Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Roation ER: take #2
asd
162
Accounting
Kindergarten
10/12/2010

Additional Accounting Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

Diffuse dilation of conjunctival vessels.

 

 

What is this?

 

What is most common cause?

Definition

conjunctivitis

 

most common: viral

Term

diffuse dilation of conjunctival blood vessels with:

 

clear, runny eye

 

vs.

 

greenish, yelow pus coming out of eye

 

vs

 

itchy

 

What's the difference?

Definition

clear, runny eye= viral (most common)

 

greenish yellow pus= bacterial

 

itchy= allergic

Term

Conjunctivitis:

 

what pathogen plays major role in newborn?

 

what pathogen causes the greatest threat to integrity of the eye?

 

later in childhood?

Definition

newborn: chlamydia trachomatis

 

greatest threat: neisseria gonorrhea

 

later in childhood: h.influenza

Term
What's tx for bacterial conjunctivitis in a non-contact lens wearer for contact lens wearer?
Definition

non-contact:

 

polymixin B-trimethoprim

 

Contact lens wearers: worry about pseudomonas

 

Cipro, oflozacin, or tobramycin (each .3%); lens discarded

 

 

Term

Severe purulent discharge witha hyperacute onset (1ithin 12-24 hrs) related to conjunctivitis.

 

What do you do?

Definition

prompt emergent consult for aggressive workup for possible gonococcal conjunctivitis

 

abx: ceftriazone IM or Cipro drops

Term
What's tx for viral conjunctivitis?
Definition

VERY contagious!

 

cool compresses 4 times daily prn

 

naphalozine/pheniramine 1 drop 3 to 4 times daily prn

 

follow  up with opthalmology in 7 to 14 days

if clear distinction btw viral and bacterial etiologies can't be made- add topical abx

Term

Pt states they think they have an infection in their eye.

 

They are extended contact wearers- admit to sleeping with lenses.

 

Admit to pain, redness, tearing and photophobia.

 

What could it be? How do you treat?

Definition

Corneal ulcer

 

Slit lamp examination shows a staining corneal defect with surrounding white hazy infiltrate.

 

CORNEAL ULCER

 

Occassionally a hypopyn (leukocyte exudate-able to see pus) may be seen.

 

Topical oflozacin .3% or cipro .3% opthalmic solution is used (2 drops q 15 min for 6 hrs then 2 drops q 30 min for remainder of day, then 2 drops q 1 hr during second day then 2 drops q 4 hours for days 3 to 14)

 

Topical cycloplegics such as cyclopentolate 1% 1 drop 3 times dailyfor pain releif

 

Opthalmolgoist shoudl see pt within 12 to 24 hours.

Term

What is a hordoleum?

 

How do you treat?

Definition

stye is an acute infection of an oil gland at the lash line that appers as a pustule.

 

tx: warm, wet compresses 4 times dialy and erythromycin .5% opthalmic ointment twice daily for 7 to 10 days.

Term

what is anterior uveitis?

 

What is treatment?

Definition

·         Secondary to trauma, systemic disease, unknown

·         Cell/flare in A/C

·         Photophobia **

·         Pain

Tx: topical glucocorticoids (ie. prednisolone acetate opthalmic)

Term

Pt classically presents with eye pain or headache,  clody vision, colored halos around lights, conjunctival injection and fixed mid-dilated pupil, and increased IOP of 40 to 70 mm Hg (normal is 10-20 mm Hg)

 

What is it? What's tx?

Definition

acute angle closure glaucoma

 

tx to decrease IOP started emergently: timolol .5% 1 drop

 

If IOP does NOT decrease then try: pilocarpine 1-2% 1 drop every 15 min.

 

Immed opthalmologic consultation

Term

Severe unilateral pain

 

Use tonopen: very high IOP- could be higher than 40-50 mmHg.

 

Why does this happen?

Definition

pupil mid-dilated- stuck

 

no way for acqeous matter to leave causing increased pressure

 

asians- far sighted so smaller eyes

 

movie theatre: pupil dilated when went in dark room so closed off drainage so pressure immed skyrocketed

Term

Pt has dry eyes and states they have been using Visine.

 

Why is that bad?

Definition

Visine acts as blood vessel constrictor so temporarily helps the red eye, but once wears off blood vessesl will dilate again causing cyclic pattern if pt continues to use Visine

 

eventually they will become dependant and have rebound dilatation

 

So use artifical tears 3-4 times a day

Term

Constant contact lens wearer with corneal ulcer and infection. What could it be?

