| Term 
 
        | What percent of women who have abortions had used a contraceptive the month they became pregnant? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 54%; 76% on pill and 49% on condom were using inconsistently |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is trisomy 21 effect on maternal levels of 
 hCG
 estriol (unconj)
 inhibin A
 aFP
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) high 2) low
 3) high
 4) low
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What ist he most likely cause of bronchitis in the fall? winter? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) parainfluenza, enterovirus, rhinovirus 2) influenza, RSV, coronavirus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of TCA overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | - respiratory depression - cardiac arrhythmias (QTc prolongation is highly suggestive of TCA OD)
 - hypothermia
 - seizures
 - hallucinations
 - hypertension
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which SSRIs are most commonly associated with drug-drug interactions |  | Definition 
 
        | - fluoxetine; paroxetine - cause inhibition of P450 system
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are hte major s/e of the following drug class: 
 bile acid sequestrants
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - GI distress - constipation
 - decreased absorption of other drugs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of the following drug class on the LDL/HDL/TG levels: 
 bile acid sequestrants
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) dec 2) inc
 3) no change/inc
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of the following drug class on the LDL/HDL/TG levels: 
 fibric acids
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) dec (inc w/ high TG) 2) inc
 3) dec
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug class and typical starting dose for the following type of drug: 
 cholestyramine
 colestipol
 |  | Definition 
 
        | bile acid sequestrants 1) 4-16g qd
 2) 5-20g qd
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are absolute contraindications in pts for use of the following drug class: 
 bile acid sequestrants
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - dysbeta-lipoproteinemia - TG 400+
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are absolute contraindications in pts for use of the following drug class: 
 fibric acids
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - severe renal disease - severe hepatic disease
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe tx of elevated TG (150+) |  | Definition 
 
        | - reach LDL goal - intensify weight management
 - increase physical activity
 - if TG200+ after LDL goal reached, set secondary goal for non-HDL cholesterol to 30mg/dL higher than LDL goal
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe treatment of low HDL cholesterol |  | Definition 
 
        | - first reach LDL - intensify weight management and inc physical activity
 - TG 200-500, achieve non-HDL goal
 - TG0-200, consider nicotinic acid/fibrate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of the following on colon cancer risk: 
 obesity
 fat intake
 red meat
 fiber
 NSAIDS
 Calcium
 Vitamin D
 antioxidants
 statins
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) inc RR w/ inc BMI 2) inc RR w/ inc fat intake
 3) conflicting evidence
 4) failed to show benefit**
 5) dec RR w/ use; balance w/ s/e profile
 6) modest reduction
 7) dec RR; NOT chemoprevention
 8) no benefit**
 9) dec RR after 5yrs; need randomized trial
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the micro-vascular complications of DM and the appropriate therapy for these in the PCP setting? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) retinopathy - annual visit w/ ophthalmologist 2) nephropathy - annual screen for microalbuminuria, ACEi for HTN, Cr follow for microalbuminuria
 3) neuropathy - pt education, inspection, podiatry PRN
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the MACRO-vascular complications and the appropriate treatment for pt's w/ DM in PCP setting? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) hypertension - BP less than 130/80 2) Lipids - LDL=0-100mg/dL or if TG inc; non-HDL cholesterol = 0-130mg/dL
 3) CAD/CVA prevention: omega3, vitamin D, ASA (w/ RFs), dec stress, nutrition, QUIT SMOKING
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are causes of secondary HTN |  | Definition 
 
        | - pheochromocytoma - RAS (bilateral)
 - renal parenchymal dz
 - polycystic kidneys
 - OSA
 - hyperthyroidism
 - hyperparathyroidism
 - primary aldosteronism
 - cushing syndrome
 - aortic coarctation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major complications from HTN |  | Definition 
 
