>=Baa by Moody's or >=BBB by S&P) but is later lowered to below investment grade (<Baa by Moody's or <BBB by S&P). These bonds will have greater risk for less return.
Term
Guaranteed Bonds
Definition
A corporate bond that, in addition to its primary form of security, is secured by a guarantee of another corporation to pay interest and principal, if necessary. A typical example would be a parent company guaranteeing a bond issued by a subsidiary company.
Term
Convertible Bonds
Definition

Similar to convertible preferred stock, these bonds allow the investor to convert them into shares of the company's common stock, at a predetermined ratio.

 

Traditionally, these issues offer lower coupons than similar bonds without the option to convert.

 

Often issued by companies with weaker credit ratings. If converted, the debt becomes equity, and the issuer's capital structure is deleveraged.

 

The price of these bonds will be

max(inherent value, conversion value)

 

If the market price of the bond is less than the conversion price, it is unlikely that bondholders will want to convert.

Term
Forced Conversion
Definition
When a convertible bond is called at a price that is lower than the market value of the shares the bondholder would receive by converting.
Term
Conversion Ratio
Definition

=

 

Par value

                          

Conversion Price

Term
Treasury Stock
Definition
Term
Mrs. Green enters an order to sell stock that is currently in her safe deposit box. According to SEC rules, a broker-dealer must buy-in the stock if Mrs. Green does not deliver the shares within:
Definition
10 business days after the settlement date
Term
Which TWO orders is a designated market maker (DMM) prohibited from accepting on his book?
Definition

The DMM may not accept market orders (because they must be immediately executed) and not-held orders on his book. The term not-held means the floor broker is not held to a specific price for the stock. The DMM is not involved with not-held orders.


A designated market maker may accept open GTC orders and day orders on his book.

Term
An open (GTC) order
Definition
Term
Quotes for non-Nasdaq, over-the-counter traded equities can be obtained from the: (2)
Definition
OTC Pink Market and the OTC Bulletin Board (OTCBB).
Term

An individual wishes to sell restricted securities according to the Rule 144 exemption. There are 6,000,000 shares outstanding. The trading volume for the last 5 weeks prior to the sale are:

April 1..........45,000 
April 8..........62,000 
April 15........70,000 
April 22........75,000 
April 29........72,000

If the customer were to sell the securities as of May 6, how many shares may he sell?

Definition

69,750


AVERAGE THE PRIOR 4 WEEKS OF TRADING VOLUME

Term
The third market is concerned with:
Definition
NYSE-listed securities traded in the OTC market
Term
New Issue Rule Restricted Persons
Definition

Aunts, uncles, and cousins are not defined under the rule as immediate family members and are, therefore, not considered restricted persons.


 A buy-side trader has the ability to make trading decisions and is defined as a portfolio manager, who is considered a restricted person under the rule.

Term
Wash sale rule
Definition
Reinstating a position within 30 days of realizing a loss will trigger the wash sale rule.
Term
A Regulation D offering may be sold to a maximum of:
Definition
35 NONaccredited investors
Term
forward stock split & par value
Definition
When a company declares a forward stock split, the number of outstanding shares increases and the par value decreases proportionately.
Term
An investor sells uncovered calls and, just prior to their expiration, sells short the underlying stock. The intent is to keep the price from rising above the exercise price. Such an action is called:
Definition
Capping: Writers of uncovered calls will benefit if they can prevent the price of stock from rising above the exercise price. They could accomplish this by capping the stock (entering sell orders to prevent the price from rising above a certain level). Capping is considered a manipulative activity and is a violation of securities law.
Term
Front-running
Definition

When a broker-dealer or RR buys or sells stock or options before the public release of proprietary information concerning a large block order, it is considered a prohibited practice that is referred to as front-running. Another form of front-running is exemplified by an RR buying a stock and then recommending that her clients buy the same stock. After the recommendation to her clients, the RR would likely benefit from the potential increase in the stock's price. Even if the client recommendations are suitable, it is unethical for the RR to put her own interests before her clients' interests.


Placing proprietary orders (orders for the account of the RR or broker-dealer) ahead of customer orders is a prohibited practice that is referred to as ____________. An institutional buy order has the potential of moving the market price of a security higher. Having advance knowledge of the order would allow the broker-dealer to purchase the security or a derivative for that security prior to executing this order and profit when the market reacts to the institutional order. 

Term
Consolidated Quotation System
Definition
The third market refers to exchange-listed securities trading over-the-counter and the quotes for the third market can be found on this.
Term
Earnings Per Share
Definition

[image]

 

Serves as an indicator of a company's profitability

Term
Regulation A Offering
Definition
Exempt from the registration and prospectus requirements under the Securities Act of 1933. The offering is limited to the issuance of $5,000,000 worth of securities during a 12-month period.
Term
Rule 415
Definition

 A shelf registration under Rule 415 will make it so that:

  • The company will to be ready to sell the bonds quickly.
  • The bonds will be as liquid as possible in order to attract investors.
  1. Shelf registration or shelf offering or shelf prospectus is a type of public offering where certain issuers are allowed to offer and sell securities to the public without a separate prospectus for each act of offering. Instead, there is a single prospectus for multiple, undefined future offerings.
Term
Selling short "against the box"
Definition
Term
market capitalization
Definition
Term

An individual owns restricted stock. He would not be required to file a Form 144 for a sale of less than:

$ _______ and _______ shares

Definition
5,000 shares and $50,000.
Term
Arbitrage (with convertible bonds)
Definition
If the stock is valued higher than parity and the convertible bond is valued lower than parity, then someone can come in and make a profit by buying the bond, converting it to stock, and then selling the stock. (Or more likely, shorting the stock and buying the bond simultaneously to lock in the price difference.) Because this opportunity for profit exists, the bond will usually trade for >= parity.
Term
Income Bonds/Adjustment Bonds
Definition
Interest payments are not promised (come only if earnings are sufficient, like dividends)
Term
Foreign Pay Bonds
Definition

Eurodollar Bonds - Issued in a foreign country using USD. Not registered with the US SEC. Subject to the 40 day trading restriction.

 

Eurobonds - Sold in one country in the currency of another country. Affected by the interest rates of the country's currency that they are denominated in.

 

Yankee Bonds - Allow foreign entities to borrow money in the US Marketplace. Registered with the SEC and sold primarily in the US.

Term
Structured Products - ETNs (Exchange Traded Notes)
Definition
Composed of a fixed income component (a note) and a derivative product. The note determines the interest rate, and the derivative determines the payment at maturity. Not insured by the FDIC and must be disclosed by an RR when offering this kind of product.
Term
Put Options
Definition

Seller / Writer - Has the obligation to buy the underlying asset at the strike price if the holder exercises the option.

(Sell -> Must Buy)

 

Buyer / Holder -  Has the right to sell the underlying asset at the strike price before the expiration date.

(Buy -> Can Sell)

 

Loss = Strike Price of Short Put - Price of Underlying - Premium Received + Commissions Paid

 

Loss = limited

Term
Call Option
Definition

Seller / Writer - Has the obligation to sell the underlying security at the strike price if the option is exercised before the expiration date.

(Sell -> Must Sell)

 

Buyer / Owner - Has the option to buy the underlying security at the strike price before the expiration date. (Buy -> Can Buy)

Term
Reverse Convertible Securities - Third-Party Derivative Securities
Definition

Short term notes issued by banks and B/Ds. Not issued by a traditional corporate borrower. Usually pay a coupon rate above prevailing market rates. Considered structured products. The buyer may have to purchase shares of an underlying asset at a fixed price. (Underlying Call??) The underlying asset may be an equity security unrelated to the issuer or a basket of stock, or an index. The B/D is willing to pay the higher coupon rate to guarantee the purchase of the underlying asset.

 

The investor is required to purchase the underlying asset at the predetermined fixed price if the asset falls below a price known as the knock-in level. If the investor has to purchase the underlying security, they will incur a loss.

 

These securities are only suitable for investors who understand their inherent risk.

Term
TRACE (Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine)
Definition
Created by FINRA to provide greater transparency into the corporate bond market, because the majority of corporate bond transactions occur in the OTC market. B/Ds that execute transactions in corporate debt must report the transactions to FINRA.
Term
[image]
Definition

Interest payment date = 6/1/2015

Purchase Date = Thursday 9/15/2015

Settlement Date = Tuesday 9/20/2015

 

30 days / month  =>

3 months = 90 days

19 days (settlement - 1) + 90 days = 19+90 = 109 days

 

5000*.1*109/180=302.78

 

Note: Bonds in default and Zero-Coupon Bonds do not accumulate interest

Term
Taxation of Bonds, Interest & Capital Gain
Definition

Corporate Bonds - Interest (including accrued interest) is subject to federal, state, and local taxation in the year received at the investors tax bracket.

 

OID Securities - Original Issue Discount - Investors are required to adjust their tax basis annually to account for the discount and they are taxed annually on the "income." For example - a zero-coupon bond purchased@60 with 20 years until maturity will have its cost basis adjusted upward each year by 2 points

[(100-60)/20], and the accreted amount is treated/taxed as ordinary interest income. (This rise in cost basis is not actually linear, but it can be assumed to be linear for the exam) This phantom income can be avoided by purchasing zero-coupon bonds in tax deferred accounts (or by purchasing muni bonds.) Any capital gain or loss is calculated against the bond's accreted cost basis.

 

SMD Securities - Second Market Discount Securities. These are discunted when they are obtained on the market. There will be a taxable gain at maturity that will be reported as ordinary income.

 

Premium Bonds - The cost basis of bonds bought at a premium is also adjusted on a yearly basis through a process called amortization - BUT the downward adjustment cannot be claimed as a loss. If sold prior to maturity any capital gain or loss will be calculated against the bond's adjusted cost basis.

Term
  1. Funded Debt / Capital Market Securities
  2. Money Market Securities / Short Term Debt Securities
Definition
  1. Debt with a maturity of more than one year.
  2. Debt with a maturity of less than one year. Usually maturity ranges from overnight to a few months. Most of these are not required to register under the Trust Indenture Act of 1939 since their maturities do not often exceed 9 months.

Since the closer the investor is to needing cash, the less risk s/he can take with their principal, the funds should be held in money market positions if price stability is desired.

Term
MFP (Municipal Finance Professional)
Definition

Any associated person of a broker dealer primarily engaged in municipal underwriting, trading, sales, financial advisory and consulting services, and research or investment advice on municipal securities. Registered Reps who recommend Muns to retail investors are generally excluded from this definition, unless munis are being solicited from issuers.

 

These professionals are not allowed to make any political contributions >$250 lest they incur a 2 year ban. If they cannot vote for the official, then they cannot make any contribution. Spouses can do whatever as long as the contribution is not from a jt acct. If this professional makes a larger contribution than what is allowed, the entire firm is banned for a 2 years.

Term
  • Commercial paper
  • Bankers' acceptances
  • Negotiable certificates of deposit
  • Federal funds
  • Repurchase Agreements (Repos)

These are all examples of what type of security?

Definition
Money Market Securities aka cash equivalents.
Term
Commercial Paper
Definition
When corporations are in need of short-term financing, they issue this. This is a short term, unsecured corporate debt, typically maturing in 270 days or less. Usually issued at a discount, but may be interest bearing. Usually issued by corporations with high credit ratings and considered very safe for this reason.
Term
Ratings of Commercial Paper (Moody's, S&P, Fitch)
Definition
  • P-1 (Prime 1) is the highest, P-2 and P-3 are intermediate, and speculative commercial paper receives a rating of NP (Not prime)
  • A1 (highest) to A3
  • F1+ (highest) to F3
Term
Banker's Acceptances (BAs)
Definition

Used to facilitate foreign trade. If a company in Country A (CA) wishes to pay for an imported product after delivery, they can issue a time draft secured by a letter of credit from a bank in CA. Company B importing the product can hold the draft until it is due, or cash it immediately at a bank at a discount. This bank then has the draft guaranteed by the issuing bank and it is now called a ______________. The bank can hold it until it is due, or can sell it in the market.

 

___________s are actively traded and are considered safe sine they are secured by both the issuing bank and by the goods originally purchased by the importer.

Term

Repurchase Agreements (Repos)

 

Reverse Repo / Matched Sale

Definition

In this sort of agreement, a dealer sells securities, usually T-Bills (government backed money market alternatives), to another dealer and agrees to repurchase them at a specific time at a specified price. This is basically a collateralized loan. The second dealer (the lender) receives the difference between the purchase price and the resale price of the securities in return for making the loan.

 

When a dealer purchases securities and agrees to sell them back to the other dealer at a specific date and price. The first dealer would lend money (with securities as collateral) to the second dealer and earn the difference in sales prices.

 

These transactions are typically short-term, most being overnight transactions.

Term

Step Up CDs

Step Down CDs

Definition
  1. These initially offer a lower interest rate than other CDs of the same maturity, but the subsequent coupons will be higher.
  2. These initially offer a higher interest rate than other CDs of the same maturity, but the subsequent interest payments will be at a lower rate, and they can be adjusted more than once.
Term
Negotiable Certificates of Deposit (CDs)
Definition

Banks and savings and loans issue time deposits carrying fixed rates of interest that mature after a specified period. While most of these time deposits mature in a year or less, the minimum maturity is 7 days, and there is no maximum. Holders of these time deposits are penalized if they redeem them prior to their stated maturity.

 

These time deposits have a minimum denomination of $100K, but often trade in denominations of $1mil or more. There is an active secondary market for these securities. Because they often exceed $250K, they may only be partially insured by the FDIC.

Term
Long Term CDs
Definition

Banks and savings and loans issue time deposits carrying fixed rates of interest that mature after a specified period. These time deposits mature from 2 to 20 years. Obviously, these are not considered money-market securities. Holders of these time deposits are penalized if they redeem them prior to their stated maturity.

 Risks:

  • There may be limited liquidity, or potentially no liquidity.
  • Investors may experience a loss of principal (but actually the penalty is from the interest, not the principal) if these securities are sold prior to maturity
  • FDIC insurance may not cover the full investment
  • Unique features, such as variable rates, step-ups and step-downs, may affect future interest payments.
  • May be callable
Term

Federal Funds (Fed Funds)

& Fed Funds Rate

Definition
  1. Money borrowed overnight from one bank that cannot meet its federal reserve requirement from another bank that has funds available above and beyond the federal reserve requirement. This allows the bank with excess reserves to earn interest on those otherwise dormant funds.
  2. The interest rate chaged on these overnight loans. This rate fluctuates on a daily basis and reflects the availability of funds in the system. This rate is a leading indicator of interest-rate trends. The federal reserve does not set this rate, but attempts to influence it through purchases and sales of government securities in the secondary market.

Due to deposits, withdraws, and loan demands, a bank may find itself with either an excess reserve position or a deficit reserve position. If a bank has excess reserves, it may lend additional funds to borrowers, including commercial banks that are in a deficit reserve position.

 

These short-term loans of excess reserves that banks lend each other are called the ______. The _____ is determined by supply & demand. Since _____ are short-term, they are considered money market instruments. Due to the short duration of the loan, the ______ is normally considered to be the most volatile interest rate. The effective ______ is published daily and shows the average rate charged the previous night for ______. Although the FRB does not directly set the ______, it does set a target. The open market operations of the FRB are designed to maintain the ____ within this prescribed range.

Term
Prime rate
Definition
The rate corporations pay to borrow funds from a bank if it is among the bank's best credit-rated customers. Other corporations may pay a higher rate that is based on this rate.
Term
LIBOR (London Interbank Offered Rate)
Definition
The average rate that banks charge each other for London deposits of Eurodollars.
Term
US Treasury Interest Tax
Definition
Taxed at the federal level, but exempt from taxation at the state and local level.
Term

Nonmarketable / Nonnegotiable Treasury Securities

AKA Savings Bonds

Definition

These bonds may not be sold in the secondary market. They may only be redeemed by the US Government.

 

There are 3 types.

 

Series EE Bonds - Up to 30 year investments, denominations of $50 to $10,000. The goal is for the value of these bonds to at least double over time. Prior to May 1, 2005, the interest rate was equivalent to 90% of the average yield on five year treasury bonds during the last 6 months. Now the rate is set for the first 20 years at purchase, and then adjusted on the 20 year anniversary to ensure that the bond value doubles before 30 years are up. The fixed interest rate for new savings bonds is calculated twice a year. For Ex. Interest rates of these bonds are currently at 0.3%. This means for 20 years you will get this interest rate, then on the 20th anniversary the interest rate will be adjusted to ~7% to make sure the initial amount put in is doubled. Tax on interest can be deferred until the bond either matures or is redeemed. 

Interest is added to the bond every month. and compounded semiannually.

 

Series I Bonds - Up to 30 year investments, denominations of $50 to $10,000. Interest rate is reset twice a year depending on the rate of inflation. Tax on interest can be deferred until the bond either matures or is redeemed. Interest is added to the bond every month. and compounded semiannually.

 

Series HH Bonds - 20 year investments. Face values ranging from $500 to $10,000. Pay interest semiannually. 

 

Term
Marketable / Negotiable Treasury Securities
Definition

These may be sold in the secondary market:

  • Treasury Bonds
  • Treasury Notes
  • Treasury Bills
  • Treasury Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal Securities (Treasury STRIPS)
  • Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS)
  • Treasury Cash Management Bills (CMBs)
Term
Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) & Treasury Notes (T-Notes)
Definition

Both referred to as Interest-Bearing Securities. Both sold in denominations that are multiples of $100*n with n>=1. Both currently issued in Book-Entry form. Both quoted in increments of 1/32. For ex: 18:18 = 18 18/32, and a change of -11 = -11/32.

  1. Issued with maturities of >10 years.
  2. Issued with 2 years <= maturities <= 10 years.

 

Term
Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS)
Definition

Interest bearing, marketable securities whose principal is adjusted based on changes in the Consumer Price Index (CPI.) If inflation occurs, then the principal increases accordingly. If deflation occurs, the principal will decrease. Upon maturity, this security pays max(inflation_adjusted_principal, original principal)

 

This seems like a really good deal!

 

Downside: The adjustment made each year is taxed as ordinary income at the federal level. Interest Payments are also taxed at the federal level. Whatever, these are still awesome.

 

Note: If deflation occurs, the adjustment to principal can be reported as an ordinary income tax loss IF the total loss is less than the total gain from interest since the owner obtained this security. Note2: please do the math to figure out when the loss could exceed the interest gain.

Term
CPI (Consumer Price Index)
Definition

Measures the rate of inflation by measuring the prices of a fixed basket of goods bought by a typical consumer. If prices are rising, then the economy is experiencing inflation. Inflation occurs when the demand for goods and services in the market increases at a faster rate than the supply of these items.

 

Inflationary periods are usually characterized by rising interest rates. Interest-rate-sensitive stocks, such as utilities, and financial service companies, react to changes in interest rates. Since utility companies are highly leveraged, it becomes more expensive for these companies to raise money when interest rates increase. Interest charges increase, causing a drain on earnings, resulting in a decline in prices of these securities.

 

Historically, equity securities or other related products such as equity mutual funds, equity ETFs and variable annuities have provided the best protection against inflation. Inflationary risk is also referred to as purchasing-power risk.

 

Not all equities will hedge against inflation risk since investors assume the FED may raise interest rates to curb inflation (???). If the Fed raises rates, consumer borrowing and consumption may fall. This will negatively affect cyclical companies. Also, under the dividend discount model the net present value of earnings would be reduced since a larger discount rate would be applied. (???)

 

Historically, certain commodities such as gold and silver have performed well during inflationary periods. Customers can gain exposure to these asset classes through direct investments in commodities or futures, or in derivative products such as ETFs and MFs.

 

Fixed-income securies are more vulnerable to inflation. Inflation represents a dual risk for bonholders -- Interest rates rise causing the market price of their holdings to fall while the purchasing power of their interest payments also decreases. If higher rates are anticipated, bond investors will move to shorten maturities (decrease portfolio duration) to mitigate the effect of downward pricing pressure. Some bondholders may also try to innoculate their portfolios by purchasing inflation-indexed bonds such as TIPS.

 

The real interest rate is the rate of interest an investor expects to receive after allowing for the decline in his purchasing power (inflation). This rate is computed as:

 

Nominal Yield - Inflation Rate.

 

Remember:

Nominal Yield is the interest rate of the bond.

 

This is one of the reasons why bond investors demand higher nominal returns during an inflationary period -- they are factoring in the decline in their future payment's purchasing power.

 

Deflation is a persistant and appreciable decline in the general level of prices. If the supply of goods and services was greater than the demand for those items, then producers would need to lower their prices to compete for the limited demand. If this was the case on a broad scale, deflation would take place.

 

Deflation should not be confused with disinflation. While deflation is a drop in prices, disinflation is a reduction in the rate of inflation. (??? How is this different? Inflation is computed based on the prices of items...... Oh right, disinflation is a reduction in the rate of inflation, but prices are still being inflated. Got it.)

 

Stagflation is a prolonged period of a high rate of inflation at the same time as a high rate of unemployment. This does not happen often since high unemployment usually leads to a period of low inflation or even deflation (falling prices) and the possibility of a recession. A period of low unemployment usually leads to rising prices and increased inflation.

 

DEFLATION IS OFTEN CAUSED BY A REDUCTION IN THE SUPPLY OF MONEY OR CREDIT, INTEREST RATES TREND DOWNWARD

 

INFLATION HAPPENS WHEN THERE IS TOO MUCH MONEY CHASING TOO FEW GOODS. THIS LEADS TO THE RISE IN PRICES OF GOODS AND SERVICES. HIGH INFLATION USUALLY ACCOMPANIES HIGH INTEREST RATES.

Term
Treasury Bills (T-Bills)
Definition

Mature in <= one year. Only issued in Book-Entry Form. These securities are always sold at a discount and do not make interest payments. Referred to as discount securities and non-interest-bearing securities.

 

Quoted on a discounted yield basis, thus bid > asked. A higher discount yield indicates a lower buying price. The Ask Yield indicates the bond or coupon equivalent yield, which allows investors to compare the yield on these securities with the yield available on other interest-bearing securities. Ask Yield is always > Discount Yield. ( for ex, a discount of $200 from a $1000 security of this type would have a discount yield of 20, but the annual ask yield is 200/800 * (between 12 and 1) >= 25. )

Term
Stripped Securities
Definition

These securities were issued by broker dealers but backed by US Treasury Notes and Bonds. B/Ds took the interest payments from the US Treasury Securities and sold these securities as Zero Coupon Bonds. 

 

General versions of these securities are called Treasury Receipts, which include STRIPS.

Term

Treasury STRIPS

(Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal Securities)

Definition

 The treasury department issues these. Dealers may purchase T-Notes and T-Bonds, and separately resell the coupon and principal payments as zero-coupons after requesting the treatment through a federal reserve bank.

 

These securities are sold at a discount, the discount can be accounted for by the withheld interest payments. These securities are quoted on a yield basis.

Term
CMBs (Cash Management Bills)
Definition
Unscheduled, short term debt offerings used to smooth out treasury cash flows. Duration can be as short as one day. Issued at a discount and mature at the face amount.
Term
On Tuesday, March 8, an investor purchases, for regular-way settlement, a $10,000.00 face value 10% Treasury bond that matures on December 1, 2034. How many days of accrued interest does the buyer owe the seller?
Definition

Regular way settlement for treasuries is 1 business day => Wednesday, March 9 is the settlement date. December 1 maturity => semiannual payment on June 1.

31+31+28+8 = 98 days accrued interest. 

 

January - 31

February - 28

March - 31

April - 30

May - 31

June - 30

July - 31

August - 31

September - 30

October - 31

November - 30

December - 31

Term
Registration requirements for US Treasury Securities
Definition
U.S. Government securities are exempt from registration under federal securities laws. There is no filing with the SEC unlike corporate bond offerings.
Term
Federal Reserve Auctions
Definition

3 or 6 month (AKA 13 & 26 week) T-bills are auctioned on Monday and 4 week bills are auctioned on Tuesdays. All bills are issued the Thursday after the auction. These bills are all auctioned weekly.

 

T-bills a year in length will be auctioned every 4 weeks on tuesday and they are issued on thursday.

 

Two and five year notes are sold monthly (the auction date varies) and they are issued at the end of the month.

 

Ten-year Treasury notes & 30-year treasury bonds are sold quarterly (Feb, May, Aug, Nov) and they are issued on the 15th of the month.

 

Term
  1. Competitive Tenders
  2. Noncompetitive Tenders
  3. Dutch Auction
Definition
  1. Large securities firms which submit offters to buy Treasuries to the Federal Reserve Board. These firms specify the price and/or yield at which they are willing to buy the Treasuries.
  2. An individual who wants to purchase Treasuries submits one of these. These bidders are then guaranteed a security (these orders are filled first), but they must agree to the yield and price determined by the auction.
  3. The large securities firms bid against each other at this auction, and then the individuals who submitted #2 will pay the price determined by the bids of the large securities firms. The winning firm is also able to buy Treasuries at this price. This single price auction process is called a _______ auction.
Term
Agency Securities
Definition

include debt instruments issued and/or guaranteed by federal agencies and by GSEs (Government Sponsored Enterprises.) These securities are unrated, but they can be assumed to be AAA. They are perceived to be very safe investments because although they are not backed directly by the federal government, they are backed by agencies created by the federal government, and it is assumed that the fed would not allow these agencies to default on their obligations.

 

issued in book-entry form and quoted in increments of 1/32nd of one percent. yields are somewhat higher than for corresponding U.S. Treasury securities (which to me implies that they are less safe, but that's just me)

 

Appropriate for conservative customers. These are also very liquid, so there is little, if any, marketability risk. Many of these instruments pay interest monthly, which gives them an advantage over US Treasuries.

Term
Federal Agencies and their securities
Definition

these are the direct arms of the United States govt. any securities they issue or guarantee are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.

 

This includes GNMA AKA Ginnie Mae (Government National Mortgage Association), which is part of the Dept of Housing and Urban Development. Its purpose is to provide financing for residential housing. Interest paid on GNMA securities are subject to alllll the taxes, even though their securities are direct obligations of the US govt.

 

GNMA issues mortgage-backed securities, participation certificates, and modified pass-through certificates. GNMA guarantees monthly payments to the owners of the certificates, even if it has not been collected from the homeowners. Mortgages in the pool have a maturity of 25 to 30 years. The average life of the pool tends to actually be from 12 to 14 years due to prepayments, foreclosures, and refinancings.

Term
Government Sponsored Enterprises
Definition

Publicly chartered but privately owned. Created by congress to provide low-cost loans for certain segments of the population.

 

This entity issues securities through a selling group of dealers. The proceeds of the offering are lent to a bank or other lender. The bank then lends the money to the individual seeking the financing (for ex: students, homeowners, farmers.)

 

Their securities are not backed by the US Govt, however, their default risk is considered minimal.

 

Some examples:

  • FFCBs (Federal Farm Credit Banks)
  • FHLBs (Federal Home Loan Banks)
  • SLMA or Sallie Mae (Student Loan Marketing Association)
Term
FFCBs (Federal Farm Credit Banks)
Definition

Provides funds for three separate entities: Banks for Cooperatives, Intermediate Credit Banks, and Federal Land Banks. These all make agricultural loans to farmers. 

 

Consolidated Systemwide Banks of this type issue short-term discount notes and interest-bearing bonds with both short and long maturities. Interest paid on these obligations is subject to federal taxes, but exempt from state and local taxes.

Term
FHLBs (Federal Home Loan Banks)
Definition

There are twelve of these. They help to provide liquidity for savings and loan institutions which may need extra funds to meet seasonal demands for $$$. THe two types of securities they issue are discount notes which have maturities of less than 1 year, and consolidated bonds, which have maturities from 1 to 30 years. 

 

The securities issued by these are not backed by the US govt, but the Treasury is allowed to by up to $4 billion of this entity's issues. Interest paid on these securities is subject to federal taxes, but is exempt from state and local taxes.

Term
SLMA or Sallie Mae (Student Loan Marketing Association)
Definition

Provides liquidity to student loan makers and financing for state student loan agencies. Authorized to deal in student loans insured in the federal GSLP (Guaranteed Student Loan Program) as well as uninsured student loans. Also lend funds directly to educational institutions. 

 

Originally created as a GSE, but it is now a private company and its stock is listed on the Nasdaq (?!?!!?!)

 

Debt issued by this entity is not guaranteed by the US govt. Interest paid on these securities is subject to federal taxes, but state and local taxation of interest varies by state. Although these securities are not backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. govt, this entity maintains a direct line of credit w/ the US govt.

Term
Mortgage-Backed Securities
Definition

Debt instruments secured by pools of home mortgages. The agencies that issue these securities include the the FHLMC or Freddie Mac (Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation), FNMA or Fannie Mae (Federal National Mortgage Association) and the GNMA or Gennie Mae (Government National Mortgage Association.)

 

Example:

  • Pass Through Certificate
Term
Mortgage-backed Pass Through Certificate.
Definition
Term
FHLMC aka Freddie Mac (Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation)
Definition

Provides liquidity to federally insured savings institutions needing extra funds to finance new housing, especially when credit is tight (what's that mean? high interest rates??)

 

This is done by purchasing residential mortgages from the savings institutions.

 

Money is raised by issuing mortgage-backed bonds, pass-through certificates, and guaranteed morgage-backed certificates. None of these securities are backed by the US Government, but they are backed by other agencies and the mortgages purchased by Freddie Mac. Interest is subject to alllll the taxes.

Term
Prepayment Risk
Definition

Mortgage backed securities (pass through certificates issued by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac in particular) are subject to this risk. It is similar to call risk. Because of this risk, cash flows from mortgage backed securities can be highly unpredictable.

 

Bonds and Notes with semiannual interest payments and a fixed maturity date issued by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac are not subject to this risk.

 

Typically this risk is prevalent during low interest rates due to refinancing possibilities.

Term
Extension Risk
Definition
The opposite of prepayment risk. This risk occurs when interest rates are rising and the holder of the mortgage backed security receives a smaller portion of her principal back.
Term
CMOs (Collateralized Mortgage Obligations) & Types (8)
Definition

These are privately issued corporate mortgage backed derivative securities. They are classified as derivatived because their value is based on underlying mortgage securities. The interest and principal payments from the mortgages are used to create various classes of bonds called tranches. Each tranche has a different rate of interest, repayment schedule, and priority level. These securities allow investors to choose the yield, maturity structure, and risk exposure that best meets their needs. The tranches with the greatest risk pay the greatest returns. These securities are usually secured by Fannie Mae, Gennie Mae, and Freddie Mac pass-through securities but can be backed by pools of mortgage loans. These assets are placed in a protective trust for the exclusive benefit of the bondholders.

 

These securities are usually highly rated because of the quality of the underlying collateral and the safety provided by the trust. They are issued in denominations of $1000. Interest payments are generally paid monthly and are taxable on allll the levels. The principal payments are considered a return of capital and are NOT taxable.

 

Unlike treasuries and agencies, these securities are subject to the registration requirements under the act of 1933 and the Trust Indenture Act of 1939. Ongoing filings are required by the Act of 1934.

 

Types:

  1. "Plain Vanilla" - Simplest. Each Tranche receives interest payments, but only one tranche at a time receives principal payments. This makes Tranche 1 more susceptible to prepayment/contraction risk than Tranche 3, but makes Tranche 3 more susceptible to extension risk than Tranche 1.
  2. PAC (Planned Amortization Class) - As long as mortgage prepayment speeds are within a certain range, these tranches can provide a predetermined schedule of principal repayments. This greater predictability of maturity is accomplished by the existance of os a PAC Tranche which gets the top priority for principal repayments, and there is also a companion or "support" tranche which has lower priority that is used to pick up excess principal.
  3. TAC (Targeted Amortization Class) - Provide protection only from contraction risk (shorter maturity schedule) but not extension rish (longer maturity schedule)
  4. Companion or Support Bonds - These absorb the prepayment risk that has been reduced in the PAC and TAC tranches. These have greater volatility of cash flow and a high variability of average life. Holders are compensated for this risk with higher yields.
  5. Z-Tranches AKA Z-Bonds - deferred interest bonds that have the longest average life of any tranche. During the initial phase in the life of the Z-tranche, the bond provides no cash flow. Interest will instead compound as with a Zero-Coupon Bond. Once all the other tranches have been retired, interest and principal payments are then made to the Z-tranche.
  6. PO (Principal Only) Securities - Mortgage Bonds that are created by stripping the interest from the underlying mortgage. Sold at a deep discount to face value. The face value is ppaid to investors through scheduled and early payments of principal. So faster prepayments lead to a more rapid return of principal and therefore a higher yield.
  7. IO (Interest Only) Securities - Interest only bonds receive some or all of the interest portion of the underlying collateral and little or no principal. As the principal payment is paid on the underlying mortgages, the cash flow declines on the IO. Once the principal of the underlying mortgages decreases to zero, no further payments are made on the IO. These increase in value when prepayment speeds are slow.
  8. Floating-Rate Tranches - These have interest rates that are periodically reset to a margin above an interest-rate index, such as LIBOR or COFI (Cost of Funds Index), subject to a cap and floor rate. If the interest rate has an inverse relationship to the index it is called an inverse floater. If the interest rate moves in the same direction and is adjusted by more than one basis point for each basis point change in the index, it is called a super-floater. These are suitable investments for a rising rate environment.
Term
PSA Model (Public Securities Association, Now SIFMA)
Definition
Used for CMOs. Estimates the speed of prepayments as measured against a benchmark. A score of 100 assumes the prepayment speed will remain stable. >100 => faster, <100 => slower prepayment speed than normal.
Term
FINRA Rules Regarding CMO Communications
Definition
  • All correspondence sent to more than 25 investors must have the full name - Collateralized Mortgage Agreement - in the title.
  • All correspondence sent to more than 25 investors must disclose that any applicable government agency backing relates only to the face value of the securities, not any premium paid. 
  • Claims about safety, guarantees, product simplicity, and predictability must be accurate and not misleading.
  • CMOs may not be compared to to any other types of investments, such as CDs.
  • A statement must be included which indicates that a CMO's yield and average life will fluctuate depending on changes in interest rates and changes in the rate at which mortgage holders repay their mortgages.
  • Required education materials - B/Ds must offer retail investors educational material about the features of CMOs and this material must include:
  1. A discussion of the structure of a CMO which explains the different types of structures, tranches, and risks associated with each type of security. It is important to explain that two CMOs with the same underlying collateral may have different risks.
  2. A discussion of the characteristics and risks of CMOs that details how changing interest rates may affect prepayment rates and the average life of the security, tax considerations, credit risk, minimum investments, liquidity, and transactions costs.
  3. An explanation of the relationship betwwen mortgage loans and mortgage securities
  4. Questions an investor in CMOs should ask before investing
  5. A glossary if terms applicable to mortgage backed securities.

FINRA has created a standardized CMO print advertisement. All advertisements must be submitted to FINRA prior to release.

 

Retail communications must be approved before initial use by a principal and filed with FINRA within 10 business days of first use.

Term
CDOs (Collateralized Debt Obligations)
Definition

Similar in structure to CMOs, These are privately issued asset-backed securities that are issued as a bond that is collateralized by a pool of bonds, loans, and various other assets. Ownership of this type of security is usually in the form of a tranche (slice), with any given tranche carrying a different maturity and risk level. The return an investor can expect depends on the underlying assets contained in the pool. 

 

Generally not suitable for retail investors due to their highly complex nature.

 

Subject to filings under the Acts of 1933, 1934, and 1939. Interest on these securities is taxed at allllll the levels.

Term
US Govt securities taxable at the state/local level (5-6)
Definition
  1. GNMA
  2. FNMA
  3. FHLMC
  4. CMOs
  5. CDOs
  6. SLMA (in some states)

Basically, all the ones with fancy names + CDOs & CMOs

Term
US Govt securuties not taxable at the state/local level (6-7)
Definition
  1. T-Bills
  2. T-Note / T-Bond
  3. TIPS
  4. STRIPS
  5. FFCBs
  6. FHLBs
  7. SLMA (in some states)
Term

A client is seeking a safe investment that pays interest on a monthly basis. Which of the following securities would be an appropriate recommendation?

  1. STRIPS
  2. Preferred stock
  3. Treasury notes
  4. GNMA modified pass-through certificates
Definition
Interest (and principal) payments on GNMA pass-through certificates are made monthly. Treasury notes and bonds pay interest semiannually. Preferred stock dividends are paid to shareholders only when declared by the corporation's board of directors. STRIPS are a zero-coupon Treasury security (non-interest-bearing).
Term

Which of the following would increase most in price if interest rates decline?

  1. Short-term bonds selling at a discount
  2. Long-term bonds selling at a discount
  3. Short-term bonds selling at a premium
  4. Long-term bonds selling at a premium
Definition

When interest rates decline, bond prices rise. The longer maturities rise more in price than the shorter maturities due to market risk. Bonds selling at a discount rise more sharply in price than those selling at a premium.

A bond with a high coupon would tend to trade at a premium and a bond with a low coupon would tend to trade at a discount. The bond with the high coupon will repay an investor sooner than a bond with a low coupon since the investor will be earning more money from the coupon on a bond selling at a premium. Therefore, bonds that have longer maturities and/or lower coupon rates will have a higher degree of interest rate risk. Due to this fact, if interest rates decline, the long-term bond selling at a discount will increase (in percentage terms) more than the long-term bond selling at a premium. Another way of looking at this is a $50 price change to a long-term bond selling at $900 is equal to a 5.55% change in price whereas a $50 price change in a long-term bond selling at $1,200 is equal to a 4.17% change in price.

Term

If interest rates increase, which of the following securities has the most price change?

  1. A Treasury note trading at a discount
  2. A Treasury note trading at a premium
  3. A Treasury bond trading at a discount
  4. A Treasury bond trading at a premium
Definition

When interest rates increase, outstanding bond prices will decline in value. The prices of longer-term maturities will fall more than the shorter-term maturities. Treasury bonds have maturities of up to 30 years, whereas Treasury notes have maturities of up to 10 years. The prices of bonds selling at a discount will fall more sharply than those selling at a premium.

A bond with a high coupon would tend to trade at a premium and a bond with a low coupon would tend to trade at a discount. The bond with the high coupon will repay an investor sooner than a bond with a low coupon since the investor will be earning more money from the coupon on a bond selling at a premium. Therefore, bonds that have longer maturities and/or lower coupon rates will have a higher degree of interest rate risk. Due to this fact, if interest rates decline, the long-term bond selling at a discount will increase (in percentage terms) more than the long-term bond selling at a premium. Another way of looking at this is a $50 price change to a long-term bond selling at $900 is equal to a 5.55% change in price whereas a $50 price change in a long-term bond selling at $1,200 is equal to a 4.17% change in price.

Term

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning bonds issued by FNMA (Fannie Mae)?

  1. They have yields that are lower than comparable Treasury securities
  2. They are a direct obligation of the U.S. government
  3. The value of these securities is highly dependent on current interest rates
  4. They are generally not considered suitable for investors seeking income
Definition
Government-Sponsored Enterprise (GSE) bonds, such as those issued by FNMA (Fannie Mae) or FHLMC (Freddie Mac) are not direct obligations of the U.S. government. They are able to borrow funds from the government, which makes their yield slightly higher than Treasury securities with the same maturities. As with most fixed-income securities, their value is highly dependent on current interest rates, and they are suitable for investors seeking income.
Term

A 5% $1,000 par value bond sells at $900 and matures in 10 years. What is the amount of each interest payment?

  1. $25
  2. $45
  3. $50
  4. $90
Definition
Bonds pay interest every six months (semiannually). The dollar amount of interest payments is computed as a percentage of the par value. In this example, the coupon rate is 5%. The annual interest payment is $50 (5% of $1,000 par value). Each interest payment is one-half of that amount, or $25.00.
Term

Which of the following CMOs has the MOST prepayment risk?

  1. Sequential pay tranches
  2. Accrual or Z tranches
  3. Planned amortization class (PAC) tranches
  4. Support or companion tranches
Definition
The planned amortization class (PAC) is a type of CMO that is designed for more risk-averse investors and provides a predetermined schedule of principal repayment, as long as mortgage prepayment speeds are within a certain range. This greater predictability of maturity is accomplished by establishing a sinking-fund type of schedule. The PAC tranche has top priority and receives principal payments up to a specified amount. Any excess principal goes to a companion or support tranche that has lower priority. Holders of the companion tranche are generally compensated for this risk with higher yields.
Term

Four municipal bonds have the same maturity date. Which of the following bonds will cost an investor the greatest dollar amount when purchased?