 

What do u NEED to do during exam?

Definition

Giant papillary conjunctivitis

 

make sure to flip eye lid

Term
Most common mid-face fracture
Definition
orbital floor fracture
Term

Pt presents after fight/trauma with the following:

 

Diplopia upward gaze

Periorbital ecchymosis

Exophthalmus

Enophthalmus

Entrapped EOM

Step-off

Infra-orbital Hypoesthesia

 

What could it be?

What's management?

Definition

Orbital floor fracture

 

OMFS consult

Ophtho consult

Decongestants

No nose blowing

Abx-PCN/1st generation Cephalosporin/Clinda

Surgery

 

Term

Pt presents after maxillofacial trauma.

 

Coronal Ct scan shows hanging tear drop sign.

 

What could that be indicative of?

Definition
Orbital floor fracture
Term

Pt presents after four wheeler adventure and fell onto porcupine. Porcupines are rabid (ie. have rabies)

 

What do you do?

How do you treat?

Definition
one tiime injection of immunoglobulin + vaccine on days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28
Term

What two organisms are you worried about in a puncture wound?

 

what's tx?

Definition

pseudomonas and staph aureus

 

tx: superficial wound cleaning

tetanus prophylaxis

low pressure irrigation

derbidement

prophylactic abx: oral fluroquinolone-cipro or levofloxacin

 

Term
What is method of choice to view susecpted occult FB following apuncture wound?
Definition

CT

 

MRI is good but cant be used for metallic objects

Term

Burn pt:

 

they have blisters

 

what degree burn?

Definition
ANTHING THAT BLISTERS IS SECOND DEGREE BURN
Term

Burn pt:

 

painless

•Leathery, dry, waxy eschar (eschar brown to yellow to white color)

 

What degree burn?

 

what are examples of how this may have happened?

Definition

third degree

 

examples: flame, electrical, or chemical injury

Term
What differentiates second degree superificial partial burn vs. second degree partial thickness?
Definition

Second degree superficial burn:

painful; blisters slugh to reveal pink to red, moist wound

 

 

second degree partial thickness:

Involves entire epidermis and at least two thirds of dermis

less painful

•Pink to red to white (mottled), moist wound

 

Term

Pt scalded with hot water.

 

What type of burn could that be?

Definition
prob second degree superfical partial
Term

pt presents from burn injury with

 

Black, charred eschar

•Painless

 

 

what degree could it be?

Definition

fourth degree

 

extends through all layers of skin to involve ligaments, muscle and bone

Term

What is the rule of Nine?

 

What is it used for ONLY?

Definition

Head = 9%

Back, chest = 18% each

Upper extremities = 9% each

Perineal area = 1%

Lower extremities = 18% each

Total is 100%

 

Only used to assess 2nd and 3rd degree burns

Term
What are some orders to follow when a pt arrives with burn injury?
Definition

•Foley catheter: to assess urine output; Urine output is important to assess the adequacy of fluid resuscitation. 

Lactated Ringers for fluid resucitation-half of calculated amt given in first 8 hours and second half given over next 16 hours.

•Assess blood supply to peripheral tissues.  Decreased blood supply may require escharotomy or fasciotomy. 

•Pain management: morphine used

•Cover thermal burn with clean sheets, irrigate chemical burn for at least 20 minutes. Burns should be cooled immediately by immersion in cold water.

 

•Baseline blood work includes CBC, CMP, BUN, UA.  Also obtain a baseline CXR.

 

Special cases

•Inhalation injury: ABG, carboxyhemoglobin

•Electrical injury: EKG, continuous cardiac monitor, cardiac enzymes

 

•Tetanus shot: if no within last 5 yrs- get booster

Term

When is silvadene contraindicated?