        | - CVA - CAD
 - CHF/Cardiomyopathy
 - PVD
 - kidney disease
 - retinopathy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major benefits/uses of the following drug: 
 Beta-blocker
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - CAD/post-MI/angina - CHF
 - tachy-arrhythmias
 - Performance anxiety
 - H/a prophylaxis
 - glaucoma
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major benefits/uses of the following drug: 
 CCB
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - CHF (diastolic) - tachy-arrhythmias
 - angina
 - h/a prophylaxis
 - raynauds
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major benefits/uses of the following drug: 
 diuretics
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - osteoporosis - kidney stones
 - peripheral edema
 - synergistic w/ other meds
 - cheap
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major cons/contraindications of the following drug: 
 ACEi
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - inc BUN/Cr - RAS
 - dry cough
 - angioedema
 - hyperkalemia
 - less effective in AA
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major cons/contraindications of the following drug: 
 BB
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - asthma/COPD - depression/fatigue/decreased stamina
 - sexual dysfunction
 - w/d
 - heart block
 - less effective in AAs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major cons/contraindications of the following drug: 
 CCB
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - systolic CHF - leg edema
 - constipation
 - deadache
 - GERD
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are hte prenatal labs recommended for some patients |  | Definition 
 
        | - Hb electrophoresis - CF screening
 - TSH
 - hep C screen
 - HCG quantitative
 - PPD
 - genetic carrier testing
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the standard and special prenatal tests for third trimester pts |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) GBStrep screen 2) HIV/STI; U/S w BPP; repeat CBC
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effectiveness, pros, and cons of the following contraceptive method: 
 paragard (Cu IUD)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 99% 2) 12yrs; return to fertility quickly
 3) cramps and heavy periods
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effectiveness, pros, and cons of the following contraceptive method: 
 Mirena (progestin IUD)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 99% 2) 7yrs; improved cramps and bleeding; fertility returns quickly on d/c
 3) no period at all
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effectiveness, pros, and cons of the following contraceptive method: 
 Implanon
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 99+% 2) 3yrs; return to fertility quickly
 3) irregular bleeding; no period
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effectiveness, pros, and cons of the following contraceptive method: 
 The Pill
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 92-99% 2) improve acne/PMS sx/regularity; fast return to fertility
 3) nausea, weight gain, h/a
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effectiveness, pros, and cons of the following contraceptive method: 
 Nuvaring
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 92-99% 2) no "fitting" required
 3) increase vag d/c
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major adverse effects of HRT |  | Definition 
 
        | - vaginal bleeding - breast tenderness
 - bloating (NOT weight gain)
 - headache
 - need to increase synthroid tx
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major risks associated with HRT |  | Definition 
 
        | - thromboembolic events - risk of stroke
 - breast CA (nl after 5yrs d/c
 - ovarian CA
 - gallbladder disease (stones)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are risk factors for premature final menstrual periods |  | Definition 
 
        | - smoking - low SES
 - age of menarche
 - parity
 - previous OCP
 - BMI
 - ethnic origin
 - FHx
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | By what factor does BP decrease during the night? |  | Definition 
 
        | - 10-20% - will not decrease in pts at increased risk for cardiovascular events
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a pt comes in reporting that self-measured BP mean of greater than what number is indicative of hypertension? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should the physical examination of a pt w/ hypertension include? |  | Definition 
 
        | - appropriate measurement of BP w/ verification in contralateral arm - examin optic fundi
 - BMI calculation
 - auscultation of bruits
 - palpation of thyroid
 - heart and lung exam
 - abd exam
 - palpation of lE edema and pulses
 - neuro assessment
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 chlorthalidone
 hydrochlorothiazide
 |  | Definition 
 
        | thiazide 1) 12.5-25 qd
 2) 12.5-50 qd
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 furosemide (lasix)
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 amiloride (midamor)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | potassium-sparring diuretics 1) 5-10mg/d; qd/BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 spironolactone (aldactone)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | aldosterone-receptor blockers 1) 25-50mg/d; qd/BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 atenolol
 metoprolol (lopressor)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | beta-blockers 1) 25-100mg/d; qd
 2) 50-100mg/d; qd/bid
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 acebutolol (sectral)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | BB w/ ISA 1) 200-800mg/d; BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 labetalol
 |  | Definition 
 
        | combined alpha and beta blockers 1) 200-800mg/d; BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 captopril
 lisinopril
 |  | Definition 
 
