| Term 
 
        | What are the major reasons for the increase in reported cases of pertussis from 1000 in '76 to 26000 in '04? |  | Definition 
 
        | - genetic changes in B. pertussis - decreased potency of vaccines
 - greater awareness of pertussis
 - improved dx tests
 - WANING IMMUNITY/INADEQUATE IMMUNIZATION
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the major systems barrier to immunization? |  | Definition 
 
        | - lack of manufacturing capacity - misdistribution of vaccines
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are major provider barriers to complete immunization of pts? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) continuous, updates on immunization schedules 2) need for combination vaccines
 - cost/storage capacity/lack of access to prior records
 - lack of adequate reminder/recall systems
 - need for immunization registries
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are major barriers to immunization by patients and parents? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) lack of knowledge - fearful of safety
 - lack transportation
 - inconvenience
 - cost
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are good examples of educational resources for parents w antivaccine misinformation |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) ImmunizationEd.org 2) vaccineinformation.org
 
 *may be opposed to "official" sources*
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are suggested measures for increased immunization rates? |  | Definition 
 
        | - reminder/recall systems for all parties involved in pt healthcare - requirement as pre-req for enrollment in school and childcare
 - decreases out-of-pocket costs
 - standing orders for adult immunization
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why have vaccines "become victims of their own success"? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) attention shifts to the occasionally serious adverse events 2) physicians reluctant to admin immun b/c liability concerns
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are common misconceptions about vaccines |  | Definition 
 
        | - too many immunizations will weaken immune sx - vaccine-preventable dz already were disappearing prior to vaccines
 - vaccines are not "natural"
 - reliance on herd immunity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the most common local reactions caused by vaccines? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) redness 2) swelling
 3) soreness at injection site
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define (in relation to vaccines): Compression |  | Definition 
 
        | - overestimate frequency of rare risks and underestimate frequency of common risks |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define (in relation to vaccines): omission bias versus commission bias |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) may lead to vaccine refusal by parent who thinks "if my child gets a vaccine reaction, it's my fault; if my child gets a disease, it's an act of God or Nature" The parent feels less liable for guilty from an act of omission than from an act of commission |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define (in relation to vaccines): ambiguity aversion |  | Definition 
 
        | - known risks may be more acceptable than unkown risks of lesser magnitude |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define (in relation to vaccines): natural risks |  | Definition 
 
        | - more acceptable than man-made risks |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define (in relation to vaccines): availability heuristic |  | Definition 
 
        | - an event that is available can lead to overestimation of its frequency |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define (in relation to vaccines): freeloading |  | Definition 
 
        | - vaccine refusers rely on high vaccination rate and herd immunity to protect their unvaccinated loved ones. However, this increases the risk for everyone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define (in relation to vaccines): bandwagoning |  | Definition 
 
        | - vaccinate because everyone else is |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define (in relation to vaccines): altruism |  | Definition 
 
        | - accept personal risk to benefit community or society |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How can omission bias be overcome? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) reframe the issue from the child's point of view - from the child's point of view, it would not matter whether injury resulted from a naturally occurring disease or a vaccine injury
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are common vaccine risks |  | Definition 
 
        | - pain - swelling
 - redness
 - sterile abscesses
 - fever and irritability
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the important fact regarding the temporal relation of adverse events to vaccine administration |  | Definition 
 
        | - this does not prove causation - e.g.: vaccine given at a time when sisx of autism first become apparent
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major allegations regarding each of the following vaccines: 
 MMR
 HepB
 thiomersal containing vaccines
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) autism; no causation re: Madsen et al 2) chronic fatigue syndrome, MS, AI dz
 3) autism; IoM "no causation", but reduced thiomersal is common.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the components of the routine newborn assessment? |  | Definition 
 
        | - size - macrocephaly/microcephaly
 - changes in skin color
 - signs of birth trauma
 - malformations
 - evidence of Resp distress
 - level of arousal
 - posture
 - tone
 - presence of spontaneous movements
 - symmetry of movements
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When in gestation would an insult cause symmemtric vs asymmetric decrease in size for gestational age? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) onset early in gestation, brain size corresponding w body size 2) onset late in gestation: no effect on fetal brain growth
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why should congenital exophytic scalp nodules always be evaluated further? |  | Definition 
 
        | - 20-37% connect to underlying central nervous system |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are major causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia |  | Definition 
 
        | - physiologic hyperbilirubinemia (most common) - breastfeeding
 - increased production of bilirubin ?(hemolysis, sequestered blood, polycythemia, sepsis)
 - decreased hepatic uptake (hypothyroidism, Crigler-Najjar, Gilbert)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are major causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia |  | Definition 
 
        | - hepatobiliary disorders: idiopathic hepatitis, TORCH, prolonged parenteral nutrition, metabolic d/o - ductal disturbances in biliruin excretion (biliary atresia, choledochal cyst)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the major causes of large fontanelles? |  | Definition 
 
        | - hypothyroidism - trisomy 13, 18, 21
 - bone d/o (cleidocranial dysostosis)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of craniosyntosis on growth? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) premature fusion of cranial sutures resulting in growth restriction perpendicular to affected suture and compensatory overgrowth in urestricted regions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe caput succedaneum |  | Definition 
 
        | - after prolonged labor - sec to accumulation of blood above the periosteum
 - poorly demarcated soft tissue swelling crossing suture lines
 - no tx required
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | - less common than caput succedaneum - rupture of blood vessel that traverse skull to periosteum
 - well-demarcated, fluctuant swelling that does not cross suture lines
 - no tx required for uncomplicated lesions
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the most common causes of neck masses in newborns? |  | Definition 
 
        | - vascular malformations - abnl lymphatic tissue
 - teratomas
 - dermoids cysts
 