 

 

Definition
sulfa allergy
Term

Dental fractures:

 

What is the difference btw:

 

Ellis I-

 

Ellis II-

 

Ellis III-

 

Definition

Ellis I-thru enamel only

Smooth rough corners dental drill/emory board

 

Ellis II-thru enamel and dentin

Cover with zinc oxide or Calcium hydroxide paste (Dycal)

 

Ellis III-thru enamel, dentin and pulp

Dycal  (most painful antibiotic)

Term
How is an anterior bleed treated?
Definition

Anterior Bleeding

Nasal Septum-most common

Kiesselbach Plexus

 

Treatment

Grasp/pinch nose x 10mins

Chemical cautery with Silver Nitrate: standard of care for ED cautery of ant epistaxis

Packing

Vaseline Gauze

Merocel

Rapid Rhino

Term
how is posterior bleed treated?
Definition

Blood dripping posterior naso-pharynx

Epistaxis Both nares

 

Treatment

Posterior Balloon

Term
what type of abx should all pts with packing due to epistaxis receive?
Definition

abx prophylax with cephalexin 25-500 mg PO q6h or amox/calulanate 250/125 mg PO q8h

 

PNC allergic pts can get clinda or bactrim

Term
What is the top two most common etiology of hyperthyroidism? Who gets them?
Definition

Grave's disease: third and fourth decades of age

 

 

Toxic multidnodular and toxic (adenoma) nodular goiters: older population, commonly with previous hx of simple goiter

Term
What is Grave's disease?
Definition

assoc with diffuse hoiter, opthalmopathy, and local dermopathy.

 

due to autoimmune thyroid-stimulating antibody that activates teh thyrotropin receptor on thyroid cells

 

inflammation of extraocular msucles and periorbital tissue leading to bulging of eyes

 

pretibial myxedema- non-pitting edema on anterior knee

Term
What meds can cause hyperthyroidism?
Definition
iodine ingestion, lithium therapy or thyroid medication
Term

Pt complains of heat intolerance, palpitations, weight loss, sweating, tremor, nervousness, weakness, and fatigue.

 

What could it be?

 

how do you treat?

Definition

hyperthyroid

 

palliative tx for mild hyperthyoidism: beta blocker ( ie. propranolol)

 

long-term antithyroid medication (e.g., propylthiouracil, methimazole, or carbimazole), radioactive iodine , or subtotal thyroidectomy.

Term

What is the most common form of thyroiditis?

 

What are sxs?

 

who gets?

 

what can it cause?

Definition

Hashimoto thyroiditis-autoimmune disease

 

sxs: enlargement of thyroid with or without pain and tenderness

 

more common in women

 

usually causes dysphagia or hypothyroidism

Term

What labs will be elevated in Hashimoto thyroiditis?

 

how do you treat?

Definition

serum titers of antimicromosal and anti-thyroglobulin antibodies elevated

 

treat: small doses of thyroid hormone

Term
What is tx for hypothryoidism?
Definition

If there is no residual thyroid function, the daily replacement dose of levothyroxine is usually 1.6 g/kg body weight (typically 100–150 g). In many patients, however, lower doses suffice until residual thyroid tissue is destroyed. In patients who develop hypothyroidism after the treatment of Graves' disease, there is often underlying autonomous function, necessitating lower replacement doses (typically 75–125 g/d).

 

Adult patients under 60 without evidence of heart disease may be started on 50–100 g levothyroxine (T4) daily. The dose is adjusted on the basis of TSH levels, with the goal of treatment being a normal TSH, ideally in the lower half of the reference range. TSH responses are gradual and should be measured about 2 months after instituting treatment or after any subsequent change in levothyroxine dosage. The clinical effects of levothyroxine replacement are often slow to appear. Patients may not experience full relief from symptoms until 3–6 months after normal TSH levels are restored. Adjustment of levothyroxine dosage is made in 12.5- or 25-g increments if the TSH is high; decrements of the same magnitude should be made if the TSH is suppressed. Patients with a suppressed TSH of any cause, including T4 overtreatment, have an increased risk of atrial fibrillation and reduced bone density.

Term
What is thyrotoxicosis?
Definition
is defined as the state of thyroid hormone excess and is not synonymous with hyperthyroidism, which is the result of excess thyroid function
Term
What are the major etiologies of thyrotoxicosis?
Definition
Graves' disease, toxic MNG, and toxic adenomas
Term

Pt presents to ER with hyperreflexia, muscle wasting, and proximal myopathy without fasciculation. Chorea is a rare feature. Sweating and heat intolerance.

 

Also: cardiovascular manifestation is sinus tachycardia, often associated with palpitations, occasionally caused by supraventricular tachycardia.

 

what are you thinking?

What labs indicate what you're thinking?

Definition

thyrotoxicosis

 

The main antithyroid drugs are the thionamides, such as propylthiouracil, carbimazole, and the active metabolite of the latter, methimazole. All inhibit the function of TPO, reducing oxidation and organification of iodide.