        | ACEi 1) 25-100mg/d; BID
 2) 10-40mg/d; qd
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 losartan
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - antiotensin II antagonists 1) 25-100mg/d; qd/BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 diltiazem ER
 verapamil SR
 |  | Definition 
 
        | CCB-nondihydropyridine 1) 180-420mg/d; qd
 2) 120-360mg/d; qd/BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 amlodipine
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - CCB- dihydropyridine 1) 2.5-10mg/d; qd
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 prazosin
 |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha-1 antagonist 1) 2-20mg/d; BID/TID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the class and usual dose (mg/d) and frequency of the following drug: 
 hydralazine
 |  | Definition 
 
        | - direct vasodilator - 25-100mg/d; BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the potential unfavorable s/e of HTN tx? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) gout, hyponatremia (thiazide) 2) asthma, RAD, 3deg heart block (BB)
 3) teratogenic (ACEi/ARB)
 4) angioedema (ACEi)
 5) hyperkalemia (Aldosterone antagonist, K-sparring)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What ar ethe major causes of resistant hypertension |  | Definition 
 
        | - improper BP measurement - volume overload/pseudotolerance (excessive Na, volume retention, inadequate therapy)
 - nonadherence
 - inadequate dosease
 - COX-2i
 - illicit drugs
 - OCP
 - EPO
 - icorice
 - obesity
 - excess alcohol intake
 - causes of HTN
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosage, s/e, cautions with the following tobacco dependence treatment option? 
 nicotine gum
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 2mg (0-24cig/d); 4mg (25+cigs/day); 1piece q1hr; up to 12weeks 2) mouth soreness, stomach ache
 3) no food/drink 15minutes prior/during use
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosage, s/e, cautions with the following tobacco dependence treatment option? 
 nicotine lozenge
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) 2mg (30+min after waking first cig); 4mg (0-30min after waking); 1lozenge q1hr w/ taper; 3-6mo total 2) hiccups, cough, heartburn
 3) no food/drink 15minutes before or during use
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the use of Sibutramine in weight loss |  | Definition 
 
        | - acts centrallky to inhibit serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake and increase satiety - may inc BP
 - 6-8kg lost
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the net dietary change promoted  by the following fad diet: 
 aktins
 ornish
 south beach
 the zone
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) low carbs, high protein, high fat 2) low fat, high fiber
 3) moderate carb; moderate fat
 4) low carb, high protein, moderate fat
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the basic regime promoted by the following diet: 
 the zone
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) carbohydrate intake of 40% stabilizes insulin le3vels and avoids weight gain - protein intake of 30% is necessary for correct insulin/glucagons ratio for optimum weight loss
 - fat intake of 30% for satiety
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the flags for cancer in low back pain? |  | Definition 
 
        | - age 50+ - hx of cancer
 - unexplained weight loss**
 - failure to improve (1+mo sx)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the affected root, reflex, muscles,and sensation of the following disc herniation: 
 L3-L4
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) L4 2) patellar
 3) anterior tibialis
 4) medial leg and medial foot
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the affected root, reflex, muscles,and sensation of the following disc herniation: 
 L4-L5
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) L5 2) --
 3) extensor hallicus longus
 4) lateral leg and dorsum of foot
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the red flags for assessment of lower back pain |  | Definition 
 
        | - abd pain - recent trauma
 - pain unrelieved by rest
 - saddle anesthesia
 - acute urinary/fecal incontinence
 - age greater than 50
 - h/o cancer
 - fever
 - other infectious sx
 - rheumatologic sx
 
 *checks for Ca, infection, AAA, cauda equina, fracture*
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the components of the social history that are particularly important for children? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) living situation 2) diet
 - physical activity
 - DAILY SCREEN TIME
 - hrs of sleep
 - dental care
 - helmets/seat belts
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommendation for the following at HM visits for children: 
 counseling to prevent STD
 Chlamydia screening
 Gonorrhea Screening
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) pts who are sexually active or 11+y/o 2) females younger than 25y/o sexually active
 3) female sexually active and high risk
 |  | 
        |  |