  1. A 4 3/4% coupon bond offered on a 5.10 basis
  2. A 5 1/4% coupon bond offered on a 5.00 basis
  3. A 5 3/4% coupon bond offered on a 6.00 basis
  4. A 6 1/4% coupon bond offered on a 6.50 basis
Definition
When bonds are purchased at a discount (below the $1,000 par value) the yield to maturity (basis) will be greater than the coupon rate (nominal yield). This is the case in all of the choices listed except where the coupon rate of 5 1/4% is greater than the yield to maturity of 5%. This would mean that an investor purchased the bond at a premium (above the $1,000 par value) and paid the greatest dollar amount.
Term
Municipal Bonds
Definition

Issued by states, territories, & possessions of the USA as well as other political subdivisions like counties cities school districts as well as public agencies such as authorities & commissions.

 

These do have default risk.. BUT they are generally not taxed at any level so long as the security was issued within state borders. They mayyy be taxed at the local level, but probably not.

 

Types: 

GOs / GO Bonds

&

Revenue Bonds

Term
  1. GOs (General Obligation Bonds)
  2. Limited Tax GOs
Definition

1. May be issued to meet any and all needs of the issuer.

 

Secured by the full faith & credit & taxing power of the issuer. Only able to be issued by issuers with the power to levy & collect taxes.

 

The issuer of these bonds may be restricted in the amount of debt the issuer is able to incur, you've heard of the debt ceiling right? 

 

Constitutional powers to issue these bonds are derived from the state constitution. If the issuer lacks constitutional power to issue the bond, they may issue the bond with Statutory powers, ie, by passing a law granting them the power to issue the bond. (may require voter approval)

 

Typically secured by income, gasoline, excise & other taxes collected on the state level.

 

For local jurisdictions such as counties & cities, the most common source of tax revenue is levies on real property (Ad Valorem Taxation). School taxes also. Also nontax revenue such as parking fees, park & rec expenses, licensing fees.

 

2. Bonds that are issued by certain government entities like school districts which have a legal limit on the tax rate they may levy. 

 

As opposed to Unlimitied bonds of the same type, which are issued  by government units that have no legal limitation on their power to tax. Most are of this type.

 


Issued By: States or local municipalities

Issuance requires: Voter Approval

Source of funds backing bonds: Taxes, local - property tax, state - income, sales & other taxes.

Provide funding for: Roads, parks, schools, govt buildings, general operating expenses of a municipality and other state collected taxes.

Analysis should consider: Economic character of community, Assessed property values, Employment rates, Industries that constitute the community's employment, Issuer's fiscal responsibility, Existence of unfunded pension liabilities, Debt statement.

Term
  1. Debt Service
  2. Level Debt Service
Definition
  1. the total interest and principal payments owed to bondholders
  2. When the annual payments above are consistently the same amount.
Term
Default Risk of GOs (General Obligation Bonds), Things to Consider.
Definition

When evaluating this risk, analysts will look at factors such as:

  • overal economic health of the community (changes in property values, largest employers, avg income, & other demographic info (see below)
  • tax burden & source of payments
  • budgetary structure & financial conditions of the issuer
  • existing debt ( debt per capita, overlapping debt )

Demographics - a growing population is a sign of economic strength, declining population is a sign of deterioration in the tax base - but don't forget suburbs. Diversification of the industries of the employers signals ecomonic strength.

Nature of the Issuer's Debt - If the issuer has not been fiscally responsible in the past, it is unlikely that their attitudes have changed since then. Does the municipality use the debt to build new roads out to the suburbs (stimulating growth) or do they issue debt to pay off existing debt / increase spending in a weak local economy? Did they structure repayment serially or as a term issue? Future financing is better than a reactive financing to support an overburdened infrastructure.

Fiscal Responsibility - Is the budget balanced? Are rainy day funds created for use in business cycle downturns? Did the past 5 years show budget surplusses? Does the municipality reduce expenditures by monitoring the conditions upon which services are provided?

Financial Condition - if this is sound then the government entity is able to meet all its obligations to creditors, employees, taxpayers, suppliers, & others. Measuring the financial resources necessary to make payments as they come due determines this.

Unfunded Pension Liabilities - if these are pensions that are underfunded, this negatively impacts the quality of the issuers debt.

Ability to Collect Taxes - If the community's taxing power is limited, this positively influence these bonds because the projected revenues will service the already issued debt. Fiscal responsibility is imposed & the creditworthiness of the issuer is enhanced.

Other Red Flags:

  • Tax Collection Record - A poor collection record may be a red flag indicating an inefficient local government & this results in bonds with low credit ratings.
  • Property Taxes that are Increasing in the face of a decreasing population
  • An increasing tax burden on the population in comparison to other regions
  • GO debt that is increasing while property values remain stagnant
  • Lawsuits against the municipality

 

 The debt statement is also looked at.

Term

Direct Debt

&

Net Direct Debt

Definition
  1. All the debt (bonds & notes) issued by the municipality
  2. Does not include revenue issues or note issues. Includes only the GOs (bonds supported by taxation)
Term
Overlapping Debt
Definition
Debt of a political entity where its tax base overlaps the tax base of another public entity. For example, a school district or a city inside of a county.
Term
Total Bonded Debt
Definition

long term debt + short term debt + overlapping debt

 

 

Term
Revenue Bonds
Definition

Typically issued to fund a specific project such as a bridge or road, with cash flows from that project (tolls, usage fees, etc) pledged to repay bondholders. 

 

Can be used to finance airports, water & sewage systems, bridges, turnpikes, hospitals, etc.

 

Considered riskier than GOs since revenues may prove insufficient to fund debt service.

 

Issuers can be a commision or authority or a state govt or a local govt or an authority. Issued when voter approval for GOs cannot be obtained, or when limitations on debt prevent the municipality from issuing the bonds.

 

A feasibility study will be conducted to determine if the project will be competitive and able to generate revenues. An accounting firm is usually retained to help determine if the revenues will be sufficient to cover expenses and debt service. A consulting engineer is also hired to present a report to determine if the project can bring in the needed revenues.

 


 

Issued By: States or local governments, an authority, or agency

Issuance requires: Feasibility Study

Source of funds backing bonds: Collected revenues generated by the financed project

Provide funding for: Airports, water & sewage systems, bridges, turnpikes, hospitals etc.

Analysis should consider: Debt service coverage ratio, Bond's indenture, Covenants, Flow of funds.

Term
Types of Revenue Bonds (19)
Definition
  1.  Housing Revenue Bonds - 
  2. Dormitory Bonds - 
  3. Health Care Revenue Bonds - 
  4. Utility Revenue Bonds - 
  5. Transportation Bonds -
  6. Special Tax Bonds - 
  7. Special Assessment Bonds - 
  8. Moral Obligation Bonds - 
  9. Education Bonds - 
  10. Lease Rental Bonds - 
  11. COPS (????) (Certificates of Participation) - 
  12. IDR (Industrial Development Revenue)Bonds & PCR (Pollultion Control Revenue) - 
  13. AMT (Alternative Minimum Tax) Bonds AKA Private Activity Bonds - 
  14. Taxable Municipal Bonds - 
  15. BABs (Build America Bonds) - 
  16. Double-Barreled Bonds - 
  17. Advance-Refunded Municipal Bonds AKA Prerefunded or Defeased Bonds - 
  18. Escrowed to Maturity Bonds - 
  19. Parity Bonds - 
  1. help fund housing for moderate income families.
  2. paid back with a portion of a student's tuition
  3. for the construction of nonprofit healthcare facilities
  4. used to finance utility systems owned by a government unit.
  5.  used to create airports & other transit systems
  6. payable only from the proceeds of a special tax ex: an excise tax on gasoline.
  7. payable only from an assessment on those who directly benefit from the facilities.
  8. If revenues are not sufficient to pay back this bond, the govt is morally obligated to help cover the difference.
  9. secured by repayment of student loans, ins payments made by the govt, & money established by the bond's indenture.
  10. One municipality leases a facility to another, the lease payment pays back the bond.
  11. A method of monetizing existing surplus real estate through a lease that does not legally constitute a loan, thereby eliminating the need for public referendum or vote.
  12. issued by a municipality & secured by a lease agreement w/ a corporation, issued to build a facility for a private company.
  13. If the bondholder is subject to the AMT, these must be taxed at the federal level. These bonds use >=10% of bond proceeds to finance a project that will be used by a private entity & >= 10% of bond proceeds will be secured by property used in the private entity's business. Least suitable for a client that is subject to the AMT.
  14. Not exempt from federal taxation, usually have higher yields to make up for this.
  15. This program ended in 2010. They were issued under the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. Designed to assist municipal issuers in raising funds for infrastructure projects. 35% of interest was covered by the US Govt.
  16. Backed by a specific revenue source and the full faith and credit of a GO bond issuer (who has taxing powers)
  17. outstanding obligations that have been collateralized by US Govt Securities. These will usually be paid off on their next call date.
  18. The same as above, but they do not have a call feature.
  19. Two or more issues of revenue bonds are backed by the same pledged resources.
Term
Default Risk of Revenue Bonds, Things to Consider.
Definition

Debt Service Coverage Ratio:


Annual Gross Revenue - Maintenance Expenses

Annual Debt Service

 

>=1 is good.

 

Trust Indenture Covenants

  • Rate Covenant - issuer pledges to maintain rates at a level sufficient to meet operation and maintenance costs, debt service, and certain reserve funds.
  • Maintenance Covenant
  • Insurance Covenant
  • Financial Reports and Audits
  • Issuance of Additional Bonds (yea or nay?)
  • Nondiscrimination covenant - no one gets special rates
  • Insurance Rates - Catastrophe Calls
Term
Municipal Notes (6 types)
Definition

Short term issues normally used to assist in financing a project. They may also help a municipality manage its cashflow. Municipal notes are interest bearing securities that pay interest @ maturity.

  1. TANs (Tax Anticipation Notes) - issued to finance current municipal operations in anticipation of future tax receipts from property taxes. GOs.
  2. RANs (Revenue Anticipation Notes) - issued to finance current municipal operations in anticipation of federal or state subsidies. GOs. 
  3. TRANs (Tax and Revenue Anticipation Notes) - TANs & RANs issued together
  4. BANs (Bond Anticipation Notes) - Issued to obtain financing for projects that will eventually be financed through the sale of long-term bonds.
  5. GANs (Grant Anticipation Notes) - Issued in expectation of receiving funds in the form of grants from the federal govt.
  6. CLNs (Construction Loan Notes) - Issued by munis to provide funds for construction of a project that will eventually be funded by a bond issue.
Term
MIG 1
Definition

Moody's Investment Grade 1 (the best) rating for municipal notes.

MIG 2 is second best

MIG 3 is 3rd best

SG is speculative grade


Similarly there is SP-1 SP-2 SP-3 for Standard & Poor's muni note ratings, with 3 being speculative.

Term
ARS (Auction Rate Securities)
Definition

Long term variable rate municipal securities that are marketed as short term investments. Priced by dutch auction. The interest or dividend rate is reset every week, 4 weeks or 5 weeks.

 

3 types of auction orders:

1. Hold order

2. Bid

3. Sell order

 

If no bid is placed that is sufficient to meet the quantity that is exposed for sale, the auction is considered a failure and everyone keeps their shares, but the interest rate is set as the maximum allowable in program docs.

 

The liquidity of these securities is uncertain, because the auction could fail.

Term
VRDOs (Variable Rate Demand Obligations)
Definition

A long term municipal security that is marketed as a short term investment. It will adjust its interest rate daily, weekly or monthly; and in many cases this allows the owner to sell or put the security back to the issuer or third party on the date that a new rate is established. The new rate is set by the dealer at a rate that allows the security to be sold at par value.

 

 

Term
Triple-Tax-Exempt Issues of Bonds
Definition
Bonds issued by a territory or possession of the US such as Puerto Rico, The US Virgin Islands, Guam, and America Samoa are not subject to fed, state, or local taxes, even if you do not live there.
Term
Bank Qualified Issues
Definition

Muni bonds <=$10k per issue that are meant to encourage banks to invest. For banks, 80% of the interest carrying cost being paid to depositors on the funds used to purchase the bonds can be deducted against its income for tax purposes.

 

For ex. Bank account holders deposit $10k, bank invests that $10k in these types of bonds. The bank is paying the bank account holders some amount of interest, lets say 14%. This type of bond is paying the bank 10% interest, and the bank is allowed to deduct 8% of the principal against its income.

Term
Private Activity Bonds
Definition
Term
Treasury Arbitrage
Definition
B/C muni bonds which are tax free can offer lower interest rates than federal bonds, an arbitrage opportunity exists whereby muni officials could issue muni bonds and then use the gained capital to invest in federal bonds to make a sick profit. This is now allowed tho.
Term
Interest on bonds (4) exempt from state or local taxation?
Definition
  1. corporate
  2. us govt 
  3. muni
  4. territorial

Interest subject to fed tax?

  1. Yes
  2. Yes
  3. No
  4. No

Interest Subject to State Tax?

  1. Yes
  2. No
  3. Yes/No (mostly no, depends on the state)
  4. No

 

 

Term
Tax Swaps
Definition
[image]
Term
Syndicate priority of orders (for munis)
Definition

Typically... Pro Golfers Don't Miss

  1. Presale Orders - Pre Sale orders are entered by institutional investors, who agree to purchase the bonds, prior to the bond’s pricing and terms being finalized. Pre sale orders are given the highest priority when allocating bonds to customers. The total spread, less the management fee, is deposited in the syndicate account and is divided up among the syndicate members based on their participation. If after all pre sale orders are filled any bonds remain they will be allocated to the syndicate orders.

  2. Group Net Orders - A syndicate order is one where the sales credit for the order is shared by members of the syndicate, based on their participation. A member may designate their orders as syndicate orders to give them a better chance of being filled. The entire sales credit, less the management fee, is deposited in the syndicate account. After all syndicate orders are filled, any remaining bonds will be distributed to designated orders.
     
  3. Designated Orders - A designated order is usually submitted by a syndicate member, for the account of a large institution. With a designated order, the large institution will “designate” which syndicate members and which agents at the syndicate members receive the sales credit. If any bonds remain, the next orders to be filled are the member orders.

  4. Member Orders - Member orders are orders submitted by syndicate members for their own customers. The syndicate member receives all of the sales credit. Member orders are traditionally smaller orders for individual accounts. If there are any bonds remaining, the last type of order to be filled is member related orders.
Term
Bond Counsel and Legal Opinion
Definition

Each municipal issue must be issued with a legal opinion written by a recognized bond counsel hired by the issuer. The legal opinion reflects on the validity of the issue, essentially assuring investors that the issuer has the legal right to issue the bonds. An unqualified legal opinion is rendered by the bond counsel if there are no situations in existence that could adversely affect the legality of the issue.

 

Potential situations include revenue bonds where the issuer does not have clear title to a property, or an issuer that is violating local, state, and federal statutes when developing a project.

 

Delivery of certificates w/o legal opinions must be identified as ex-legal at the time of the trade if it is to constitute a good delivery.

Term
Official Statement
Definition

The disclosure document used in all municipal offerings. This doc takes the place of the prospectus, but is not filed with the SEC, because muni issuers are exempt from the filing requirements of the 1933 act. If produced, the MSRB requires that this document must be distributed to each purchaser of the new issue by the settlement date. It contains detailed info about the issuer and the issue.

 

May be included:

  • The amount of underwriting spread
  • The amount of any fee received by the B/D as agent for the issuer
  • The initial reoffering price for each maturity in the issue

 

Term
EMMA (Electronic Municipal Market Access)
Definition

The MSRB's (Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board) dataport through which municipal bond underwriters and issuers submit official statements, continuing disclosures, and advance refunding documents.

 

The MSRB has established the Electronic Municipal Market Access (EMMA) system as the primary market disclosure service for official statements, other related primary market documents, and information. The EMMA system also contains information related to the continuing disclosure requirements submitted by municipal issuers and secondary market transactions submitted by municipal securities dealers. EMMA receives transactional information from the MSRB's Real-Time Transaction Reporting System (RTRS).

Term
Municipal Bond Trader
Definition

Secondary market Municipal market maker that works for dealer firms and dealer banks.

 

May act as a position trader, where the firm commits capital.

 

May also be asked to appraise or evaluate an issue. Evaluations might be requested in order to determine the marketability of the bonds in an investor's portfolio. This might be useful for estate valuation purposes.

Term
Broker's brokers
Definition

Used primarily by dealers to obtain pricing information for muni bonds, these firms exclusively assist other broker dealers in purchasing or selling bonds in the secondary market. This agency does not deal with public customers, and they preserve the anonymity of the customers they do deal with.

 

Typically provide an electronic service showing bonds out for the bid (for sale.) A firm that subscribes to the service can contact this agency and enter a bid for a block of bonds or put a block of bonds out for bid.

 

At the end of the day, this agency notifies the selling firm of the high bid. If accepted, the agency will inform the high bidder that it has won the bonds. The identities of the buying and selling firms are not disclosed. A fee is charged for providing this service.

Term

100M New York State 4.00 7-1-30 @ 6.25 - 1/2 C20 @ 100


Quotation Terminology:

  1. Firm bid or Firm offer
  2. Workable
  3. Out firm
  4. Nominal (subject) quote
  5. AON (All or none)
  6. Fill or kill
  7. Multiples of offerings
  8. Trade Reporting
Definition
  • $100,000 face value
  • New York State General Obligation Bonds
  • 4% annual interest
  • 6.25 basis (yield) - 1/2 point dealer concession
  • 1/2 point concession = $5 per bond 
  • Callable in 2020 @ 100

  1. A quote for a municipal security that will not change for a specific period for the prospective party to whom the quote was given.
  2. A bid price at which a dealer indicates it is willing to buy bonds. Dealers often obtain indications of this type from other muni firms to give clients an indication of the prices at which they could sell their bonds.
  3. A quotation that a dealer is committed to honor, usually for a set period. For example: Dealer A gives Dealer B a quote of "7.50 basis firm for one hour" Dealer B can call Dealer A back anytime within the next hour and buy all or part of the bonds at the offered price. Dealer A's bonds are said to be "____ ____" to Dealer B.
  4. Posted for informational purposes only. The firm is not required to buy or sell securities at these posted prices.
  5. A type of order where the prospective purchaser must buy all the securities being offered if it wishes to buy.
  6. The prospective purchaser must act immediately and purchase the securities at the offering price or the quotation will be withdrawn
  7. This occurs when sellers offer bonds in lots of 25, 50, 100, or 200 bonds of $1000 each.
  8. Most transactions in municipal securities are reported to the MSRB (Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board) through its RTRS (Real-Time Transaction Reporting System.)
Term
Dated Date
Definition
Accued interest on a new issue must be calculated from this date since there was no last interest payment date.
Term
The Bond Buyer
Definition

The online newspaper of the muni industry.

 

Includes the 30-day visible supply, which reflects the dollar amount of bonds expected to reach the market over the next 30 days. This gives an indication of the supply side of the market

 

Also includes the Bond Buyer Placement Ratio, compiled weekly at the close of business on Friday. Gives an indication of the demand side of the market.

 

Bond Buyer indexes give an indication of the average weekly yields for GO and Revenue Bonds.

 

20 Bond Index averages the interest rates of 20 GO bonds with 20 year maturity that have an average rating of Moody's Aa2 & S&P's AA

 

he Bond Buyer 20-Bond Index is compiled each week. It is calculated from the yields on 20 specific general obligation issues with an average rating of AA. There are no revenue bonds in the 20-Bond Index. The purpose of this index is to show trends in interest rates.

 

11 Bond Index averages the interest rates of 11 GO bonds from the 20 Bond Index that have an average rating of Moody's Aa1 & S&P's AA+

 

Revenue Bond Index is the average yield on 25 revenue bonds with 30 year maturities rated A1 or A+

 

Municipal Bond Index - Avg of the prices of 40 Muni Bonds adjusted to a 6.00% yield.

 

SIFMA Index - A seven day market index of VRDOs (Variable Rate Demand Obligations) with outstanding amounts of at least 10,000,000

 

The Municipal Market Data (MMD) curve is published by Thompson Financial and is the yield curve of the highest-rated (AAA) Muni bonds.

Term
MSRB (Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board)
Definition

Created by the Securities Acts Amendments of 1975. Designed to function as an independent SRO charged with primary rulemaking authority for the municipal industry. Regulates Brokers and Dealers of Munis, but not issuers. Rules made by this group is enforced by the SEC & FINRA.

 

Enforced by the Comptroller of Currency among national banks

The Federal Reserve Board enforces the rules amoond nonnational banks that are members of the FRB system

The FDIC (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation) enforces the rules among nonnational banks that are not members of the FRB system.

Term
Longer maturity bonds are more affected by ________ than shorter maturity rate bonds.
Definition
  • changes in interest rate 
Term
OIDs (Original Issue Discount Bonds)
Definition
Zero coupon bonds that are initially issued at a discount and mature at the face amount.
Term
Muni Bond Insurers
Definition
  • AMBAC (American Municipal Assurance Corporation)
  • MBIA (Municipal Bond Investors Assurance Corporation)
  • FGIC (Financial Guaranty Insurance Company)
  • FSA (Financial Security Assurance Inc.)
Term
The disclosure document used to market a municipal offering is called a
Definition
Official Statement
Term
When recommending a municipal security, the underwriter must have:
Definition
A reasonable basis on which to make the recommendation
Term
The difference between the price paid to the issuer and the price sold to the public is called the
Definition
Spread
Term
(Price sold to the public - Managers fees & expenses - Price paid to the issuer) = ?
Definition
The takedown
Term
The portion of the spread that is given to selling group members if they sell new issues
Definition
The concession
Term

Under MSRB rules, when opening a new account, the following information must be obtained, except:

Name & Address

Employer

Occupation

Trading Authorization

Definition

Trading Authorization

Date of birth is also not required. Just ask if the client is not a minor and you're good to go.


The following are required:


Name & Address

Employer

 

Occupation

Financial condition
Investment history
Investment objectives

Term
Confirmations must be sent to customers (when?)
Definition
At or before the completion of the transaction.
Term
special assessment bonds
Definition
Term

According to MSRB rules, a municipal bond dealer will NOT consider which of the following factors when determining a markup?

  1. Expenses
  2. Profit
  3. Coupon rate
  4. Total dollar amount of the transaction
Definition
Coupon rate
Term

The interest paid on special assessment bonds is derived from:

  1. Ad valorem taxes
  2. Toll road revenues
  3. Charges on the benefitted property
  4. Excise taxes
Definition
The interest paid by the issuer to holders of special assessment bonds is derived from charges made to the users of the benefitted property. These bonds are issued to finance the construction of water and sewer systems, sidewalks, and streets.
Term

Which of the following statements is TRUE under MSRB rules?

  1. A broker-dealer is not permitted to act as a financial adviser to an issuer of municipal securities
  2. A broker-dealer is permitted to act as a financial adviser and underwriter for the same issuer if the securities are sold on a negotiated basis
  3. A broker-dealer is permitted to provide advice to an issuer relating to the issuance of municipal securities in the capacity of acting as an underwriter and not as a financial adviser
  4. A broker-dealer is not permitted to act as an underwriter for the same issuer on both negotiated and competitive offerings
Definition
Under MSRB rules, a financial advisory relationship exists when a municipal securities broker or dealer gives, or enters into an agreement with an issuer to give, financial advisory or consultant services regarding the issuance of municipal securities. A broker-dealer is permitted to provide advice to an issuer relating to the issuance of municipal securities in the capacity of acting as an underwriter and not as a financial adviser. A financial adviser usually charges an issuer a fee, whereas an underwriter's profit comes from the underwriting spread. A broker-dealer that has a financial advisory relationship is prohibited from acting as an underwriter with respect to the same issuer of municipal securities. The rule applies whether the issue is sold on a negotiated or competitive bid basis. There is no restriction on a broker-dealer acting as an underwriter for the same issuer on both negotiated and competitive offerings.
Term
Straight-line amortization
Definition
A bond purchased at a premium is amortized (reduced) to par value over its life. If the adjustment is in equal amounts, straight-line amortization is being used. If the adjustments are not made at an equal rate, constant-yield amortization is being used.
Term

A municipality borrowing for a short-term period to finance a capital project would issue:

Definition
bond anticipation notes
Term
capital project
Definition

any undertaking which requires the use of notable amounts of capital, both financial and labor, to undertake and complete. These are often efined by their large scale and large cost relative to other investments requiring less planning and resources.

Infrastructure projects such as roads, railways and dams are the most common examples also common in the corporate world as well, as firms will allocate large sums of resources in order to build upon or maintain capital assets, such as machinery or a new mining project.

These are typically planned and debated for a long period to determine the most efficient and resourceful method of completion.

Term
The manager of a new issue municipal syndicate wants to allocate securities in a different manner than specified in the syndicate agreement. He may do this if he:
Definition
Is prepared to justify the change to the syndicate members
Term

A customer purchases a municipal bond at $960 in the secondary market that will mature in four years. Which of the following statements regarding the purchase is NOT TRUE?

  1. The interest is exempt from federal income tax
  2. The customer will have taxable income if the bond is held to maturity
  3. The customer will need to pay a tax on the prorated amount of the discount each year
  4. If the bond was a new issue when purchased, and held to maturity, the customer will not have to pay any federal tax
Definition
This is untrue: The customer will need to pay a tax on the prorated amount of the discount each year
Term

The MSRB does NOT regulate municipal securities:

  1. Dealers
  2. Salesmen
  3. Advertising
  4. Issuers
Definition
Issuers. The MSRB has the power to regulate broker-dealers, their personnel, and their communications with the public. It does not, however, have the power to regulate municipal issuers.
Term
double-barreled security
Definition
A muni that can be paid from the revenues of a project and is a general obligation of a municipal government
Term

Tax-free municipal bonds will be least attractive to a(n):

  1. Pension fund
  2. Insurance company
  3. Individual who has just inherited $1,000,000
  4. Officer of a corporation who is in the 28% tax bracket
Definition
A pension fund does not pay tax on its investments. Therefore, it will not find municipal bonds as attractive an investment as it will other higher-yielding investment instruments.
Term

A broker-dealer that is an MSRB member firm sells bonds to one of its customers. If the broker-dealer is a member of the syndicate, the firm is entitled to the:

  1. Takedown less the concession
  2. Additional takedown plus the management fee
  3. Total takedown less the management fee
  4. Total takedown
Definition

Total takedown

A member of the syndicate is entitled to the additional takedown plus the concession, which is also known as the total takedown. Only the syndicate manager is entitled to the management fee. A broker-dealer that is not a member of the syndicate selling part of a new issue of municipal bonds is entitled to the concession.

Term

A municipal bond that is issued at par is later purchased at a discount and redeemed for par at maturity. The investor's profit on the transaction is taxed as:

  1. Capital gains
  2. Ordinary income
  3. Tax-deferred interest
  4. Tax-deferred capital gains
Definition
Ordinary income
Term
The writer of the option is considered to be ______ the option
Definition
short (obligation)
Term
The owner of the option is considered to be _____ the option
Definition
long (option)
Term
Time Value (options)
Definition
Premium - Intrinsic Value = ?
Term
Bullish
Definition

Thinks a stock or the market will go up. Think of a bull fight where the horns swing up.

 

Bullish investors can buy calls and sell puts. They can also just buy stocks, but that might take more of a capital investment than necessary.

 

In spreads, if the investor is long the lower strike price, they are this.

Term
Bearish
Definition

Thinking that a stock or the market will go down in value. Think of a bear fight where the bear swings its claw downward. Also consider a bear hibernating. Some bearish investors are more likely to store their funds in the money market, playing it safe while they wait for the hard times to pass.

 

Bearish Investors buy puts and sell calls.

 

In spreads, if the investor is short the lower strike price, they are this.

Term
Breakeven vs At-the-money
Definition
At-the-money does not take the premium into consideration, while the breakeven does.
Term
An investor is short 3 October XYZ 230 calls at 6.25. The XYZ stock is trading at $235, and the investor closes out the position at intrinsic value. What is the actual gain or loss?
Definition

An investor sold (assume qty 100 shares) 3 x 230 calls for a premium of $6.25 per share. This means that the investor would have been obligated to sell the (300 total) shares for $230 each on the strike date.

 

The investor closes the call early by buying 3 calls at a premium of $5 per share.  Sooooo....

 

Sold 6.25*100*3 = $1875

Bought 5*100*3 = $1500

Gain = $375

Term
Please list the qualities of each of the following:
  1. Long Stock + Long Put
  2. Long Put
  3. Long Stock + Short Call
  4. Short Call
  5. Short Stock + Short Put
  6. Short Put
  7. Short Stock + Long Call
  8. Long Call
Definition
  1. Bullish Core Position, Protective Put
  2. Bearish
  3. +$, Covered Call Writing, Partial Hedge, Limits Gain, Bullish to Neutral
  4. Bearish, Unlimited Potential Loss
  5. +$, Covered Put Writing, Partial Hedge, Limits Gain, Unlimited Potential Loss, Neutral to Slightly Bearish, This is retarded. 
  6. Bullish
  7. Bearish Core Position, Protective Call
  8.  Bullish, Unlimited potential gain

Additional option info: If a client exercises an option in a margin account, he would be required to meet the Reg T deposit on the underlying shares even if the shares are sold the same day the contract is exercised. 

 

Margin is not required when writing covered options, however, uncovered options must be written in a margin account.

 

An investor writing a covered call may transact business in either a cash or margin account. To be covered, a call writer must fulfill one of the following conditions:

  • own the underlying stock
  • own securities convertible into the underlying stock
  • own a long call with the same or lower strike price and the same or later expiration as the one written
  • produce an escrow receipt showing that the stock is on deposit at a bank and will be delivered if the call is exercised.

The writer of a covered call need not deposit margin for the option. However, the postition covering the option may require a margin deposit. The premium received from the option may be used to offset the margin required for the covering security.

 

To be considered, a put writer must either:

  • Deposit cash with the firm equal to the aggregate strike price
  • Deliver a letter guaranteeing that cash equal to the aggregate strike price is on deposit at a bank
  • Be short the underlying security
  • Own a put with the same or higher strike price and the same or later expiration as the one written.

The writer of a put covered by cash or a bank guarantee letter may execute the trade in a cash or margin account. However, a put covered by short stock may be written in a margin account only.

 

Uncovered option writers must deposit margin to secure their positions. Short uncovered options may be carried only in a margin account. The CBOE and other exchanges require at least $2000 or initial equity to effect transactions in a new margin account. Maintenance margin requirements apply thereafter.

 

The basic margin requirement for an uncovered call or put option is: 

The current premium,

+20% of the current market value of the underlying stock

-Any amount that the contract is out of the money

 

The minimum requirement is the greater of the basic margin requirement or

The current premium

+10% of the current market value of the stock

Term
Short Straddle
Definition

sometimes referred to as a perfect combination

Neutral - expects price stability

 

This happens when an investor sells a call and a put on the same underlying security, the same strike price, and the same expiration date.

Term
Long Straddle
Definition

sometimes referred to as a perfect combination

bullish/bearish - expects price volatility but is not sure which way it will go.

 

This happens when an investor buys a call and a put on the same underlying security, the same strike price, and the same expiration date.

Term
Combination
Definition
A straddle where the two legs have different expiration months and/or different exercise prices.
Term
Net Credit Spreads
Definition

The investor simultaneously buys (with a lower premium) and sells (with a higher premium) two options of the same type (either a call or put.)

 

The investor is selling the ___ or is short the ___

 

If the investor is long the position with the lower strike price they are bullish.

Term
Net Debit Spreads
Definition

When an investor buys one option with a higher premium and sells another of the same type (call, put) with a lower premium. 

 

The investor has bought the _____ or is long the _____.

 

If the investor is long the position with the lower strike price they are bullish.

Term
A client purchased 300 shares of Emily Airlines common stock at $28 a share in July of 2011. In June of 2012, the client writes 2 October 35 calls at 5 against the stock position. If the market price of Emily Airlines is trading at $39 at expiration, what is the client's realized gain?
Definition

100(5*2+7*2)=2400

 

REALIZED! 

 

other shares were not sold.

Term

George has the following position in his account:

Long 1 XYZ Nov 45 call

By adding which of the following positions creates a combination?

  1. Long 1 XYZ Nov 45 put
  2. Long 1 XYZ Nov 40 put
  3. Short 1 XYZ Nov 50 call
  4. Long 1 XYZ Nov 50 call
Definition
Long 1 XYZ Nov 40 put
Term

What is a client's maximum loss if she is long XAM stock and short an XAM call?

Definition

The market price minus the premium


BECAUSEEE the client will lose the full (current) market price if the stock becomes worthless, but still has the premium.

Term
In June, a client buys 100 shares of XYZ Corporation at $27 per share and writes an XYZ October 30 call at a $3 premium. The trade is executed in a cash account. What is the breakeven point for the writer?
Definition
$24
Term

If an individual expects the market price of Xerox to go up, which TWO of the following strategies would be appropriate?

  1. Buy Xerox call options
  2. Write uncovered Xerox call options
  3. Buy Xerox put options
  4. Write uncovered Xerox put options
Definition
Buy Xerox call options &
Write uncovered Xerox put options
Term
European Exercise
Definition
When an option contract can be exercised only for a specified period, usually the day before expiration. Contrary to American Exercise, when an option can be exercised at any time up to the expiration date.
Term
Nonequity Options
Definition
The position underlying these options is not a single stock. It could be a stock index, foreign currency, or "yield based." There is no standard contract size for this sort of option.
Term
Stock Index Options
Definition
These options are based on the closing price of the option that day. Thus investors must be wary of exercising the contract before the close of business on that day.
Term
Narrow vs Broad based Index Options
Definition

Narrow - One particular industry represented

Broad - Attempt to reflect the entire market

Term
An investor buys a call option on the yield of a 30-year T-bond because she expects Interest rates to ____ and bond prices to ___
Definition
Interest rates to rise and bond prices to fall
Term

OCC (Options Clearing Corporation)

WSP

ROP

Definition

Regulated by the SEC. Owned proportionately by the exchanges where listed options trade. This corporation acts as the third party in all options transactions. Broker Dealers deal directly with this corporation rather than with each other. When customers buy options contracts, their B/Ds must settle the trade with this corporation within 1 business day. Selling firms receive a credit for the sale on the next business day.

 

In the event that an options writer is unable to fulfill its obligation, since this corporation handles the exercise of options contracts, contraparty risk is removed.

 

This corporation sets forth rules regarding the supervision of a firms options activities. These rules have been adopted by the options exchanges as well as by FINRA. Every member firm is required to develop and implement written procedures for carrying out these activities which must be codified in the firm's WSPs (Written Supervisory Procedures) manual.

 

The procedures must be implemented under the supervision of a designated ROP (Registered Options Principal), who is normally an officer or general partner of the member firm. The ROP is specifically responsible for the firm's compliance program with respect to its options activities. The ROP performs an audit function to determine that these activities are conducted in compliance with current applicable regulations and rules. Some of the ROP's primary duties include establishing guidelines for options communication with the public, and reviewing all such material before it is used. The ROP also reviews the method of allocation of exercise notices.

Term

How to be approved for options trading


How to write uncovered options

Definition

1) Be approved by the ROP (Registered Options Principal)

 

2) Verify personal information either by responding to the Options Account Agreement or by not responding to it.

 

3) Sign the Options Account Agreement and return it within 15 days.

 

4) Be given a document titled "Characteristics and Risk of Standardized Options" at or prior to account approval

 

5) depending on the types of options transactions you want to perform, you may need to open a margin account also.


1) Meet the suitability requirements as laid out by the member firm you are dealing with

 

2) Have your account approved by the ROP per the specific procedures laid out by whatever member firm you are dealing with.

 

3) Meet the equity requirements

 

4) Receive a special written statement from the member firm that describes the risks of this type of trading that was sent at or prior to the initial uncovered short options transaction.

Term
Discretionary Trading Authorization
Definition
The client is required to provide authorization in writing for this to occur for options trades.
Term
Correspondence as defined by FINRA
Definition

Written or electronic messages sent by a member firm to 25 or fewer retail investors (existing or prospective) within any 30-calendar-day period.

 

If it regards options, this does not require preapproval by a ROP, but it is subject to the review and general supervision requirements that apply to all public _____.

 

Term
Retail Communication as defined by FINRA
Definition

Any written or electronic communication that is distributed or made available to more than 25 retail investors within a 30-calendar-day period. A retail investor is considered any person who does not meet the definition of an institutional investor.

 

If this is options related, it must be preapproved by a ROP. If this is used prior to the delivery of the options risk disclosure document it must be submitted for approval to an exchange (CBOE) or FINRA at least 10 calendar days prior to initial use. If this discusses projections, it must be approved by a ROP prior to use and be preceded or accompanied by a risk disclosure document.

 

Options advertising qualifies as this, and therefore must make the offer to send the OCC risk disclosure document upon the customer's request. 

Term
Options Exchanges
Definition
  • CBOE (Chicago Board Options Exchange)
  • NYSE Mkt LLC (formally NYSE AMEX or the American Stock Exchange)
  • Nasdaq OMX PHLX (Philidelphia Stock Exchange)
  • ISE (The International Securities Exchange)

Exchange traded options are standardized, the terms of the contracts are set and uniform.

Term
1. Board Broker and 2. OBO (Order Book Official)
Definition
  1. An exchange member who acts as a Broker's Broker for specified classes of options. This member will accept and attempt to execute orders entered by other members. This member also maintains a written record of all orders received.
  2. Assists #1 in maintaining the public customer limit order book. This official is responsible for recording and entering these orders.
Term

Range of intervals between strike prices:

  1. $2.50
  2. $5.00
  3. $10.00

 

Definition
  1. <=$25.00
  2. <=$200.00
  3. >$200.00
Term
LEAPS (Long-term Equity Anticipation Notes)
Definition
These call and put equity options have expirations of up to 39 months. These can be used to grant long term protection against stock positions and provide a long term opportunity to participate in the price movement of a security.
Term
When do most options contracts expire?
Definition
11:59 PM ET on the Saturday following the third friday of the month.
Term
The Options Clearing Corporation randomly assigns an exercise notice to a broker dealer whose account shows a short position identical to the option being exercised. Is the probability of the B/D being chosen weighted by the number of identical short positions they have in their account, or is it unweighted?
Definition
If it is unweighted, and the B/D also uses Random Selection instead of FIFO, the selection is not truly fair and equitable. If that is the case, it makes sense to sell options at a firm with more clients to dilute your chance of random selection.
Term
If a client passes away with a short option contract in their account, can the contract be exercised while their accounts are frozen?
Definition
Term
Settlement of the exercise of an options contract that involves an underlying stock
Definition
T+3 days.
Term

1. If XYZ stock splits 2-for-1, the owner of 1 XYZ May 30 call would now own what? 2. What if the split was 3-for-1? 3. What if the split was 3-for-2? 4. What if it was a reverse split at 1 for 5?

 

5. If XYZ declares a 25% stock dividend, what will the holder of 1 XYZ May 30 call hold after the adjustment?

 

6. If XYZ declares a 25% cash dividend, what will the holder of 1 XYZ May 30 call hold after the adjustment?

Definition
  1.  2 XYZ May 15 calls
  2. 3 XYZ May 10 calls
  3. 1 XYZ May 20 call representing 150 shares
  4. 1 XYZ May 150 call representing 20 shares

In # 3 you multiply the shares by 3/2 and multiply the strike price by 2/3

In all split cases, multiply the shares by the split as a fraction (3 for 1 becomes 3/1, or 3) and multiply the strike price by the inverse (3 for 1 becomes 1/3).

 

5. 1 XYZ May 24 call representing 125 shares

 

Multiply the shares by (100% + dividend%) (5/4) and multiply the strike price times the inverse (4/5). You can look at the stock dividend as a 5 for 4 split. 

 

6. 1 XYZ May 30 call. The dividend belongs to the owner of the stock on the record date. No adjustment occurs.

 

Be careful in all of these! If it is an odd split or a reverse split or a stock dividend, then the contract number stays the same and the number of shares per contract is adjusted accordingly.