 Labs: TSH low and uncombined T4 high

Term
What three hormones are produced by the adrenal glands?
Definition
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgenic hormones.
Term
What can differentiate primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's) vs secondary adrenal insufficiency?
Definition
primary: hypotension, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, salt craving, and hyperpigmentation
Term
Adrenal insufficency: what should you think?
Definition

Acute adrenal insufficiency → life threatening! b/c it affects ALL hormones secreted by adrenal cx!!!! (contrast with hyperfunction – affects separate hormones)

Term

What's the difference between acute and chronic renal insuffiency?

 

in terms of clinical manifestation

Definition

Acute:  hypotension (dizziness, syncope, LOC), circulatory failure, n/v, FUO, hypoglycemia, abd/flank pain

Chronic:  weakness, fatigue, anorexia, wt loss, hypotension w/ orthostatic changes (80/50), pigmentation changes

Term
What diagnostic tests are you interested in for acute renal insuffiency?
Definition

Low cortisol, high ACTH – primary insufficiency

Low Na, high K – primary

Cosyntropin (ACTH) stimulation test

Term
What is management for chronic renal insufficiency?
Definition

replace glucosteroids  hydrocortisone

                Caution:  bone density, other side effects of chronic steroid therapy (Cushing’s sdr!)

Primary dis:  also replace mineralcorticoids with fludrocortisone – monitor replacement based on plasma renin activity and BP.

Androgens:  Some benefits with DHEA replacement

Term
what is a common cause of adrenal insufficiency?
Definition

abrupt termination of steroid treatment

 

why? steroid tx is exogenous neg feedback to the pituitary

Term
How do you diagnose adrenal insuffiency?
Definition
short and long test performed with synthetic pitutiary ACTIH homrone (tetracosactide)
Term
Glucocorticoid
Definition
cortisol
Term
mineralcorticoid
Definition
aldosterone
Term

pt presents with weight loss, abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, dehydration, weakness.

 

Hyperpigmentation of exposed and unexposed skin and mucous membranes.

 

If this pt is a woman- may notice thinning of pubic and axillary hair.

 

What could it be? How will you test?

Definition

Adrenal insufficiency-primary

 

test: ACTH test

 

secondary: aldosterone levels are not signif affected bc of resultion through renin-angiotensin system--so hyperpigmentation and hyperkalemia not seen

Term
What may you see in adrenal crisis?
Definition

shock and latered mental status in addition to

 

weakenss, dehydration,  hypotension, anorexia, vomiting, weight loss, abdominal pain

Term
How do you perform the cosyntropin (synthetic ACTh) test?
Definition

draw a bseline cortisol level and then admin cosyntropin.25 mg IM or IV

 

after 60 min, repeat cortisol level--should be double baseline

 

if primary: cortisol will NOT respond to ACTH

 

In secondary and tertiary: adrenal cortex WILL respond and increase coritsol level

Term
What cortisol serum level is indicative of adrenal insufficiency?
Definition

 

<20 microgram/dL in severe distress

Term

What's #1 reason for adrenal insufficiency?

 

What are other causes?

Definition

#1 abrupt steroid withdrawal or exposure to increased physiologic stress such as injury, illness or surgery

 

others:

 

autoimmune, infection, heparin therapy, sarcoidosis

Term
What's treatment for adrenal insufficiency?
Definition

1. outpt management: steroid replacement therapy

2. Adrenal crisis: crystalloid fluids, glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids to correct volume, glucose and sodium deficits.

 

5% dextrose NS: initial fluid of choice

hydrocortisone 100 to 300 mg IV q 6 to 8 hours provides adequate glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid activities.

Term

What causes DKA?

 

Who can get DKA?

Definition

noncompliance with insulin therapy, infection, stroke, MI, trauma, pregnancy, other physiologic stress

 

Type I or type II can get DKA!!!