 *e.g. thyroglossal duct cysts*
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the more common locations for branchial cleft cysts? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) postauricular area - jugulodigastric area
 - anterior border of SCM mid-neck
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where are lipomas most commonly found as congenital neck lesions in newborns? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) supraclavicular area - suprasternal area
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are hte most common broken bones in newborns? Tx if in pain? |  | Definition 
 
        | - clavicular bones 2) affected arm immobilized abducted to 60deg and elbow flexed 90deg
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What congenital condition may simulate facial nerve palsy in newborns? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) congenital absence or hypoplasia of depressor anguli oris muscle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the components of CHARGE association? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Coloboma - Heart disease
 - choanal Atresia
 - postnatal growth Retardation
 - Genital hypoplasia
 - Ear anomalies
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are major causes of conjunctivitis in newborns? |  | Definition 
 
        | - chemical conjunctivitis (after instillation) - conorrheal conjunctivitis (1-2d postnatal; ceftriaxone)
 - chlamydial conjuncitivits (7-14d postnatal; erythromycin)
 - HSV conjunctivitis (14+d postnatal; acyclovir)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What disease is suggested by unilateral absence or hypoplasia of pectoralis major muscle? What are common findings in this disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | - poland's syndrome - rib defects, hypoplasia of UE, syndactyly
 - occ: hemivertebrae, renal anomalies, dextrocardia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Disease: cyanosis relieved by crying in newborn |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the normal heart rate in newborns? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Disease: scaphoid abd in newborn |  | Definition 
 
        | - presence of diaphragmatic hernia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the appropriate therapy for a newborn with hip dysplasia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is thge difference between metatarsus adductus and talipes equinovarus |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) C curve of the lateral border of the foot 2) adduction/inversion of the forefoot, inversion at the ankle, and equinus posturing
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What population is supernumerary digits more common in? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the first step in management of an abdominal mass in a newborn? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the associated anomalies in omphalocele vs gastroschisis and what is the mgmt of these defects? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 67% have trisomy 13, 18, 21, congenital heart disease, GI anomalies, neurologic and renal anomalies:: 30% mortality 2) primarily intenstinal atresia:: 10% mortality
 
 3) application of warm, fluid-permeable dressing
 - placement of orogastric tube to decompress
 - aggressive fluid mgmt
 - culture w broad-spectrum abx
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What glands must be assessed in the medical emergency of ambiguous genitalia? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) adrenal and pituitary integrity must be established |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the incidence of cryptorchidism in term infants? premature infants? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 2.7-5.9% 2) 27-59% (10 times higher than term)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Is milk, bloody secretions from vagina normal in term infants? |  | Definition 
 
        | - it may benormal if there is significant withdrawal of maternal hormones in normal newborns |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major benefits of breastfeeding to the mother after pregnancy? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) weight loss - mother-infant bonding
 - accelerated uterine involution
 - contraception via prolongation of anovulation
 - decreased risk of breast/ovarian ca
 - decreased risk of osteoporosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major benefits of breast-feeding to the infant |  | Definition 
 
        | - reduces incidence of obesity/ca/HDz/allergies/T1DM/IBD - decreased Respiratory tract illnesses
 - lower rates of diarrhea
 - decreased risk of UTI
 - increased IQ
 - decreased risk of necrotizing enterocolitis and other GI infections
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should be inital antiretrovial regimen for HIV infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | - three agents - two NRTI
 - one NNRTI/protease inhibitor
 - ritonavir does not count
 
 *goal is undetectable viral load*
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the acute retroviral syndrome associated with HIV? |  | Definition 
 
        | - low-grade fever - rash
 - diarrhea
 - nausea and vomiting
 - pharyngitis
 - aseptic meningitis
 - headache
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Rank the risk of HIV transmission for population (1) and activity (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | (1) - MSM
 - heterosexual contact (high-risk)
 - IVDU
 - 0-20y/o, ethnic minorities, metropolitan areas
 