Term
Married Puts
Definition

Shares of stock are bought on the same day as a put option on that stock. The price of the put is added to the price of the stock to produce the cost basis of the stock.

 

 

Term
Protective Put Tax Implications
Definition

If the put is purchased after the purchase of the stock and the stock is short term at the time of the purchase of the put, the holding period of the stock is negated. This means the capital gains will always be short term.

 

Write some more stuff about the implications of short term capital gains vs long term.

Term
When does the holding period of a stock that was short term at the time of the purchase of a protective put begin again if the put expires worthless? Does the stock start its new holding period at the put's date of expiry? Or does it start counting again on the date of the purchase of the put?
Definition
The answer to this will indicate whether buying a leap for a short term underlying stock is wise.
Term
Listed options are issued by the...
Definition
Options Clearing Corporation
Term
When must an options customer sign an agreement to abide by the rules of the exchanges and the rules of the Options Clearing Corporation?
Definition
No later than 15 days following the approval of the account.
Term
Limited Partners
Definition

One of the two classes of limited partnerships. In this class, the partners are passive investors with limited liability who have no say in managerial decisions. These partners usually contribute a large amount of the program's capital. These partners also usually have the following rights:

  • The right to inspect and copy the books of the partnership
  • The right to call for dissolution of the partnership by court decree
  • The right to restrict the other class of partner from discharging some duties
  • The right to sue the other class of partner for damages and, in some cases, vote to remove the other class of partner.
  • The right to engage in business that competes with the partnership (unlike the other class of partner)
  • The right to lend money to the partnership (such loans have a general creditor status)
  • The right to receive profits and compensation as stated in the certificate

The order of priority for settling accounts in the case of a dissolution is 

  1. Secured Creditors
  2. General Creditors
  3. The other class of partners
  4. This class of partners

 If this class of pratner tries to take on managerial duties such as negotiating contracts, hiring/firing employees, or lending their name (????) then their status as this kind of partner may be endangered. They may be classified as the other kind of partner if they engage in the previously mentioned activites.

Term
General Partners
Definition

One of the two classes of limited partnerships. In this class, the partners are responsible for managing the program, and must contribute at least 1% of the capital, >=1% participation.

 

This partner has unlimited liability and is responsible for all management affairs of the partnership. This partner assembles investors' capital, collects fees for overseeing the partnership's operations, keeps the partnership books, and directs investment of the partnership's funds.

 

This partner has a fiduciary relationship to the other class of partners of the program. By acting as a fiduciary this partner has the authority to bind the partnership in business dealings. As a fiduciary, this partner is restricted from engaging in a number of activities:

  • Competing with the partnership
  • Testifying against the partnership
  • Changing the business or structure of the partnership
  • Commingling partnership assets with their own or with assets of other partnerships
  • Borrowing money from the partnership
  • Adding or substituting another partner of the same class as themselves

These partners are permitted to lend money to the partnership at prevailing market rates. 

 

This class of pratner is sometimes referred to as the program's sponsor. All sales that are made by an underwriter must be accepted by these partners to be valid. These partners may act as syndicators, or may hire an investment banker to assist in the distribution. The maximum underwriting compensation for a public offering is 10% of the gross dollar amount sold.

 

If the offering is private, the offering is conducted under Regulation D of the Securities act of 1933. The sponsor will try to find investors without the help of an underwriter.

 

If the offering is nonmanaged, then this partner hires a wholesaler to market the program to B/D's. The wholesaler will be responsible for educating B/D's that sign on to sell the program. Otherwise, the offering will be managed by a syndicate formed by the underwriter.

Term
DPPs (Direct Participation Programs)
Definition

A type of investment whereby the gains and losses flow through directly to the investors.

 

Examples include:

Limited Partnerships

General Partnerships 

Joint Ventures

Subchapter S Corporations

Term
Limited Partnerships
Definition

Liquidity: Illiquid. Limited Partners may have to obtain permission from the General Partner(s) to sell their investment.

 

Liability: Limited, if not the GP. They can only lose their investment, but get to reap the rewards of any profit. However, in the case of a recourse loan, the limited partner may be wholly or partially liable. Also, the investors may be asked to contribute additional funds subsequent to their original investment. If they do not contribute, they may forfeit their interest in the project.

 

Tax Treatment: Favorable (for now.. tax laws may change)

 

Term
Certificate of Limited Partnership
Definition

The purpose of this document is to set forth the terms of the business relationship that has been created.. Some of the information in this doc includes:

  • The name of the business
  • The purpose of the partnership
  • The name and address of each general and limited partner
  • The conditions under which the partnership will be terminated
  • Priority provisions in the event of a partnership liquidation

This document serves as a public record that must be filed at a designated state office in order for the partnership to be considered created and must be amended if there are substantial changes.

Term
Agreement of Limited Partnership
Definition

A contract between the general and limited partners which defines the relationship between them. This may be contained in the certificate of limited partnership or may be a separate document. This doc usually contains:

  • The rights and obligations of the general partner
  • The rights and obligations of the limited partners
  • Sharing arangements for profits/losses
  • Withdrawal terms for limited partners
  • Priority provisions in the event the partnership is liquidated
Term
The Subscription Agreement
Definition

The acceptance of a limited partnership is recognized when the general partner signs this agreement. This doc specifies:

  • The amount to be invested
  • To whom all checks must be made payable and who must sign the agreement
  • Suitability standards for the investment
  • a statement that attests to the investor's ability to meet the financial requirements of the investment
  • Who must sign (usually GP+LP)

A signed copy of this agreement is sent to the limited partners and serves as a confirmation with regard to the sale of a DPP interest.

 

All sales that are made by an underwriter must be accepted by the general partner to be valid. The general partners may act as syndicators, or may hire an investment banker to assist in the distribution. The maximum underwriting compensation for a public offering is 10% of the gross dollar amount sold.

 

A representative selling the offering must make inquiries to ensure that a purchaser understands the ramifications of the investment. Normally, the agreement states that the purchaser 

  • Has read the prospectus or offering memorandum
  • Understands the risks associated with the investment
  • Has access to advice
  • Has met all net worth, income, and other suitability requirements

In most cases, the customer must furnish documents such as past tax returns and a statement of net worth to demonstrate that the eligibility thresholds for investment are met.

Term
Cost Basis Adjustments for Limited Partnerships
Definition

Additions 

  • Original & additional contributions of $$ or property
  • Recourse Loans
  • Reinvestments of Income
  • Reinvestments of sales proceeds

Redutions

  • Passive losses claimed
  • Dividends or income distributed
  • Sales proceeds distributed by parnership
Term
Real Estate Limited Partnerships (4 types +1)
Definition

This type of partnership deals with a commodity for which the supply is fixed and the demand is constantly increasing. This type of partnership can be broken down into further subcategories dealing with raw land, new construction, existing properties, and government-assisted housing.

 

Raw land partnerships - the riskiest form of this type of partnership and should only be recommended to investors with ample risk tolerance and very long investment time horizons. This is because the investment is speculative in nature and the taxes involved with holding onto the raw land until prices increase are not covered by any sort of cash flow that originates from the investment. The payoff may be a long time down the road.

 

New Construction partnerships - A long duration investment, pretty risky. The large financial obligation is usually accomplished through leverage (???) which would magnify any errors of judgement or miscalculations in the economics of the project. Risks include changes in the economy, govt policym or tax laws that could affect the assumptions made at the beginning of the program. Other risks include fluctuating building costs, changes in the cost and availability of financing, and rising costs of property operation. Overbuilding (for ex: building a hotel at the same time 20 other hotels are being built in one small city) is another risk. 

 

Existing Properties - The returns on this sort of project are predictable with a high degree of certainty. Cash flow can come from the rental of commercial properties and apartments, should be immediate, and depreciation allowances (usually the largest tax advantage) will reduce taxable income. Mortgage costs reduce cash flow, but only interest payments are deductible expenses since mortgage amortization (????) is not deductible. Existing property partnerships are generally safer than raw land or construction ventures because of this immediate cash flow.

 

Government-Assisted Housing - Administered by HUD (the department of Housing and Urban Development), these govt subsidized projects aim to provide low cost housing for low income families. The construction, rehabilitation, or acquisition of low-income housing qualifies for tax credits. These credits are the major benefit. The federal subsidy will provide some income to the partnership. Drawbacks include the lack of appreciation potential. There can be a high risk of foreclosure associated with these programs (???) If the project fails, the tax advantages will most likely be negated.

 

Blind Pools - If the property or land to be purchased is not specified in the partnership agreement. 

Term

Oil and Gas Limited Partnerships (4 types)

 

Sharing arrangements (4 types)

Definition

Formed for the exploration, drilling, or development of oil & natural gas. MGMT provides the tech & organization, and the LPs provide most of the capital. Sometimes the areas to be drilled are not specified in the creation of the program.

 

Exploratory Programs - Searching for oil and gas in unproven areas, ake wildcatting. High risk. Usually this risk correlates to high potential rewards due to the lower cost of purchasing the land in unproven areas. Gets some mad tax advantages tho. IDCs (Intangible Drilling and development Costs), which can be characterized as items having no salvage value, represent a major portion of the initial start-up expenses for a well. Examples include drill site preparation costs, labor utilized in drilling wells, chemicals, testing and core analysis costs, and the costs of other supplies. A large portion of these can be expensed as incurred. These programs are suitable for investors seeing passive write-offs who are also willing to take on a high degree of risk. If the wildcat venture is successful, step-out wells right beside the newfound area can be built to mutiply profits.

 

Developmental Programs - leases are acquired for the right to drill in proven areas. Lower risk, high deductibility. Lower return potential because step-out wells will have already been discovered.

 

Balanced Programs - some exploratory drilling and some development drilling to offset costs.

 

Income Programs - The most conservative of oil and gas offerings, this program aquires interests in already producing properties from oil & gas operators who have completed the drilling and prefer to sell the reserves rather than hold the property for the life of the production. There are few intangible costs to deduct. The expectation is the production of passive cash flow for the investor. Depletion allowances can be used to reduce reported income. Good for somewhat risk averse investors looking to diversify a bond or stock income portfolio. 

 

The method of allocating costs and revenues in an oil and gas program is defined in the sharing arrangement. Usually it is through this agreement that the sponsor will receive a major portion of compensation.

 

Functional Allocation - deductible program expenditures are charged to investors. All nondeductible costs are borne by the sponsor.

 

Overriding Royalty Interest - The sponsor does not share any of the program's costs but shares in revenues from the start of the well's production. This interest is normally small, ranging from 5% to 10% of gross production

 

Reversionary or subordinated working interest - the sponsor does not share in any of the program's costs, and does not share in production revenues until the investors have recovered their costs.

 

 Disproportionate sharing arrangement - The sponsor will bear a percentage (usually 50%) of the program's revenues. The sponsor is put at risk for a portion of the venture's expenditures. The investor is required to share in nondeductible and deductible costs.

 

 

 

 

Term
Equipment Leasing Limited Partnerships
Definition

To avoid falling behind technologically, a company may decide to lease rather than buy equipment outright. Partnerships are formed to lease equipment such as airplanes, railroad boxcars, machinery, computer equipment.

 

A manufacturer will sell the equipment to a syndicate. The syndicate will obtain the capital for the purchase from investors and bank borrowing. The equipment is leased for a fixed rental. The rental payments to the program will allow the lessor to meet its loan obligation to the bank and provide some cash flow to investors. The equipment may also qualify for accelerated depreciation. 

 

Substantial tax benefits are obtained through depreciation expenses. No depletion allowances (b/c no resources are being depleted dummy)

Term
Limited Partnerships - Recapture
Definition
The amount added back to income for tax purposes that was allowed as a deduction in a prior period.
Term
An investor sells his interest in a passive activity for a gain. At the time of the sale, passive losses were being carried forward. To what will the passive losses be applied and in what order?
Definition

Passive losses being carried forward are applied first to the gain and then to income from any source.

 

 

(Passive losses cannot be applied to income from any source other than the partnership prior to the sale of the interest.)

Term

An investor will purchase an oil and gas tax shelter for all the following reasons, except:

A. Cost Depletion

B. Intangible Drilling Costs

C. Tax Incentives

D. Recapture Provisions

Definition
Recapture Provisions
Term
A client buys 100 shares of XYZ Corporation at $27 per share and writes an XYZ October 30 call at a $3 premium.The XYZ Corporation 30 call option will expire on:
Definition
The third Friday of October at 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time.
Term
A British company expecting payment from a customer in U.S. dollars is concerned that the dollar will decline in value. To hedge against a decline in the U.S. dollar, the British company should:
Definition

Buy British pound calls


If the value of the U.S. dollar declines, the value of the British pound increases. The company should buy British pound calls since it will profit on the calls if the U.S. dollar declines (British pound increases). The profit on the call could help to offset the loss on the U.S. dollars it is expecting as payment.

Term

Which of the following is found in the subscription agreement for a direct participation program?

  1. The sharing arrangement between the limited and general partners
  2. The amount of money that the individual will contribute to the program
  3. The provisions for dissolving the partnership
  4. The background of the general partner
Definition
The amount of money that the individual will contribute to the program
Term
The exchanges require customers to exercise their listed equity option positions with member firms no later than:
Definition
5:30 p.m. Eastern Time on the business day prior to the expiration date of the option
Term

Place the following actions in the correct chronological order for opening an options account.

  1. Receive the signed options agreement from the client
  2. Obtain financial information
  3. Execute a transaction
  4. Receive approval of the account

 

  1. I, II, IV, III
  2. II, IV, III, I
  3. II, IV, I, III
  4. III, II, I, IV
Definition

II, IV, III, I

 

When opening an options account, the registered representative should first obtain the client's financial information. The account would then need to be approved by a Registered Options Principal (ROP). The client may then execute a transaction in the account and, within 15 days after the account has been approved, the client must return the signed options agreement.

Term
Board of Directors for a Mutual Fund
Definition

These peole look out for the investor's best interest. They are elected by the shareholders. These people determine when the fund will pay dividends and capital gains distributions to shareholders.

 

These people also appoint the fund's principal officers who run the fund on a day-to-day basis such as the investment adviser who managers the fund's portfolio. These people also select the fund's custodian, transfer agent, and the principal underwriter.

Term
Sales Charges for Mututal Funds (AKA Sales Load)
Definition

A FINRA member may not sell a fund at a discount to a nonmember firm since only member firms may receive sales charges. The principal offering price for a mutual fund Class A share is equal to the NAV + any sales charges. This is a front-end load. The sales load percentage is calculated like so:

(POP-NAV)/POP, AKA sales charge / total cost. 

The maximum sales charge percentage permitted by FINRA is 8.5%. Sales charges are often given if the investor purchases a significant amount of Class A Shares.

 

Back-end Load or CDSC (Contingent Deferred Sales Charge) - The sales charge is added when selling the Mutual Fund rather than when buying it. The charge decreases the longer you hold the fund.

 

No Load - Sold at NAV. These are purchased directly from the fund's distributor usually, no compensation is paid to a salesperson.

 

12b-1 Charges - Mutual Funds may use these expenses deducted from the portfolio to pay for the cost of distributing the shares to the public, concessions advertising and prospectus writing. Before they may pay these expenses out of the portfolio, they must have a 12b-1 plan in place. This plan permits the board to enter into contracts with the principal underwriter that involve payments to the underwriter. 12b-1 charges are based on an annual rate, but may be accrued and paid over shorter periods. This fee is an ongoing asset-based sales charge that is deducted from the customer's account on a quarterly basis. It can be a max of 1% of the fund's assets. They typically range between .25% and 1%.

 

Service Fees - These are deducted under a 12b-1 plan that pay for personal services or the maintenance of shareholder accounts. An example of such expenses is the trailing commissions that RR's receive in years following the original sale to compensate for continuing to service the client's account.

 

Administrative Charges - deducted from the net assets of an investment company to pay various costs associated with conducting the fund. These fees may be used to pay parties such as custodian banks and/or transfer agents. 

 

The MF is required to disclose in the front of a prospectus a standardized fee table of all its fees. The fee table must include the expense ratio.

 

The Expense Ratio - This ratio is defined as the % of a fund's assets that is used to pay its operating costs. It is determined by dividing total expenses by the average net assets in the portfolio. Expense ratios typically range between .2% and 2%. It varies depending on the fund and the share class selected by the customer. This is made up of the MGMT Fee, Admin Fees, and 12b-1 fees. Sales charges are not included in this calculation.

Term
SAI (Statement of Additional Information)
Definition
This document provides more detailed information about the mutual fund and its investment policies and risks. This is not required to be given to anyone, but it must be sent out to anyone who requests it.
Term
Soft Dollars
Definition
Products and services that an investment adviser receives from a B/D in exchange for customer order flow (AKA paid for with commisions.) If the product or service primarily benefits the adviser rather than the clients, it cannot be purchased in this manner. Attending a research seminar would be acceptable, but not reimbursement of the travel expenses entailed to attend the conference. Providing office supplies and equipment would not be acceptable.
Term
XYZ Fund has a NAV of $10. John Smith is investing $40,000 in the fund, which entitles him to a 6% breakpoint. What is his offering price per share? How many shares will he purchase?
Definition

$10 / 94% = $10.64

 

$40000/$10.64 = ~3759.398 shares.

 

In the book it says the offering price would be $10.63.. find out if the price is rounded.

Term
LOI (Letter of Intent)
Definition

This letter enables the investor to qualify for the discount made available by breakpoints without initially depositing the entire amount required. The letter states that the investor's intention is to deposit the required money over the next 13 months. This letter can be back-dated 90 days.

 

This letter is not binding for the investor. The investor will not be penalized for failing to make the additional investments, but they are charged the amount that would equal the higher sales charge applied to the original purchase.

 

Individuals  can make use of this if they are in the same immediate family, or even in the same investment club, as long as the club was not formed with the sole purpose of receiving reduced sales charges. The account may even be held at another B/D. 

Term
ROA (Rights of Accumulation)
Definition

These give an investor the right to receive cumulative quantity discounts when purchasing mutual fund shares. This permits an investor to receive a reduced sales charge based on the total investment within a family of funds for funds of all the same class. The current market value of the investment rather than the original purchase price, plus additional investments is used to determine the applicable sales charge.

 

Individuals  can make use of this if they are in the same immediate family, or even in the same investment club, as long as the club was not formed with the sole purpose of receiving reduced sales charges. The account may even be held at another B/D. 

Term
Dollar Cost Averaging
Definition

A popular method of investing in MF's. A person invests a fixed dollar amount at regular intervals, regardless of the market price of the security. These investors buy more shares wen the price is low and fewer shares when the price is high. As a result, the investor's average cost per share is lower than the average of the prices at which the investor purchased the shares. When discussing this method of investing the following points must be made clear: 

  • At redemption, investors will sustain a loss if the market value of the shares is below the total cost of the shares.
  • Investors must take into account their ability to continue the plan in periods of low prices and their willingness to continue the plan regardless of price levels.
  • This does not protect investors from a loss in a steadily declining market.

This is considered potentially appropriate for long-term investors, such as those investing for retirement.

Term
Balanced Funds
Definition
These funds maintain some proportion of their assets in bonds and preferred stock, as well as in common stock. These proportions will vary from time to time as market conditions warrant, but part of the portfolio will always be in each type of security. These show less volatility than common stock funds, declining less in periods of market declines and advancing less in periods of market advances.
Term
A customer makes an initial investment of $20000 in a high yield bond fund with a purchase of 702 shares. Over the next 5 years, the customer deposits another $25000 and also reinvests $14000 of distributions for a total of 1240 additional shares. If the fund is currently valued at $27.11, what is the customer's cost basis using the average cost method?
Definition
($20000+$25000+$14000)/(702+1240) = $30.38
Term
Aggressive Growth Funds
Definition
These funds invest in small companies, often IPOs. The stocks of these companies can be very volatile, but historically they have also produced high returns for long term investors. Best suited for younger, risk tolerant investors who can tolerate the swings in value and lack of income associated with these holdings.
Term
Mutual Fund Taxable Events
Definition
  • Receiving Dividends / Capital Gains & Losses, even if they are reinvested. Bond interest and cash dividends and short term capital gains must be reported as ordinary income.
  • Exchange of Shares in the same fund family.
Term
Asset Allocation Funds
Definition
These invest in MM instruments, common stocks, and bonds. Unlike balanced funds, the proportion of the fund that holds each type may drop to zero if the model calls for it. Often computer models are used to determine the correct proportion.
Term
Face-Amount Certificate Company
Definition
A type of investment company that is very rare today. This company issues debt certificates  that pay a predetermined rate of interest. Investors purchase these certificates either in periodic installments or by depositing a lump sum. investors who hold their certificates until they mature receive a fixed amount. Investors who cash in their certificates early receive a lesser amount, called a surrender value.
Term
UITs (Unit Investment Trusts)
Definition

An investment company.

 

1. NOT actively managed

2. NO Board of Directors (BOD)/Investment Advisor

3. NOT Traded in the Secondary Market (must be redeemed by Trust

 

4. Are Investment Companies: Defined under

Investment Company Act of 1940 

 

 

A type of investment company that is formed under a legal document called an indenture. Instead of a Board of Directors, this investment company has trustees. This company invests in a fixed portfolio of income-producing securities such as bonds or preferred stocks.

 

These companies issue SBIs (Shares of Beneficial Interest) AKA units in denominations of $1000 typically. Each unit entitles the the holder to an undivided interest in the portfolio in proportion to the amount of money invested. 

 

Since the portfolio generally remains static until the Trust is dissolved, there is no need for anyone to manage it. No one needs to decide what securities to buy and sell on a regular basis. The trustees supervise the portfolio, and receive fees for doing so, but they do not manage it. Thus these do not have management fees.

 

If a member of a municipal new issue syndicate is entering an order for an accumulation account being used for a unit investment trust that the firm underwrites, then this order must be entered as a related portfolio order.


MSRB rules require a syndicate member to disclose to the syndicate an order for a unit investment trust or an accumulation account to be used for a unit investment trust. The disclosure is accomplished by entering the order as a related portfolio order.

Term
ETFs (Exchange Traded Funds)
Definition

These are a type of investment company where each share represents an interest in an underlying basket of securities representing a specific index, such as the S&P 500, or the Nasdaq 100, or the DJIA (Dow Jones Industrial Average.) Some of these are also linked to indexes representing the securities of a particular country or industry. SPDRs (Spiders) are a popular version of this which track the performance of the S&P 500 Index.

 

Unlike MFs, these are traded on an exchange and their prices are determined continuously by the forces of supply and demand. Investors pay commissions whenever they buy or sell these. However, these products have lower expenses than most MFs and they may be sold short and purchased on margin (unlike MFs)

 

These might be a good choice for customers investing lump sums who want diversification and low costs. They may be appropriate for people implementing asset allocation plans.

 

The owner of this sort of investment does not have an ownership interest in the shares of the companies that it is invested in and would not retain the right to vote.

Term
Inverse ETFs
Definition

These are designed to perform as the inverse of the benchmark index it is designed to track. This reverse tracking is accomplished through the use of short selling the underlying investments in the index, futures, and other derivatives. The goal of these is to yield performance equivalent to short selling the stocks in the index. These products are often used by long investors to hedge against a bear market.

 

The benefit versus traditional selling short strategies is that an investment in one of these exposes the customer only to the loss of the instrument's purchase price, not an unlimited amount. Cool!

 

This should be a short-term investment rather than a long term one, because the portfolios are often reset on a daily basis.

 

The owner of this sort of investment does not have an ownership interest in the shares of the companies that it is invested in and would not retain the right to vote.

Term
Leveraged ETFs
Definition

Products that use debt of financial derivatives such as swaps futures and options to amplify the returns of a specific index. These can be used to either track the specified index or the inverse of the index. These may be designed to perform 2-3 times better than the index or inverse index.

 

This should be a short-term investment rather than a long term one, because the portfolios are often reset on a daily basis.

 

The owner of this sort of investment does not have an ownership interest in the shares of the companies that it is invested in and would not retain the right to vote.

Term
HOLDRs (Holding Company Depository Receipts)
Definition

These are created by depositing securities of a certain sector into a trust and selling interests in the trust to investors. These offer investors diversification similar to ETFs. Unlike ETFs, the owner of this sort of investment has an ownership interest in the shares of the companies that it is invested in and would retain the right to vote. Once the portfolio has been created, the makeup of the portfolio will not typically change, although if a company included in the portfolio goes bankrupt or merges with another company, the makeup may be altered.

 

Investors in these funds have the ability to control when they are taxed since they determine when to hold or sell. Benefits also include liquidity and pricing throughout the day. These are considered low-cost investments. These products have no management fees and usually levy small transaction costs and custodian fees.

Term
ETNs (Exchange Traded Notes)
Definition

This is a type of unsecured debt security. This type of debt security differs from other types of fixed-income securities since their returns are linked to the performance of a commodity, currency, or index minus applicable fees. These do not usually pay an annual coupon or specified dividend. All gains are paid at maturity. These securities are traded on an exchange, such as the NYSE, and may be purchased on margin or sold short. Investors may also choose to hold the debt security until maturity.

 

These carry issuer risk that is tied to the creditworthiness of the financial institution backing the note. If the issuer's financial condition deteriorates, it could negatively impact the value of this security, regardless of how its underlying index performs. Like ETFs, inverse versions of these also exist, and they pay the opposite of the benchmark that is being tracked.

Term
BDC (Business Development Company)
Definition

These are a type of publically traded investment company designed to aid in the process of capital formation for small and middle market businesses that may have trouble raising capital in public markets because of their small size or other constraints. Traditionally this role of raising capital for these start-up businesses was filled by PE (Private Equity) and VC (Venture Capital) funds.

 

VC & PE funds raise capital in private placements (under a Reg. D exemption) and are normally open to accredited investors only. 

 

This company raises money through public offerings. There is no requirement for investors to meet sophistication, income, or net worth requirements contained in Reg D.

 

Most of these are liquid, unlike PE & VC funds. They trade throughout the day with pricing based on supply & demand.

 

Legally, these are a form of investment company that was created under an amendment to the Investment Company Act of 1940. They are also typically required to meet all the registration requirements prescribed under the Securities Act of 1933 and all reporting requirements found withing the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.

 

These companies are treated as RICs (Regulated Investment Companies) under IRS Regulation M. This means they must distribute at least 90% of taxable income to investors (acting as conduits) to avoid much of their corporate tax liability. It would be required to pay taxes only on the earnings it chooses to retain.

Term
Hedge Funds
Definition

This is a private investment pool that is not required to register with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940. These funds typically have high minimum investment requirements that make them suitable only got institutions and high net worth investors. These are typically sold to accedited investors who are able to understand the unique risks associated with these products, such as liquidity and the potential use of leverage by the manager. These products are often sold under a Reg D exemption.

 

Since these are typically open to these types of investors, they qualify for an exemption from regulations governing short sals, derivatives, leverage, fee structures, and the liquidity of interests in the fund. These funds may use strategies that more heavily regulated investment entities, such as MFs may not. As a result, these funds are more complex and may expose investors to many different types of investment risk. Unlike MFs, they are not required to publish the NAV on a daily basis and might have restrictions on withdraws, which could make assets less liquid. There is no daily NAV redemption priviledge with these products. Therefor this may not be suitable for an investor who is seeking liquidity.

 

These often charge higher and more complex fees than other types of pooled investments. One typical arrangement is a "two and twenty fee." In this arrangement, the manager charges a 2% management fee and then takes 20% of any profits earned. When investing in these funds, a clear understanding of the fee structure is necessary in order to assess the risk.

Term
Funds of Hedge Funds
Definition
This is a Mutual Fund that invests in unregistered, private hedge funds. Although hedgefunds are not required to register with the SEC, this MF typically would not have this exemption available to them. Since they are invested in illiquid securities, investors typically do not have a guaranteed daily right of redemption, as is the case with traditional MFs.
Term
SEC Rule 156 - Investment Company Sales Literature
Definition

After the SEC declares a registration to be effective, investment companies may use written sales materials, provided the materials are accompanied or preceded by a current prospectus. All sales literature used by a fund must meet the standards of this rule.

 

This rule defines sales literature as any communication that "offers to sell or induces the sale" of shares in an investment company (MF). This includes all written materials, as well as anything prepared for TV, radio or internet. Communications between issuers, underwriters, and dealers may also be considered sales literature if there is a reasonable expectation that the materials may find their way into the hands of prospective investors in the course of selling the funds' shares.

 

This rule states that it is unlawful for an investment company to sell its shares using sales literature that is materially misleading. ie, if it contains an untrue statement of material fact, or is if omits a material fact that is necessary to prevent the statement from being misleading.

 

Whether a particular statement is misleading depends on the context in which it is made. Sales literature may be misleading if it fails to properly explain, qualify, or limit the claims it makes about the investment, or fails to mention the importance of general economic or financial conditions. Funds must also be sure that all of their sales literature is current, complete, and accurate.

 

If not properly qualified, representations about a fund's past or future performance may easily mislead investors. Portrayals of the income that a fund has generated in the past or of the way its assets have grown may also be misleading. To avoid this problem they say "past performance is not indicative of future returns" Generally funds are required to report one-, five-, and 10-year performance figures. If a fund has not been around for 10 years, it is required to report one-, five-, and life of the fund performance figures. Performance figures are always reported after fees are deducted, but before taxes are paid.

 

Statements about the characteristics or attributes of an investment company may be misleading. Therefore, positive statements about possible benefits must be balanced with equally prominent statements about risks or limitations. Funds should not make exaggerated or unwarranted claims about the skill of their managers or their investment techniques. Also, they should not make unwarranted or insufficient comparisons between the fund and other investments or indexes. Statements about a fund's investment objectives may lead investors to believe that these goals are certain to be achieved. For this reason, funds often disclose that there is no guarantee that their investment objectives will be met

 

The SEC amended the Investment Company Act to prohibit fund names that were likely to mislead investors. Under these rules, a registered investment company whose name suggests that it focuses on a particular type of security or industry must invest at least 80% of its assets in those securities. These rules prohibit funds from using names suggesting that they have the guarantee or approval of the US Govt. A name that uses the word guaranteed or insured, or anything similar in conjunction with United States or US government is considered misleading and decpetive.

 

Investment companies that receive superior performance rankings relative to their peers may decide to emphasize this fact in their retail communications. FINRA has created guidelines on the use of rankings in communications with the public to prevent the misuse of this type of information. If an investment company uses a ranking symbol rather than a number in its communications, the symbol must be explained. These rules do not applu to a reprint or exerpt of an article, or report that is issued by a publisher, provided the publisher is not affiliated with the member firm or issuer of the securities mentioned in the reprint and neither the member firm nor the issuer of the securities mentioned in the reprint has commissioned the reprint.

 

Members may not use investment company rankings in a retail communication other than 1) rankings created and published by ranking entities, 2) rankings created by an investment company or an investment company affiliate, but based on the performance measurements of a ranking entity, defined as an organization that provides the publis with general information about an investment company, is independent of the investment company and its affiliates, and has not been hired by the investment company or its affiliates to assign the fund a ranking.

 

For rankings based on yield, the SEC has established two standardized yields that must be used. Money-market funds are required to use a 7-day standardized yield, while bond funds are required to use a 30-day standardized yield. In addition, any rankings based on total return must be accompanied by these yield rankings.

 

A headline or other prominent statement in a communication is not permitted to state that an investment company or investment company family is the best performer in a category unless it is actually ranked first in the category. All retail communications containing an investment company ranking must disclose:

  • The name of the category
  • The # of investment companies in the category
  • The name of the ranking entity
  • The length of the period (or the first and ending date of the period)
  • The criteria on which the rankings are based
  • The fact that past performance is not indicative of future returns
  • For investment companies that assess front-end sales loads, whether the ranking takes those loads into account
  • Whether the ranking is based on total return or the current SEC standardized yield
  • The publisher of the ranking data
  • If the ranking consists of a ranking symbol rather than a number, the meaning of the symbol must be explained.

If investment company rankings are being used for more than one class of investment with the same portfolio, the retail communication must provide a prominent disclosure of this fact.

 

Bond MF volatility ratings are descriptions that are issued by an independent third party to measure how sensitive the NAV of a bond fund is to changes in economic and market conditions. The evaluation is based on objective factors, such as the credit quality of the fund's individual portfolio holdings, the market price volatility of the portfolio, the funds' performance, and specific risks, such as interest rate risk, prepayment risk, and currency risk.

 

A firm may only use bond volatility ratings in its supplemental sales literature--not in advertisements that are intended for the public. However, the supplemental sales literature may only be used if a prospectus for the bond mutual fund has been or will be sent to the customer and if the following conditions are satisfied:

  • The rating does not identify or describe volatility as a "risk" rating
  • The supplemental sales literature incorporated the most recent available ratings
  • The criteria and methodology used to determine the rating is based exclusively on objective and quantifiable factors
  • The entity that issued the tating provides detailed disclosure on its rating methodology to investors through a website or toll-free number.

The sales literature must also contain a disclosure statement that includes:

  • The name of the rating entity
  • The most current rating and the date of the current rating
  • A description of the rating that includes the methodology behind the rating, whether the fund paid for the rating, and the types of risks the rating measures.

The disclosure statement must also state that 1) there is no standard method for determining bond fund volatility ratings, 2) the fund's portfolio may have changed since the date of the rating, and 3) there is no guarantee that the the fund's rating will remain the same.

Term
ERISA (The Employee Retirement Income Security Act)
Definition

This is a body of federal law that is meant to prevent the misuse and mismanagement of pension plan funds, especially by plan managers. These laws set standards of conduct for people dealing with pension plans. In particular, these laws establish two special categories of people who deal with pension plans who are held to very high standards -- parties in interest and fiduciaries. Investment advisors who provide services to pension plans are usually considered both parties of interest and fiduciaries.

 

This body of laws defines a fiduciary as anyone who exercises discretionary authority or control involving management or disposition of plan assets, renders investment advice for compensation, or had discretionary authority or responsibility for administration of the plan.

 

This body of laws places many restrictions and obligations on fiduciaries. Advisors to qualified pension plans should tread carefully to avoid inadvertantly violating these provisions.

 

Under a manager's fiduciary obligation, it should seek to maximize the return, for the plan participants. Conservative investments should be a priority. Aggressive derivative strategies are prohibited but certain conservative option strategies such as covered call writing would be permissible. Since the plan grows tax deferred, the manager should not purchase tax free investments such as municipal securities within the plan.

 

Here are the rules governing fiduciary conduct:

  • Act solely in the interest of plan participants and their beneficiaries
  • Discharge duties for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits and defraying the reasonable expenses of plan administration.
  • Act with the same care, skill, prudence, and diligence that a prudent person familiar with such matters would use, otherwise known as the prudent expert standard. This has been interpreted to mean that the fiduciary must give appropriate consideration to all relevant facts and circumstances in deciding on a particular investment or investment strategy and act accordingly. The relevant faces and circumstances include: 

-The role that an investment or investment         strategy plays in terms of the portion of the       overall portfolio under the fiduciary's control.

 

-Whether the investment is reasonably               designed to further the plan's purposes, taking   into consideration the risk of loss and the           opportunity for gain or other returns.

 

-Diversification of the plan in order to minimize the risk of large losses

 

-The liquidity and current return of the portfolio in relation to the plan's current cash flow needs

 

-The projected return of the plan's portfolio, relative to the funding objectives of the plan

  • Diversify plan investments in order to protect against the risk of large losses, unless under the circumstances it is clearly not prudent to do so. The following factors should be taken into consideration in determining whether a plan is diversified:

-The purpose of the plan

-The amount of plan assets

-Financial and industrial conditions

-The type of investment

-Geographical diversification

-Industry diversification

-Dates of maturity (if applicable)

  • Follow the terms of the plan documents [investment policy statement] when making investment decisions unless the documents are inconsistent with this body of laws.

This body of laws prohibits parties of interest (including fiduciaries) from:

  • Selling, exchanging, or leasing property to the plan
  • Lending money or extending credit to the plan
  • Furnishing goods, services, or facilities to the plan
  • Transferring or using plan assets for their own benefit
  • Fiduciaries may not deal with plan assets in their own interest or for their own account. For example, they cannot recommend the purchase of a security in order to maintain its price for the benefit of an affiliated broker-dealer.
  • Fiduciaries may not receive personal consideration from any person dealing with the plan in a transaction involving plan assets. For example, they may not receive a fee from an unaffiliated B/D in return for using that B/D to execute trades for the plan.
  • Fiduciaries may not act on behalf of any person whose interests are opposed to the plan in a transaction involving the plan. For example, they may not buy a limited partnership from the account of another of the advisor's clients.

The penalties for violating these rules are severe. Fiduciaries may be held personally liable for all investment losses, and will need to pay back to the plan any profits received from using the plan's assets. The IRS may also impose a 15% tax penalty.

 

If a whole lot of requirements are met, an investment adviser who is a fiduciary may..

  • use an affiliated B/D to effect securities transations for the plan
  • use an affiliated B/D to purchase and sell MF shares for the plan.
  • purchase and sell shares of an open-end MF for the plan even though the investment advisor also advises the MF.

For a plan to be considered a qualified employer-sponsored retirement plan and receive the favorable tax treatment, the following requirements must be met:

  • Eligibility Requirements - All employees age 21+ who have worked for the employer for more than a year must be covered by the plan.
  • Vesting - This is the schedule under which employee' right to receive benefits contributed by their employers to a plan gradually become guaranteed based on their years of service. At a minumum, all employees must be either fully vested after 5 years, or they must be 20% vested after three years and full vested after 7 years of service.
  • The Investment of contributions and determination of benefits - The investment of plan assets, as well as other plan activities, is governed by strict fiduciary guidelines.

Employers who wish to establish qualified retirement plans can seek advance determinations from the IRS that the plan meets the required standards. Alternatively, employers can adopt an existing IRS-approved master or prototype plan provided by a financial institution. The plan must satisfy the IRS standards both in terms of the way it is designed and in the way it actually operates.

 

If established correctly, a qualified plan will provide the following benefits:

  • Employers receive tax benefits for all contributions they make to a plan on their employees' behalf
  • Employees are not taxed on the amounts received or the gains from investments in the plan until they begin taking distributions.
  • All contributions to the plan grow on a tax-deferred basis
  • Payments received at retirement may qualify for special tax treatment.
Term
REIT (Real Estate Investment Trust) 3 types
Definition

This is similar to an investment company, but is not categorized as one under the securities act of 1933. An investor purchasing this investment in the primary market must receive a prospectus. 

 

These invest in a portfolio of real estate investments in order to earn profits for investors. These securities bear many similarities to diversified investment companies in that the portfolio is invested in a wide array or real estate holdings. These invest in many different types of residential and commercial income-producing real estate, such as apartment buildings, hotels, shopping centers, office complexes, storage facilities, hospitals, and nursing homes. Income is received from the rental income paid by the tenant leasing the real estate owned by this investment. These are suitable for both retail and institutional investors. 

 

There are 3 types:

  1. Mortgage ____: These provide funding to real estate purchasers. These securities act in the same capacity as a bank by issuing secured loans backed by the underlying real estate purchase.
  2. Equity _____: These own and operate income-producing real estate
  3. Hybrid ____: These business structures invest in actual equity ownership of real estate as well as an interest-rate-sensitive security such as mortgages.

Most of these investments are liquid and exchange listed. A listed ____ is reported on customer account statements at current market value per share. Others, known as nontraded _____s, are illiquid and difficult to price, similar to a hedge fund or limited partnership investment. These are reposted in customer statements at an estimated value per share.

 

The benefit of qualifying as a _____ is the favorable tax treatment given under the Internal Revenue Code. If 90% of the ordinary income generated from the portfolio is distributed to investors, it is taxed only once. This, it avoids paying taxes on distributed income in substantially the same manner as a regulated investment company. There is no pass through of operating losses.

 

To get this special tax treatment, the ____ must have

  1. At least 95% of gross income come from dividends, interest, and rents from real property.
  2. At least 75% of gross income come from real property income, namely rents or interest.
  3. No more than 30% of gross income from the sale or disposition of stock or securities held for less than 12 months.

The dividends paid to the shareholder of this investment do not qualify for the lower 20% tax rate given to dividend distributions paid on common and preferred stock. The dividends received are taxed as ordinary income.