Term
What are clinical features of DKA?
Definition

hyperglycemia causes osmotic diruesis with dehydration, hypotension, and tachycardia

 

Ketonemia causes acidosis with myocardial depression, vasodilation and compensatory Kussmaul respiration

 

N/V and abdominal pain are common

Term
What are kussmaul respirations?
Definition

severe labored breathing

 

related to metabolic acidosis

Term
What lab values diagnose DKA?
Definition

diagnosis based on clinical presentation and lab values

 

glucose >250 mg/dL

bicarb below 15

pH below 7.3

mod ketonemia

Term
What labs do you want to order for DKA?
Definition

serum glucose

electrolytes

BUN/Cretinine

Phosphorus

Magnesium

CBC

UA

Term
What's tx for DKA?
Definition

1. Isotonic fluid resuscitation (Normal saline): most imp initial step to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion; avg pt has total body water deficit of 5 to 10 L

2. Continuous infusion of insulin .1 units/kg per hour is recommended

3. Potassium--try ot begin 30 min before insulin to avoid hypokalemia

4.Phosphorus--helsp with energy production and oxygen  delivery and szyme reactions

5. Magnesium

6. Monitor blood glucose, anion gap, K and bicarb hourly until recovery well establish

Term

What defines hypoglycemia?

 

what are some common symptoms?

Definition

serum glucose <60 mg/dL

 

sxs: dizziness, confusion, headache, duiplopia, dysarthria, lethargy, coma, seizures

 

diaphoresis, anxiety, nausea, tremors, palpitations

Term

What diabetic medication is commonly assoc with hypoglycemia?

 

why?

Definition

sulfonyureas

 

why?logn duration of action, particularly after overdose, what can lead to delayed hypoglycemia as late as 16 hours after ingestion

Term

What's tx for hypoglycemia?

 

What do you give specifically if sulfonyurea overdose?

Definition

50 mL IV bolus of 50% dextrose solution; repeat glucose determination shoudl be performed q 30 to 60 min after intial dexrose admin

 

if IV access can't be established- give glucagon 1 to 2 mg IM

 

if sulfonyurea overdose: DIAZOXIDE 300 mg IV--

Term

What's the screening test of choice for rib fractures?

 

When should you suspect rib fractures?

Definition

xrays

 

suspect if localized pain or tenderness after chest trauma

Term
What are the three mainstays of tx for rib fracture?
Definition
Rapid mobilization, respiratory support, and pain management are the mainstays of treatment 
Term

If a patient with fractured ribs, especially ribs 9, 10, and 11, becomes hypotensive and does not have a large hemothorax or tension pneumothorax, what should be suspected?

Definition
intraabdominal bleeding from the liver or spleen should be suspected. 
Term
What's the general rule for admitting patients with rib fractures?
Definition
hospitalize patients with fractured ribs for at least 24 to 48 h if they cannot cough and clear their secretions adequately, especially if they are elderly or have preexisting pulmonary disease. Admitting the patient also provides time to observe the patient for associated injuries that might not be apparent initially. Aspiration pneumonitis and fat embolism often do not become apparent clinically or on chest x-ray for at least 24 to 48 h.
Term

What are signs of hypercapnia?

 

Hypercapnia can be related to what serious condition (there are many but this is a big one..)

Definition

peripheral and conjunctival hyperemia, HTN, tachycardia, tachypnea, impaired consciousness, papilledema, asterixis


Acute respiratory failure

Term
What would an ABG look like for someone in acute respiratory distress?
Definition
ABG: PO2 <60 mmHg or a PCO2 >50 mmhg
Term
What is Virchow's triad?
Definition
hypercoagulability, stasis, and venous injury
Term
What are the top two signs of PE?
Definition
dyspnea (most common), pleuritic chest pain (second most common), 
Term
What's tx for PE?
Definition

1. supplemental O2 to maintain a pulse ox reading >95%

2. IV access should be secured and crystalloid IV fluids given to augment preload and correct hypotension.

3. Anticoagulation with a heparin is standard tx for acute PE. (Dosing of unfractionated heparin should be weight based, with 80 units/kg given as an initial bolus followed by 18 units/kg per hour. Low molecular weight heparin (ie. Enoxaprin) safe and effective for acute PE

Absolute Contraindications: intracranial hemorrhage or active GI hemorrhage

If high pretest probability and no contraindications: start heparin therapy before diagnostic testing

4. Thromboembolytic therapy should be considered for pts who require aggressive tx for PE (ie pts with hemodynamic instability) Ex: Pts with ECG evidence of rt ventricular dysfunction

Term

What do these findings suggest?

 

1) an acute onset of upper extremity hypertension,

2) difference in pulse amplitude between the upper and lower extremities

 3) the presence of a harsh systolic murmur over the precordium or posterior interscapular area. 