 (2)
 - receptive anal intercourse
 - insertive anal intercourse
 - receptive vaginal intercourse
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major AIDS defining illnesses |  | Definition 
 
        | - candidiasis - cervical cancer (invasive)
 - coccidiodomycosis, disseminated
 - cryptococcosis, extrapulm
 - cryptosporidiosis, chronic intestinal
 - CMV and retinitis w vision loss
 - encephalopathy, HIV-related
 - herpes simplex virus
 - histoplasmosis, disseminated/extrapulm
 - isosporiasis, chronic intestinal
 - kaposi sarcoma
 - lymphoma
 - MAC
 - TB
 - pneumonia, bacterial/recurrent (P. jiroveci)
 - PML
 - salmonella septicemia, recurrent
 - toxoplasmosis of brain
 - wasting syndrome, HIV-related
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommendation for HIV screening by physicians? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) routinely in pts 13-64yrso 2) screening unless prevalance of undaignosed HIV infection has been documented to be less than 0.1%
 - separate consent for HIV screening should not be required
 - all patients seeking tx for STI should be screened
 - all pregnant women should be screened in both 1st (and 3rd if high prevalence)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | - HIV-seropositive pts who have a CD4 count less than 200cells/mm3 or 1 AIDS defining illness |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is treatment w antiretrovirals indicated in HIV positive patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | - when CD4 count is less than 350cells/mm3 - should genotype/phenotype these patients prior to initiation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define: treatment failure of HIV |  | Definition 
 
        | - failure to achieve undetecable viral load within 12-24 weeks of therapy OR development of viremia in pts who previously had an undetectable viral load - modifiable factors (nonadherence, ahem) should be evaluated first
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When can antimicrobial prhphylaxis be d/c'd? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) when the patient has had a CD4 count above the threshold for 3+mo in concordance w undetectable viral load |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the phophylaxis regimen and CD4 cell count cutoff for the following opportunistic infection: 
 P. jiroveci pneumonia
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) TMP/SMX double strength tab QD; alt: Dapsone 100mg PO QD 2) 200cells/mm3
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the phophylaxis regimen and CD4 cell count cutoff for the following opportunistic infection: 
 toxoplasmosis
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) TMP/SMX double strength tab QD 2) 100cells/mm3
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the phophylaxis regimen and CD4 cell count cutoff for the following opportunistic infection: 
 MAC
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - azithromycin 1200mg PO per week - 50cells/mm3
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the baseline testing recommended for patients with newly dx HIV infection |  | Definition 
 
        | - CBC - chemistry profile
 - BUN/Cr
 - AST/ALT
 - Hep A,B,C
 - fasting glucose
 - serum lipids
 - U/A
 - TB
 - CXR
 - Pap smear
 - HIV antibody testing
 - CD4 count
 - HIV RNA
 - genotypic resistance
 - anti-toxo titer
 - syph, chlam, gon testing
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of vaccines may HIV patients receiv |  | Definition 
 
        | - killed/inactivated vaccines - ?what about MMR?
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended pre-HIV test counseling? |  | Definition 
 
        | - obtain written informed consent prior to ordering test - anonymous and confidential testing options
 - difference between HIV and AIDS
 - HIV transmission and risk reduction
 - defer testing if high risk to self/others
 - implications of window period
 - appt for delivery of results and post-test counseling
 - explain meaning of test results
 - reassurance
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended post-HIV test counseling for pt with negative result |  | Definition 
 
        | - discuss meaning of test result - discuss posibility of HIV exposure during past three months (window period) and advisability of retesting
 - emphasize negative result does not imply immunity
 - reinforce risk reduction strategies
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended post-HIV test counseling for pt with positive test results |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) meaning of result - possibility of medical care
 - notification of sexual/needle-sharing partners
 - behavior change to prevent transmission of HIV infection
 - refer to appropriate medical and support services
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three age groups for treatment stratification in asthma? |  | Definition 
 
        | - 0-4yrso - 5-11yrso
 - 12+yrso
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the difference between asthma severity and asthma control |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) severity: measure of intrinsic intensity of disease process (assessed before initiating tx) 2) control: minitored over time to guide adjustments to therapy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the best tool to use for dx of asthma in patients 5+yrso? |  | Definition 
 
        | - spirometry before and after bronchodilation therapy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the preferred tx for Step 1 (intermittent) asthma |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 2 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) Low-dose ICS, or cromolyn for all |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 3 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) medium dose ICS for all 2) low dose ICS w LABA for 5+yrso
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 4 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) medium-dose ICS w LABA for all |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 5 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) high dose ICS w LABA for all |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended treatment for patients in each asthma age bracket for Step 6 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) high dose ICS w LABA w OCS for all |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the recommendations for quick-relief of asthma exacerbation in all ages? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) SABA PRN 
 *frequent use may suggest need to increase step for tx
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is spirometry testing important in asthma? |  | Definition 
 
        | - because it frequently results in changes to tx of asthma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What frequency should asthma be reassessed? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 2-6wk intervals until control is achieved - 1-6mo after control has been achieved
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is it appropriate to consider a step down in asthma treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) when asthma is well controlled for 3 months or more 2) ICS should be tapered 25-50% q3mo
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the important aspects of patient-dr rapport to enhance asthma tx adherence? |  | Definition 
 
        | - give every pt a written asthma actionplan that addressed individual sx and/or PEF measurements and includes instructions for self-management |  | 
        |  |