Term
Types of Qualified Plans (2 categories) (5 types)
Definition

A corporate retirement plan may be established as either a defined benefit or a defined contribution plan. A defined benefit plan is designed to provide employees with a fixed monthly stipend at retirement. This is generally a percentage of the employee's salary, the exact amount of which is determined by the employee's age and years of service. Usually, the employer is solely responsible for financing the plan using actuarial assumptions. The employer also invests the plan's funds and bears all the investment risk. The employer is obligated to provide the benefits, even if the plan's investments do not perform as expected. These plans are becoming less and less common due to their high cost to employers who bear 100% of the funding liability. (pensions??)

 

 The trend  recently has been to move away from defined benefit plans toward defined contribution plans. In a defined contribution plan, an employee's retirement benefits depend on how much has been contributed to the plan, plus any investment gains from those contributions. Each employee has a separate account within the plan -- the more the employee and/or employer contributes, the higher the eventual benefits.

 

  1. Profit Sharing Plans - This allows employees to share in a company's profits. The company is not required to make a specific contribution each year if they are not doing well. The decision as to whether contributions will be directed to the plan is made by the board of directors of the employer. If the contribution is made, the company must allocate these funds to their employees in accordance with a predetermined formula. Generally, each participant receives a certain percentage of his salary. Employers may deduct contributions to the plan up to a max of 25% of an employee's salary. All contributions made to any one employee's account from all sources may not exceed $52000 per year or 25% compensation, whichever is less.This gets the 10% penalty if withdrawn before 59.5 y.o.
  2. 401(k) plans - These rely heavily on employee contributions. This allows employees to save a portion of their pretax income for retirement. The earnings from their contributions grow on a tax-deferred basis until withdrawn by the employee. Employers may also choose to match their employee's contributions. Employers may establish a vesting schedule for their matching contributions. The employees typically decide how to allocate their contributions from a menu of investment options, including stock funds, bond funds, money market funds, a guaranteed investment contract, and sometimes employer stock. The max that employees can contribute to their 401(k) is $17.5K, until they are 50, then $23K afterwards. This gets the 10% penalty if withdrawn before 59.5 y.o.
  3. 403(b) plans - These may be established only at certain tax-exempt nonprofit organizations such as churches and public school systems. AKA Qualified contracts, tax-deferred annuities, or TSA (Tax Sheltered Annuity) plans. These are like 401(k)s but can only be invested in the following instruments: Annuity Contracts, Custodial accounts holding MF shares, Retirement Income Accounts. Retirement Income Accounts are maintained by churches mostly. This gets the 10% penalty if withdrawn before 59.5 y.o.
  4. 457 Plans -  may be established by governmental (universities, local school districts) and certain nonprofit employers. This has the same contribution limits as 401(k) and 403(b) plans, but an employee < 50 y.o. can contribute 17.5k to his 401(k) plan or 403(b) plan AND 17.5k to his 457 plan. There is no 10% penalty for withdrawing prior to age 59.5, like there is with 401(k) & 403(b) plans.

These are sometimes referred to as Top-Hat plans because in nongovernmental organizations, only officers or directors (highly compensated employees) can get one of these, per ERISA.

 

Any money invested in nongovernmental 457 plans may not be rolled over into any other type of qualified plan. Governmental 457s can be rolled over into 401(k)s, 403(b)s or even IRAs. Employer contributions to nongovernmental 457 plans are considered the property of the employer rather than the employee until the contributions are funded. Therefore, any general creditor of the employer can make claims on these nonvested funds.

 

Every dollar removed from the above funds will be taxed at ordinary income rates. Tax deferred accounts have a cost basis of zero.

 

5.  Keogh (HR-10) Plans - This type of retirement plan is for self employed individuals and can only be contributed to by self employed earnings. If an individual makes a contribution to their Keogh Plan and has employees that are eligible to be covered (>21 y.o. >=1 year working >1000 hrs/year) then that individual must make a contribution into the plan for his employees equal to the percentile that he contributes for himself.

 

These contributions may be claimed as a deduction on the self-employed individual's tax return. This gets the 10% penalty if withdrawn before 59.5 y.o.

 

A Keogh plan allows a maximum annual contribution of 100% of compensation or $53,000, whichever is less. (For 2014, the limit was $52,000.) The amount deductible is limited to the lesser of 20% of compensation or $53,000 (also $52,000 for 2014). A self-employed individual may make a deductible contribution of 20% of self-employed income, up to a maximum of $53,000, to a Keogh account.

Term
Nonqualified Retirement Plans (2 types)
Definition

These are not required to meet IRS requirements regarding employee coverage, contribution limits, and vesting. A nonqualified plan does not need to be made available to all employees. Income contributed to these plans does not accumulate on a tax-deferred basis.

  1. Payroll Deduction Plans - These allow employees to purchase life insurance, mutual funds, and variable annuities through after-tax deductions from their paychecks. Employers may match employee contributions if they wish. The sales charges are often lower than the employees will pay if they purchase these products individually.
  2. Deffered Compensation Plans - These are contracts between employers and employees. The employer agrees to pay a certain amount of compensation to the employee at a later date. The employee agrees to defer receipt of funds until retirement, disability, death, or termination. One advantage of deferred comp is that income taxes are deferred until a time when the employee is presumably in a lower tax bracket. Deferred comp plans can either be funded or unfunded. In a funded plan, the plan is secured by specific assets that are protected from the employer's creditors. An unfunded plan is backed only by the employer's promise. Since deferred compensation plans are not qualified plans, the employer may choose to include only select employees in the plan.
Term
IRAs (Individual Retirement Accounts)
Definition

These are funded directly by customers and have nothing to do with their employer. Prior to suggesting investments in these individual plans, RRs should make sure that their customers are making full use of any work sponsored plans since most allow for pretax contributions and may have overall lower expenses than self directed accounts.

 

Anyone who is under the age of 70.5 and has earned income from working during the year may establish one of these. Earned income includes wages, salaries, commissions, and professional fees. It does not include interest, dividends, or capital gains from investments. These contributions are tax deductible in certain circumstances. Income in these accounts is tax deferred and requires a beneficiary to be named.

 

The contribution limit is 5.5K if <50 y.o. or 6.5K if >=50. The contribution for any given year must be made by the deadline for filling income tax returns for the year.

 

Married couples with only one employed spouse may contribute 11K per year into two separate IRA accounts, provided that the one working spouse made that much money. The account for the nonworking spouse is called a spousal account.

 

If a person is not covered by a employer sponsored retirement plan they may always deduct an IRA contribution of up to 5.5K from their taxable income. If both spouses are uncovered, then they can both do this, if one is covered by the employer then their deduction amount depends on their taxable income.

 

Although not prohibited, most tax free or tax-deferred investments such as municipal bonds or variable annuities are usually not appropriate for this sort of account.

 

If an investor maintains an IRA account that has pretax and after tax contributions and makes withdrawals, the IRS considers the withdrawals to come from both sources. Therefore, a portion of the withdrawal is taxable and the other portion is tax free.

 

10% early withdrawal fee applies, unless...

  • owner becomes disabled
  • owner dies and the money is withdrawn by the beneficiary
  • the money is used to pay certain medical expenses not covered by insurance or medical insurance premiums when the owner is unemployed.
  • The money is used for expenses related to the purchase of a home for the first time (limited to $10K)
  • The money is used to pay qualified higher education expenses for the account holder or members of the immediate family
  • The withdrawals are set up as a series of "substantially equal periodic payments" to be taken over the owner's life expectancy
Term
Roth IRAs
Definition

Introduced by the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997. Contributed to with posttax dollars, contributions may be withdrawn at any time without paying taxes. The accumulated earnings in the account may also be withdrawn tax-fee if the account is at least 5 years old and one of the following conditions is met:

  • the account owner is >59.5 y.o.
  • The account owner has died or become disabled
  • The money is used for the purchase of a first home
  • The money is used to cover certain medical expenses or medical insurance premiums
  • The money is used to pay for qualified higher education expenses.

If none of those are met, then they get the 10% penalty and ordinary income taxes.

 

Contribution limits - 5.5K/year same as IRAs.

 

Anyone, regardless of age, is eligible to open one of these accounts provided the person's income does not exceed certain levels. A single person with an adjusted gross income of $114K or less may contribute the full amount.

 

A single taxpayers ability to contribute is gradually phased out between $114K and 129K yearly income.

 

In some cases, investors may choose to convert a traditional IRA into a Roth IRA. Whether an investor should convert depends on the investor's individual situation. Consulting a tax professional is a good idea.

Term
SEP (Simplified Employee Pension) IRA
Definition

This is a type of retirement plan considered to be an alternative to a profit-sharing plan. EMployers may vary contributions from year to year in the same way that they may in normal profit-sharing plans. The employee is not allowed to make contributions.

 

Employers must include all employees in the plan who are >21y.o. and have worked for the employer at some point (even part time) in the last five years. The max amount that an employer may contribute annually is 25% of an employee's salary up to $52,000. The contributions are immediately vested for the full amount.

Term
SIMPLE (Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees) IRA
Definition

Introduced in the Small Business Act of 1996. This is a special salary reduction program that is much easier to administer than a traditional 401(k) plan. The employer simply contributes employee elective deferrals pretax to an IRA for the employee. This plan may be adopted by employers with 100 or fewer employees who earned at least $5000 during the preceding calendar year.

 

The following rules must be followed:

  • The employer does not maintain any other qualified plan into which contributions are being made or in which benefits are accrued.
  • Employee elective deferrals are limited to no more than $12,000 per year (indexed for inflation)
  • The employer matches employee elective contributions dollar for dollar up to 3% of pay or provides nonelective contributions of 2% of compensation. The law allows employers to make a lower match for any individual year, but not less than 1% for two out of any 5 years.
  • No other contributions are made to the plan
  • All contributions are 100% vested.
Term
Education Savings Plans (2 types)
Definition

Contributions to this account are made on a post-tax basis. The earnings may be distributed tax-free if the monies are used for qualifying educational expenses.

 

  1. ESA (Cloverdell Education Savings Account) - Created by changes in the tax laws in 1997. Anyone whose adjusted gross income is within certain limits may contribute a maximum of $2000 per year to an account established for the benefit of a child under 18. The total of all contributions from various people to one child's account may not exceed $2000 during any given year. If the withdrawals are not used to pay for educational expenses (elementary expenses are permitted), then the earnings are taxed as ordinary income +10% penalty. If it is not used by the time the child is 30 years old then it must be distributed. and taxed as mentioned previously. Investments in this account are self directed. Other than investments in Life Insurance, an investor may buy and sell any type of securities.
  2. Section 529 College Savings Plans - Created by the Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001. The beneficiary may include the donor and may be changed in the future. States that offer these plans determine the specific plan rules such as allowable contributions, investment options (MFs) and deductibility of contributions for state tax purposes. An initial gift of $70,000 is allowed to a 529 plan without incurring gift-taxes. After that, $14,000 per year is allowed. The initial contribution pretends it took place over 5 years.

A rollover of a 529 plan is permitted every 12 months. This is used to move funds to another state's plan. Generally there are no residency requirements for a 529 plan. A 529 Plan cannot be rolled over into an ESA account. The investment options available are stipulated by the plan.

 

The RR must disclose risks and costs (fees and sales charges) when promoting 529 plans. The RR must provide a disclaimer stating that, prior to investing in a plan, the customer should read the official statement, and must provide a disclaimer that the client should check with her home state to learn if it offers tax benefits if she invests in its plan. There is no requirement to provide the name and contact info for the muni securities principal who will approve the customer's investment in the plan. This can only be used for higher education.

Term
HSA (Health Savings Account)
Definition

This is a tax advantaged account that can be used by individuals to pay for qualified medical expenses. Not open to all individuals. Generally only open to persons who are not enrolled in any type of health plan other than a qualified high deductible health plan. Contributions are made in pretax dollars (which are limited under IRS guidelines), grow tax free, and withdrawals are tax free if used to pay qualified medical expenses. The funds may be invested in mutual funds, although the types of funds may be limited by a trustee.

 

Any funds withdrawn that are used for nonqualified medical expenses are taxable and subject to a 20% IRS tax penalty. The funds do not need to be used each year and may be carried over to be used in the future. Once reaching age 65, funds can be withdrawn at any time and are subject only to ordinary income tax. However, you may avoid paying any tax by continuing to use the funds for qualified medical expenses.

Term
Investment Policy Statement
Definition

This is one of the most important documents that governs a qualified retirement plan. It describes the plan's investment strategy and should also address specific needs of the plan, and should include such elements as investment philosophy, risk tolerance, time horizons, preferred asset classes, rate of return expectations, and long term goals for the plan. If this is properly drafted, it should clearly outline the prudence and diversification standards that the plan fiduciaries must follow. This serves as the blueprint from which investment decisions are made.

 

If the investment advisor does not follow the terms of this policy, then the plan participants and plan trustees may sue. Any investment advisor who ignores this may be held liable for breach of fiduciary duty, even if the plan's assets have increased under its management. Operations professionals are expected to be gatekeepers in making sure both advisors and salespersons follow the appropriate rules governing these plans.

Term
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Definition
The plan's Investment Policy Statement. An ERISA plan's Investment Policy Statement serves as the blueprint for making investment decisions for the plan's portfolio. An investment advisor is liable for failure to follow the terms of the statement.
Term
Fixed Annuities
Definition
  • Provides fixed payments of a specified amount for the contract term
  • Guarantees a specific minimum rate of return
  • Insurance company assumes the investment risk
  • Inflation will erode the value of payments over the years
  • Not a security
  • Prospectus delivery is not required
  • The lump sum paid by the annuitant is deposited in the annuity company's General Account.
Term
Variable Annuities (2 types)
Definition
  • Provides variable dollar payments at regular intervals for the contract term
  • No guarantee of a specific minimum rate of return
  • Annuitant assumes the investment risk
  • Designed so that payments will keep pace with inflation (though this is not guaranteed)
  • This is a security
  • Prospectus delivery is required
  1. Immediate Annuity - starts payouts one pay period after the annuitant has paid a lump sum. If the contract calls for annual payments, payments will begin one year after the date of purchase.
  2. Deferred Annuity - delays payments to the annuitant for a period after the date of purchase. The first payment can begin several years after money is deposited. The period before payments begin but after the first payment by the annuitant has been paid is referred to as the Accumulation Period. The payments made by the annuitant during this period are collected in the Separate Account, which has several investment options to choose from. The annuitant can switch between these investment options without incurring a tax liability or additional sales charges. The separate account are generally registered as investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940.

Each of the following costs must be explained to the client prior to the purchase of the product:

  • Sales Charge - The prospectus must clearly disclose all charges and expenses associated with the annuity. The majority of companies today have CDSCs, AKA surrender fees. There is no statuatory minimum sales charge on a variable product. 
  • Expenses - These include the costs of contract administration, investment management fees, and mortality risk charges. These are deducted from investment income in the separate account.
  • Management Fee - Each of the subaccounts usually has an investment management fee. This is the fee that the subaccount's investment advisor receives for managing the assets in the subaccount.
  • Expense Risk Charges - When an insurance company issues this sort of contract, it usually guarantees that it will not raise its costs for administering the contract beyond a certain level. This is called an expense guarantee. The expense risk charge compensates the company if its expenses for administering the annuity turn out to be more than the company estimated.
  • Administrative Expenses - These include things such as record keeping, providing contract owners with info, and processing their payments and requests for surrenders and loans.

If the contract owner dies during the accumulation period, then the company will return the death benefit to the beneficiary. The death benefit is:

max(amount invested, value of the annuity)

 

The value of the annuity is found by multiplying the number of accumulation units by their respective NAV.

 

The NAV of each accumulation unit is found like so:

NAV = Total Net Assets of Portfolio/ Total Units Issued

 

Mortality Guarantee - If annuitized and the annuitant does not die when the Annuity Company expects them to, the annuity must continue making the payments to the annuitant even if they live forever.

 

An investor may cancel (surrender) his variable annuity at any time during the accumulation period in return for its value. The annuitant may withdraw part of the annuity's value at any time - known as a partial surrender.

 

The IRS Defines these as Qualified and Unqualified. Anyone can contribute as much money as they want to an unqualified annuity and since they have already been taxed on this money they will only be taxed on gains when they are withdrawn. (tru) Gains are withdrawn last in the case of annuitization.

 

During the accumulation period if an investor makes a withdrawal, the IRS stipulates that the investor must first withdraw the taxable gains, and after those are depleted, they can get to the tax free money. LIFO.

 

If the annuity is qualified the cost basis is zero so all distributions are taxable. All taxable withdraws from annuities are taxed as ordinary income.

 

If the annuitant dies during the accumulation period, the value of the annuity will be included in the estate for the purpose of calculating federal estate taxes. Anything the beneficiary receives in excess of their cost basis will be taxed. The death benefit skips the probate process.

 

Many annuities impose significant charges on investors who surrender their contracts early. They also must pay the 10% tax penalty if under 59.5 y.o.

 

FINRA members that are principal underwriters of these products may not sell them through another B/D unless that B/D is also a member of FINRA. There must be a sales agreement in effect between the underwriter and the B/D that states that if a client cancels the contract within 7 business days after the application is accepted then the B/D must return the sales commission to the insurance company that issued the sales contract.

 

A FINRA member must transmit all applications promptly for a variable life insurance policy or a variable annuity to the insurance company that is issuing the contract. A firm must also promptly send the issuer that portion of a client's premium payments that are supposed to be credited to the contract. The exact NAV of the shares in the separate account purchased by the policy owner must be determined after the issuer receives the owner's premium payment. The method for determining the NAV must be in accordance with the product's contract, as well as its prospectus and the Investment Company Act of 1940.

 

A FINRA member may not sell these products if they are issued by an insurance company that does not pay a client promptly who surrenders all or part of their contract.

 

Contract Owners have the right to vote on certain issues affecting the separate account. These rights are similar to the voting rights of mutual fund shareholders. For example, the contract owners elect the Board of Managers that administers the separate account. They must also ratify the selection of an independent accountant who audits the separate account and approves any changes in the separate account's investment objectives or policies.

 

 

Term
Accumulation Units
Definition
Purchases in an annuity are quantified into these. When the owner annuitizes, these are converted into "Annuity Units" after being put through a formula that takes into account the value of these, the annuitant's age and sex, the payout option, and the AIR (assumed interest rate). The number of Annuity Units is equal to the number of projected payments to be made to the annuitant assuming DOD.
Term
Annuity Payout Instructions (4 options)
Definition
  1. Straight Life Annuity - The annuitant receives monthly payments for as long as they live. No designated beneficiary. This maximizes the annuity payout because it carried the most risk.
  2. Life Annuity with Period Certain - The annuitant receives monthly payments for as long as they live. If they die during the "period certain," their payments will continue to go to a beneficiary until the end of the period certain.
  3. Unit Refund Life Annuity - The annuitant receives monthly payments for as long as they live. Should the annuitant die before the value of the annuity units is paid out, then the remaining amount is paid out to the beneficiary as lump sum or over a given period.
  4. Joint and Last Survivor Life Annuity - Upon the death of the last surviving owner, payments cease. I guess this is good if the breadwinner is looking to support their spouse from beyond the grave.
Term
AIR (Assumed Interest Rate)
Definition

Used as part of the actuarial calculation. This rate is stated in the contract that is used to determine the first annuity payment, and it is then used as the benchmark for determining subsequent payments. NOT A GUARANTEE. 

 

The state sets a maximum value for this. The annuitant can choose from several different rates when annuitizing their contract. If the rate chosen is greater than actual performance, then annuity payments decrease.

 

Each month the payment will adjust up or down (or stay the same) based on how the performance compared to this rate. (So why wouldn't an annuitant pick a significantly negative rate?)

Term
FINRA Rule 2330
Definition

This rule addresses the sales practice issues associated with Variable Annuity Contracts.

 

Prior to making a variable annuity purchase recommendation, salespersons must make reasonable efforts to obtain information concerning the customer's age, annual income, and investment time horizon. Most contracts have CDSCs. Reps must also unquire as to the customer's intended use of the deferred variable annuity, existing assets (including outside investment and life insurance holdings), liquidity needs, liquid net worth, risk tolerance, and tax status.

 

Any RR recommending deferred variable contracts must have a reasonable basis to believe that:

  1. The customer have been informed of and understands the various features of the contract, such as surrender periods, potential surrender charges, potential tax penalties for redemptions prior to age 59.5, mortality and expense fees, investment advisory fees, and the features associated with various riders available within a given policy.
  2. The customer will benefit from some feature(s) of the contract (such as tax deferred growth, annuitization, death benefit, etc.) These potential benefits should be weighed in light of the additional costs associated with annuitied, as opposed to mutual funds or other investments. Remember, annuities do not have limits on their sales charge fee like MFs do, but it must be reasonable.
  3. The contract has subaccount choices and other features that make is suitable (as a whole) based on the client's objectives, tax situation, and age. In addition, the RR is required to make a suitability determination in order to allocate the funds properly to the appropriate subaccounts.

Once the RR has collected the required info on a potential deferred variable annuity customer, this complete and correct application package and the customer's nonnegotiated check (payable to the issuing insurance company) must be forwarded promptly to the representative's OSJ (Office of Supervisory Jurisdiction) for approval. Typically, once received, the approving principal at the OSJ will review the application and determine whether the proposed transaction is suitable. The B/D has up to 7 business days from receipt of the application package to make this determination.

 

If the proposed transaction is judged suitable, the paperwork and funds are transmitted to the issuing company. If not, the monies are returned to the customer. The B/D is required to maintain a copy of all checks and record the date(s) the funds were received. Additionally, the firm must record the date(s) the funds were either forwarded to the insurance company for purchase of the contract, or returned to the customer if the transaction was not approved.

Term
Section 1035 Exchanges
Definition

RRs often seek to move client assets from existing contracts to fund new annuity contracts. Managers must be extremely vigilant when examining the validity of a proposed transfer, which is typically done through __________ Exchanges. These exchanges permit the exchange of annuity contracts without a tax event, so long as the client has not done another one in the last 36 months. The principal should determine if the proposed customer transfer will result in the client incurring a surrender charge, being subject to a new surrender period, losing existing benefits (such as death, living, or other contractual benefits), or incurring fees or charges (such as mortality and expense fees, investment advisory fees, or charges for riders) as a result of the proposed transfer.

 

The central issue managers must weigh is the cost of the exchange versus the benefit(s) received by the client from the new contract. Firms and their approving principals must look for patterns of unsuitable transfers and are required to implement surveillance procedures to determine if any of the salespersons have excessive rates of deferred variable annuity exchanges. A transaction is often viewed as an inappropriate exchange if the client has made another ______ deferred annuity transfer within the prior 36 months.

 

In order to protect against abusive transfers, many individual states and brokerage firms require that registered reps suggesting a transfer provide disclosure and acknowledgement forms to customers. These documents often provide a comparison to the features and costs of an existing contract to a proposed replacement contract, and may highlight the costs of the exchange. Generally, these acknowledgement/disclosure forms are signed by both the firm and the client.

Term
EIAs (Equity-Indexed Annuities) AKA Indexed Annuities
Definition

This is an annuity in which the returns are linked to the performance of an underlying stock index. The company that issues this product guarantees a minimum rate of return, but the annuity's ultimate return will vary depending on the performance of the index to which it is linked. The investor's risk is more limited, but so are the potential returns (compared to other annuities)

 

Many of these are linked to the S&P 500 Index, but some use other indexes such as the Dow Jones Industrial Average, the Nasdaq 100, or some other index selected by the investor.

 

There is no standardized formula for determining what portion of any increases in the index will be credited to the investor's contract, although all the formulas currently used limit investor's potential returns in some way. Clients need to understand that these products will never returnas much as the underlying index-- This reality is what investors must accept to receive the contract's guarantees. The guaranteed minimum return is usually 87.5% of the investor's premium + a 1% to 3% annual interest rate, provided the investor does not surrender the annuity prematurely.

 

Participation rates - Many companies use this to calculate the contract owner's return. The annuity is credited with this percentage of the index's gain. 

Some companies use a spread, margin, or asset fee, A specified percentage is subtracted from whatever gains the index achieves. A company may use one of these fees in place of, or in addition to a participation rate.

 

Other versions of this product will put a cap on the amount of interest the annuity can earn.

 

Indexing Methods - Different companies use different methods for calculating changes in the index to which the annuity is linked, which can also influence returns. The following are summaries of the most popular methods:

  • Annual Reset (Rachet) - This method calculated the contract's return based on how much the relevant index has increased from the beginning of the year to the end. Decreases are ignored. The advantage of an annual reset is that the investor's gains are locked in every year.
  • High-Water Mark - This method examines how the index has performed at various points during the life of the contract and uses the three highest values to calculate the annuity's rate of return. This formula may result in higher returns for investors while also giving them some protection against declines.
  • Point-to-Point - This method compares the index's value on two particular dates, such as the date the contract began and the date it ended. The advantage of this is that it may be combined with higher caps or participation rates to increase the contract's returns. The disadvantage is that the returns depend on how the index is performing on a particular date, which can reduce the returns if the market dips.
  • Index Averaging - Some calculate the index's average value on a daily or monthly basis rather than using its value on specific dates to calculate returns. This method may limit the customer's returns.

The majority of these products so not include dividends in their calculations. Instead, only increases in the market value of the securities comprising the index are counted. Investors, particularly long-term ones, may do better by investing in the market directly and receiving both dividends and capital gains. Since 1926, nearly 42% of the returns of the S&P 500 index may be attributed to dividends.

 

Most of these are not classified as securities. This will probably change in the near future as the SEC and state regulators seek to assert more control over the sale of these products. An agent who sells these products must inform his employer about his activities if they are not sponsored by his B/D. The firm must approve the agent's activities in writing and agree to supervise the sales.

Term

Variable Life Insurance

 

Remember, any insurance investment beginning with the word variable is a _______

Definition

Security! These policies are regulated by both state and federal securities laws. A prospectus must accompany or precede any offer to sell this product to a client. The company that sells the policy must be a B/D that is registered with the SEC and must be a member of FINRA. An agent who sells this policy must hold both a state insurance license and either a Series 6 or Series 7 registration.

 

This is a type of permanant life insurance in which the premiums are fixed, but the death benefit and the cash value may vary depending on the performance of the investment options. The policy owner, not the insurance company, decides how the premium payments will be invested. They can choose between subaccounts containing different types of securities and different investment objectives. Policyholders may transfer money from one subaccount to another as their investment objectives change without tax ramifications.

 

An important feature of this type of insurance is that the death benefit generally may not decrease below a certain guaranteed minimum.

 

The policyholder makes premium payments to the insurance company that issued the policy. The company first deducts various charges and expenses, including sales charges and the cost of the insurance. The company then deposits the remainder in a separate account. If the insurance company goes bankrupt, its creditors may not make claims against the separate account.

 

This product is not for everyone. The client must be sophisticated and knowledgeable enough to understand the available investment options. The client must be able to tolerate the fact that the policy's cash value may fluctuate greatly.

 

The cash value of this policy is determined by the performance of the subaccounts in which the policyholder invests the net premium payments. Therefore, the cash value could theoretically decline to zero if these investments perform poorly. The cash value is normally calculated every business day.

 

The owner may borrow against the cash value of the policy up to certain limits (usually 75% to 90% of the policy's cash value). The loan and any accumulated interest are deducted from the death benefit if they are still outstanding at the time the insured dies.

 

The owner may withdraw some of the money from the policy's cash value without surrendering the policy, or may cancel the policy in its entirety and receive the entire cash surrender value. An owner who takes either one of these actions may be required to pay surrender charges depending on how long the policy has been in force.

 

The policyholder, not the insurance company, shoulders all the investment risk in a variable life insurance policy. The cash value of the policy will fluctuate depending on the subaccounts in which the owner invests. The insurance company's only obligation is to pay the minimum death benefit when the insured dies.

 

A significant advantage of this sort of policy is the ability to invest some of the premium payments in stocks or other assets that have historically paid high returns over the long term. These types of investments give policyholders the potential to grow their cash value and death benefits, and may help protect policyholders and their beneficiaries from the negative effects of inflation.

Term

VUL (Variable Universal Life) Insurance

 

Remember, any insurance investment beginning with the word variable is a _______

Definition

Security! These policies are regulated by both state and federal securities laws. A prospectus must accompany or precede any offer to sell this product to a client. The company that sells the policy must be a B/D that is registered with the SEC and must be a member of FINRA. An agent who sells this policy must hold both a state insurance license and either a Series 6 or Series 7 registration.

 

Policy owners may adjust their premiums and death benefits as their circumstances warrant. They may also decide how their net premiums are invested among subaccounts that the insurance company offers in its separate account.

 

Many tax advisors recommend that a life insurance policy be placed in the name of the beneficiary, or in an irrevocable life insurance trust so the death benefit will not be included in the estate for the purpose of calculating estate taxes. The death benefit from a life insurance policy passes tax free to the beneficiary.

Term
Communications Regarding Variable Products
Definition

FINRA has established special guidelines for written materials that are used to sell these products to the public. Since RRs often prepare customized illustrations for customers who are interested in variable products, these guidelinesalso apply to individual communications provided to clients such as letters, emails, and computer generated illustrations.

 

All communications with clients must clearly identify the product being discussed as a variable annuity or variable life insurance policy. Many companies use proprietary names for their products which may inadvertantly confuse investors about the product they are buying. Since there are significant differences between variable products and mutual funds, presentations to customers should never state or imply that variable products are mutual funds (good god no, of course they are not)

 

Customers who withdraw funds from variable products after a short period often incur significant charges and/or tax penalties. Therefore, these products should never be described as short term (good god no, of course they are not), liquid investments. A presentation that implies that an investor may easily access their cash value either through loans or other means, must also clearly describe the negative impact of early withdrawals. For a variable life insurance policy, all discussion about loans and withdrawals must also include an explanation of the impact that these actions may have on the policy's cash value and death benefit.

 

Guarantees - The insurance company that issues a variable product will often guarantee some of its features. For example, an insurance company may guarantee that a variable life insurance policy will always have a minimum death benefit it the policyholder continues to pay all the required premiums. These guarantees should not be overemphasized or exaggerated since they ultimately depend on the insurance company's solvency.

 

Material that is provided to clients should never represent or imply that these guarantees apply to the separate account. With the exception of a fixed-account option offered by some companies, neither the principal value of the separate account nor its investment returns are guaranteed. Similarly, clients should not be told that the ratings given to companies AAA, BBB, etc, apply to the separate account.

 

FINRA strictly prohibits its members from projecting or predicting investment results. However, life insurance companies customarily provide their clients with hypothetical illustrations that assume various rates of return in order to demonstrate how the policies work. These illustrations show how the performance of the underlying subaccounts affects the policy's death benefit and cash values. Both the SEC and FINRA allow the use of hypothetical illustrations, provided the following guidelines are met:

  • No assumed rate of return may be higher than 12% (lol)
  • One of the assumed rates of return must be 0%
  • The assumed rates of return must be reasonable, given the market conditions and investment options.
  • The cash values and death benefits must reflect the policy's maximum mortality and expense charges for each assumed rate of return.

The illustration must also include a prominent statement explaining that 1) its purpose is to show how the performance of the underlying subaccounts could affect the policy's cash values and death benefits, 2) it is hypothetical, and 3) it does not project or predict investment results. Generally, the illustration should not compare the hypothetical returns of a variable life insurance policy to another product, although comparisons with term policies are acceptable, provided certain conditions are met.

 

Comparisons between variable products and other types of investments must be clear, fair, and balanced. Sales materials for variable life insurance policies that mention the investment aspects of these products must also dicuss their insurance features in a balanced fashion. Advertisements for single premium variable life insurance policies may emphasize their investment features, provided that an adequate explanation of their insurance features is also included.

Term
Universal Life Insurance
Definition
Term
Traditional Whole Life Insurance
Definition
Term
Term Insurance
Definition
Term

A 72-year-old grandfather wishes to buy an annuity for his son (Age 45) and his grandchild (Age 15). Which type of annuity is best suited for the grandfather's intentions?

A) Life income with 10-year period certain

B) A joint and last survivor annuity

C) A joint annuity in the name of the grandchild and son

D) None of the above

Definition
A joint and last survivor annuity. Benefit payments are made to both people in the joint account, and then to the survivor, for as long as the survivor lives.
Term

The advantages of a variable annuity as compared to a fixed annuity include (choose 2):

I.   Guarantee of a specific return

II.  Absense of investment risk

III. Protection against inflation

IV. Ability to vote regarding changes in investment policy

Definition

III & IV

 

Protection against inflation & Ability to vote regarding changes in investment policy

Term

Normally, the largest expense incurred by an open-end investment company is the:

  1. Sales charge reallowed to the broker-dealers
  2. Custodial fee
  3. Investment advisory fee
  4. Accountant's fee
Definition
Management (investment advisory) fees are normally the largest expense incurred by an open-end investment company (mutual fund).
Term

A client redeems shares of a mutual fund. According to current regulations, a check must be sent within how many days of submitting a redemption notice?

  1. 5 days
  2. 7 days
  3. 10 days
  4. 15 days
Definition
Federal regulation requires that an individual receive payment for the redemption of a mutual fund within seven days.
Term

An investor owns 1,000 shares of a mutual fund. The offering price is $12 per share. The fund charges a 6% sales charge and has a 1% redemption fee. If the investor redeems his shares, he will receive approximately:

  1. $11,167
  2. $11,280
  3. $11,880
  4. $12,000
Definition
The investor owns 1,000 shares of the fund. The offering price is $12 per share. The sales charge is 6% or $0.72 ($12.00 offering price x 6% sales charge = $0.72). The net asset value is equal to $11.28 ($12.00 offering price minus the sales charge of $0.72 = $11.28 net asset value). The investor is selling 1,000 shares of the fund at the net asset value of $11.28. This equals $11,280. Deducting the redemption fee of $112.80 (1% of $11,280) from the net asset value of $11,280 equals approximately $11,167 that the customer receives from the fund.
Term

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the straight life payout option available in a variable annuity?

  1. It is the most conservative method for receiving payments
  2. It allows for a beneficiary for the entire payout period
  3. It provides the maximum cash flow of all payout options
  4. It provides an equal amount each month for the investor's lifetime
Definition
The annuitant will receive the greatest cash flow from the straight life annuity payout option. This option allows the annuitant to receive payments as long as the annuitant is alive. At death, the payments stop. No beneficiary is designated and the insurance company is relieved of its liability to pay the balance of the plan. The annuitant has the greatest degree of risk with this type of payout and is entitled to the greatest cash flow. There are other payout options with less risk. The joint and last survivor life annuity allows payments to be made to two individuals as long as either annuitant is alive. Upon the death of one party, payments are made to the survivor. Upon the death of the survivor, payments cease. The life annuity with period certain entitles the annuitant to have a beneficiary for a specified number of years. If death occurs before the end of the specified period, the remaining payments are made to the beneficiary. If death occurs after the specified period, no further payments are paid to the beneficiary.
Term

A husband and wife are both currently employed. The husband earns $95,000 per year and the wife earns $120,000 per year. Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE concerning contributions to a Roth IRA (choose 2)

  1. The husband may contribute $5,500 per year
  2. The husband may not contribute
  3. The wife may contribute $5,500 per year
  4. The wife may not contribute
Definition
Neither may contribute. Contributions may not be made to a Roth IRA by either spouse since their combined income is in excess of $193,000 per year (for 2014, the limit was $191,000). Although the husband and wife individually earn less than the single allowance limit of $131,000 (for 2014, $129,000) it is not a factor since eligibility must be based on their joint income.
Term

When a beneficiary receives the death benefit from a variable annuity, the amount received is:

  1. Tax-free to the beneficiary
  2. Fully taxable to the beneficiary
  3. Taxable above the cost basis to the annuitant
  4. Taxable above the cost basis to the beneficiary
Definition
When a beneficiary receives the death benefit from a variable annuity, the amount above the cost basis is taxable as ordinary income to the beneficiary.
Term
Leverage
Definition
This is another term for using borrowed assets, AKA margin. This is often used in Hedge Funds.
Term
Regulation T, AKA SEC Payment Period.
Definition

This governs the extension of credit by Broker Dealers. The extension of credit is regulated by the FRB (Federal Reserve Board) as a result of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. This regulation applies to both cash and margin transactions for both listed and unlisted securities. The FRB determines which securities may be purchased on credit through a B/D, when payment must be made, and the amount of credit that may be extended. Marginable securities include:

  • Securities listed on a registered stock exchange
  • Securities listed on Nasdaq

When approved for margin trading by the FRB, a new issue becomes marginable 30 days from the effective date of the offering.

 

OTC Securities cannot be bought with margin. They can be purchased in a Margin Account, but they must be paid for in full at the time of purchase.

 

The margin requirement must be deposited within two business days of the settlement date. Any market price change during this period will not affect the amount of the customer's deposit. A customer initiating a margin transaction will receive a Margin Call (AKA a ___ __ Call.) If the amount owed is $1000 or less, the brokerage firm may ignore this call and simply add it to the amount of the loan on the account.

 

Customer payment for purchases in cash and margin accounts must be made promptly, which typically means T+5. This is not (usually) the same as the settlement date. If the required amounts are not paid within 5 days following the trade date, the broker-dealer is required to cancel the transaction by selling out the securities or seek an extension of time for the client. These payment dates are regulated by the FRB (Federal Reserve Board) and refer to customer payment. These payment requirements are found in the 1934 Act.

 

According to current FRB requirements, equity securities purchased in a cash or margin account must be paid for within two business days of the settlement date of the transaction. Failure to pay within the prescribed period will result in the customer being sold-out. Under exceptional circumstances, a member firm may apply to FINRA or an exchange for an extension of time for the payment of the amount due. This would apply in such circumstances as a delay in the mails, preventing the customer's payment from being received on time. In this case, an extension could be granted by FINRA or an exchange. The B/D must apply for the extension prior to the Reg T deadline.

 

What happens if no extension is granted? The B/D is then required to sell out the position and freeze the account for 90 days. This means the customer must pay for all purchases in advance during the 90 day period. After paying in advance for 90 days, the customer is considered to have reestablished credit and may once again be extended normal credit terms. The practice of purchasing securities without paying for them in the hope of being able to profit without any outlay of funds is called free-riding and is prohibited under FRB Rules.

 

Not all securities are subject to the 1934 Act, which means not all securities are subject to this regulation. Examples of exempt securities include U.S. Treasuries, municipals, and short-term commercial paper. These exempt securities generally must be paid for by their settlement date.

 

If a non-exempt security is in a cash account instead of a margin account, this regulation still applies. In that case, the customer has to pay the full amount by the payment date instead of a smaller percentage.

 

Qualified retirement accounts, IRAs and custodial accounts are not permitted to use margin. Short sales are required to take place in a margin account.

 

The option premium must be paid in full, within the same business period that is allowed for other corporate securities. Options have no loan power, therefore a margin account cannot double buy options with SMA. If a long position matures over a period > 9 months then it has a 25% loan value. LEAPs are marginable if >9 month maturation.

 

Although options are generally not marginable, in some ways using these derivatives may put less capital at risk. For example, if a customer wanted to buy or short stock, she would be required to deposit 50% of the trade amount under this regulation. A customer could choose to establish equivalent positions with either put options (effectively shorting the stock) or call options (effectively going long the stock) for a much lower capital commitment.

 

If a client exercises an option in a margin account, he would be required to meet the deposit requirement on the underlying shares. For example, if a client was long 1 ABC May 60 call and exercised the contract, he would purchase $6000 of stock. Under this regulation, the client must meet the deposit requirement of 50% ($3000) on this purchase. This requirement must be met even if the shares are sold the same day the contract is exercised.

 

Margin is not required when writing covered options, however, uncovered options must be written in a margin account.

Term
Regulation U & X
Definition

Regulation U - This regulation governs the extension of credit by lenders other than B/Ds. This pertains to lenders making loans to investors who use securities as collateral for the loan. This would apply to partners of a member firm who are buying for their own account as well as for customers. The limites that normally apply under this regulation do not apply to transactions by broker-dealers acting as market makers or underwriters. The ability of these dealers to use credit to carry their positions is limited only by the lender's own credit standards.

 

Regulation X - This regulation governs those who borrow to buy securities. This pertains to borrowers within or outside the USA who intend to purchase or transfer U.S. securities that are regulated under the Fed's Reulations T & U. Borrowers who are subject to Reg X must ensure that the credit they secure is legitimate under reg T or U.