Definition

aortic injury

 

possible traumatic aortic injury

Term

sudden, severe pelvic or low abdominal pain. GI sxs are absent, pt is afebrile and without leukocytosis.

 

what could it be?

Definition
ruptured ovarian follicle cyst
Term

In pts with hypothermia, what type of cardiac dysrrythmia so you need to be wary of?

 

why could it happen?

Definition

Vfib

 

could happen if too much manipulation of body ie. moving around rapidly or chest compressions

Term

True or False:

 

You canNOT determine degree of frostbite until patient has been rewarmed.

Definition
TRUE
Term
What's the difference btw 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th degree frostbite?
Definition

1st: NO BLISTERS

2nd: BLISTER FLUID IS CLEAR

3rd: HEMORRHAGIC BLISTERS/blue gray discoloration

4th: muscle, tendon and bone freezing; dry, black mummified

Term
How do you treat frostbite?
Definition

 

  • remove wet clothing/ apply dry clothing
  • apply constant warmth by exterting gentle pressure with a warm hand
  • separa digits
  • elevate/protect from trauma
  • gentle rangle of motion
  • rapid rewarming in 40-42 deg celcius water for 20-30 min or until flush
  • parenteral opioids (i.e morphine .1 mg/kg IV)
Once thawed:
- leave hemorrhagic blisters in tact/debride clear blisters
-dress injured areas and blisters with aloe vaera
-IBUPROFEN 12 mg/kg
IV fluids
ABX

 

Term
What do you NOT do for pt with frostbite?
Definition

Do NOT RUB!

 

you can apply pressure, but NO RUBBING!

Term
What are risk factors for developing hypothermia? ie who gets it?
Definition

hypoglycemic

malnutrition

alcohol abuse

hypopituitarism

DM

burns

drug overdose

extreme age

Term
Who gets hyperthermia?
Definition

elderly

young

drugs ie. diuretics, cocaine

fire fighters

chronic disease--hyperthyroid, malnutrition

Term

Most soft tissue infections are caused by _________ (name the organism)

 

Most plantar puncture woulds related to osteomyelitis are due to _____ (name the organism)

Definition

Most soft tissue infections are caused by staph aureus

 

Most plantar puncture woulds related to osteomyelitis are due to pseudomonas

Term
What are exceptions to the rule for delaying wound closure?
Definition

face 

scalp

 

areas that are well vascularized---can wait up to 24 hours

Term

Human bites:

 

what organisms could be involved? (3)

Definition
staphylococcal, streptococal, eikenella corrodens
Term
What is the abx treatment for ALL bites?
Definition
amox and clavulanate
Term

True or False.

 

Puncture type bite wounds, wounds greater than 6 hours old, and wounds of the hand and foot should be left open.

Definition
TRUE
Term
What oranigsm do you worry about for cat bites?
Definition
pasteurella multocida
Term

Pt presents with the following: appear acutely ill with fevers, chills, dysphagia, trismus, drooling, or a muffled or "hot potato" 

Involved tonsil is anteriorly and medially displaced.

What could it be? How do you treat?

Definition

Peritonsillar abscess

 

Penicillin, a macrolide, or clindamycin are most commonly used.

Term

severe sore throat and inspiratory stridor in addition to drooling..what do u think?

 

what is tx?

Definition

epiglottitis

 

admit pt

 

abx: ceftriaxone

Term
What is the difference btw epilepsy and seizure?
Definition

seizure is one episode

 

epilepsy is condition where u have multiple seizures

Term

Pt is anxious.

What's the tx of choice?

Definition
Benzo
Term
Short lived moments of intense anxiety. What could it be? How do you treat?
Definition

panic attack

 

Panic attacks may be treated in several ways. A sublingual dose of lorazepam (0.5-2 mg) or alprazolam (0.5-1 mg) is often effective for urgent treatment. SSRI’s are commonly used for sustained treatment.

Term
Pts experiences psychois, including hallucinations. What meds should be used if they become violent?
Definition
Lorazepam 1-2 mg IM, as a starting dose, is a sage and effective benzo sedative that can be titrated to the desired effect. Haloperidol 5-10 mg IM or 5 mg IV is a neuroleptic sedation agent that can be used alone or with benzos. 
Term
How should bipolar pts be treated in the ER?
Definition
Valproic acid and lithium salts are commonly prescribed as chronic mood stabilizers. 
Term
What is the treatment of choice for depression?
Definition
SSRI
Term

HCG TEST

 

hCG production begins __-__ days after conception or during days __-__ of the cycle. It reaches peak concentration at __-__ weeks of gestation and then gradually decreases until retuning to normal within _-_ days after normal full-term delivery. This test can be most accurately performed from __ days to __ weeks after missed menses.