 

A borrower is subject to Reg X if he a) is within the United States and causes credit to be gained unlawfully without adhering to Reg T or U or b) is considered a U.S. Person (aka a company incorporated in the US or a US resident) who is outside the US and acquires credit to purchase or transfer US securities, or a non-US person who is directed by or acting on behalf of or with a US person.

Term
The current Reg T. initial margin requirements for both long and short stock is _%.
Definition

50%. The customer puts up half of the required amount and the firm lends the other half.

 

This is the minimum requirement, each financial institution can have requirements that exceed the minimum. These in-house maintenance margin requirements can be increased at any time, without advance written notice. The ability of a firm to increase these requirements is usually disclosed in the firm's Margin Disclosure Statement. A B/D is required to provide 30-day advance written notice of changes to be made to the terms and conditions under which credit charges (ie interest) will be made, excluding those changes required by law.

 

A customer may meet a Reg T Call by depositing cash equal to the amount of the call, or by depositing fully paid marginable securities. If securities are used in lieu of cash, the customer must deposit securities with a market value of twice the amount of the call. Securities have only a 50% loan value.

 

Customer payment for purchases in cash and margin accounts must be made promptly, which typically means T+5. This is not (usually) the same as the settlement date. If the required amounts are not paid within 5 days following the trade date, the broker-dealer is required to cancel the transaction by selling out the securities or seek an extension of time for the client. Reg T payment dates are regulated by the FRB (Federal Reserve Board) and refer to customer payment. These payment requirements are found in the 1934 Act.

 

Term
SRO Maintenance Requirements - FINRA's maintenance requirements for equity positions purchased on margin are _% for the long market value, and _% for the short market value
Definition

20%, 30%. These requirements are applicable when the market value of a position fluctuates. If the account is coombined, the requirement is 30% of the SMV + 20% of the LMV.

 

These are the minimum requirements, each financial institution can have requirements that exceeds the minimum. These in-house maintenance margin requirements can be increased at any time, without advance written notice. The ability of a firm to increase these requirements is usually disclosed in the firm's Margin Disclosure Statement. A B/D is required to provide 30-day advance written notice of changes to be made to the terms and conditions under which credit charges (ie interest) will be made, excluding those changes required by law.

 

A customer may meet a Reg T Call by depositing cash equal to the amount of the call, or by depositing fully paid marginable securities. If securities are used in lieu of cash, the customer must deposit securities with a market value of twice the amount of the call. Securities have only a 50% loan value.

 

If a client is long and short an equal number of shares of the same security, the maintenance requirement is equal to 5% of the long position.

Term
Uniform Practice Code
Definition
This regulates settlement dates, aka the timing of payment and delivery between member firms.
Term
The Margin Agreement (consists of 3 agreements)
Definition
  1. The Credit Agreement - By signing this, a customer recognizes that she is borrowing funds from the firm and is responsible for payment of interest and repayment of the loan amount. The agreement will diclose all the credit terms. The interest rate is variable and is typically tied to the broker call loan rate. The brokerage firm usually charges the customer an additional percentage above this rate. Margin interest is charged on a daily basis and is posted to the customer's account monthly. The interest paid by an investor in a margin account will be added to the debit balance and is generally tax-deductible against any investment income. However, since municipal bonds pay tax exempt interest, the interest an investor pays to buy municipal bonds on margin is not considered a deductible expense. When a margin account is opened for a customer, the member firm must send the customer a statement of the amount of interest that will be charged and the method by which interest will be computed. A B/D that extends credit to a customer must disclose:
    • Conditions under which interest charges will be imposed
    • The annual rate or rates that may be imposed
    • The method of computing interest
    • Whether the rates are subject to change without prior notice and the specific condition(s) under which they may be changed
    • The method of determining the debit balances on which interest will be charged and whether credit is given for credit balances
  2. Hypothecation Agreement- This states that the customer hypothecates (pledges) his securities to the brokerage firm and gives the firm the right to rehypothecate the securities to secure the loan at a bank. The firm may pledge an amount equal to 140% of the customer's debit balance (DR). All securities in excess of 140% must be segregated. Securities in a margin account are held in the name of the brokerage firm in street name. The securities are held in street name so that the brokerage firm may sell them should the customer not meet a margin call. The brokerage firm is the nominal owner (owner in name only). The stock actually belongs to the customer who is the beneficial owner. A B/D may not borrow more than it lent its customer. The 140% rehypothecation rule applies to the amount of stock that may be used as collateral, not the amount that may be borrowed by the B/D.
  3. Loan Consent Agreement - If a B/D wishes to lend a customer's stock to another B/D, it may only do so if the customer has signed a this agreement. This is generally a part of the margin agreement, but requires a separate signature. Note that a customer does not need to sign the loan consent agreement in order to open a margin account. Her consent is optional. If the stock is fully paid for, the customer would be required to sign a separate written consent agreement, in addition to the signed loan consent in the margin agreement. This must be done before the B/D can lend the stock. When stock is lent from one B/D to another, the lender has the right to recall the stock at any time. The borrower is required to deposit the full market value of the stock at the time of the loan, not the Regulation T requirement. The lender of the stock retains all rights to the stock, except for the right to vote.

Who borrows these shares? Traditionally, shares are lent to short sellers seeking to profit from the fall in a security's price. Short sellers are required to execute trades in a margin account since they are borrowing shares, and the position must be marked to market just as would be the case with traditional stock buyers employing margin. Reg. T requires both stock buyers and short sellers to put up an initial deposit of 50% of their trades. SRO rules, however, will differ regarding the treatment of long and short positions.

 

With initial margin requirements set at 50%, an investor is able to purchase twice the amount of securities in a margin account that she otherwise would with the same amount of money in a cash account. The downside to this use of financial leverage is that future deposits may be required if the account value falls below the minimum maintenance requirements.


If any changes are made to the conditions of the this agreement, the B/D must provide advanced written notice at least 30 days prior to the changes.

Term
Broker Call Loan Rate
Definition
This is the rate charged by a brokerage firm when it borrows money from a bank. The brokerage firm usually charges the customer an additional percentage above this rate. Margin interest is charged on a daily basis and is posted to the customer's account monthly.
Term
Margin Disclosure Document
Definition

The use of margin entails additional risks. For this reason, brokerage firms are required to furnish all margin customers with a risk disclosure document at the time of account opening and annually thereafter. The disclosure document must include the following risk disclosures:

  • You can lose more funds than you deposit in a margin account.
  • The firm can force the sale of securities or other assets in your account(s).
  • The firm can sell your securities or other assets without contacting you.
  • You are not entitled to choose which securities or other assets in your account(s) are liquidated or sold to meet a margin call.
  • The firm can increase its housing maintenance margin requirements at any time and is not required to provide you with advance written notice.
  • You are not entitled to an extension of time on a margin call.

A written statement must be sent at least quarterly to all customers to whom credit is extended. If any changes are made to the conditions of the margin agreement that the customer signed at the time of opening their account, the B/D must provide advanced written notice at least 30 days prior to the changes.

Term
LMV, SMV, DR, CR, EQ, Combined EQ
Definition
  1. Long Market Value & Short Market Value, both = current price of the securities
  2. Debit = $ value of the outstanding loan
  3. Credit = Proceeds of sale + margin deposit
  4. Equity = MV - DR or Equity = CR - MV
  5. Combined Equity = LMV - DR + CR - SMV

The excess equity will be 50% of how much the market is in your favor.

Term
SMA (Special Memorandum Account)
Definition

A rise in the market value of a long position will generate excess equity. If a margin account generates excess equity, an equal amount of equity will be noted and kept track of in a ______ ______ ______. This refers to the amount that may with withdrawn from a margin account. This is not cash, nor is it equity. It is simply a line or credit established with the B/D. Once established, decreases in market value will not have an effect on this. If the account is out of this, no funds may be borrowed by the investor.

 

In addition to increases in market value, the following items will generate this:

  • Cash dividends on stock owned in the account (100%)
  • Interest on bonds owned in the account
  • Voluntary cash deposits made by the customer
  • Proceeds from the sale of securities in the account

This is generated because these items are used to pay down the debit balance and thus increase excess equity.

 

If a customer does withdraw cash, the debit balance will increase by the amount withdrawn. This withdrawal also causes the equity in the account to decrease proportionately.

 

If income is received from margined investments, such as dividends, the amount deposited in the account will be used to reduce the outstanding debit balance. This will also be credited with an amount equal to 100% of all cash dividends credited to the account. 

 

A customer's account is said to have buying power because this may also be used to purchase securities. With the Reg T requirement at 50%, buying power is equal to 2*this. If this is taken advantage of, then the debit balance will increase by 2*this, since the firm is actually lending the entire amount of the purchase, but the equity in the account will remain the same.

 

If the withdrawal of ____ causes the account equity to fall below the minumum maintenance requirements, the customer cannot withdraw the funds. In this case, ___ is referred to as phantom ___.

Term
Restricted Margin Account (<50% Equity)
Definition

While an increase in the market value may result in excess equity, a decline may cause a margin account to become restricted. An account becomes restricted when the equity falls below the 50% Reg T requirement for the securities in the account, but is still greater than the 25% minimum maintenance requirement. When this happens, the customer may still make initial purchases in the account by meeting the initial Reg-T requirement for the new purchase. It is not necessary to deposit enough cash to bring the entire account up to the Reg-T requirement. 

 

Upon the sale of securities in a restricted account, the entire sales proceeds are used to reduce the debit balance. However, an amount equal to only half of the entire sale is credited to SMA and may be withdrawn by the customer. If the SMA is withdrawn, then the customer's debit balance will rise by that amount.

 

If the withdrawal of SMA causes the account equity to fall below the minumum maintenance requirements, the customer cannot withdraw the funds. In this case, SMA is referred to as phantom SMA. It may be withdrawn only when equity returns to an acceptable level.

 

A purchase and sale of securities on the same day in a restricted account is called a same-day substitution. If the amount of the purchase and sale is the same, no additional deposit is required. If the sale is for a greater amount than the purchase, SMA will be credited for an amount equal to 50% of the net sale proceeds.

 

When a maintenance call is issued, the call must be met promptly. It may be met by depositing cash equal to the amount of the call, by liquidating securities, or by depositing fully paid securities.

Term
What would the value of the portfolio have to drop to if it were to equal the minimum maintenance level for long positions? Short positions?
Definition
  1. DR/(1-0.25)
  2. CR*(1-0.3)
Term
SEC Reg SHO
Definition

A person is considered an owner of a security if he has purchased the security or entered into an unconditional and binding contract (on both parties) to make the purchase, but has not yet received the security. A person is considered an owner of a security if he holds a security futures contract to purchase the security and has received notification that the position will be physically settled and he will receive the underlying position.

 

The order marking requirement entails that a B/D mark all sell orders either as long or short. This applies to equity securities that are traded over the counter, on Nasdaq, or on an exchange.

Long - The seller owns the security being sold and it is either in the possession or control of the B/D, or it is reasonably expected that the security will be delivered no later than the settlement day

Short - The seller owns the security being sold, but does not reasonably believe that it will be in the possession or control of the B/D prior to the settlement day, or the seller does not own the security being sold, or any sale that is effected by the delivery of a borrowed security.

Short Exempt - A sale order in which the seller has a technical exemption from SEC Rule 201 (typically this exemption is applicable to market makers.

 

Prior to effecting a short sale, a B/D must locate securities that can be used for delivery by the settlement date. This requirement protects against uncovered short selling abuses.

 

A B/D may not accept an order to sell short an equity security for a person, or for its own account, unless one of the following locate conditions is met:

  • The B/D has borrowed the security or entered into an arrangement to borrow the security.
  • The B/D reasonably believes that it can borrow the security for delivery on the date delivery is due.

The B/D effecting a short sale transaction must document either of the aforementioned conditions that apply.

 

In order to aid in the process of locating securities, the SEC has accepted the use of Easy to Borrow lists. These lists, which must be less than 24 hours old, provide reasonable grounds for belief that a security on the list will be available to be borrowed. The securities on the list must be readily available to avoid fails to deliver. Use of an Easy to Borrow list expedited the fulfillment of the locate provision.

Term
Industry Initial Requirements for Long and Short Margin Positions
Definition

Long = min($2000, 100% purchase price)

Short = max($2000, required Reg T deposit)

 

If the short position will bring in less than $5 per share, the minimum equity deposit is:

max($2.50/share, market value)

 

If the market value is $5 per share or more, the minimum equity deposit is:

max($5/share, 30% market value)

Term
Margin Requirements for Securities that are exempt from Reg T but can still be purchased on Margin (9)
Definition
Margin requirements for exempt securities are set by the SROs
  1. US Government Obligations - The margin requirement is a percentage of the current market value ranging from 1% for governments with less than one year to maturity to a maximum of 6% for securities with 20 years or more to maturity. This is both the initial and the maintenance requirement.
  2. Municipal Obligations - Subject to a margin requirement of 7% of the market value. This is both the initial and the maintenance requirement. Although no law specifically prohibits this practice, investors should not enter short sales involving municipal securities. This is due to the lack of liquidity in the secondary markets and the possible difficulty in closing the short position.
  3. Nonconvertible Corporate Bonds - All listed, as well as certain OTC, nonconvertible corporate bonds may be purchased on margin. Investment-grade debt is subject to a requirement of 10% of the market value. Non-investment grade debbt is subject to a requirement of 20% of current market value or 7% of the principal amount, whichever is greater. This is both the initial and the maintenance requirement.
  4. Convertible Corporate Bonds - The FRB requirement is 50% of the market price of the bond.
  5. Arbitrage Position - If a client is long a security that is convertible into an equal number of shares of a short position carried by the same client, the maintenance requirement is 10% of the current market value of the long position. 
  6. Short Against the Box - If a client is long and short an equal number of shares of the same security, the maintenance requirement is equal to 5% of the long position.
  7. New Issues - An investor must wait 30 days to purchase a primary offering on margin.
  8. Investment Company Securities - Open end investment company securities, such as mutual fund shares and unit investment trusts are marginable securities under Reg T and may be used as collateral in a margin account. However, the purchase of investment company securities is also subject to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, which prevents the extension of credit on a new issue by a participant in the distribution for 30 days. Therefore, a dealer for a mutual fund may not extend credit on the initial purchase of shares. However, once the shares have been held for 30 days, they may be used as collateral for a loan in a margin account at the dealer. In summary, the shares may not be purchased on margin but do eventually become marginable.
  9. Leveraged ETFs - Due to their inherant leverage, these products have special maintenance requirements in excess of the typical SRO thresholds of 25% on long and 30% on short. The margin requirement on these securities is can be computed by multiplying the portfolio leverage factor by the standard SRO maintenance requirement. 
Term
Day Trading Margin
Definition

Special rules apply to accounts of pattern day traders, ie, a customer who day trades four or more times in a

five-business-day period. Day trading is defined as the purchasing and selling or the selling and purchasing of the same security on the same day in a margin account, except for a) a long position held overnight and sold the next day prior to any new purchase of the same security or b) a short position held overnight and purchased the next day prior to any new sale of the same security.

 

If a customer meets the definition of a pattern day trader, but the number of day trades is 6% or less of total trades for the five-business-day period, the customer will not be considered a pattern day trader. On the other hand, if the B/D knows, or has reasonable basis to believe, that a customer opening an account or resuming day trading will engage in a pattern of day trading, the firm may impose the special day trading margin requirements immediately.

 

Pattern Day Traders have a minimum equity requirement of $25,000, rather than the normal minimum requirement of $2,000. This required minimum must be deposited in the account before day trading activity begins.

 

Day trading buying power is limited to four times the trader's maintenance margin excess, determined as of the close of the previous business day. If a day trader exceeds her buying power limitations, she must meet a day trading margin call within five business days. During the time the margin call is outstanding, the account is restricted to buying power of two times maintenance margin excess. If the margin call is not met by the fifth business day, trading in the account is restricted to a cash-available basis for 90 days or until the call is met. Funds deposited to meet the minimum equity requirement or a day trading call must remain on deposit in the account for at least two business days.

 

Pattern day traders are not permitted to meet day trading margin requirements through the use of cross-guarantees. Each day trading account must meet the requirements independently, based only on the resources in that account. This prohibits cross-guarantees not only between accounts of different customers, but also between different accounts of the same customer.

 

Day trading strategies entail additional risks. For this reason member firsm must furnish a disclosure document to all customers prior to their engaging in day trading. The risk disclosure document may be furnished in paper or electronic form. The disclosure document should highlight the following information:

  • day trading can be extremely risky
  • you should be wary of claims of large profits from day trading
  • day trading requires knowledge of securities markets
  • day trading requires knowledge of a firm's operations
  • day trading will generate substantial commissions, even if the per-trade cost is low.
  • day trading on margin or short selling may result in losses beyond your initial investment
Term
Portfolio-Based Margin
Definition

This is a more accurate method of identifying the risk in a margin account. This methodology is based on the assumption that combinations of positions established by an investor may have offsetting risk characteristics. Margin is calculated based on the net risks of the eligible instruments in a customer's account. This is a more sophisticated way of guaging the client's postion, based on the overall level of risk in the account. For example, is a client is long stock and long a put, the core stock position would be hedged. 

 

This would only look at the loss potential of these combined positions. This permits a better alignment of margin requirements based on the net risk of the entire portfolio. For that reason, this is sometimes referred to as risk-based margining.

 

The benefit of this is that it permits clients to use a greater amount of leverage for a given amount of capital, provided the account is appropriately hedged. Traditionally, hedge funds have been some of the most frequent users of the additional leverage afforded these margin customers.

 

The following products are eligible for this:

  •  All margin equity securities
  • Listed options
  • Security futures products
  • Unlisted derivatives
  • Warrants
  • Index warrants and related instruments

 This sets margin requirements for an account based on the greatest projected net loss of all positions in a product class or group using an SEC approved computer modeling system to perform risk analysis and using multiple pricing scenarios. The model uses the various pricing scenarios to measure risk and calculates the margin requirements accordingly. The scenarios are designed to measure the theoretical loss of the positions, assuming changes in both the underlying price and implied volatility of the model. Accordingly, the margin required is based on the greatest loss that will be incurred in a portfolio if the value of its components move up or down by a predetermined amount. The eligible products have different theoretical valuation ranges. For example:

  • Highly capitalized broad-based indices use a potential market increase of 6% and a decrease of 8%.
  • Non-highly capitalized broad-based indices use a potential market increase of 10% and a decrease of 10%.
  • Equity options, narrow-based index options, and/or security futures use a potential market increase of 15% and a downside of 15%.

The goal of portfolio margining is to reduce excess margin calls and to lower the risk of forced position liquidations. The end result is that there will normally be a reduction in the net margin requiremtn, if postions are hedged appropriately.

 

Portfolio margin is not available to small retail clients. The following entities are permitted to engage in portfolio margining:

  1.  Any broker or dealer registered with the SEC under the Exchange Act.
  2. Any member of a national futures exchange to the extent that listed index options, unlisted derivatives, ETF options, index warrants or underlying instruments hedge the member's index futures.
  3. Any person approved to engage in uncovered option contracts. If a customer wants to trade unlisted derivatives, the customer must maintain equity of at least $5000000 at all times. Prior to offering a portfolio margining methodology, a B/D must develop a profile of customers who will be eligible for it. The B/D must put in place an approval process and implement minimum equity requirements for customers eligible to use this.

The benefit of portfolio margining is that clients typically have lower margin requirements. Nevertheless, portfolio margining may expose them to unexpected risks, due to the greater leverage afforded. If an account falls below the minimum maintenance margin, all calls must be met within three business days. FINRA requires that customers using a portfolio margin account receive a disclosure document and sign an acknowledgement form prior to their initial transaction.

 

This disclosure document must describe the special risks associated with portfolio margin accounts, which include the following:

  • portfolio margining normally allows for greater leverage in an account, which may lead to larger losses in the event of adverse market movements
  • because the maximum time for meeting a margin deficiency is shorter than in a standard margin account, the risk is greater that a customer's portfolio margin account will be liquidated involuntarily.

Due to the extremely sophisticated mathematical calculations and theoretical values used in portfolio margining, customers may not be able to predict the size of future margin deficiencies.

Term
(T/F) The credit agreement stipulates that a customer pledge his securities to the Broker-Dealer. True or False?
Definition
False, that's the hypothecation agreement. The credit agreement stipulates that the customer recognizes that s/he is borrowing funds from the firm and is responsible for payment of interest and repayment of the loan.
Term
Industry Rules - Regulatory Documentation
Definition

Under FINRA rules, all policies and procedures used to supervise a firm must be documented within a WSP (Written Supervisory Procedures) manual. This manual must cover the scope and nature of the firm's business activities and methods of operation. It also must specify the detailed responsibilities of all supervisors and the review procedures they are required to follow. The procedures must be designed so that the designated supervisor(s) can implement the plan and be able to detect and prevent violations of the procedures. The written procedures also must explain the method by which completed supervisory reviews are documented. A record of the names of supervisory personnel and the dates on which their designation became effective must be prepared and maintained for three years, and the record must be kept in an easily accessible location for the first two years.

 

In addition to the requirement to maintain written procedures, a member B/D must make a current copy of the FINRA Manual available for examination by customers upon request. The Manual may be maintained and made available in electronic format if the member chooses. There is no requirement for a member to interpret the rules for customers or to send a copy to clients.

 

Firms are required to provide FINRA with details regarding their organizational structure. FINRA uses various designations for physical locations that depend on the activities performed at each location. Once a location has been categorized, different personnel requirements and inspection cycles apply.

Term
OSJ (Office of Supervisory Jurisdiction) vs Non-OSJ Locations
Definition

Under industry rules, a member firm must appoint a principal to supervise the activities of any location defined as an OSJ. An OSJ includes any location at which one or more of the following activities occur:

  • Market Making and/or order execution
  • Structuring of public offerings or private placements
  • Maintaining custody of customers' funds and/or securities
  • Final Acceptance (approval) of new accounts
  • Review and endorsement of customer orders
  • Final approval of retail communications
  • Responsibility for supervising other branch offices

An OSJ must:

  • Have a General Securities Principal on the premises
  • Maintain a copy of the firm's WSPs
  • Maintain a complaint file

This is the alternative to a location being considered a branch office. A branch office of a B/D is considered to be where one or more of the firm's associated personnel regularly prospect for customers or solicit existing customers. In essence, as long as a location is not involved in one or more of the bulleted activities just covered, it is considered a non-OSJ branch office (usually referred to simply as a branch or branch office) A non-OSJ branch office may be supervised either by a principal or a competant registered representative.

Term
Industry Rules - Prohibited and Fraudulent Practices (10)
Definition
  1. Forgery - This is signing someone else's name to a document without authorization or causing another person to do so. Obviously, forgery is a serious offense that may result in criminal prosecution as well as regulatory sanctions. RRs must also be careful not to inadvertantly commit a technical forgery. This occurs when well-meaning RRs sign a client's name to a document believing that the client's authorization was obtained.
  2. Guarantees - Employees of member firms may not guarantee against losses in customer accounts or transactions within customer accounts, nor may they reimburse a customer for their losses in any way.
  3. Parking - This refers to the practice of temporarily holding a position for a customer, often to avoid certain regulatory filings or net capital requirements. 
  4. Failure to Follow Customer Instructions - It is a fraudulent practice to knowingly fail to follow a customer's instructions regarding his account. Even if the agent believes that the customer's instructions are not in his best interest, the agent is not permitted to ignore them.
  5. Use of Stockholder Information - A member firm that acts on behalf of a corporation as a trustee is not allowed to use information about the corporation's shareholders for solicitations purposes. However, if the corporation directs the firm to do so, this would be permitted.
  6. Failure to Protect the Confidentiality of Client Information - Firms and RRs are not permitted to release client information to a third party, including spouses, attorneys, and accountants, without the written consent of the account owner. Exceptions to this prohibition exist if the firm is legally bound to release information to parties such as the SEC or IRS.
  7. Undue Influence - A FINRA member firm is prohibited from influencing third parties or outside parties to comment favorably on any security that it is advertising to its clients. For example, a member firm is not allowed to compensate a newspaper employee to make favorable comments about an investment company security it is recommending.
  8. Transactions Executed at Artificial Levels - Transations must be made at the prevailing market prices and brokers are prohibited from adjusting prices, except if the trade is being made on an as of (a prior day's) basis to correct an error. Brokers are prohibited from adjusting prices to alter a portfolio manager's realized profit or loss.
  9. Commingling of Funds - Securities owned by the clients must be kept separate from those owned by the B/D. Customer securitied must be segregated from the firm's securities and identified in a way that clearly shows each individual customer's ownership interest in the securities. This is true even for securities registered in street name.
  10. Misrepresentation of SIPC or FINRA Membership - Firms may inform clients that they are FINRA or SIPC members. They may not imply that SIPC membership protects a client against market losses or that FINRA membership denotes any type of endorsement or approval from the Regulators.
Term
Industry Rules - Compensation Issues (5% Markup Rule)
Definition

The tug of war between a salesperson seeking compensation and serving the needs of a client has always been an area of concern for managers. 

 

FINRA members are not permitted to charge prices or commissions that are unfair or excessive. To assist members in determining the level of charges that are fair, FINRA has a general guideline called the 5% markup policy that provide a general framework to judge the reasonableness of compensation of a given transaction. Stated in terms of commissions, this policy applies to markups, markdowns and commissions. The rule applies to both exchange-listed and non-exchange-listed securities, and applies whether a B/D is acting in a principal or agency capacity.

 

There are some guidelines for determining what is excessive and what is fair. 5% is just a guideline. It is possible in certain circumstances to justify higher markups, but conversely, there are times when even 5% is too much. Here are some factors to consider in determining when a markup is excessive (7):

  •  The type of security involved - Some securities carry higher markups than others as a matter of industry practice. For example, the markups on common stock or limited partnership units are typically higher than markups on bonds.
  • The availability of the security in the market - If more effort is required to locate a particular security and execute a transaction, a higher markup is justified.
  • The price of the security - The percentage of markup generally increases as the price of the security decreases, since lower-priced securities may require more handling and expense.
  • The amount of money involved in a transaction - A transaction for a small total amount may require greater handing expenses on a proportionate basis than a larger transaction.
  • Disclosure - Disclosure to the customer that the circumstances may warrant a higher-than-normal markup helps to make the dealer's case. However, the circumstances also must justify the charges. Disclosure in their absense does not justify a higher markup.
  • The pattern of markups - FINRA tends to be most severe with cases that show a persistent pattern of excessive markups. Hoever, the markup in each transaction must be justified on its own merits.
  • The nature of the B/D's business - Firms that offer services to customers, such as research, can justify markups higher than those of firms that do not offer such services. However, if a firm has high expenses that do not benefit customers, these expenses would not justify higher charges.

Proceed transactions are those in which the customer directs the member firm to sell a security and use the proceeds of the sale to buy another security. In this case, the member firm should compute the markup in the same manner as if the customer had purchased for cash and should include any compensation on the customer's sale as well as the firm's profit on the customer's purchase. For example, suppose a customer instructs a member firm to selll $5000 of ABC and use the proceeds to purchase $5000 of XYZ stock. When computing the percentage markup, the member firm should use its total compensation (from both the sutomer's pale and purchase) as a percentage of the $5000 customer proceeds from the sale.

 

Securities that require the delivery of a prospectus or offering circular are exempt from the 5% policy because these issues are sold at a specific public offering price.


Churning is defined as excessive trading-- Typically for the purpose of generating additional compensation. How much trading is excessive? There are no specific standards to answer this question. It depends on the investment objectives and financial situation of the client involved. There is no number of trades or percentage of portfolio turnover that constitutes a violation. Rather, the trading activity is viewed in light of the customer's objective. Also, there is no need for a client to lose money for a violation to occur. 

 

With regards to discretionary accounts: Discretion does not mean that a RR may trade excessively. All trading must be suitable as to type, size, and frequency.


Employees of FINRA members may not share in profits or losses in a customer's account unless the employee has made a financial contribution to the account and shares in the profits or losses in direct proportion to the employee's financial contribution. The written authorization of the employee's member firm must be obtained prior to engaging in this activity.

 

A RR may not offer to split commissions with a nonregistered person. An RR also may not offer to rebate commissions to a customer for previous transactions.


Some IAs (Investment Advisors) receive research and other service from B/Ds in return for executing transactions for their advisory clients through the B/D. These agreements are known as soft-dollar arrangements. The advisor is permitted to receive research reports, software, seminars, and other services for the benefit of clients. However, the advisor is NOT permitted to receive reimbursements for travel expenses, furniture, or equipment, since these would primarily benefit the IA, not the client. The SEC has sanctioned B/Ds that have provided products and services to IAs under soft dollar arrangements that were clearly not acceptable.


A member firm may charge its customers for such services as safekeeping of securities, collection of dividends and interest, and exchange or transfer of securities, if such charges are reasonable and do not unfairly discriminate between customers. A member firm may not charge a customer for forwarding proxies or other reports from a corporation. The member firm is required to forward such material to the customer if the corporation reimburses the member firm for the expenses involved.

Term
Industry Rules - Penny Stock Regulations
Definition

The SEC has adopted several rules regarding the solicitation and sale of low-priced OTC stock. These rules were created to prevent certain types of abusive cales practices and to ensure that investors are provided with information about the penny stock market.

 

According to SEC rules, a penny stock is any equity postion, except:

  • Exchange-traded stocks (listed on the NYSE or Nasdaq)
  • Investment company securities
  • OCC-listed puts and calls
  • Securities with a market value of at least $5 per share
  • Securities whose issuer has net tangible assets exceeding $5 million if in a continuous operation for less than three years, or an average revenue of at least $6 million for the last three years.

Any security listed on a national exchange (NYSE, Nasdaq) is exempt from the definition of a penny stock regardless of the price at which it is being quoted. For securities quoted on the OTCBB and in the pink market, if the bid price is $5 or higher, the security is not defined as a penny stock.

 

SEC Rules 15g-1 through 15g-6 require that customers be provided with specific information if B/Ds effect penny stock transactions for them. Prior to effecting any transaction for a customer in a penny stock, the B/D must provide the customer with a risk disclosure document on penny stocks. The document must contain language specified by the SEC describing the risks involved in penny stock investing and summarizing other disclosures the B/D must make to the customer.

 

In addition, for each penny stock transaction, the B/D must disclose to the customer:

  • The current quote for the security
  • The compensation the B/D will receive for the transaction
  • The compensation the registered representative will receive for the transaction

If a B/D has sold a security to a customer that meets the definition of a penny stock as of the last trading day of any month, the B/D must provide a monthly statement as long as the security is held in the customer's account with the B/D. The statement must include the ID and # of shares of each penny stock held for the customer's account, and the estimated market value for the security, to the extent it can be determined.

 

Exemptions: Securities sold in the following transactions are NOT subject to the penny stock disclosure rules:

  • Transactions with an institutional accredited investor (Institutional here means accredited investors, as defined in Reg D on private placements, who are not individuals.)
  • Private placements
  • Transactions with the issuer, officers, directors, general partners, or 5% owners of the company's stock.
  • Transactions that are not recommended by the B/D
  • Transactions by a B/D whose commissions and markups from penny stocks do not exceed 5% of its total commissions and markups

SEC Rule 15g-9 (AKA the Cold Call Rule) places certain conditions on the way B/Ds solicit penny stock transactions from customers.

 

Prior to the purchase of a penny stock by a customer, a B/D must obtain from the customer a written agreement to the transaction indicating the ID and # of shares of the penny stock to be purchased. The B/D must also approve the person's account for penny stock transactions according to the procedures outlined next:

  • The B/D must determine that penny stock transactions are suitable for the customer based on information about the customer's financial situation and investment objectives.
  • The B/D must deliver to the customer a written statement regarding this suitability determination
  • The B/D must obtain from the customer a manually signed and dated copy of the statement

The following transactions are exempt from Rule 15g-9 as follows:

  • Transactions with institutional accredited investors
  • Private placement transactions
  • Transactions with the issuer, officers, directors, general partners, or owners of 5% or more of the company's stock
  • Transactions that are not recommended by the B/D
  • Transactions by a B/D whose commissions and markups from penny stocks do not exceed 5% of its total commissions and markups
  • Transactions with established customers

An established customer is one for whom the B/D (or its clearing firm) carries an account and who has effected a securities transaction, or made a deposit of funds or securities, more than one year previously, or has made three purchases of penny stocks (from three different issuers on three separate days.) Note that established customers are not exempt from the penny stock disclosure rules.

Term
Industry Rules - Regulation of Communications
Definition

FINRA defines communications with the public into three major categories

  1. Correspondence - Traditionally this has been viewed as any communication sent to one person. The typical delivery methods include physical (paper) written letters, text messages, and email. Today, FINRA's new definition is more precise. Correspondence is now defined as written or electronic communications sent by a member firm to 25 or fewer retail investors (existing clients or propects) within any 30-calendar-day-period.
  2. Institutional Communications - This category includes any type of written or electronic communication that is distributed or made available only to institutional investors. The category does not include a member firm's internal communications. FINRA defines institutional investors as:
    • Banks, savings and loans, insurance companies, registered investment companies, and registered investment advisors
    • Government entities and their subdivisions
    • Employee benefit plans, such as 403(b) and 457 plans, and other qualified plans with at least 100 participants
    • B/Ds and their RRs
    • Individuals or entities with total assets of at least $50 million
    • Persons acting solely on behalf of these institutional investors
Under FINRA rules, a member firm must have policies and procedures in place that are designed to prevent institutional communications from being forwarded to retail investors. One acceptable method is to place a legend on the communication stating "For Use by Institutional Investors Only." If a member firm becomes aware that an institutional investor (e.g., another B/D) is making institutional communications available to retail investors, the firm would be required to treat future communications to that institutional investor as retail communications.

3.           Retail Communications - Written or electronic         communications that are distributed or made                available to more than 25 retail investors within a 30-calendar-day period. A retail investor is considered a person who does not meet the

definition of an institutional investor.

 

Retail communications are the broadest category and includes both advertising and sales literature. All materials prepared for the public media in which the ultimate audience is unknown are considered retail communications, including:

    • TV, Radio, and Billboards
    • Magazines and newspapers
    • Certain websites and online interactive electronic forums, such as chat rooms, blogs, or social networking sites (assuming retail investors have access to these sites)
    • Telemarketing and sales scripts
    • Independently prepared reprints that are sent to more than 25 retail investors

Social media sites fall under the guidelines of a public appearance and certain disclosures may need to be made. Since firms may not be able to monitor their RR's activities on these sites, most firms do not permit RRs to use these systems to communicate with customers or to conduct business.
 
Correspondence and institutional communications must be supervised and monitored by the member firm, but are not required to be approved by a principal prior to use. However, as a general rule, retail communications must be approved by a qualified principal. This approval must be obtained either before the communications are released to the public, or before they are filed with FINRA, whichever event comes first (AKA preuse approval.) Firms are not only required to maintain a file containing all approved communications for three years after the last date of use, but these communications must also be kept in an easily accessible location for the first two years. The file must contain copies of the communications, the dates of the first and last use, the name of the approving principal, and the date on which the approval was given. In the event that a specific form of retail communication is not required to receive principal preapproval, the name of the person who prepared or distributed the communication must be maintained by the member firm for three years from the date of last use.
 
As previously mentioned, most retail communications must be approved prior to first use by an appropriately approved and qualified registered principal (typically a Series 24 or Series 9/10 registered person). A supervisory analyst who has Series 16 registration may aprove research reports concerning debt and equity securities, as well as other research related communications. Certain forms of retail communications must be approved by supervisors who have specific registrations. For example, any communication that pertains to options will require the approval of options principal (Series 4 registration)
 
In the following circumstances, retail communications do not require principal preapproval:
  • Another firm has previously filed the communications with FINRA and it has not been materially altered.
  • The communication was posted on an online interactive electronic forum (Social Media)
  • The communication does not make a financial or investment recommendation, does not promote the firm's products or services, and is not a research report.
This last exception applies to most routine communications between registered representatives and their customers. It also applies to most routine communications between registered representatives and their customers. It also applies to market letters since they are not considered research reports. Firms must still monitor these retail communications in the same way they handle correspondence. Generally, if retail communications do not require preapproval, then they are not required to be filed with FINRA.
 
Correspondence and institutional communications are not required to be filed with FINRA, but, they are subject to spot-checking by FINRA.
 
Depending on the content of the retail communications, some types are required to be filed with FINRA 10 business days prior to their first use, while other types are required to be filed within 10 business days of their first use. If pre-use filing is required, a firm may not use the material until it is in a form that is acceptable to FINRA.
 
For the first year as a FINRA member, a new prokerage firm is required to file with FINRA all broadly disseminated retail communications 10 businessdays prior to their first use. The term broadly disseminated is meant to indicate that the materials have been created for generally accessible websites, print media, tv or radio. FINRA may also require any firm that has had disciplinary issues to file some or all of its communications 10 business days prior to use.
 
Some of the additional forms or retail communications that must be filed with FINRA at least 10 business days prior to their first use include material pertaining to:
  • Registered investment companies that includes rankings or comparisons that have been created by the investment company itself
  • Security futures
  • Bond mutual funds that includes volatility ratings
On the other hand, retail communications that pertain to the following products must be filed with FINRA within 10 business days of being published:
  • Registered Investment companies (provided the material does not include fund-created rankings or comparisons). This category includes mutual funds, closed-end funds, exchange-traded funds, unit investment trusts, and variable products.
  • Publicly traded DPPs (Direct Participation Programs)
  • SEC-registered CMOs (Collateralized Mortgage Obligations)
  • Any security registered with the SEC and derived from or based on a single security, a basket or securities, an index, commodity, a debt issuance, or a foreign currency. This includes publicly offered structured products (such as ETNs).
If a B/D has previously filed a draft version or storyboard of a TV or video retail communication pursuant to a filing requirement, it must also file the final filmed version within 10 business days of first use or broadcast.
 
With each filing made to FINRA, a member firm is required to provide the name, title, and CRD (Central Registration Depository) number of the registered principal who approved the retail communication along with the date on which the approval was given.
 
All of the written and electronic communications created by a member firm may be subject to
spot-check procedures. FINRA may request that certain communications be submitted within a certain time frame that is specified by FINRA's Advertising Department.
 
The following types of communications are not required to be filed with FINRA:
  •  Retail Communications that have been previously filed with FINRA's Advertising department and are being used without material changes
  • Retail communications that do not make financial or investment recommendations and do not promote a product or service by the member firm. This broad category is also exempt from the principal pre-use approval requirement and includes:
    • Recruitment Advertising
    • Advertising relating to changes in a B/D's name, personnel, electronic or postal address, ownership, office, business structure, officers or partners, or phone number.
    • Advertising related to a merger with or acquisition by another member firm
  • Retail communications that simply identify a member firm's national securities exchange symbol, or identify a security for which the member is a registered market maker, or identify that the member firm offers a specific security at a stated price
  • Tombstone advertisements, prospectuses that have been filed with the SEC, and mutual fund profiles
  • Press releases that are made available only to the media
  • Any reprint or excerpt of an article or report that is issued by a publisher, provided the publisher is not affiliated with the member firm or issuer of the securities mentioned in the reprint and neither the member firm nor issuer of the securities mentioned in the reprint has commissioned the reprint
  • Correspondence and institutional communications
  • Communications that simply refer to types of investments as part of a listing of products and services offered by the member firm

Not all communications are written. The process of looking for new customers is often accomplished through telephone solicitations or cold calling. In the past, many less reputable firms used high-pressure sales techniques bordering on harassment to convince prospects to invest in dubious securities, especially penny stocks. In an effort to combat these abusive sales tactics, Congress passed the federal Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991, which was designed to protect consumers from abusive cold-callers. The industry has incorporated the main provisions of this law into their SRO rules. The main provisions include the following:

  • Phone solicitations may only be placed between 8AM and 9PM local time of the party called, unless that person has provided prior consent or the person called is another B/D. The rule applies both to wired and wireless phone #s.
  • When calling prospective customers, callers must provide their name, the entity or person on whose behalf the call is made, a phone # or address where that entity or person can be reached, and the explanation that the purpose of the call is to solicit the purchase of securities or related services. This information must be provided promptly and in a clear and conspicuous manner.
  • Each B/D is responsible for creating a Do Not Call List. If an individual is solicited by phone and asks not to be called again, the B/D is responsible for placing that number on the Do Not Call List. Under FINRA rules, B/Ds must honor a person's do not call request within a reasonable period. This period may not exceed 30 days from the date the request was made. In addition, the firm must train its registered personnel to use the list properly. There must be a policy, in writing, describing how the list will be maintained.
  • RRs may not make calls that harrassor abuse the person called. Examples of prohibited behavior include language that can be interpreted as threatening or intimidating, the use of profane or obscene language, causing a phone to ring repeatedly ot continuously with the intent to annoy, abuse, or harass, or engaging a person in a phone conversation repeatedly or continuously with the intent to annoy, abuse, or harass.
  • When the B/D engages in telemarketing, it is required to make sure its outbound telephone number is not being blocked by the recipient's caller identification service.
  • The rule prohibits the use of prerecorded messages unless the B/D has received the caller's prior written permission.

FINRA recognizes that when a representative already has a relationship with a customer, it may be important to contact the client outside of the 8a to 9p window. Therefore, the time-of-day and disclosure requirements do not apply to an established business relationship if the purpose of the call is to maintain or service an existing account of the RR. The RR may also delegate the task to another person, such as a qualified sales assistant.

 

An established business relationship is defined as a relationship between a B/D and a person where one of the following conditions is met:

  • Within the preceding 18 months, the person made a securities transaction, or has a security position, a money balance, or account activity with the B/D or its clearing firm.
  • Within the preceding 18 months, the firm making the call is considered the B/D of record for the account.
  • Within the previous 3 months, the person has contacted the B/D to inquire about a product or service offered by the firm.

A person who is on the National Do Not Call Registry should also not be contacted by a RR. Firms are required to update their Do Not Call list by contacting the FTC and adding any telephone number on the national list. There are a number of exceptions to this prohibition. One exception is when the person to be called has given prior written consent to be contacted by the member firm. Another exception is based on a personal relationship between the RR and the person to be called. A personal relationship is defined as a family member, friend, or an acquaintance of the RR.

 

Generally using a shareholder list to cold call would be a violation of industry rules. SRO rules do not allow the use of stockholder information for solicitation purposes by a trustee unless the member firm is specifically directed to do so by, and for the benefit of, the corporation.

Term
Industry Rules - B/D services provided on the premises of a Financial Institution
Definition

Situations may arise where a member firm conducts B/D services on the premises of a financial institution. If this occurs, the member firm must:

  1. Clearly identify itself as the provider of the brokerage services
  2. Conduct its prokerage services in an area that clearly displays its name
  3. If possible, maintain its location in an area physically separate from the retail area of the financial institution.

If investment company securities or variable products are being sold in this type of setting, disclosure must be made that the securities products are:

  • Nos insured by the FDIC (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation)
  • Not guaranteed deposits or other obligations of the financial institution
  • Subject to investment risks, including the possible loss of the principal invested

In situations where it is not practical to provide these complete disclosures, such as in a radio spot or on a billboard, the following shorter version may be used, indicating that the securities: 

  • Are not FDIC-insured
  • Are not band-guaranteed
  • May lose value

These disclosures are not required in radio broadcasts of 30 seconds or less, electronic billboard-type signs, or signs that are used only as location indicators.

Term

Industry Rules - Research Analysts and Research Reports

Reg AC (Analyst Certification)

Definition

Research reports are another way that member firms communicate with prospects and current customers. 

 

FINRA rules concerning the publication and distribution of research concentrate of the following areas:

  • The relationship between the research department and other departments of the B/D
  • Restrictions on communication between the research department and the subject company
  • Restrictions on publishing research reports and making public appearances
  • Personal trading restrictions by research analysts
  • Disclosure requirements in research reports and public appearances

The information barriers separating research and investment banking must be reinforced through the supervision of these areas, including a member's written supervisory procedures.

 

A member's investment banking department is restricted from exercising any control whatsoever over its research department, particularly in the preparation of research reports.

 

The supervision and approval of reports must be conducted exclusively by supervisory personnel in the research department. These supervisors must hold a Supervisory Analyst designation and are responsible for approving research reports prior to distribution. Review and approval mechanisms, whereby a member's investment banking department or any other nonresearch repartment has review or veto power over research reports are strictly prohibited.

 

Sometimes a RR may want to prepare a report for distribution to his customers. Even though the RR does not hold the designation of Research Analyst, this report would still be considered a research report and  would follow the same review and approval requirements.

 

To prevent the misuse of confidential information, communications between research and investment banking departments and other nonresearch departments are severely limited. Communications not related to verification or conflict avoidance are prohibited. A provision outlining such prohibitions should be included in the firm's written supervisory procedures.

 

Research report disclosures must appear on the first page of the publication, or must refer to the page on which they appear, and must not be written in reduced typeface. However, if a member publishes a report that makes recommendations on six or more subject companies, the report may celarly and prominently direct the reader to where the required disclosures can be found either in an electronic or written format. The mandatory disclosures must include the following information:

  • whether the analyst (or a member of the analyst's household) has a financial interest in the securities of the subject company
  • Whether the firm has ownership of the subject security and whether such ownership is 1% or greater of the outstanding stock of the subject company. Ownership must be ascertained as of the end of the month directly preceding publication of the research report, allowing for a 10-day calculation period. If the report is published in less than 10-days from the end of the month, a member may ascertain ownership based on the second-most-recent-month.
  • Disclosure of whether the firm makes a market in the subject security
  • Any material conflict of interest about which the analyst of member knows or has reason to know
  • Whether the member has received compensation for investment banking activity from the subject company during the 12 months preceding publication
  • Whether the analyst or any member of the analyst's household is an officer, director, or advisory board member of the subject company

A public appearance is defined as any conference call, seminar, or public speaking engagement delivered to 15 or more persons, or one or more representative of the media in which a research analyst makes a recommendation or offers an opinion concerning an equity security. The rule brings TV & radio interviews and other public speaking activities (seminars and electronic interactive forums) under the umbrella of public speaking appearances for the purposed of disclosure. A TV interview is a public appearance regardless of how many people are interviewing the analyst. An internal meeting is not a public speaking engagement and is not viewed as a public appearance.

 

The disclosures required suring public appearances, including TV & radio interviews, during which predictions may be made, include:

  • Whether the subject company is an investment banking client of the member
  • Whether the analyst (or a member of the analyst's household) has a financial interest in the security that is the subject of the report
  • Whether the member firm has ownership of the subject security is such ownership is 1% or greater of the outstanding stock of the subject company
  • Any material conflict of interest about which the analyst or member knows or has reason to know
  • Whether the analyst (or a member of the analyst's household) is an officer, director, or advisory board member of the subject company

Members must develop a procedure for disclosing the required information contemporaneous with public appearances. One way to address this issue is to draft a planned script for such appearances with the appropriate disclaimers included, and review a transcript of the actual broadcast afterward to verify that such disclosures were, in fact, made. In any case, each member whose analysts engage in such public appearances must address the disclosure requirements in its written supervisory procedures.

 

RRs often engage in seminars in an attempt to attract new clientele. When giving a seminar, RRs must make a record of the date, topic, and sponsor of the seminar.

 

Under Reg AC, research analysts and their firms are required to make certifications regarding conflicts of interest involving preparation of a research report. Also, a B/D that employs research analysts must maintain records regarding public appearances made by its personnel who prepare research reports. Reg AC does not apply to issuers.

 

Specifically, a research analyst must make a statement that certifies that the views in the research report accurately describe his personal views about the subject issuer's securities and must include a statement that certifies one of the following:

  • None of his compensation is, was, or will be related to his recommendations or views expressed in the research report, or
  • Part or all of his compensation is, was, or will be related to his recommendations or views expressed in the research report

If the last statement is certified, the research analyst must provide the source, amount, and purpose of the compensation. Also, a statement must be included in the report that informs readers that the compensation may influence the recommendation or views expressed.

Term

When a corporation wishes to open a margin account with a broker-dealer, which of the following is required? 
I. A corporate resolution from the board of directors
II. A copy of the corporation’s trust indenture
III. A copy of the corporation’s charter or by-laws
IV. An agreement that the stock of the corporation will not be traded by the broker-dealer as a market-maker.

Definition

I & III


Whenever a corporation opens an account with a broker-dealer, a resolution by the board of directors, appointing specific individuals who have trading authority must accompany the application. In addition, if the company wishes to open a margin account, the company must also provide a copy of its charter or by-laws as evidence that the company is legally permitted to trade on margin.

Term
Industry Rules - Uniform Practice Code
Definition

This code standardizes the various processes related to securities transactions. It details the rules regarding the clearing and settlement of transactions among member firms.

 

This code establishes the requirements for good deliveries of securities. One of the purposes of the rule is to make sure that the securities are acceptable to the transfer agent. The transfer agent makes the final determination as to whether a security is a good delivery and may be transferred to the new owner.

 

When, as, and if issued contracts are created for securities that are trading but are not yet available for delivery. FINRA determines the settlement date on these WI (when-issued) securities based on when a sufficient percentage of the issue is outstanding.

 

For new issues underwritten through a syndicate, the managing underwriter must apply for a CUSIP # for the security. In the secondary market, dealers must apply for new CUSIP #s if they do anything that alters the security or source of payment for part of the outstanding issue. This would include acquiring or arranging bond insurance(?), letters of credit(?), or put options for the bonds. The new CUSIP helps other dealers and clearing agencies distinguish between these altered bonds and the rest of the issue.

 

 Mutilated certificates do not constitute a good delivery unless they are validated by a trustee, registrar, transfer agent, paying agent, or the issuer of the securities or by an authorized agent or official of the issuer. A certificate is deemed mutilated is any one of the following elements cannot be ascertained:

  • Name of the issuer
  • Par Value
  • Signature
  • Coupon rate
  • Maturity date
  • Seal of the issuer
  • Certificate number

A damaged coupon is characterized by the inability to ascertain any of the following information:

  • Title of the issuer
  • Certificate number
  • Coupon number or payment date
  • The fact that there is a signature

If the CUSIP is illegible, the stock certificate is still considered to be in good deliverable form.

 

Units of delivery - In order to be acceptable for

broker-to-broker delivery, the certificats must be in certain units. The unit number must either be a multiple of 100 or a whole divisor of 100 (25 would work but 60 would not.) 

 

If the lot is odd (not a multiple of 100) and there is a partial delivery, the delivery is not valid and reasonable if the amount delivered leaves an odd lot remaining to be delivered.

 

For bonds, the delivery is good if made in $1000 denominations, or denominations of $100 or multiples of $100 that add up to $1000. No denomination larger than $100000 is allowed for registered bonds.

Term

Industry Rules - Solving Problems

 

Code of Procedure, Code of Arbitration

Definition

FINRA defines a complaint as any written statement of a customer or any person acting on behalf of a customer alleging a grievance involving the activities of those persons under the control of the member in connection with the solicitation or execution of any transaction or the disposition of securities or funds of that customer. The complaint may be delivered in any written format, including letters, email, instant messages and text messages.

 

Members are required to maintain a separate file of all written complaints, including email and text messages in each OSJ for four years. Customer complaints must be forwarded to a principal for review. The file must also contain a description of actions taken by the member, if any, regarding the complaint and must contain or refer to another file containing any correspondence regarding the complaint. Response to a customer's written complaint may be in written or oral form. The original complaint must be reviewed and initialed by a principal. Note that even if a member has not received complaints, an empty complaint file must still be maintained.

 

FINRA's disciplinary process is referred to as the Code of Procedure. These rules cover disciplinary actions taken by FINRA against member firms and their associated persons. Disciplinary actions may be taken by FINRA for violations of FINRA's rules, violations of SEC rules, or failure to pay dues or assessments.

 

If the Department of Enforcement believe that a member firm or associated person has violated a rule or law under its jurisdication, the department will request authorization from the Office of Disciplinary Affairs to issue a complaint. The firm or person named in the complaint is called the respondent. The respondent must file a response to the complaint within 25 days of receiving it. If the respondent fails to answer within the required time, the Department will issue a second notice. Failure to answer the second notice within 14 days may be treated as an admission by the respondent to the allegations in the complaint.

 

In answering a complaint, the respondent may request a hearing. If a hearing is not required, the right to one is waived. The hearing is held before a Hearing Panel consisting of a Hearing Officer and two panelists, who are appointed by the Chief Hearing Officer. The Hearing Officer is an attorney employed by FINRA. The other members of the panel are persons associated with or retired from member firms that have an expertise in the area of dispute and have served on local and/or national FINRA comittees. The Hearing Officer must provide 28 days notice of the hearing to the respondent.

 

The Hearing Officer may call a prehearing conference to prepare the parties for the hearing or to otherwise make the process more efficient. Documentary evidence generally is submitted prior to the hearing. The hearing provides an opportunity for witnesses to give testimony. All witnesses who are under the jurisdiction of FINRA must testify under oath. Within 60 days after the Hearing Panel has stopped accepting evidence, it must render a written decision arrived at by majority vote.

 

Anytime before the hearing has begun, the respondent may propose an offer of settlement to the Hearing Panel. If accepted, the respondent waives the right to appeal. If the offer is rejected by the Panel, the hearing will proceed to a conclusion.

 

A Hearing Panel may impose the following penalties:

  • Censure a member firm or associated person
  • Fine a member firm or an associated person
  • Suspend the membership of a firm or suspend the registration of an associated person, either for a definite period or until specified conditions are met
  • Expel a member firm or cancel its membership; revoke or cancel the registration of an associated person
  • Suspend or bar an associated person from association with any member firm
  • Impose any other fitting sanction

Note that, if the registration of an associated person is suspended, cancelled, or revoked, that person may not be associated with a member firm in any capacity, including clerical or ministerial positions. Also, both a Hearing Panel and the NAC (National Adjudicatory Council) may suspend or expel a member firm.

 

Other than a bar of expulsion, a sanction is effective 30 days after the respondent has received notice of a final disciplinary action. A bar of expulsion is effective as soon as the decision is served on the respondent. If a B/D is suspended from membership, member firms must treat it in the same manner they treat nonmembers.

 

Once a decision has been rendered by the Hearing Panel, the respondent has 25 days to file an appeal with FINRA's NAC, which has both appellate and review jurisdiction. In cases where the decision of the Hearing Panel is in favor of the respondent, the Department of Enforcement also has the same right of appeal to the NAC. The NAC has the right to review a decision. The filing of an appeal places the decision in limbo until the appeal process is exhausted. Upon review, the NAC has the power to affirm, modify, reverse, increase, or reduce any sanction, or impose any other fitting sanction.

 

A respondent has the right to appeal a final disciplinary action to the SEC. If dissatisfied with the SEC's decision, the matter may be brought before a federal court (!! crazy!)

 

The Code of Arbitration is concerned with the settlement of disputes through arbitration. It is not concerned with discipline for violations of rules and regulations, which is covered by the Code of Procedure.

 

The Code of Arbitration requires that disputes between members and other members, or between members and any clearing corporation be settled by arbitration. Arbitration is also required in disputes between member firms and persons associated with a member, except in the case of statuatory discrimination claims, which include claims of sexual harassment. When a representative signs Form U4 (the application for securities industry registration), he affirms a statement that says, in part, "I agree to arbitrate any dispute, claim, or controversy that may arise between me and my firm, or a customer, or any other person, that is required to be arbitrated under the rules, constrictions or by-laws, of the SROs indicated..."

 

Arbitration is required if a public customer wishes to arbitrate a dispute with a member or person associated with a member. However, the member may not bring a public customer to arbitration unless the customer agrees. A customer may initiate arbitration by filing a Submission Agreement of Claim, and by paying the required deposit fee. Respondents may file a counterclaim against the person initiating the arbitration. Arbitration does not apply to disputes between a member firm and FINRA.

 

Many new account firms now contain a clause that obligates the customer to submit any disputes with the RR or the firm to binding arbitration. Industry rules require arbitration clauses to be presented on the form in a certain format and with specific wording. If a firm elects to include a predispute arbitration clause in its new account form, it must be highlighted andmust be preceded by the following disclosures:

  •  Arbitration is final and binding on the parties
  • The parties are waiving their right to seek remedies in court, including the right to a jury trail
  • Prearbitration discovery generally is more limited then, and different from, court proceedings.
  • It is not required that the arbitrator's award include factual findings or legal reasoning, and any party's right to appeal or seek modification of rulings by the arbitrators is strictly limited.
  • Typically, the panel of arbitrators will include a minority of arbitrators who were or are affiliated with the securities industry.
  • Immediately before the signature line, there must be a highlighed statement that the agreement contains a predispute arbitration clause.
  • A copy of the agreement must be given to the customer, who must acknowledge its receipt on the agreement or on a separate document.

 In the event of a dispute, the NAC will appoint a panel of one to three arbitrators to hear the dispute, depending on the dollar amount of the controversy. If a customer is involved, a majority of the arbitrators will be public arbitrators, unless the parties agree otherwise. Once notified of the composition of the panel, the customer has the right to reject the selection of an arbitrator on a peremptory basis and has the right to unlimited challenges for cause (??)

 

Simplified arbitrations - Simplified arbitration procedures are used if the amount in dispute does not exceed $50,000. In a simplified customer arbitration, a single arbitrator decides the case based on written evidence and arguments, unless the public customer demands or consents to a hearing, or the arbitrator calls for a hearing. In a simplified industry arbitration, a single arbitrator decides the case without a hearing, unless one of the parties demands one.

 

The arbitrators will make their determination after hearing the evidence and will make awards as deemed appropriate. All awards granted by the arbitrator must be paid within 30 days of a determination or penalties may be assessed on late payments. The findings of the arbitrators, unless the law directs otherwise, are final for both members and customers. No appeal is allowed.

 

Arbitration has been favored as a method of resolving disputes in the securities industry because it is considered less costly and time-consuming than litigation. However, arbitration has become a victim of its own success. There are increasing delays in the process because it is used more frequently. Sometimes qualified arbitrators are in short supply. To address this issue, FINRA launched a new program to help resolve disputes in a more informal manner - mediation.

 

Mediation is an informal process in which two parties to a dispute attempt to reach a settlement without resorting to arbitration or litigation. In addition to the two opposing parties, a third person also participates, the mediator. The mediator is a neutral person, knowledgeable about the securities industry, who attempts to facilitate the discussions and help the parties reach an agreement.

 

Once two parties agree to try mediation, they select a mediator acceptable to both sides. The mediator's fee is split by the parties, unless they agree otherwise. While FINRA will suggest a mediator initially, the parties can select another mediator from a list provided by FINRA or they may select one on their own, with mutual agreement. Both parties then provide the mediator with information they think is necessary to understand the dispute.

 

Next, the parties meet with the mediator in an initial joint session. Each party presents its case to the other party and the mediator. Then the parties meet separately with the mediator in sessions called caucuses. The mediator's job in the caucuses is to help each party examine the strengths and weaknesses of the case, lok at the risks involved, and consider possible settlements or resolutions. The mediator will not reveal the discussions in a caucus to the other side unless authorized to do so. Those discussions are confidential.

 

The mediation process will continue until:

  • The parties resolve the dispute through a written settlement
  • The mediator declares and impasse, in the belief that continuing would be futile
  • Either party or the mediator withdraws, in writing, from the process.

Even if the parties do not reach a settlement through mediation, the process can still be beneficial. Often, the opposing sides reach a clearer understanding of the dispute by mediating, and any further action, such as arbitration, is often shorter and more to the point. Sometimes part of the issue will be settled through mediation, leaving only the more intractable matters for arbitration.

 

The parties do not need to wait until the end of the mediation process to begin arbitration. The two processes can run concurrently. This way, if mediation is unsuccessful, the arbitration proceeding will be ready to go. Mediation can even be started after an arbitration has begun, as long as the arbitrator has not made a final decision.

Term
BCP (Business Continuity Plan)
Definition

B/Ds must establish a written ____ Plan that will identify procedures to be followed in the event of an emergency or significant business disruption. These procedures must provide that all customer obligations be met, and must address the firm's existing realtionship with other B/Ds and counterparties. The plan must be reviewed annually in light of any changes in the firm's business structure, general operations, or location.

 

There are many elements that might compromise a _____ Plan but, at a minimum, the plan must address the following points:

  • Data backup and recovery
  • Financial and operational assessments
  • Alternative commumications between customers and the firm
  • Alternative commumications between the firm and its employees
  • Alternative physical location of employees
  • Regulatory reporting
  • Communications with Regulators

FINRA also requires each member firm to provide to the regulator by means of an electronic process, or other means as FINRA may specify, prescribed emergency contact information, which must include the designation of two emergency contact persons. At least one of these individuals must be a member of senior management and a registered principal of the member firm. If the second contact person is not a registered principal, she must be a member of senior management who has knowledge of the firm's business operations. FINRA Rule 4370 also specifies that both emergency contact persons must be associated persons of the member firm. In the case of a small firm with only one associated person (for example, a sole proprietorship without any other associated persons), the second emergency contact person must be either a registered or nonregistered person with another firm who has knowledge of the member firm's business operations. Possible candidates for this role include the firm's attorney, accountant, or a clearing firm contact. The BCP does not need to be filed with FINRA but must be made available to the SRO upon request.

 

Each member must disclose to its customers how its BCP addresses the possibility of a future significant business disruption, and how the member plans to respond to these events. This disclosure must be provided in written format at the time of account opening and must be posted on the member's website.

Term
An advertisement concerning a CMO (collateralized mortgage obligation) must be filed with:
Definition
FINRA within 10 business days of its first use.
Term
What is the upper limit of the disputed amount when it comes to simplified arbitration? Can you file an appeal?
Definition
  1. $50,000
  2. Nope
Term
Balance Sheet
Definition

This is made of several components:

  1. Assets - Includes goodwill
  2. Liabilities
  3. Stockholder's Equity
Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Stockholder's Equity
 

The following are examples of financial events and how they affect the balance sheet:

  1. Declaring a Cash Dividend - Retained earnings (part of stockholder's equity) is reduced and dividends payable (part of current liabilities) is increased. This will reduce net working capital since current liabilities increase and current assets remain unchanged.
  2. Paying a Cash Dividend - Cash (a current asset) and dividends payable (a current liability) are both reduced by equal amounts. This will have no effect on net working capital or stockholder's equity.
  3. Buying Equipment or Machinery for Cash - Cash (a current asset) is reduced and equipment (a fixed asset) is increased by a corresponding amount. This will reduce net working capital because current assets are reduced and current liabilities remain the same.
  4. Stock Dividends - Only the stockholder's equity portion of the balance sheet is affected. The number of common shares increases, retained earnings decreases, and an adjustment to capital surplus may be made.
  5. Stock Split - Only the stockholder's equity is affected. The number of common shares and the par value per share are changed based on the stock split, but the total par value remains the same.
  6. Issuing Debt - When a corporation issues debt securities, it increases its leverage (use of borrowed monies.) The corporation's long-term liabilities increase, as does its fixed charges (interest payments). The purpose is generally to purchase new equipment or expand its business in some other manner. The expansion of business will hopefully increase the sales and profits of the company.
  7. Calling Bonds - When part of an issue of long-term bonds is called, the effect on the remaining outstanding bonds will be an improvement in their quality. The issue will have less debt outstanding and there will be less interest charges to pay, which improves the quality of the issue.
  8. Inventory Methods - The FIFO (First-In, First-Out) method of valuing inventories uses the cost of the first item purchased. The LIFO (Last-In, First-Out) method uses the cost of the last item purchased. In a period of rising rates, the FIFO method, because of the lower cost basis, results in an increase in inventory profits. (???)
  9. Issuing Stock - The company will receive cash from the sale of the stock, so liquidity will increase. The common stock account and the paid-in capital account, which are part of stockholders' equity, will also increase. The long-term debt ratio will fall as the equity capital rises and, since the company is raising cash, current assets will increase. Fixed assets will remain unchanged.
  10. Repurchasing Stock - Corporations repurchase their own stock in the open market to increase earnings per share and to have stock available for stock option plans for key employees. Stock repurchased will become treasury stock, which does not have voting rights, and marketability is very difficult to predict.
Term
Profit Margin
Definition

Operating Income / Sales

 

Operating Income = Sales - Operating Expenses - Depreciation

 

Operating Expenses = Cost of Goods Sold + Selling and Administrative Expenses

Term
EBIT
Definition
Earnings Before Interest and Taxes
Term
Net Working Capital
Definition

Total Current Assets - Total Current Liabilities

 

Current assets are cash and other items that may be converted into cash within a short period (usually a year). These include cash, marketable securities, accounts receivable, and inventories.

 

Accounts receivable is money owed by customers (individuals or corporations) to another entity in exchange for goods or services that have been delivered or used, but not yet paid for.

 

Inventories are the raw materials, work-in-process goods and completely finished goods that are considered to be the portion of a business's assets that are ready or will be ready for sale. This is the least liquid current asset.

 

Current Liabilities are debts that will become due in less than one year. This section includes accounts payable, interest payable, notes payable, and taxes payable.

 

Accounts payable is the amount a company owes for goods and services puchased on credit.

Term
Current Ratio
Definition

Total Current Assets / Total Current Liabilities

 

If this ratio is at least 2 to 1 then the company is probably safe. But if the inventory is high, then the company may not actually be safe at this level. If the Inventory is low and the accounts receivable are easily collected then a lower level may be safe. The Quick Asset (Acid Test) Ratio may be better suited for determining whether the company can pay its current liabilities for the above reasons.

 

Current assets are cash and other items that may be converted into cash within a short period (usually a year). These include cash, marketable securities, accounts receivable, and inventories.

 

Accounts receivable is money owed by customers (individuals or corporations) to another entity in exchange for goods or services that have been delivered or used, but not yet paid for.

 

Inventories are the raw materials, work-in-process goods and completely finished goods that are considered to be the portion of a business's assets that are ready or will be ready for sale. This is the least liquid current asset.

 

Current Liabilities are debts that will become due in less than one year. This section includes accounts payable, interest payable, notes payable, and taxes payable.

 

Accounts payable is the amount a company owes for goods and services puchased on credit.

Term
Quick Asset Ratio AKA Acid Test Ratio
Definition

(Total Current Assets - Inventory)

------------------------------------

(Total Current Liabilities)

 

If this ratio is > 1 to 1 then the company is probably safe. This is a more stringent measure of liquidity than the current ratio.

 

Quick assets = Total Current Assets - Inventory

 

Current assets are cash and other items that may be converted into cash within a short period (usually a year). These include cash, marketable securities, accounts receivable, and inventories.

 

Accounts receivable is money owed by customers (individuals or corporations) to another entity in exchange for goods or services that have been delivered or used, but not yet paid for.

 

Inventories are the raw materials, work-in-process goods and completely finished goods that are considered to be the portion of a business's assets that are ready or will be ready for sale. This is the least liquid current asset.

 

Current Liabilities are debts that will become due in less than one year. This section includes accounts payable, interest payable, notes payable, and taxes payable.

 

Accounts payable is the amount a company owes for goods and services puchased on credit.

Term
Cash Flow
Definition

Net Income + Annual Depreciation

 

This reflects the amount of money generated by a company's operations. Fundamental analysts tend to look @ this to assess the company's ability to meet current expenses as well as to pay dividends.

 

Net income is found on the Income Statement.

Net Income = Revenues - Expenses.

 

Revenue is the total of all sales + "other income"

 

Other Income is usually income generated by investments such as dividends and interest. This may also reflect extraordinary items such as earnings from the sale of assets or losses incurred by discontinuing a part of the business.

 

Expenses include the cost of goods sold, selling and administrative expenses, depreciation, bond interest expense and taxes.

 

Annual Depreciation is a measure of the loss of value incurred by owning a fixed asset other than land. The IRS allows this wear and tear cost to be used as a deduction against income. The purpose of this is to spread the cost of an asset over its recovery period. On the balance sheet, fixed assets are shown at a value of their original cost less accumulated depreciation.

 

Accelerated depreciation allows a company to take a larger amount of the cost of an asset as a deduction in the early years and less in the later years. Since large deductions are taken, earnings will be understated (reduced) in the early years for companies using this method. Conversely, smaller deductions in later years will overstate earnings.

 

A fixed asset is an item used by the company in its day-to-day operations to create its products. This includes land, buildings, equipment, and furniture.

Term
EBITDA (Earnings Before Interest, Tax, Depreciation and Amortization)
Definition

This is used by many market professionals as a measure cash flow. 

 

Depreciation is a measure of the loss of value incurred by owning a fixed asset other than land. The IRS allows this wear and tear cost to be used as a deduction against income. The purpose of this is to spread the cost of an asset over its recovery period. On the balance sheet, fixed assets are shown at a value of their original cost less accumulated depreciation.

 

Accelerated depreciation allows a company to take a larger amount of the cost of an asset as a deduction in the early years and less in the later years. Since large deductions are taken, earnings will be understated (reduced) in the early years for companies using this method. Conversely, smaller deductions in later years will overstate earnings.

 

A fixed asset is an item used by the company in its day-to-day operations to create its products. This includes land, buildings, equipment, and furniture.

 

Amortization is 

Term
Capitalization Ratios: Bond Ratio
Definition

Par Value of Bonds

------------------------------

Total Long-Term Capital

 

Total Long-Term Capital =

Total Stockholder Equity + Par Value of Bonds

 

Par Value of Bonds: The par value of a bond is typically $1000. This reflects the amount that will come due at the time of the bond's maturity.

 

 Total Stockholder Equity = Preferred Stock @ Par + Common Stock @ Par + Capital Surplus + Retained Earnings

 

Capital Surplus: This is used to account for that amount which a firm raises in excess of the par value (nominal value) of the shares (common stock).

 

Retained Earnings (RE) =

Beginning RE + Net Income - Dividends

 

Retained Earnings are the portion of net earnings not paid out as dividends, but retained by the company to be reinvested in its core business, or to pay debt. 

 

Preferred Stock @ Par: The usual par value for preferred stock is $100.

 

Common stock @ Par: In the case of common stock the par value per share is usually a very small amount such as $0.10 or $0.01 or $0.001 and it has no connection to the market value of the share of stock.

Term
Capitalization Ratios: Common Stock Ratio
Definition

Total Stockholder Equity - Preferred Stock @ Par

-----------------------------------------------------

Total Long-Term Capital

 

Total Long-Term Capital =

Total Stockholder Equity + Par Value of Bonds

 

Par Value of Bonds: The par value of a bond is typically $1000. This reflects the amount that will come due at the time of the bond's maturity.

 

 Total Stockholder Equity = Preferred Stock @ Par + Common Stock @ Par + Capital Surplus + Retained Earnings

 

Capital Surplus: This is used to account for that amount which a firm raises in excess of the par value (nominal value) of the shares (common stock).

 

Retained Earnings (RE) =

Beginning RE + Net Income - Dividends

 

Retained Earnings are the portion of net earnings not paid out as dividends, but retained by the company to be reinvested in its core business, or to pay debt. 

 

Preferred Stock @ Par: The usual par value for preferred stock is $100.

 

Common stock @ Par: In the case of common stock the par value per share is usually a very small amount such as $0.10 or $0.01 or $0.001 and it has no connection to the market value of the share of stock.

Term
Capitalization Ratios: Preferred Stock Ratio
Definition

Preferred Stock @ Par

--------------------------------

Total Long-Term Capital

 

Total Long-Term Capital =

Total Stockholder Equity + Par Value of Bonds

 

Par Value of Bonds: The par value of a bond is typically $1000. This reflects the amount that will come due at the time of the bond's maturity.

 

 Total Stockholder Equity = Preferred Stock @ Par + Common Stock @ Par + Capital Surplus + Retained Earnings

 

Capital Surplus: This is used to account for that amount which a firm raises in excess of the par value (nominal value) of the shares (common stock).

 

Retained Earnings (RE) =

Beginning RE + Net Income - Dividends

 

Retained Earnings are the portion of net earnings not paid out as dividends, but retained by the company to be reinvested in its core business, or to pay debt. 

 

Preferred Stock @ Par: The usual par value for preferred stock is $100.

 

Common stock @ Par: In the case of common stock the par value per share is usually a very small amount such as $0.10 or $0.01 or $0.001 and it has no connection to the market value of the share of stock.

Term
Capitalization Ratios: Debt-to-Equity Ratio
Definition

Bonds + Preferred Stock

---------------------------------------------------

Common Stock @ Par + Capital Surplus + RE

 

This ratio compares securities with fixed charges to those securities without fixed charges + Capital Surplus + Retained Earnings. This is used to evaluate the credit strength of the corporation.


Par Value of Bonds: The par value of a bond is typically $1000. This reflects the amount that will come due at the time of the bond's maturity.

 

Preferred Stock @ Par: The usual par value for preferred stock is $100.

 

Common stock @ Par: In the case of common stock the par value per share is usually a very small amount such as $0.10 or $0.01 or $0.001 and it has no connection to the market value of the share of stock.

 

Capital Surplus: This is used to account for that amount which a firm raises in excess of the par value (nominal value) of the shares (common stock).

 

Retained Earnings (RE) =

Beginning RE + Net Income - Dividends

 

 

Retained Earnings are the portion of net earnings not paid out as dividends, but retained by the company to be reinvested in its core business, or to pay debt. 

Term

Book Value per Common Share, AKA

Net Tangible Asset Value

Definition

Total Assets-Intangibles-Total Liabilities-Preferred Stock

-----------------------------------------------------

# of Shares of Outstanding Common Stock

 

AKA

 

Current Assets+Fixed Assets+Common Stock&CS&RE

------------------------------------------------------

# of Shares of Outstanding Common Stock

 

This is used to determine the amount of assets that back the securities issued by a company.

 

Total Assets =

Current Assets + Fixed Assets + Intangible Assets

 

Current assets are cash and other items that may be converted into cash within a short period (usually a year). These include cash, marketable securities, accounts receivable, and inventories.

 

Accounts receivable is money owed by customers (individuals or corporations) to another entity in exchange for goods or services that have been delivered or used, but not yet paid for.

 

Inventories are the raw materials, work-in-process goods and completely finished goods that are considered to be the portion of a business's assets that are ready or will be ready for sale. This is the least liquid current asset. 

 

A fixed asset is an item used by the company in its day-to-day operations to create its products. This includes land, buildings, equipment, and furniture.

 

Intangibles: Goodwill, Patents, Trademarks, Franchises and Copyrights 

 

Goodwill: This is the amount that was paid above the value of the assets to acquire the company. Factors contributing to goodwill are a company's earning power due to its reputation in the marketplace, customer relations, and its skilled staff.

 

Total Liabilities = Bonds issued + Current Liabilities

 

Current Liabilities: These are all the things "payable." Accounts payable, Interest Payable, Notes Payable, Taxes Payable.

 

Why is preferred stock subtracted? Because it acts sort of like a debt instrument. (??? not really sure about this one)

 

Preferred Stock @ Par: The usual par value for preferred stock is $100.

 

Common stock @ Par: In the case of common stock the par value per share is usually a very small amount such as $0.10 or $0.01 or $0.001 and it has no connection to the market value of the share of stock.

 

Capital Surplus: This is used to account for that amount which a firm raises in excess of the par value (nominal value) of the shares (common stock).

 

Retained Earnings (RE) =

Beginning RE + Net Income - Dividends

 

 

Retained Earnings are the portion of net earnings not paid out as dividends, but retained by the company to be reinvested in its core business, or to pay debt. 

Term
Return on Common Equity
Definition

Net Income - Preferred Dividends

-----------------------------------------------

Common Stock@Par + Capital Surplus+RE

 

This is one of the most important measurements of a company's profitability on a year-to-year basis. This compares the amount of income available to the common shareholders each year to the value of the company's common stock

 

Preferred Dividends = Multiply the x% by the Total Preferred Stock @ Par to get this amount.

 

Common stock @ Par: In the case of common stock the par value per share is usually a very small amount such as $0.10 or $0.01 or $0.001 and it has no connection to the market value of the share of stock.

 

Capital Surplus: This is used to account for that amount which a firm raises in excess of the par value (nominal value) of the shares (common stock).

 

Retained Earnings (RE) =

Beginning RE + Net Income - Dividends

 

Retained Earnings are the portion of net earnings not paid out as dividends, but retained by the company to be reinvested in its core business, or to pay debt. 

 

Net income is found on the Income Statement.

Net Income = Revenues - Expenses.

 

Revenue is the total of all sales + "other income"

 

Other Income is usually income generated by investments such as dividends and interest. This may also reflect extraordinary items such as earnings from the sale of assets or losses incurred by discontinuing a part of the business.

 

Expenses include the cost of goods sold, selling and administrative expenses, depreciation, bond interest expense and taxes.

 

Annual Depreciation is a measure of the loss of value incurred by owning a fixed asset other than land. The IRS allows this wear and tear cost to be used as a deduction against income. The purpose of this is to spread the cost of an asset over its recovery period. On the balance sheet, fixed assets are shown at a value of their original cost less accumulated depreciation.

 

Accelerated depreciation allows a company to take a larger amount of the cost of an asset as a deduction in the early years and less in the later years. Since large deductions are taken, earnings will be understated (reduced) in the early years for companies using this method. Conversely, smaller deductions in later years will overstate earnings.

 

A fixed asset is an item used by the company in its day-to-day operations to create its products. This includes land, buildings, equipment, and furniture.

Term
Primary EPS (Earnings Per Share)
Definition

Net Income - Preferred Dividends

----------------------------------------

# of Outstanding Common Shares

 

This contributes to the market price of a stock in a major way. This indicates the amount of earnings available to the common stockholder.

 

As various types of convertible securities such as convertible bonds, convertible preferred stock, warrants and stock rights are converted into common shares, the outstanding shares will increase. This causes a dilution in the ____. Fully Diluted ___ assumes that all convertible securities have been converted into common stock.

 

 Preferred Dividends = Multiply the x% by the Total Preferred Stock @ Par to get this amount.

 

Net income is found on the Income Statement.

Net Income = Revenues - Expenses.

 

Revenue is the total of all sales + "other income"

 

Other Income is usually income generated by investments such as dividends and interest. This may also reflect extraordinary items such as earnings from the sale of assets or losses incurred by discontinuing a part of the business.

 

Expenses include the cost of goods sold, selling and administrative expenses, depreciation, bond interest expense and taxes.

 

Annual Depreciation is a measure of the loss of value incurred by owning a fixed asset other than land. The IRS allows this wear and tear cost to be used as a deduction against income. The purpose of this is to spread the cost of an asset over its recovery period. On the balance sheet, fixed assets are shown at a value of their original cost less accumulated depreciation.

 

Accelerated depreciation allows a company to take a larger amount of the cost of an asset as a deduction in the early years and less in the later years. Since large deductions are taken, earnings will be understated (reduced) in the early years for companies using this method. Conversely, smaller deductions in later years will overstate earnings.

 

A fixed asset is an item used by the company in its day-to-day operations to create its products. This includes land, buildings, equipment, and furniture.

Term

P/E (Price/Earnings) Ratio, AKA

Earning's Multiple

Definition

Market Price

-----------------------

Earnings per Share

 

AKA:

 

(Market Price) * (# of Outstanding Common Shares)

---------------------------------------------------------

 Net Income - Preferred Dividends

 

This is a measurement of the relationship between market price and EPS. If this is high, this indicates that investors are paying high market price for today's earnings. They are doing this in expectation of higher future earnings. If this is high, the stock tends to pay little or no cash dividends.

 

EPS contributes to the market price of a stock in a major way. EPS indicates the amount of earnings available to the common stockholder.

 

As various types of convertible securities such as convertible bonds, convertible preferred stock, warrants and stock rights are converted into common shares, the outstanding shares will increase. This causes a dilution in the EPS. Fully Diluted EPS assumes that all convertible securities have been converted into common stock.

 

 Preferred Dividends = Multiply the x% by the Total Preferred Stock @ Par to get this amount.

 

Net income is found on the Income Statement.

Net Income = Revenues - Expenses.

 

Revenue is the total of all sales + "other income"

 

Other Income is usually income generated by investments such as dividends and interest. This may also reflect extraordinary items such as earnings from the sale of assets or losses incurred by discontinuing a part of the business.

 

Expenses include the cost of goods sold, selling and administrative expenses, depreciation, bond interest expense and taxes.

 

Annual Depreciation is a measure of the loss of value incurred by owning a fixed asset other than land. The IRS allows this wear and tear cost to be used as a deduction against income. The purpose of this is to spread the cost of an asset over its recovery period. On the balance sheet, fixed assets are shown at a value of their original cost less accumulated depreciation.