Definition
hCG production begins 8-10 days after conception or during days 21-23 of the cycle. It reaches peak concentration at 8-12 weeks of gestation and then gradually decreases until retuning to normal within 3-4 days after normal full-term delivery. This test can be most accurately performed from 2 days to 3 weeks after missed menses.
Term

What are some examples of when you might use whole bowel irrigation?

 

what are contraindications?

Definition

recent ingestion of lithium or iron...body packers...consider in extended release ingestion

 

contraindications: aspiration risk, bowel perforation or obstruction

Term
What are examples of gastric emptying?
Definition

single dose activated charcoal

whole bowel irrigation

gastric lavage

syrup of ipecac

Term
When may you consider using multi-dose activated charcoal? (7)
Definition
phenobarb, carbamazapine, dilantin, depakote, salicylates, dapsone, theophylline
Term

When would you want to alkalinize the urine?

 

How do u do it?

 

examples

Definition

if someone overdosed on weak acid

3 amps of bicarb

 

barbs, salicylcates

sulfonylurea

TCAs

Term

When would you use hemodialysis for overdose?

 

STUMBLES

Definition

Salicylates

Theophylline

Valproic acid

Massive acetaminophen (over 750 mcg/dl)

Lithium

Ethylene Glycol or Methanl

Term
What happens when you overdose on salicylates?
Definition

mild: tinnitis, Gi irritaiton

 

Moderate: tinnitus, hyperventilate, sweating, emesis

 

Severe: seizures, hypoglycemia, renal failure, severe cardiotoxicity

Term

What is the toxic exposure to APA?

 

What is used to treat overdose?

Definition

140 mg/kg

 

140 mg/kg N-acetylsteine

Term
What's management for ethanol overdose?
Definition

banana bag: MVI, thiamine, mag, folate

D5 and 1/2 or just NSS

 

Term

OVerdose pt comes in with the following sxs:

 

blindness

sluggishly reactive pupils

fixed and dilated pupils

 

lethary confusion 

severe abdominal tenderness

nausea

 

what are u thinking?

how do u treat?

Definition

Methanol overdose

 

2 amps of bicarb in D5W

 

Maintain Etoh level of 100 to 150..prevents breakdown of methanol

 

fomepizole--greater affinity than Etoh

Term

Pt presents with odor of Etoh

 

ataxia, nystagmus, papilledema, stupor

 

about 12-24 hours after ingestion you notice: pt is now tachycardic, hyptensive, pulmonary edema, CHF...

 

if you wait 24 more hours...there will be renal toxicity.

 

Why? What is wrong with pt? what od u do?

Definition

Ethylene glycol: ie detergents...radiator fluid

 

NSS at 250 to 500 ml/hr to prevent deposiiton of oxalate crystals in kidneys

 

bicarb for acidosis

 

Pyridoxine and Thiamine replacement

 

Consult nephrology

Term

MOther brings in daughter who she found agistated, possibel seizure and decreased MS.

 

You get the EKG and it shows widening of the intervals and terminal r in AVR

 

What could it be?

Definition

TCA overdose

 

charcoal if normal EKG and not horribly sick

intubate

alkalinize with bicarb drip and fluids

Term
What is test of choice in pt with acute hydrocephalus?
Definition
MRI
Term
history of traumatic brain injury may present to the emergency department with the complaint of changing functional status, including psychomotor slowing, cognitive decline, change in gait, and loss of continenc
Definition
Think hydrocephalus...think CT...think neuro consult
Term
if you're going to put in a catheter for more than five days..what do u need to make sure to do?
Definition

treat prophylactically with abx

 

(trimethoprim)

Term

What is this:

 

longitudinal mucosal lacerations of the distal esophagus/proximal stomach

Definition
Mallory Weiss Tear
Term
What is the initial treatment for a Mallory Weiss Tear?
Definition
Initial treatment is supportive as the vast majority of Mallory-Weiss tears stop bleeding spontaneously. Ongoing hemorrhage can require treatment with electrocoagulation, sclerotherapy, and laser photocoagulation. Angiographic embolization or surgical intervention remain options as well.
Term
Pt states they have been vomiting a lot and now notice are noticing acute onset of upper GI bleeding. What are you thinking? How do you treat? 
Definition

Mallory Weiss Tear

 

Initial treatment is supportive as the vast majority of Mallory-Weiss tears stop bleeding spontaneously. Ongoing hemorrhage can require treatment with electrocoagulation, sclerotherapy, and laser photocoagulation. Angiographic embolization or surgical intervention remain options as well.