 

Accelerated depreciation allows a company to take a larger amount of the cost of an asset as a deduction in the early years and less in the later years. Since large deductions are taken, earnings will be understated (reduced) in the early years for companies using this method. Conversely, smaller deductions in later years will overstate earnings.

 

A fixed asset is an item used by the company in its day-to-day operations to create its products. This includes land, buildings, equipment, and furniture.

Term
Dividend Payout Ratio
Definition

Annual Dividend Paid on Common Stock

--------------------------------------------

EPS

 

AKA: 

 

(Annual Dividend) * (# of Outstanding Shares)

---------------------------------------------------------

 Net Income - Preferred Dividends

 

This measures the percentage of net income paid to common stockholders as cash dividends. Note that companies are not required to have current earnings to pay dividends. Earnings from past periods that were not distributed (Retained Earnings) may be used to meet current payments.

 

Annual Dividend - This is not provided on the Balance Sheet or Income Statement. It will have to be provided in the question.

 

EPS contributes to the market price of a stock in a major way. EPS indicates the amount of earnings available to the common stockholder.

 

As various types of convertible securities such as convertible bonds, convertible preferred stock, warrants and stock rights are converted into common shares, the outstanding shares will increase. This causes a dilution in the EPS. Fully Diluted EPS assumes that all convertible securities have been converted into common stock.

 

 Preferred Dividends = Multiply the x% by the Total Preferred Stock @ Par to get this amount.

 

Net income is found on the Income Statement.

Net Income = Revenues - Expenses.

 

Revenue is the total of all sales + "other income"

 

Other Income is usually income generated by investments such as dividends and interest. This may also reflect extraordinary items such as earnings from the sale of assets or losses incurred by discontinuing a part of the business.

 

Expenses include the cost of goods sold, selling and administrative expenses, depreciation, bond interest expense and taxes.

 

Annual Depreciation is a measure of the loss of value incurred by owning a fixed asset other than land. The IRS allows this wear and tear cost to be used as a deduction against income. The purpose of this is to spread the cost of an asset over its recovery period. On the balance sheet, fixed assets are shown at a value of their original cost less accumulated depreciation.

 

Accelerated depreciation allows a company to take a larger amount of the cost of an asset as a deduction in the early years and less in the later years. Since large deductions are taken, earnings will be understated (reduced) in the early years for companies using this method. Conversely, smaller deductions in later years will overstate earnings.

 

A fixed asset is an item used by the company in its day-to-day operations to create its products. This includes land, buildings, equipment, and furniture.

Term
Current Yield
Definition

(Annual Dividend per Share) / (Current Market Price)

 

This expresses the rate of return that the dividend represents on the stock's current market price. Remember that a quarterly dividend must be multiplied by four to determine the annualized dividend.

Term
Annual Reports (10-K)
Definition

A company's annual report to its stockholders will contain all the important financial data needed by a fundamental analyst. The balance sheet and income statement will be presented and analyzed by the company's management. Also included will be the footnotes to the financial statements.

 

The footnotes are an addendum to the statements and will note such items as the methods of depretiation and inventory valuation used, the market price of securities, fully diluted EPS, and any other data needed to make the information presented understandable and complete.

Term
Fundamental vs Technical Analysis
Definition
  1. A subgroup of these analysts called value investors try to guage the intrinsic value of a company, assuming that if the market value is less than their perceived intrinic value that the price will eventually go up to meet their expectations, and vice versa. Items important to this sort of investor include the financial statements (such as the balance sheet and income statement), details regarding the company's product line, the experience and expertise of the company's management, and the outlook for the company's industry. By their nature, value investors tend to be very long-term holders.
  2. These analysts focus on market sentiment or trading trends. These investors tend to be more short-term oriented and may even attempt to time markets as a security fluctuates in value. These analysts tend to ignore the fundamental approach; they assume markets are efficient and all information (public or otherwise) has already been priced into a security (hahahahahahaaaaa.) Instead, these analysts look at the past history of securities and the markets to formulate their opinions. These analysts look to identify market trends as early as possible. They then advise clients as to the investments which should profit from the trend until there is a reversal. To do this, this sort of analyst will follow the markets and individual securities by watching an assortment of market data.

Many investors use elements of both in an attempt to beat the markets. The goal is always the same -- create maximum return with the least amount of risk. To pursue this goal, investors and their financial gurus use many different techniques to attempt to create a well-diversified and optimal portfolio. Again, much of the decision-making is based on the investor's objectives, risk tolerance, and time horizon.

Term
Trading Volume
Definition

Trading volume is reported daily by the exchanges and FINRA. Volume figures show the total number of shares for each security and the market. Analysts monitor these figures carefully because, historically, volume tends to lead a trend in prices.

 

A trendline is a solid line that traces the lows of a stock as it moves in an upward direction, and the highs of a stock as it moves in a downward direction. Once a trendline has been established, the price movement of a stock will usually follow the trendline.

 

Analysts consider it normal for stock prices to rise on increasing volume. This occurance does not signify a reversal in the market's trend. However, a small price rise that is accompanied by decreasing volume is often considered the reversal of a trend and is, therefore, bearish.



The term market momentum is used to describe a situation where prices are moving in a certain direction and there is a high level of trading volume. There is also an expectation that this pattern will continue in the near future. For example, if the S&P 500 Index has been trading up or down significantly over a period of days along with heavy trading volume, some traders will anticipate this pattern may continue for a few more days. Market neutral is used to describe attempting to profit by buying more securities while at the same time selling short others.

Term
FIFO & LIFO Inventory Accounting
Definition

During Inflationary Periods the FIFO method overstates the profit and reports the value of the inventory fairly

 

During Inflationary Periods the LIFO method has a lower reported profit than the FIFO method would. LIFO also understates the value of the inventory, since the first items purchased are the last to leave for accounting purposes.

Term
The Short Interest Theory
Definition

This refers to the amount of a company's shares of common stock that have been sold short but have not yet been closed out (covered). Periodically, the NYSE and the Nasdaq Market System compile a list of various companies' short interest.

 

According to the short interest theory, short sellers must eventually close out their short sales. As they purchase the stock, this will cause the market price to increase. Other short sellers, fearing future increases in a stock's price, will cover their short sales, creating additional upward pressure on the stock. This is commonly referred to as a short squeeze. Therefore, increasing short interest has historically been considered a bullish indicator by a technical analyst.

Term
Put/Call Ratio
Definition

This is a technical market indicator and is found like so:

 

Daily volume of all put transactions

-----------------------------------------

Daily volume of all call transactions

 

Technical Analysts view this as a contrarian indicator. The higher the ratio, the more oversold the market, and the higher the probability that the market will reverse course and turn bullish. A low ratio is viewed as a bearish indicator. WHY

 

This ratio simply looks at the difference in trading volume between puts and calls. A ratio above one means more puts than calls are being traded, indicating the majority of traders are bearish. 
 
think this is because, although anyone can write an option and the OCC will buy it from them, trading volume only measures the number of buys and investors can only buy if someone has actually written the option. So, volume is more of a measure of buys than sales. Thus, the trade volume of puts would be a measure of how bearish the market is, and the trade volume of calls would be an indicator of how bullish the market is.
 
But this ratio is a contrarian indicator, so that an extreme reading above one is actually a bullish indicator. By the same token, an extreme reading below one (i.e. more calls than puts traded) would be a bearish indicator. That is not saying that option traders are always wrong. There are many uses for options besides speculation on market direction. But for whatever reason, it does turn out that the actions of option traders as a whole do provide good signals for market tops and bottoms. And at least at the extremes, it pays to go against the crowd.
Term
The Odd Lot Theory
Definition

This theory focuses on the trading activity of small investors. These investors are commonly called odd-lotters since they usually buy and sell in odd lot amounts.

 

This theory states that small investors are usually incorrect in their market timing. They will purchase when the market is at its highest and sell when it is at its lowest. Statistics are kept that track the buy and sell orders of odd-lot transactions and are published each day.

 

Technical analysts will instuct their clients to buy when odd-lot sell orders increase relative to odd lot buy orders and vice versa.

 

This should be known as the screw over the little people theory.

Term
The Advance-Decline Theory
Definition

Advance-decline figures measure the # of stocks that have increased versus the # of decreasing issues for a trading session or other period. This data, which tends to show the direction of the market as well as the breadth of a market movement, is published daily.

 

According to this theory, a positive advance-decline figure (more advancing issues than declining issues) is bullish. However, it is considered bearish if the market averages (such as the DJIA) are up but the advance-decline figures are negative.


 This is a measurement of advancing stocks versus declining stocks over a specified period. It is a good indicator of the strength of a bull or bear market.

Term
The Dow Theory
Definition

This theory attempts to determine changes in the underlying trend of the market. Historically, Dow theorists have looked to the Dow Jones averages for this information.

 

According to this theory, a major trend is confirmed only when the DJIA and Transportation Average reach a new high or low. Without this confirmation, the market will drift back to its previous trading pattern.

Term
Overbought vs Oversold & Breakout!!
Definition
  1. Over time, the market (or a stock) tends to trade within a certain range. In some cases, there is an increase to a particular price level where heavy selling pressure is encountered. This is known as an area of resistance. Prices are too expensive, causing buying to cease. Analysts will describe the market as being _______.
  2. In other cases, there is an decrease to a particular price level where heavy buying pressure is encountered. This is known as an area of support. Prices become so enticing that selling stops and buying begins. Analysts will describe the market as being _______.
  3. This occurs when the stock's price either increases above the resistance level or declines below a support level. This could be accomplished by entering a sell stop order below the support level. Another method iss to purchase options on the stock.
Term

Head and Shoulders Pattern &

Inverted Head and Shoulders Pattern

(AKA Head And Shoulders Bottom Formation) &

Saucer Pattern &

Reverse Saucer

Definition
  1. Bearish

/\

/\/  \/\

 

2. Bullish

 

\/\  /\/

\/

 

3. Bullish

 

U

 

4. Bearish

 

Term

Random Walk Theory

 

AKA the Efficient Market Theory

Definition

This theory opposes (apparently... lol) the views of Technical and Fundamental Analysts which assume that the future performance of a security (or the market) is predictable by using current and past information.

 

This theory states that security analysis does not produce investment recommendations that will allow investors to consistently outperform a randomly selected portfolio. Thus, a professionally managed portfolio would do as well as a portfolio selected in a nondiscriminatory fashion (such as throwing darts at a newspaper listing of stockprices)

 

Moreover, it states that stock prices represent all available information regarding a company's performance. Thus, it is futile to try to seek out undervalued securities by either fundamental or technical analysis.

Term

Which of the following ratios is used by an analyst examining the capital structure of an industrial corporation?

The current ratio

The acid-test ratio

The price/earnings ratio

The debt-to-equity ratio

Definition

The debt to equity ratio.

 

The capital structure of a corporation is the dollar amount of the corporation's capitalization (equity and debt securities)

 

Other capitalization ratios include the Bond Ratio and the Common Stock Ratio.

Term
Growth Analysis
Definition

This is the method used by investors who are concerned with a company's future earnings potential. The investors are seking companies with rapidly growing earnings in the hope that these companies will continue to grow. These investors believe that if the company's earnings are outperforming the market, the stock's price will continue to increase. Also, as long as the company controls its costs and increases sales, the value of the business will increase and the stock price will grow along with future earnings.

 

These investors usually purchase stocks that have high P/E (Price to Earnings) ratios, a high level of retained earnings, and low dividend payout ratios.

Term
Value Analysis
Definition

This sort of analysis is the method used by investors (or funds) that look for stocks of companies that are intrinsically undervalued or trading at a discount to their book value. These investors believe that a company that is out of favor and underperforming may be overlooked. If the market is efficient and the issuing company continues to generate profits, these stocks are attractive to long-term investors since their depressed prices make these issues a good value. These sorts of stocks are characterized by a low P/E (price-to-earnings) ratio, a history of profits, a high dividend yield, and a low market-to-book ratio.

 

AKA buy low sell high ;)

 

These investors are most concerned with the fundamental value of a business as opposed to its current share price. Many of these investors have very long-term horizons and seek out companies that are undergoing fundamental change such as restucturing or change in leadership.

Term
Top-Down vs Bottom Up Analysis
Definition
  1. In this approach, a broad analysis of the economy is conducted first and then specific industries are identified that seem to benefit from the anticipated future economic conditions. Ultimately, particular companies are chosen from within those industries.
  2. This is based on fundamental analysis and evaluates each company based on a number of factors. The goal is to find stable companies with a history of profits to determine whether a company is undervalued relative to its peers. The analysis will also factor in the economic climate to further validate the investment decision.
Term
Momentum Investors
Definition

These investors often move rapidly from one sector of the market to another, essentially chasing money flows. If gold stocks are in favor, they will overweight that area. If auto stocks are subsequently moving higher, they will change their focus rapidly. Many of these investors use sector specific ETFs to accomplish this rapid movement from sector to sector.

 

(are these geniuses or dumbasses? hard to tell..)

Term
Indexing
Definition
The index approach basically concedes the point that most investors do not outperform the market. The goal of the indexing investor is to find the least expensive and most tax-efficient products that reconcile with their objectives. These investors are often of a DIY variety since they assume no RR or FA will have knowledge superior to the market as a whole. Investment choices may include ETFs and index funds since both of these products offer a low-cost and tax-efficient way to gain broad exposure to the market.
Term

MPT (Modern Portfolio Theory) &

CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model) & Types of Risk (2)

Definition

One assumption of this theory is that investors are risk-averse, meaning that they prefer the lowest risk possible to obtain a given level of return (or-- the other side of the coin, the highest return possible given a specific level of risk). This theory also focuses on classes of assets (Large-cap stocks instead of individual securities, such as IBM stock).

 

This theory shifted the attention of investors from individual securities to a total portfolio consisting of various classes of assets. This says that there is a whole series of possible mixes of equity, bonds and cash that are optimal. An optimal portfolio has the greatest return for a given amount of risk.

 

This theory found that the key to optimal portfolios was the degree of correlation between asset classes. Finding asset classes that did not show a high degree of positive correlation produced the best results. Ideally, we would like assets that showed strong negative correlations, but the real world is not like that. Most financial assets show some degree of positive correlation. However, we can still produce excellent results with investments that show even a modest lack of correlation.

 

These preceding aspects are the basis for asset allocation approaches to investing. After assessing a client's goals and objectives (to determine an appropriate expected return) and risk tolerance (to determine the level of volatility the client feels comfortable with), an investment advisor can use computer software to construct an appropriate mix of assets for the client's recommended portfolio (but really you only need the risk tolerance, right??)

 

 The asset classes used depend on the investments that are available and suitable for the client. The advisor and/or client may wish to put some constraints on the percentage of assets in each class. There are many different methods used to help determine the proper allocation among different asset classes.

 

The original ideas of this theory have been extended in a number of directions. One of these extensions is the CAPM, which attempts to describe how the market values or prices investments. CAPM has provided some additional insights into the nature of risks. CAPM simplified the analysis of risks by classifying them into one of two types:

  1. Diversifiable Risk, AKA Nonsystematic Risk - This is the risk connected eith owning the securities of specific companies. CAPM notes that this risk is avoidable since it can be eliminated by holding a diversified portfolio. Since it is avoidable, investors are not compensated for taking Diversifiable Risk.
  2. Nondiversifiable Risk AKA Market or Systematic Risk - This is connected to the overall movement of the market. Since this risk cannot be avoided through diversification, investors are rewarded for assuming it. The greater the nondiversifiable risk, the greater the potential reward.

The amount of nondiversifiable risk that a particular asset has is measured as β (beta). The value of beta describes the risk of an asset compared to the total market, measured as volatility. The total market is assigned a value of β=1, although in the real world some representation of the total market (Usually the S&P 500) is commonly employed.

 

An investment with β <1 is less volatile than the total market, falling less in declining markets than the average security, but also rising less in bull markets. β can be calculated for an entire portfolio. The β for a portfolio is the weighted average of the βs of the component parts.

 

α (alpha) measures a stock's return that is independent of the market. It is influenced by facots that are unique to that company and its industry group.

 

Term
Large Cap
Definition
Term
Small Cap
Definition
Term

When a corporation declares a dividend(choose 2):

I.    Current assets decrease

II.   Current liabilities decrease

III.  Current liabilities increase

IV.  Stockholders' equity decreases

Definition

III & IV

 

Remember:

  • Current assets include: 
  • Current liabilities include: 
  • Stockholders' equity includes: 
Term

If a corporation purchases machinery for cash, which of the following metrics change?

I.    Current assets

II.   Current liabilities

III.  Total assets

IV.  Working capital

Definition

Current Assets & Working Capital (I & IV)

 

Remember:

  • Current assets include - 
  • Current liabilities include - 
  • Total assets include - 
  • Working capital includes - 
Term

An investor may be able to determine all the following information from a corporation's balance sheet, EXCEPT the:

 

a.  Book value of the corporation

b.  Assets of the corporation

c.  Long-term funds received from all sources

d.  Expense ratios of the corporation

Definition

Expense ratios of the corporation.

 

This information can be obtained from the Income Statement.

 

Remember:

  • Book value is -
  • Assets include - 
  • Long-term funds received from all sources refers to -
  • The expense ratio is - 
Term

GNP (Gross National Product) vs

GDP (Gross Domestic Product)

Definition
  1. This measures the total volume of all goods and services produced by a national economy. This also includes goods and services produced overseas by a company that is based in the country being examined.
  2. This has replaced #1 as the most important measure of output and spending within the United States. This is the output of all goods and services produced by labor and property located in the United States, without regard to the origin of the producer. The most useful variation of this is Real ____, which is ____ adjusted for inflation using constant dollars. This is considered the key measure of aggregate economic activity. If this is rising, it indicates economic growth and potential inflation.
Term

The Business Cycle (4 phases)

Indicators (3 types)

Definition
  1. Expansion - Usually causes interest rates to rise as businesses borrow money to expand.
  2. Peak - Demand for goods overtakes supply and prices rise, creating inflation.
  3. Contraction - Employers lay off workers, unemployment increases. Disinflation happens. Maybe even deflation. Who knows? Not me.
  4. Trough - Eventually the lower prices will stimulate demand and the economy will recover.

You know what, these are really self explanatory. I don't even know why I bothered to make this notecard.

 

A recession occurs when Real GDP declines for two successive quarters. A depression occurs when Real GDP declines for a more prolonged period.

 

Here are the three types of business cycle indicators:

  1. Leading Economic Indicators - These precede the upward and downward movements of the business cycle. They may also be used to predict the near-term activity of the economy. The govt index of 10 leading economic indicators is released monthly. The components of the index are (11)
    1. The average workweek for production workers in manufacturing
    2. The average weekly initial claims for state unemployment incurance
    3. New orders for consumer good & materials
    4. Vendor performance (companies receiving slower deliveries from suppliers)
    5. Contracts & orders for plant and equipment
    6. New building permies for private housing units
    7. The prices for the S&P 500 Index common stocks.
    8. The Money Supply (S2)
    9. The change in credit outstanding for businesses and consumer borrowing
    10. Interest-rate spreads, 10-year Treasury bonds less federal funds
    11. Index of consumer expectations
  2. Coincident Economic Indicators - These usually mirror tje movements of the business cycle. (4)
    1. Employees on nonagricultural payrolls
    2. Personal income less transfer payments (transfer payments represent aid for individuals in the form of medicare, social security, and verteran's benefits to list a few)
    3. The Index of Industrial Production
    4. Manufacturing and trade sales
  3. Lagging Economic Indicators - The index of lagging indicators represents items that change after the economy has moved through the various stages of the business cycle. The index of lagging indicators chould confirm the economic condition portrayed by previous leading and coincident indexes. These include... (7):
    1. The average duration of unemployment
    2. The relationship of inventories to sales, manufacturing, and trade
    3. Labor cost per unit of output for manufactured goods
    4. The average prime rate charged by banks
    5. Commercial and industrial loans outstanding
    6. The relationship of consumer installment credit to personal income
    7. CPI for services

As the economy move through the 4 stages listed above, the bond & equity markets react to these changes. Investors react by attempting to take advantage of changes in the economy.

 

The level and direction of interest rates will influence numerous investments and may indicate inflationary trends. These factors are important to consider when individuals look to make investments.

 

Numerous interest rates are published each day. Some of the most important rates are the federal funds rate, the discount rate, the broker loan or call money rate, and the prime rate. The prime rate is the interest that a commercial bank charges its best cusomers. The usual order of these rates from lowest to highest is; fed funds, discount, call, prime.

 

Changes in this cycle also affect the equities markets. Cyclical stocks move with this. If the economy is in a period of prosperity, these companies prosper. However, as the economy falters, cyclical stocks decline. The common stock of a machine tool company would be an example of a cyclical stock. As the company expands, new orders for machinery increase and machine tool companies prosper. Other examples of cyclical stocks include basic industries (rubber, steel, etc.), construction firms, transportation, automotive, energy, homebuilders, and manufacturers of durable goods.

 

The stocks of defensive companies react less to changes in the business cycle than cyclical stocks. Examples of defensive companies would include utilities, tobacco, alcohol, cosmetics, pharmaceutical, and food companies. Since people need basic services to exist, these companies are the last to be affected negatively as the economy moves through different periods.

Term

Keynesian Economics &

Monetary Policy (M1, M2, M3)

Definition

This theory states that government intervention in the economy is necessary for sustained economic growth and stability. Put forth by John Maynard Keynes, this theory further states that the government should use fiscal policies to combat the effects of inflation and deflations, as well as to influence economic activity.

 

Fiscal policy is the govt's use of taxation and expenditure programs to maintain a stable, growing economy. If the economy is in a recession or trough, the govt can increase its spending or cut taxes to stimulate demand. If the economy is "overheated" (too much demand) the govt can cut its spending or increase taxes.

 

Fiscal policy is set by the president and congress. Thus, decisions in some cases may be based on political, rather than purely economic motives ;(

 

The primary focus of fiscal policy, however, is on economic growth and high employment. Conversely, monetary policy is controlled by the Fed (the Federal Reserve System), a body that is theoretically independent from the political process.

 

Supply side economics places an emphasis on reducing taxes and the size of government to stimulate the economy. Reducing the size of government allows for lower tax rates. By reducing taxes, individuals and corporations have more money to invest, thus facilitating economic activity.

 

Monetary policy attempts to control the supply of money and credit in the economy. This, in turn affects interest rates, causing an increase or decrease in economic activity. The primary focus of monetary policy is to control inflation. The Fed implements monetary policy in the US.

 

How does the Fed accomplish its goals? An easy money policy on the part of the Fed increases the money supply, lowers rates, and should eventually stimulate the economy. Conversely, if the Fed adopts a tight money policy, this reduces the money supply, raises rates, and should dampen economic activity.

 

In periods of easy money when interest rates are delining, yields on shorter securities will be less than those on longer maturities. Yield curces will tend to slope upward from the shorter to the longer maturities. In periods when FRB tightens aggressively, the yield curve may invert. This means that shorter-term interest rates will be higher than longer-term rates.

 

The FRB attempts to control the money supply and credit to maintain a stable, growing economy with the aim of combating inflation.

 

Shifts in economic conditions will influence the Fed's focus on the money supply figures.

 

M1 = currency in circulation + demand deposits + other checkable deposits.

 

M2 =

M1 + MMDAs

+ Savings and relatively small time deposits

+ Balances at money funds

+ Overnight repurchase agreements at banks

 

M3 =

M2 + Large time deposits+ Term repurchase agreements at banks and savings and loans

+ Eurodollars (no longer published by the FRB)

 

Each week, the Fed compiles and publishes figures on the size of the money supply according to the M1 measure. Once a month it publishes figures on M2 and M3.

Term
The Fed, AKA the FRB (Federal Reserve Board)
Definition

Monetary policy is controlled by this body that is theoretically independent from the political process.

 

Monetary policy attempts to control the supply of money and credit in the economy. This, in turn affects interest rates, causing an increase or decrease in economic activity. The primary focus of monetary policy is to control inflation. This body implements monetary policy in the US.

 

This body attempts to control the money supply and credit to maintain a stable, growing economy with the aim of combating inflation.

 

Shifts in economic conditions will influence this body's focus on the money supply figures.

 

Each week, this body compiles and publishes figures on the size of the money supply according to the M1 measure. Once a month it publishes figures on M2 and M3.

 

M1 (AKA Money) = currency in circulation

+ demand deposits + other checkable deposits.

 

Money, as measured by M1, is printed by this body, but the commercial banking system is what creates checking accounts. Banks make a profit if they can attract deposits and lend those funds at a higher rate of interest. Intermediation refers to the ability of financial intermediaries (such as banks) to attract deposits and, in turn, extend credit.

 

Disintermediation is the process by which investors withdraw funds from banks and seek higher yielding investments elsewhere. 

 

M2 =

M1 + MMDAs

+ Savings and relatively small time deposits

+ Balances at money funds

+ Overnight repurchase agreements at banks

 

M3 =

M2 + Large time deposits+ Term repurchase agreements at banks and savings and loans

+ Eurodollars (no longer published by the FRB)

 

This body has various tools at its disposal through which it may implement in its monetary policy. These tools (5) are:

  • Setting reserve requirements - Banks are required to keep a portion of their deposits on reserve with this body. This body can tighten or ease the money supply by adjusting the requirement. If reserve requirements are lowered, the banks are able to extend more credit. Thus the money supply increases & vice versa. The amount a bank has above the reserve requirement is called excess reserves. The money spent by borrowers will eventually be deposited in another bank. This continues as money is deposited from bank to bank, creating a multiplier effect on deposits. This multiplier effect is the rate at which banks can create new money by relending deposits and, in turn, creating new deposits. Changing the reserve requirements will have an impact on the multiplier effect within the banking system. An additional factor is the velocity of money, which measures the # of times a dollar is spent over a given period. The effect of these changes on the reserve requirement can be drastic, so this is one of the least-used tools of monetary policy.
  • Setting the discount rate - This body was originally established to aid the banking system in emergency situations by acting as a banker's bank. This body always stands ready to lend money to its members. It fulfills that function through its discount window. The rate charged for loans is called the discount rate. When members of this body borrow using the discount window, new money is injected into the system, which is then expanded by the multiplier effect. This body can encourage or discourage the use of its discount-window borrowing by changing the rate of interest it charges for those loans. A change in the discount rate is usually taken as a very strong sign that monetary policy has shifted. The discount rate is the only rate set directly by the FRB. Although it is largely symbolic, it acts as a benchmark off of which other key interest rates are built, such as the fed funds rate. Due to deposits, withdraws, and loan demands, a bank may find itself with either an excess reserve position or a deficit reserve position. If a bank has excess reserves, it may lend additional funds to borrowers, including commercial banks that are in a deficit reserve position. These short-term loans of excess reserves that banks lend each other are called the federal funds rate. The fed funds rate is determined by supply & demand. Since federal funds are short-term, they are considered money market instruments. Due to the short duration of the loan, the fed funds rate is normally considered to be the most volatile interest rate. The effective fed funds rate is published daily and shows the average rate charged the previous night for fed funds. Although this body does not directly set the fed funds rate, it does set a target. The open market operations of this body are designed to maintain the fed funds rate within this prescribed range.
  • Implementing open market operations - This involves the buying and selling of US govt securities, primarily treasury bills. This body also trades govt notes & bonds. These trades are executed through primary govt dealers, banks, and brokerage firms appointed by this body. This tool can be implemented very quietly, without disrupting financial markets (unlike the previously listed tools). The FOMC (Federal Open Market Committee) oversees this body's buying and selling of US govt securities in the secondary markets. This is the most effective and frequently used tool of monetary controlused by this body. It is also the most flexible and easy to reverse. If this body buys securities, it pays for them with funds that are ultimately deposited in commercial banks. This causes deposits at banks to increase and thereby adds to the funds available for loans. The result is an increase in reserves. Money becomes more available and interest rates tend to move downward. This is referred to as easy money policy. Should this body wish to tighten the money supply, it will sell securities to banks and securities dealers. The banks and dealers will pay for these securities by withdrawing money from their demand (checking) accounts. The withdraw of money from the banks will decrease the amount of money available for loans. This will cause interest rates to rise. A repo (repurchase contract) is a constract entered into by this body to purchase US govt securities from dealers, at a fixed price with provisions for their resale back to the dealer plus a negotiated rate of interest. When the fed effects a repo, it is lending money and, therefore, increases bank reserves. A reverse repo (aka a matched sale) occurs when this body sells securities to dealers with the intention of buying the securities back at a future date. This has the short term effect of absorbing funds from the money supply.
  • Setting margin requirements - The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 gave this body the power to determine the amount of credit that could be extended to purchase securities. Reg T applies to brokerage firms. Reg U applies to banks & all other lenders.. By increasing margin requirements, thid body reduces the amount brokers & banks may lend, causing the money supply to tighten. Changing margin requirements is the least effective method this body has to control credit because it affects only stock market transactions.
  • Using moral suasion - Moral suasion, AKA jawboning, is an appeal to morality in order to influence or change behavior. (Yeah ok. Good luck with that :P ) This body exerts its influence through the public media or through the examiners sent to member banks. Its efforts to control the money supply by these means are limited but the extent to which they can elicit cooperation from these institutions.

 

An easy money policy on the part of this body increases the money supply, lowers rates, and should eventually stimulate the economy. Conversely, if this body adopts a tight money policy, this reduces the money supply, raises rates, and should dampen economic activity.

 

In periods of easy money when interest rates are delining, yields on shorter securities will be less than those on longer maturities. Yield curces will tend to slope upward from the shorter to the longer maturities. In periods when this body tightens aggressively, the yield curve may invert. This means that shorter-term interest rates will be higher than longer-term rates.

 

Any tool or method that creates additional money for the banking system is inflationary, vice versa. This body will use its tools to influence inflation & deflation.

 

Changes in the interest rate affect not only the domestic economy, but also international economic activity. If interest rates in the US are higher than interest rates overseas, foreign investors, wishing to earn the higher rate, may want to invest in the US. In order to invest in the US, foreign investors must first convert their funds into dollars. As demand for dollars increases, the price of dollars as measured by the exchange rate will increase. Typically, higher US interest rates compared to foreign yields may lead to a stronger dollar.

 

If exports from the US decrease due to a stronger US dollar, this creates a trade deficit (imports exceed exports). To correct a trade deficit, the dollar must fall. US goods will become cheaper abroad, and foreign goods more expensive in the US. 

 

Fluctuations in the value of currencies can have a dramatic impact on investors' returns. If a US investor believed the dollar was about to weaken, he would increase his exposure to foreign denominated investments. Vice versa.

Term

Profiling clients based on employment &

other suitability guidelines

Definition

Doctor - Assume high tax bracket => concerned about tax implications of securities such as bond

 

Janitor - Assume low tax bracket => less concerned about tax implications of securities such as bonds

 

When in doubt between two choices, lean towards the more conservative investment option. Reason: The exam is written by regulators who view suitability as more important than profitability ;(

 

Under industry rules, all recommendations to customers must be suitable based on the facts disclosed by the customer regarding other securities holdings and the customer's financial situation and needs. A recommendation that results in a colassal profit may still be viewed by regulators as unsuitable. Conversely, a recommendation that results in a significant loss may in fact have been suitable.

 

A customer's investment profile includes the following factors:

  • Age
  • Other investments
  • Financial situation & needs
  • Tax status
  • Investment objectives and experience
  • Investment time horizon
  • Liquidity needs
  • Risk tolerance
  • Any other information obtained from the customer.

Remember that age = recommended % of investments in bonds, 100-age = recommended equity %.

 

However, an investment that goes against a client's express wishes is never suitable.

Term

James Addington, an elderly customer, is seeking preservation of his capital. What investment should you, as Mr Addington's RR, recommend?

T-Bills

T-Bonds

Definition

T-Bills

 

Remember!!!

 

T-Bills have a short maturity,

T-Notes have the next shortest maturity (>1year)

T-Bonds have the longest maturity (>10 years !!!)

Term
Erin Vagen is a customer who has been saving for her child's college education using a 529 plan. Her child will be attending college in a few years. What asset allocation should you recommend to Mrs Vagen in terms of equity and fixed income? (80-20 or 20-80?)
Definition

80% fixed-income securities and 20% equity securities

 

You should make the assumption that they are asking about whichever account they mention.

 

Even though the student is young, she will soon need to access funds for college. As a child approaches college age, a suitable investment strategy is to move from growth oriented securities to income-oriented securities. Once a child begins to attend collese, most of the funds should be invested in MMFs or other types of short-term investments that are liquid with very little risk of capital. In this case, there is still a limited time for assets to grow, so a minimal percentage of the account should be left in equities.

Term

A customer in his early 50s, who recently received a sizable bonus, has an investment objective of growth. He already has a sizable portfolio of equities and fixed-income securities. The customer is seeking some additional diversification into real estate but wants to have access to his funds in case an emergency arises. What should you recommend to this customer?

A. A REIT

B. A new construction DPP

 

Definition

The REIT

 

Remember:

 

REITs (Real Estate Investment Trusts) are exchange traded, making them liquid. They are also more diverse than DPPs, offering protection.

 

DPPs (Direct Participation Plans), AKA Limited Partnerships are not exchange-listed and often have multiyear holding periods. The Limited Partner sometimes must get the permission of the General Partner to sell their investment interest.

Term
A couple in their early 20's, recently married, comes to you to invest a portion of their wedding gifts. The couple has very little savings and virtually no investment experience. They have just purchased a new home in the area and are anxious to begin making money in the stock market. What would you recommend to this couple?
Definition

Short term bonds or money-market securities and a small allocation of equity.

 

As a general rule, most people should have a cash reserve equal to at least three months of living expenses. In certain circumstances, such as when a client's income is unpredicatable, it may be wise to maintain a larger cash reserve. Capital reserves should be kept in a safe, liquid investment such as a MMF. This couple is reasy and willing to invest in the stock market, but only a small allocation of their assets should be placed in equities until they establish sufficient cash reserves.

Term

Eddie Emerald is an accredited investor who loves to invest in high-risk ventures. He is a seasoned stock market player who enjoys trading both options and leveraged products. Eddie is the custodian for his 6 y.o. niece, Amanda, and manages the child's UGMA. What investments should you recommend for this UGMA account?

A. Hedge funds, since these products offer the potential for oversized returns

B. A broad collection of equity

Definition

A broad collection of equity.

 

In some cases, assets are being invested for the benefit of a third party such as a child or infirmed relative. In these cases, the RR must look at the profile and objective of the beneficiary, not the person who is making the ultimate investment decisions. In this case, a high0quality equity portfolio is a suitable recommendation for Amanda. Hedge funds are illiquid and are inappropriate for placement in a UGMA account.

Term

  All of the following choices are leading economic

  indicators, except:

 

A. New orders for consumer goods & services

B. Manufacturing and trade sales

C. The S&P 500 stock index

D. The money supply

Definition

Here are the three types of business cycle indicators:

  1. Leading Economic Indicators - These precede the upward and downward movements of the business cycle. They may also be used to predict the near-term activity of the economy. The govt index of 10 leading economic indicators is released monthly. The components of the index are (11)
    1. The average workweek for production workers in manufacturing
    2. The average weekly initial claims for state unemployment insurance
    3. New orders for consumer goods & materials
    4. Vendor performance (companies receiving slower deliveries from suppliers)
    5. Contracts & orders for plant and equipment
    6. New building permits for private housing units
    7. The prices for the S&P 500 Index common stocks.
    8. The Money Supply (S2)
    9. The change in credit outstanding for businesses and consumer borrowing
    10. Interest-rate spreads, 10-year Treasury bonds less federal funds
    11. Index of consumer expectations
  2. Coincident Economic Indicators - These usually mirror the movements of the business cycle. (4)
    1. Employees on nonagricultural payrolls
    2. Personal income less transfer payments (transfer payments represent aid for individuals in the form of medicare, social security, and verteran's benefits to list a few)
    3. The Index of Industrial Production
    4. Manufacturing and trade sales
  3. Lagging Economic Indicators - The index of lagging indicators represents items that change after the economy has moved through the various stages of the business cycle. The index of lagging indicators chould confirm the economic condition portrayed by previous leading and coincident indexes. These include... (7):
    1. The average duration of unemployment
    2. The relationship of inventories to sales, manufacturing, and trade
    3. Labor cost per unit of output for manufactured goods
    4. The average prime rate charged by banks
    5. Commercial and industrial loans outstanding
    6. The relationship of consumer installment credit to personal income
    7. CPI for services
Term

Interest Rates should rise if:

 

I.    The supply of money increases

II.   The supply of money decreases

III.  The demand for money increases

IV.  The demand for money decreases

 

(????????????)

Definition

Do not confuse this question for the question of "When are interest rates high?"

 

Interest rates are usually high in inflationary environments.

 

However, the interest rate can be thought of as the price of money. The price of an item increases when supply decreases and when demand increases.

 

Inflationary environments do not neccessarily have a high supply of money either. In an inflationary environment the price of consumer goods is high. This means there is too much money chasing too few goods. Man, now I am confused.

Term
Call Money Rate
Definition
Term

A customer's margin account is as follows.

Long Market Value   $45,000
Debit Balance   $20,000
SMA   $5,000
Credit Balance   $15,000
Short Market Value   $9,000

What is the total equity in this account?

Definition
Equity = LMV-DB+CB-SMV
Term
 
Which of the following choices is NOT a leading economic indicator?
  1. Building permits
  2. The money supply
  3. The prime rate
  4. Stock prices
Definition
The prime rate
Term

Which of the following factors would be LEAST important in an analysis of whether an RR had churned a client's account?

  1. The type of securities the client traded
  2. The amount of commissions the client paid
  3. The amount of portfolio turnover
  4. The client's investment objectives
Definition
The type of securities the client traded
Term

Which of the following companies will be most affected by a recession?

  1. A health management organization
  2. A utility
  3. A brewery
  4. A mobile home manufacturer
Definition
A cyclical company is one whose sales move in line with the business cycle and, therefore, will be affected by a recession. Health care, tobacco, utilities, and supermarket companies are examples of defensive stocks, which are generally not as affected by changes in the economy (business cycle). The stock of household appliance companies, steel companies, and construction companies are examples of cyclical stocks.
Term

Which of the following choices will NOT affect the SMA in a long margin account?

  1. Cash dividends paid on securities in a margin account
  2. Cash deposited in the account to reduce the debit balance
  3. Stock dividends paid on securities held in the margin account
  4. Appreciation in market value of the securities in a margin account
Definition
Stock dividends paid on securities held in a margin account will not increase the SMA. The market value of the stock already in the account will be reduced by the amount of the stock dividend as the number of shares of the stock increases. The total dollar value will remain the same. All the other choices will have an effect on the SMA
Term

A customer makes an initial purchase of 100 shares of XYZ on the NYSE at $36 per share. The Federal Reserve margin requirement according to Regulation T is 50%. The customer will be required to deposit:

  1. $1,800
  2. $2,000
  3. $2,500
  4. $3,600
Definition
Industry rules require minimum initial equity in a margin account to be the lesser of $2,000, or 100% of the purchase price. If the customer already had an account with enough equity in it, the call would be for $1,800 (50% of $3,600). However, the question states that it is an initial purchase and we must assume that this is a new margin account. Therefore, $2,000 must be deposited.
Term

Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE concerning chart patterns?

  1. The support level of a stock is the bottom of its trading range
  2. A breakout above a resistance level of a stock is a bearish indicator
  3. Once a trendline has been established, the price movement of a stock will usually follow the trendline
  4. Once a trendline has been established, the price movement of a stock will usually move away from the trendline
Definition
The support level of a stock is the bottom of its trading range. At this price, investors are attracted to the stock, purchase the security, and support the price. The resistance level is the top of its trading range. At this level, the market price of the security meets resistance since investors feel the stock is overvalued. A breakout above a resistance level of a stock is a bullish indicator. A trendline is a solid line that traces the lows of a stock as it moves in an upward direction, and the highs of a stock as it moves in a downward direction. Once a trendline has been established, the price movement of a stock will usually follow the trendline.
Term

Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE regarding the hypothecation agreement in a margin account?

  1. The broker-dealer may pledge no more than 100% of the debit balance in stock to the bank
  2. The broker-dealer may pledge no more than 140% of the debit balance in stock to the bank
  3. The bank lends 100% of the debit balance to the broker-dealer
  4. The bank lends 140% of the debit balance to the broker-dealer
Definition
In the hypothecation agreement, the customer pledges the stock to the broker-dealer as collateral for a loan. The broker-dealer then pledges (rehypothecates) an amount of the customer's stock equal to 140% of the debit balance to collateralize the loan from the bank. The bank will lend the entire debit balance (100%) to the broker-dealer, who will lend the same dollar amount to the customer.
Term

Which of the following rates is the most volatile?

  1. The prime rate
  2. The discount rate
  3. The call rate
  4. The federal funds rate
Definition
Rates fluctuate the most on short-term securities. The federal funds rate, which is the rate of interest one bank charges another bank for the use of excess reserves for short-term periods (usually overnight), fluctuates the most since it has the shortest maturity.
Term

List the following interest rates from the lowest to the highest rate charged.

  1. Broker loan rate
  2. Prime rate
  3. Discount rate
  4. Federal funds rate
Definition

These various rates are:

  • Federal Funds Rate -- The rate charged by commercial banks with excess reserves on overnight loans
  • Discount Rate -- The rate charged by the Federal Reserve Board on loans to member banks
  • Broker Loan Rate -- Also referred to as broker call rate, which is the rate charged on loans to broker-dealers on funds used by clients for margin transactions
  • Prime Rate -- The rate banks charge their best customers on loans

Currently the federal funds rate is the lowest of the four that are listed, followed by the discount rate, broker loan rate, and the prime rate. Prior to 2003, the discount rate was lower than the federal funds rate, but there is no choice listed in this question with that being the correct order.

Term

A customer sells short 100 shares of ABC at 40 and also writes an ABC Jan 40 put @ 4. The margin requirement for these transactions is:

  1. $1,600
  2. $2,000
  3. $3,200
  4. $5,200
Definition
The margin requirement for the short sale of stock is 50% or $2,000. The put is covered and there is no margin requirement. If the question asked for the required deposit, the $400 premium received would be deducted.
Term

The initial FRB margin requirement is 50%. A customer purchases 1,000 shares of Depaul Corporation stock at $86 per share and makes the necessary deposit. If the stock increases in value to $98 per share and later declines to $89 a share. What is the SMA and the equity in the account?

Definition

Initial Deposit = 86K/2 = 43K


Upon increase to $98/share:

Equity = LMV - DEBIT => 98K - 43K = 55K

SMA = (Equity - Deposit) / 2 = 6K


Upon decrease to $89/share:

SMA does not decrease upon a reduction in the account balance.

Equity = LMV - DEBIT => 89K - 43K = 46K

 



First, determine the amount of the debit balance. If the customer purchased $86,000 worth of stock at a 50% margin requirement and deposited $43,000, the debit balance is $43,000 ($86,000 market value - $43,000 margin requirement = $43,000 debit balance).


Depaul stock increased to $98 per share making the market value $98,000. The equity increases to $55,000. The excess equity (SMA) is found by subtracting the FRB-required equity of $49,000 (50% of $98,000) from the actual equity in the account of $55,000. The SMA is, therefore, $6,000. The SMA remains in the account until it is used. The SMA balance will never decrease because of market movements. Securities held in a margin account that increase in value can create excess equity (SMA) but, if these securities later decline in value, this will not decrease SMA. The equity decreases since the market value declined to $89 per share and is now $46,000 ($89,000 - $43,000).

Term

A corporation has $10,000,000 of a 5% preferred stock issue outstanding. If the corporation is able to replace the preferred stock with $10,000,000 of 5% subordinated debentures, what effect will it have on earnings per share (EPS)?

  1. EPS will increase
  2. EPS will decrease
  3. EPS will remain the same
  4. The effect cannot be determined
Definition
The company will pay the same amount ($500,000) whether it was interest on the subordinated debentures or dividends on the preferred stock. However, interest is deducted before taxes while dividends are taken from net income. Therefore, there will be a tax savings if the $500,000 payment is bond interest, which will result in higher earnings per share.
Term

The choice that BEST describes the economic theory that relies on controlling the money supply and interest rates to manage the economy is:

  1. The Keynesian economic theory
  2. Supply-side economics
  3. The Monetarist theory
  4. The random walk theory
Definition

The Monetarist theory


The Monetarist theory believes that the economy can be controlled by increasing or decreasing the money supply.


Keynesian economic theory belives that the US Govt should interfere by adjusting tax rates, AKA using fiscal policy

Term

The initial transaction in a margin account is a short sale of 100 shares of stock at $17.50 a share. The customer will be required to deposit:

  1. 0
  2. $875
  3. $1,750
  4. $2,000
Definition

Max($1750, $2000) = $2000


If the initial transaction in a margin account is a short sale, industry rules require a minimum equity deposit of $2,000 or the required
Reg. T deposit, whichever is greater. Since $2,000 is greater than $1,750, the required deposit is $2,000.



For a purchase, the minimum equity requirement is the lesser of $2,000 or 100% of the purchase price.

Term
How many days must pass before a member of a syndicate may extend credit for a customer on a security that was part of a new issue?
Definition
30 days
Term
 
A limited partner has a $10,000 basis in a partnership. During the year, he receives a $6,000 cash distribution and a $9,000 loss. What is the limited partner's basis at the end of the year?
Definition

$0


A cash distribution and an operating loss will decrease a partner's basis. The $6,000 cash distribution reduces the partner's interest in the partnership to $4,000. As a rule, a partner may receive losses to the extent of his adjusted basis (the amount that is at risk). After $4,000 of loss is deducted, the partner's basis is reduced to zero. $5,000 of the loss may not be deducted. This amount will be left in suspense and may be subsequently deducted when the individual's basis increases above zero.

 

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Term

An individual has annuitized her variable annuity contract and has begun receiving payments. She decides she would rather start a withdrawal program, no longer annuitizing the contract. As her registered representative, you may inform her that:

  1. She may make this change without restriction
  2. Once annuitized, she may no longer make a change
  3. Once annuitized, she may change only the settlement option
  4. She is limitied to a 1035 exchange
Definition
Once a variable annuity has been annuitized, changes are not permitted. A 1035 exchange is switching from one annuity to another during the accumulation period.
Term

Which of the following securities will MOST likely be subject to a withholding tax?

  1. An American Depositary Receipt (ADR)
  2. A structured note
  3. A convertible bond
  4. A private activity bond
Definition

Dividends and interest paid to a U.S. investor on foreign securities, such as an ADR, may be subject to a withholding tax by the country from which they were paid. If the investor has securities that paid dividends and/or interest that were subject to foreign tax, the broker-dealer will send the investor a form that will report the gross amount of the dividends or interest, and the amount of tax withheld by the foreign government.


ADRs are the securities that facilitate the trading of foreign securities using US Dollars. Think of Softbank.

Term

You are a registered representative at a member firm. Which of the following persons are bound by industry rules when opening an account at another member firm?

  1. Your spouse and minor children
  2. Your spouse only
  3. All blood relatives
  4. All persons living at your residence
Definition

Your spouse and minor children


Industry rules regarding accounts of employees or partners of other member firms also apply to the employee's spouse and minor children. FINRA uses the benchmark of whether the associated person has a financial interest in the account when making the determination. Choice (d) is incorrect since some persons living with you may not be relatives and may not share your financial interests (e.g., roommates).

Term
 
Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE regarding Eurodollar bonds?
  1. They are denominated in U.S. dollars only
  2. They are denominated in foreign currencies only
  3. They are only traded outside of the U.S.
  4. They are traded in the U.S. and international markets
Definition

I & IV


Eurodollar bonds are issued by both U.S. and foreign companies and are denominated in U.S. dollars. Eurodollar bonds are actively traded in the U.S. after a seasoning period of 40 days. Eurodollar bonds are issued outside the U.S. to foreign investors and are exempt from SEC registration. Since they are not registered, they cannot be purchased as new issues in the U.S.

Term

 Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE regarding the sale of restricted securities under SEC Rule 144?

  1. The securities must be fully paid
  2. The sale may be made on an agency basis only
  3. A Form 144 notice of sale must be filed with the SEC no later than 30 days after the sale
  4. The securities must be owned for six months
Definition
Restricted securities must be fully paid, owned for six months, and may be sold on an agency or principal basis. A Form 144 notice of sale, which is good for 90 days, must be filed with the SEC prior to, or at the time of, the sale. Control securities have no required holding period.
Term

In mutual fund advertising, it is NOT permissible to state that:

  1. A fund does not charge a 12b-1 fee
  2. Dollar cost averaging assures long-term growth
  3. Funds of competitors have higher expense ratios
  4. The investment adviser has 20 years' experience
Definition
Mutual fund advertising may not state that any systematic method of investing will assure a profit or a specific rate of return. Historical rates of return may be disclosed. The other statements are acceptable.
Term

An investor purchases $10,000 face value of an 8-year municipal bond at a price of 108 and holds the bond to maturity. The investor will report:

  1. No loss or gain
  2. An $800 capital loss
  3. An $800 capital gain
  4. $800 accreted interest
Definition
The premium paid on a municipal bond must be amortized over the life of the bond. If held to maturity, the cost basis is reduced to par value and there is no loss.
Term

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE relating to a Keogh plan?

  1. It must follow ERISA standards for eligibility, funding, and vesting
  2. It may be a defined benefit or defined contribution plan
  3. Distributions paid to participants at retirement are fully taxable as ordinary income
  4. An individual covered by a Keogh plan may not maintain an IRA
Definition

(An individual covered by a Keogh plan may not maintain an IRA) is false.

 

the taxation is deferred which means it will be fully taxable when it is withdrawn.

 

A Keogh plan must follow all ERISA standards. It may be established as either a defined contribution or a defined benefit plan. In a defined contribution plan, a specific contribution is made each year and benefits are whatever is provided by the total of contributions and earnings in the plan. A defined benefit plan promises specific benefits at retirement. Payments made at retirement under either method are fully taxable as ordinary income. An individual may maintain a Keogh and an IRA. However, deductions may only be claimed for IRA contributions if the individual's income is below a specified amount.

Term
Designated Order
Definition
 This is an order directed to a syndicate manager by an institutional account designating two or more members of the underwriting account to receive credit for that order. This order is placed directly with the syndicate manager during the order period prior to the release of the bonds for secondary trading. This occurs during an IPO
Term

On the purchase of a new municipal issue, a dealer must provide a customer with:

  1. A final confirmation with the total money amount
  2. A copy of the official statement, if published
  3. A copy of the underwriting agreement
  4. The names of the syndicate members
Definition

I & II only.

 

A purchaser of a new municipal issue must be provided with a final confirmation and a copy of the official statement.

Term

When a sale takes place in a long margin account, which TWO of the following results occur?

  1. The market value of the account is reduced
  2. The equity of the account is increased
  3. The SMA remains the same
  4. The debit balance is reduced
Definition

The market value and the debit balance are reduced by the same amount. Thus the equity stays the same.


The sale of securities in a long margin account would not cause the equity in the account to increase. The market value of the securities is reduced. The debit balance (indebtedness) of the account is reduced by the same amount as the market value, and the equity remains the same. SMA is credited with an amount equal to 50% of the sale.

Term
If a broker-dealer is assigned an exercise notice on Monday, May 2, on what day will the called stock settle?
Definition

 

Thursday, May 5


If an option contract is exercised, the settlement date for the stock is three business days from the date the option was exercised.

Term

Which of the following activities does NOT take place during the cooling-off period?

  1. The due diligence meeting
  2. Issuing a red herring
  3. Stabilizing the issue
  4. Blue-Skying the issue
Definition
When a new stock issue is going to be offered, a registration statement must be filed with the SEC. After the filing, there is a period when the SEC reviews the information to ensure full disclosure. During the cooling-off period, a preliminary prospectus (red herring) is prepared to be used to receive indications of interest from the public. The issue must be registered in each state in which it will be sold according to state (Blue-Sky) laws. Prior to the completion of the final prospectus, a due diligence meeting is held where all concerned parties (issuer and underwriter) meet to insure that everything has been done properly. Stabilization of the issue takes place after the new security is selling in the market.
Term
A Treasury bond is quoted 105.04 - 105.24. What is the purchase price that a customer would pay?
Definition

$1057.50

 

U.S. Treasury notes and bonds are quoted in 32nds of a point. When purchasing the bond, the customer pays the offering price of 105.24. To convert 105.24 into a dollar price take the following steps.

  1. 105.24 is equal to 105 24/32
  2. Convert 24/32 into a decimal, which is .75
  3. Convert 105.75% into a dollar price (105.75% x $1,000 = $1,057.50)

The customer pays $1,057.50.

Term

An investor's goal is to buy a security that establishes a fixed return, for a long period, with no reinvestment risk. Which of the following securities BEST suits the investor's needs?

  1. Treasury bonds
  2. Common stock
  3. Highly rated corporate bonds
  4. Treasury STRIPS
Definition
The typical yield-to-maturity calculation assumes that each interest payment is reinvested at the same yield. There is no guarantee that the investor could reinvest at the same yield (reinvestment risk). Treasury STRIPS are zero-coupon bonds (long-term). Interest is automatically reinvested and compounded at the same yield and reinvestment risk is avoided.
Term

State governments receive the LEAST amount of revenues from:

  1. Sales taxes
  2. Gasoline taxes
  3. Excise taxes
  4. Property taxes
Definition

State governments receive the least amount of revenues from property taxes. States raise money primarily from income taxes, sales taxes, excise taxes, and license fees. Very little is raised from property taxes. Local municipalities raise most of their funds from property taxes (real estate taxes).


Remember:

  1. Excise taxes are taxes paid when purchases are made on a specific good, such as gasoline. Excise taxes are often included in the price of the product. There are also excise taxes on activities, such as on wagering or on highway usage by trucks. Excise Tax has several general excise tax programs.
Term

When a gift of securities is purchased for a minor in a custodian account, the gift becomes the property of the minor:

  1. When the custodian releases the account
  2. When the donor approves the transaction
  3. When the minor reaches the age of majority
  4. At the time of the execution of the order
Definition
According to the Internal Revenue Code, the gift becomes the property of the minor at the time of the execution of the order.
Term

All of the following information is found in a municipal revenue bond resolution, EXCEPT:

  1. Restrictions on the sale of additional bonds
  2. Rate covenants
  3. Sinking-fund provisions
  4. The yields to maturity of the bonds
Definition
The indenture or resolution is basically the contract between the issuer and the bondholder. It will specify the rights of the bondholders and the provisions to protect the bondholders' interest. One of the provisions included is a rate covenant in which the issuer pledges to charge rates that are sufficient to cover expenses and debt service. An additional bonds test is included that sets requirements that must be met before additional bonds can be issued. The method of funding and the operation of the sinking fund (used to retire some bonds prior to maturity) are also included. Another important provision is flow of funds, which states how the income generated by the project will be used.
Term

Which of the following choices is a feature of the Nasdaq Level II System?

  1. The price of transactions as they occur
  2. The cumulative volume of stocks traded as they occur
  3. Firm quotes of all the market makers in a stock
  4. Allowing a market maker to change his quotes
Definition

 

Firm quotes of all the market makers in a stock

 


Nasdaq Level I shows the highest bid and lowest offer. This is known as the inside market.


Level II shows firm quotes and the market makers who are making a market in the security.


Level III allows the market makers to change their quotations in the system.

Term

Mr. Smith purchases 100 shares of MNP @ 30 and also purchases 1 MNP May 30 put @ 3. Mr. Smith is:

  1. Guaranteed against a loss until the option expires
  2. Guaranteed a profit until the option expires
  3. Protected from a decline in the market for as long as he owns the stock
  4. Protected from a decline in the market until the option expires
Definition



The purchase of a put will provide protection against a decline in a long stock position. Should the stock decline, the holder can exercise the put and deliver his stock at the strike price. This will limit Mr. Smith's loss. The protection will last only until the put expires. Mr. Smith does have a limited potential loss until expiration but is not guaranteed against a loss and is not guaranteed a profit.

Term

Mary is short 1 ABC Oct 40 put. By adding which of the following positions to her account can she create a debit spread?

  1. Long 1 ABC Oct 30 call
  2. Long 1 ABC Oct 50 call
  3. Long 1 ABC Oct 30 put
  4. Long 1 ABC Oct 50 put
Definition

This question is kinda bullshit because it does not give you the premiums paid, so you just have to assume. A debit spread is when the premium is higher for the option you buy than the premium for the option you sell.

 

The premium of an option = the inherant value of the option + the time value

 

Since both options will expire in the same month, the time values are equal. Since a long put represents an option to sell at a specific price, the Long 1 ABC Oct 50 Put will have a higher premium than the ABC 40 which in turn will have a higher premium than the ABC 30.


A spread is defined as being long and short the same type of option (call or put) on the same underlying security. If they have different strike prices, it is defined as a vertical (price) spread. When they have different expiration dates, it is defined as a horizontal (time) spread. Should both the strike price and expiration be different, it is referred to as a diagonal spread.

In a vertical put spread, if the strike price is higher on the long side, it is a debit spread. Since a put is the right to sell, the higher strike price will have a larger premium. If the strike price is higher on the short side, it is a credit spread, since the short side is more valuable and would result in money being credited to the account.

When Mary adds 1 long ABC Oct 50 put to the account, she will pay more than was received for the 1 short ABC Oct 40 put.

Term

Which TWO of the following investors are considered equity owners of a corporation?

  1. Holders of common stock
  2. Holders of warrants
  3. Holders of preferred stock
  4. Holders of rights
Definition

I & III

 

Common and preferred shareholders are considered equity owners of a corporation. Rights and warrants are securities that represent an option to buy the underlying stock. Therefore, holders of these securities are not considered equity owners.

Term
The IPO of Symphony Music Inc. was registered on July 1, 20XX. If the manager of the new issue wants to publish a research report on Symphony Music, what is the earliest date that it could publish the report?
Definition

 August 11, 20XX


The quiet period that must be adhered to by managers and comanagers for initial public offerings is 40 calendar days.


Other distribution participants must wait 25 days. The restriction for a member firm preparing a research report on a security it recently managed or comanaged (quiet period) for secondary offerings is 10 calendar days.


The earliest date on which a manager or comanager of Symphony Music could publish a research report after the IPO (on July 1, 20XX) is August 11, 20XX. FINRA rules incorporate quiet periods that follow an initial public offering and a secondary offering, during which time the investment banking client may not be the subject of a research report nor may a research analyst make a public appearance regarding securities that are covered by the quiet period. The quiet period that must be adhered to by managers and comanagers for initial public offerings is 40 calendar days. Other distribution participants must wait 25 days. The restriction for a member firm preparing a research report on a security it recently managed or comanaged (quiet period) for secondary offerings is 10 calendar days.

Term

An OTC market maker will NOT use which of the following factors to justify the amount of his markup?

  1. Current price
  2. Dollar value of the trade
  3. His cost
  4. Availability of the securities
Definition

His cost.

 

The amount of markup should be based on the current market price of the security, not the market maker's cost.

Term

An investor in the 28% tax bracket has a $10,000 capital loss and a $6,000 capital gain during the year. The result this year will be (choose 2)

  1. $4,000 deduction against income
  2. $3,000 deduction against income
  3. $1,000 capital loss carryforward
  4. No capital loss carryforward
Definition

II & III

 

Only $3000 per year of income can be offset by capital losses.

 

Netting the loss against the gain leaves a $4,000 net capital loss. The net loss can be used to offset ordinary income to a maximum of $3,000 ordinary income per year. The remaining $1,000 net loss would be carried forward.

Term

Which of the following employees of a municipal securities firm is considered a municipal finance professional?

  1. A municipal bond trader
  2. An investment banker specializing in corporate bonds
  3. A retail representative who recommends municipal securities
  4. A file clerk working in the firm's municipal finance library
Definition

A municipal bond trader


An MFP is defined as any associated person primarily engaged in municipal underwriting, trading, sales, financial advisory and consulting services, and research or investment advice on municipal securities. Registered representatives who recommend municipal securities to retail investors generally are excluded from the definition. An exception is solicitation of municipal securities business from issuers. Any amount of this activity will result in the classification of an associated person as an MFP. A file clerk is not considered an associated person.

Term

Which of the following outside business activities would RRs NOT need to report to their employing broker-dealer?

  1. Part-time employment as a bartender
  2. Participation as a silent partner in a relative's business
  3. Acting as the manager of a sporting goods store on the weekends
  4. Operating an Internet business from home as a sole proprietor
Definition

Participation as a silent partner in a relative's business

 

A silent partner is another way of saying limited partner.


FINRA rules require registered representatives to report to their firm any outside business activities for which they earn compensation. However, a passive investment would generally not need to be reported, nor would participation in charitable activities for which no compensation is received.

Term

A municipal securities representative is NOT permitted to:

  1. Sell municipal securities
  2. Trade municipal securities
  3. Act as an investment adviser to municipal issuers
  4. Supervise other municipal securities representatives
Definition

Supervise other municipal securities representatives


A municipal securities representative may engage in all the activities listed except supervise other representatives. This may be done only by a principal.


You can't be both???

Term

Which TWO of the following choices are characteristics of reverse convertible securities?

  1. The coupon rate is usually above prevailing market rates
  2. The coupon rate is usually below prevailing market rates
  3. The investor may have an obligation to purchase shares of an equity security
  4. The investor may have the right to sell shares of an equity security
Definition

I & III


Reverse convertible securities are short-term notes issued by banks and broker-dealers that usually pay a coupon rate above prevailing market rates. They are considered structured products because, in addition to the coupon rate, the investor may be required to purchase shares of an underlying asset at a fixed price. The underlying asset may be an equity security unrelated to the issuer, or a basket of stock, or an index. The issuer agrees to pay this higher coupon rate since it has an option to sell a security to the investor if the price of the security falls below a specified value known as the knock-in level. If the price of the underlying asset stays above the knock-in level, the investor will receive the high coupon and the full return of his principal. If the underlying asset falls below the knock-in level, the investor will be obligated to purchase shares of the underlying asset at a fixed price. The price of this asset may have depreciated below the knock-in level and the investor may receive substantially less than the original principal.

Term

According to MSRB rules, each broker-dealer engaging in municipal securities activities must have a municipal securities principal promptly review and/or approve in writing:

  1. Each customer account for trading in municipal securities
  2. Every transaction for municipal securities
  3. All written customer complaints
  4. All advertising and other written correspondence pertaining to municipal securities activities
Definition

I & II & III & IV



A municipal securities principal is responsible for supervising activities relating to municipal securities transactions. Included in her responsibilities are the review and/or approval of all the choices given.

Term

A registered representative wishes to prepare promotional material to be sent to customers concerning the investment merits of CMOs. In the material, the RR plans to compare CMOs to other types of investments so that clients will understand the product better. According to industry rules, which of the following statements regarding the promotional material is TRUE?

  1. Such promotional material is prohibited due to the diverse audience likely to receive it
  2. The RR may prepare the promotional material and compare CMOs to other investments if the comparison helps the product to be better understood by clients
  3. The RR may prepare the material but may only compare CMOs to similar products such as mortgage pools
  4. The RR may prepare the material but may not compare CMOs to any other security
Definition

The RR may prepare the material but may not compare CMOs to any other security


Communications concerning CMOs may not make comparisons between CMOs and other investment products. Also, all such communications must offer educational material describing CMOs

Term

Municipal securities dealers will NOT consider which of the following factors when determining the commissions on a transaction?

  1. The dollar amount involved in the transaction
  2. The availability of the securities
  3. Expenses incurred in doing the trade
  4. The 5% markup policy
Definition

The 5% markup policy is not considered.


All of the choices listed need to be considered except the 5% markup policy. This is due to the fact that municipal bond transactions are exempt from the 5% policy. MSRB rules require a broker-dealer to obtain a price that is fair and reasonable based on prevailing market conditions.

Term

In January, an investor receives a bonus from her employer. She will need to have access to the funds in April. An RR should NOT recommend which of the following municipal securities?

  1. A variable rate demand obligation (VRDO)
  2. An auction rate security (ARS)
  3. A tax anticipation note (TAN)
  4. A bond anticipation note (BAN)
Definition

ARS

 

VRDOs and ARSs are both long-term securities with short-term trading features. VRDOs have a put feature that permits the holder to sell the securities back to the issuer or third party. Auction rate securities (ARSs) do not have this feature and, if the auction fails, the investor may not have immediate access to his funds. TANs and BANs are short-term municipal notes and, if their maturities extend beyond April, these securities could easily be sold in the secondary market.

Term
 
A corporation is in the 34% tax bracket. Which of the following choices provides the best return if the corporation wants to invest some of its surplus cash?
  1. A preferred stock paying a 7.50% dividend
  2. A corporate bond yielding 8%
  3. A common stock yielding 6%
  4. A municipal bond yielding 6%
Definition
Corporations have a tax advantage on dividends received from investments in preferred stock and common stock of other corporations. If the corporation owns at least 20% of the distributing corporation, it must declare, as income, only 20% of the dividends received (80% is excluded). If the corporation owns less than 20% of the distributing corporation, it must declare as income only 30% of the dividends received (70% is excluded). The 7.50% preferred stock provides the best return since at least 70% is excluded for tax purposes.
Term

An investor is short stock at $70. The current market price of the stock is $40 and the investor anticipates that the price will continue to decline. However, he thinks the price will temporarily rise. If he does not wish to close out his short position, his best strategy to prevent a loss is to:

  1. Buy a call
  2. Sell a call
  3. Buy a put
  4. Buy a straddle
Definition

Buy a call


The investor has an unrealized profit of $3,000 on the short position anticipating that the stock will continue to decline, and wishes to maintain the short position. However, the investor anticipates a temporary rise in the price and wishes to protect the unrealized profit. The best strategy is to buy a call. If the stock should rise in price, the loss on the short position will be offset by the profit on the call.

Let's assume that the investor buys a 40 call for a premium of 3 when the market price is $40. The price of the stock rises to $45, thereby reducing the unrealized profit on the short position by $500. The call, which is now 5 points in-the-money, rises to 7.50. The investor sells the call for a profit of $450. The total loss of unrealized profit on the short position is $50 rather than $500.

Term

A customer has a nondiscretionary account at a broker-dealer. The customer owns 1,000 shares of a stock that is the subject of a news article detailing an SEC investigation. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate for the registered representative to take?

  1. Contact the customer and ask her to place an order to sell the security
  2. Sell the stock only after receiving written authorization from the customer
  3. Wait until you receive notification from a research analyst at your firm that he will be downgrading the security
  4. Sell the stock on behalf of the customer and have the order approved promptly by a principal
Definition

Contact the customer and ask her to place an order to sell the security

 

This is a nondiscretionary account and, therefore, no shares may be sold unless the customer gives the broker-dealer an order to sell the security. Since the news is negative, the RR may want to contact the customer quickly to place an order to sell the security. There is no requirement to receive notification, or contact a research analyst at your firm.

Term
ECNs (electronic communication networks)
Definition
Electronic communication networks (ECNs) are trading systems designed to match buyers with sellers of securities. They can be used by both institutional and retail investors. One of the benefits of their use is immediate automatic execution if a matching buy or sell order can be found on the system. ECNs do not allow investors to trade directly with one another, but allow subscribers such as broker-dealers to use these systems to execute the orders sent to them by their clients.
Term

A transaction occurs between two dealers for a Nasdaq stock. The trade must be reported by:

  1. The buyer within 10 seconds
  2. The seller within 10 seconds
  3. Both within 10 seconds
  4. Both by the end of the day
Definition
Transactions in Nasdaq stocks must be reported to FINRA by the seller within 10 seconds of the trade.
Term
The system used to report municipal securities transactions is called the...?
Definition
Real-Time Transaction Reporting System
Term
In a new municipal issue, what is a group order?
Definition

A situation where all members of the syndicate share in the profit

 

There are four types of orders that can be placed with a syndicate.

  1. A presale order is any order placed before the syndicate that actually purchases the issue from the issuer
  2. A group order is a situation where all members of the syndicate share in the profit
  3. A designated order is usually placed by a large institution that designates two or more members to receive credit for the sale
  4. A member order is an order placed by members for their customers
Term

A CMO would be suitable for an investor seeking:

  1. Monthly tax-free income, assuming he does need the principal returned at maturity
  2. Quarterly income, assuming he does not need the principal returned at maturity
  3. Monthly income, assuming he needs the entire principal returned at maturity
  4. Monthly income, assuming he does not need the entire principal returned at maturity
Definition

Monthly income, assuming he does not need the entire principal returned at maturity

 

This is because some of the principal may be returned with the monthly income.


CMOs pay monthly income made up of interest, which is taxable, and principal, which is a tax-free return of capital. Due to the structure of a CMO, a fluctuating amount of principal is returned monthly, not at maturity, which makes CMOs different from most other fixed-income securities.

Term

A client owns shares of stock purchased at $46 a share. If the current market price is now $70 and the client wants to protect her profit if the price should fall 10%, the RR should recommend which of the following orders?

  1. A market order
  2. Sell stop $63
  3. Sell limit $63
  4. Sell stop-limit $63
Definition

Sell stop $63


This client only wants to sell her position if the stock declines by 10% or $7.00. The RR should recommend a sell stop at $63. A market order is not suitable since the client does not want to sell unless the price declines. A market order will not allow the client to receive further profits if the stock increases above $70. A sell limit is an order to sell at a specified price or higher and is usually placed above the current market price. Therefore, a sell limit at $63 is not suitable. Since the client never mentioned a specific limit selling price she is willing to accept, a stop limit order should not be recommended. In addition, a stop limit order may be activated but never executed, and the client would not be able to protect her profit.

Term

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning periodic payment variable annuities?

  1. A client's number of annuity units never changes
  2. A client's number of accumulation units never changes
  3. Annuity contracts never have a beneficiary
  4. The monthly payout is fixed by the inflation index
Definition
A client's number of annuity units never changes
Term
 
What information would NOT need to be disclosed by a broker-dealer in a research report?
  1. The broker-dealer received compensation for assisting the company in an acquisition
  2. The analyst provided a target price for the company
  3. The analyst is a director of the company
  4. The analyst had owned shares in the company one year before writing the report
Definition

The analyst had owned shares in the company one year before writing the report


Learn to tense. He sold the shares a year ago at least.

Term

A municipal finance professional (MFP) and her spouse make a political contribution of $400 from a joint account and they both sign the check. According to the MSRB political contribution rules, the contribution is viewed as a:

  1. $200 contribution from each party and it must be reported to the MSRB
  2. $400 contribution from the MFP
  3. $400 contribution from the spouse
  4. $200 contribution from each party
Definition

$200 contribution from each party


When both an MFP and her spouse sign a contribution check, the contribution is considered to have been made by both and is split equally between the contributors. On the other hand, if the MFP is the only person who signs the check, then the entire amount of the contribution is allocated to the MFP. If that were the case, the underwriting ban would have been triggered since the contribution amount exceeds $250. There is no limit if the MFP's spouse writes a check from his personal account, rather than from a joint checking account.

Term
The Barge Towing Corporation has announced in a tombstone ad that it will issue $500,000,000 of 6 1/2/% convertible subordinated debenture bonds convertible into common stock at $10.50. The bonds will mature in November 2040 and are being issued at a $1,000 par value. The bonds are secured by:
Definition

The full faith and credit and no specific collateral of the Barge Towing Corporation


DEBENTURED => No collateral

Term

A put option may be written in a cash account if the investor:

  1. Is long the underlying security in the account
  2. Is short the underlying security in the account
  3. Has an escrow receipt for the underlying security
  4. Has a cash balance in the account equal to the total exercise value of the contract
Definition

Has a cash balance in the account equal to the total exercise value of the contract


To write a covered put option in a cash account, the customer must have cash in the account equal to the total exercise value of the contract. If the writer is short the underlying stock, the put is considered covered for margin purposes, but this transaction may not be written in a cash account, only in a margin account.

Term

Long-term certificates of deposit (CDs) have which of the following characteristics?

  1. They may only be sold by broker-dealers that are subsidiaries of banks
  2. They are considered risk-free investments
  3. They may be sold prior to maturity at a price that is different from the client's original cost
  4. They are not subject to interest-rate risk since the principal is insured by the FDIC
Definition

They may be sold prior to maturity at a price that is different from the client's original cost


Long-term CDs have a maturity of more than one year. Since the securities are traded in the secondary market, changes in interest rates will cause price fluctuations. If sold prior to maturity, a CD investor may have a loss or gain. Long-term CDs are issued by banks, but may be sold by any type of broker-dealer. The FDIC provides protection up to $250,000.

Term

Which of the following factors is LEAST important when recommending a long-term brokered CD to a client?

  1. The CD was issued by a bank located in a different state from where the client lives
  2. The CD has a feature in which the interest rate is based on a percentage increase in an equity index
  3. The client will be purchasing the CD in a retirement account
  4. The firm may make a market in this CD, but is not obligated to do so
Definition

The CD was issued by a bank located in a different state from where the client lives


The state in which the client or issuing bank is located is not an important factor when recommending a long-term brokered CD. The features that establish the interest rate of the security, such as an index of fixed-income or equity securities, is relevant to the client. The amount of FDIC insurance and tax considerations are different depending on whether the CD is purchased in a retirement account. In addition, a broker-dealer is not required to maintain a secondary market or act as a market maker in a CD that was sold to the client. This will limit the liquidity of the security if the client needs the funds prior to maturity.

Term
Who is responsible for the safekeeping of the securities owned by a mutual fund?
Definition
The custodian bank is responsible for the safekeeping of the securities owned by a mutual fund. The custodian bank has no responsibility relating to the management of the fund's portfolio.
Term

MACRS (Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System)


The Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System is used when:

  1. Depleting an oil well
  2. Valuing inventory
  3. Depreciating machinery
  4. Amortizing a bond's premium
Definition

Depreciating machinery


The Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) is one method that may be used to depreciate an asset. It allows for larger deductions during the earlier life of an asset when compared to the straight-line method of depreciation.

Term
T+2 Settlement
Definition
 Foreign currency spot transactions (FOREX) - These transactions have no forewarning, therefore they are "on the spot."
Term

On September 14, a customer purchases an ABC December 60 call and sells an ABC November 60 call. The customer (pick 2):

  1. Has engaged in a debit spread
  2. Has engaged in a credit spread
  3. Wants the spread to widen
  4. Wants the spread to narrow
Definition
Has engaged in a debit spread and wants the spread to widen (AKA, wants the options to expire in the money)
Term

Which of the following choices is NOT considered of material value by FINRA if given by a mutual fund underwriter to a registered representative?

  1. A gift of $100
  2. A gift of $200
  3. Overrides in excess of commissions as stated in the prospectus
  4. A gift of $500
Definition

A gift of $100

 

According to industry rules, a gift of more than $100 is considered substantial or of material value.

Term

A research analyst at a broker-dealer is preparing a research report recommending ABC common stock. Which of the following situations need not be disclosed?

  1. ABC Corp is an investment banking client of the broker-dealer
  2. The broker-dealer has a 1% or greater beneficial ownership in ABC common stock
  3. The broker-dealer has a 1% or greater beneficial ownership in ABC nonconvertible bonds
  4. The broker-dealer makes a market in ABC common stock
Definition
The broker-dealer has a 1% or greater beneficial ownership in ABC nonconvertible bonds
Term
marking-to-the-market
Definition
Marking-to-the-market refers to adjusting the contract price to the current market price of an open contract for purposes of determining if additional cash is required. This may occur when a customer writes uncovered options and the underlying stock moves against the writer. The customer might need to deposit additional funds and would be marked to the market for the appropriate amount. This could also occur when a customer sells stock short and the stock increases in value.
Term

The prospectus for a limited partnership states that the subscription price for each unit is $20,000. According to industry rules, the maximum allowable underwriting compensation for this public offering is:

  1. $50 per unit
  2. Subject to the interpretations of the 5% markup policy
  3. Not subject to any limit but must be fair and reasonable
  4. 10% of the gross proceeds of the offering
Definition

10% of the gross proceeds of the offering

 

Any sale which requires a prospectus or circular something or another is exempt from the 5% markup policy.

 

Industry rules allow a maximum total compensation of 10% of the gross proceeds of the offering in a limited partnership. This includes all items of compensation including trailing commissions.

Term
An investor has sold a stock short. If the present market value is $2.00 per share, the minimum maintenance requirement will be:
Definition
$2.50 per share
Term
Leveraged Buyout
Definition
A leveraged buyout (LBO) is the acquisition of a company primarily using debt to finance the purchase. The assets of the acquired company are generally used as collateral for the borrowed funds. This type of acquisition allows the acquiring company, which is referred to as a private equity (PE) firm, to make the purchase without using much of its own equity. In many circumstances, since a large amount of borrowed funds are used to make the purchase, the debt instruments are usually non-investment-grade.
Term
VIX (Volatility Index)
Definition
This is the CBOE's Volatility Market Index option. It is a broad-based index option and is calculated using the S&P 500 Index option bid and ask quotes. This is often referred to as a gauge of investors' fears. The index increases or decreases based on the expected volatility of the market. If an investor expects volatility to rise, she would be bullish on this. A bullish option strategy such as long calls, put credit spreads (executed for a net credit), or call debit spreads (executed for a net debit) would enable the investor to profit if this increases. Many investors buy call options on this as a hedge against a possible decline in the market since this usually moves inversely with the equity market.
Term
Leveraged ETF Margin Maintenance Requirement
Definition
Leveraged ETFs have maintenance requirements in excess of the typical SRO thresholds of 25% on long positions and 30% on short positions. The margin requirement on these securities can be computed by multiplying the portfolio leverage factor by the standard SRO maintenance requirement.
Term
Wilshire Index
Definition
This is a market-capitalization-weighted index of the market value of all stocks actively traded in the United States.
Term
Margin Maintenance Requirements if Long & Short the same positon
Definition

If a client is long and short an equal number of shares of the same security, the maintenance requirement is equal to 5% of the long position.


A client is long and short 1,000 shares of the same security. If the current market value is $80,000, the client is permitted to borrow up to $76,000 The maintenance requirement is equal to $4,000 (5% of $80,000). Therefore, the client is permitted to borrow 95% of $80,000, or $76,000.


If a client is long a security that is convertible into an equal number of shares of a short position carried by the same client, the maintenance requirement is 10% of the current market value of the long position. This is an industry rule, not a Regulation T requirement. 

Term
EAFE Index
Definition
Europe, Australia, Far East. This follows the equity performance of the developed markets but excludes the U.S. and Canada.
Term
FTSE (Financial Times Stock Exchange)Index
Definition
This is a share index of the 100 companies listed on the London Stock Exchange with the highest market capitalization. This mostly follows the stocks of companies trading on the London Stock Exchange.
Term
Margin Requirements for Low-Priced Stock
Definition

If a customer is shorting a security and the market value of the security is <$5 per share, the required equity is

max(MV, $2.50/share)

 

If the market value is >=$5, the required equity is

max(.3*MV, $5.00/share)

 

So basically, unless the market value is >$16.66, the required equity is $5.00

Term

The federal tax exemption for interest earned on an industrial revenue bond is NOT available if the:

  1. Holder of the bond is a substantial user of the facility
  2. Issuer does not subscribe to equal opportunity employer standards
  3. Bonds are not approved by the MSRB
  4. Underwriter has a control relationship with the issuer
Definition

Holder of the bond is a substantial user of the facility (WhattT???)


If the holder of an industrial revenue bond is a substantial user of the facility, then the federal tax exemption on the interest earned does not apply.

Term
Bonds offered at a discount
Definition
Always priced to maturity. If the basis is higher than the interest rate, then the bond is offered at a _______.
Term
Bonds Issued at a Premium
Definition

Cost basis is lower than the interest rate.

 

Priced to call date.

Term
Dealer-Banks
Definition
A commercial bank authorized to buy and sell government debt securities including federal and municipal bonds. This debt is usually issued to fund large government projects such as road and bridge construction. These banks are registered with the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board. A municipal broker's broker may deal with these.

Term
Primary Distribution vs Secondary Distribution (IPOs)
Definition
 In a primary distribution, proceeds go to the corporation. In a secondary distribution, proceeds go to the selling shareholders.
Term
Dow Jones Composite Index
Definition
The Dow Composite is comprised of 30 industrial stocks, 20 transportation stocks, and 15 utility stocks.
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