Term

What does this describe:

 

There is a short prodrome consisting of various combinations of the following symptoms and signs: fever, myalgias, vomiting, diarrhea, and pharyngitis. Patients then develop shock (SBP <80 mm Hg) with fever (>39°C) and signs of multiple organ dysfunction. At the time of presentation to the emergency department or within 24 hours of admission to the hospital, a diffuse, blanching, macular erythema appears, accompanied by signs of mucous membrane inflammation (pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, vaginitis, and strawberry tongue). The rash fades in about 3 days, but desquamation of the hands and feet occurs in all patients 5–12 days after the rash disappears. Patients typically prefer to remain motionless in bed because of intense myalgias. Confusion and agitation occur in about half of patients. Pedal edema is common.

Definition
Toxic shock syndrome
Term

What organisms is most commonly assoc with toxic shock syndrome?

 

What is tx?

Definition

Staph aureus

 

Remove the vaginal tampon or nasal or wound packing if present. Begin volume replacement with saline or colloid solutions and with vasopressors, if necessary. Admit the patient to an ICU, and monitor hemodynamic status. Start treatment with a first-generation cephalosporin, penicillinase-resistant synthetic penicillin, or vancomycin intravenously.

Term
What bugs usually cause epididymitis?
Definition

Gonorrhea and chlamdyia in males <35

 

E.Coli in older men

Term
How do you differentiate epididymitis from orchitis and testicular torsion?
Definition
Pain and tenderness of the epididymis is present on one or both sides. Epididymitis must be differentiated from testicular torsion and from torsion of the testicular appendage. Ultrasound with Doppler flow will demonstrate an increased flow in epididymitis and a decreased or absence of flow in testicular torsion. In orchitis the testicle is diffusely and tensely swollen, warm, firm, and tender.
Term

Pt presents with sudden severe onlet of pain felt in the testis. On PE you note a blue dot appearance of a cyanotic appendage that you see illuminated through thin prepubertal scortal skin.

 

What are you thinking? What you found on PE, is pathognominic for what?

Definition
TESTICULAR TORSION
Term
You suspect patient has testicular torsion. What is your plan?
Definition

Urologic consult indicated- imaging tests can be time consuming

 

ER physician can attempt manual detorsion. Most testis twist in a lateral to medial direction, so detorsion is performed in a medial to lateral direction (sim to reading a book)...End point for successful detorsion is pain relief

Term
What is tx for epidydmitits?
Definition

if pt appears toxic: Ceftriaxone or Bactrim

 

outpt tx if pt is NOT toxic:

pt younger than 40: Doxy, ofloxacin

 

if pt older than 40 cipro or levofloxacin

Term

What is tx for gonorrhea?

 

What is tx for chlamydia?

Definition

Gonorrhea: ceftriaxone (alt. azithromycin)

 

Chlamydia: doxycycline and azithro (alt. erythromycin)

Term
How does primary HSV2 typically present? How do u treat?
Definition

Primary occurs in individual with no antibodies to either viral type

o   Occurs within 7 days of exposure

o   Local symptoms

      Burning and pain

      Vesicles

o   Systemic symptoms; may be more severe than those listed

      Fever

      Malaise

      Headache

      Myalgias

      Adenopathy

o   Lesions may last 2-6 weeks

 

treat: acyclovir

Term
Syphillis is caused by what organism?
Definition

spirochete

 

Treponema pallidum

Term

What does this describe?

 

       Painless ulcer at site of inoculation

       Well-demarcated raised borders

       Occurs 10-90 days after exposure

       Resolves with or without treatment

Definition

syphillis

 

Benzathine Penicillin G, 2.4 million units IM 

Term
what are screening tests for syphillis?
Definition

o   RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin): in btw outbreaks will still stay (+)

o   VDRL (Venereal Disease Reference Laboratory)

Both tests will give quantitative titers but can give false (+)

Term
what are specific tests for syphillis?
Definition

o   FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal AB– Absorbed)

MHA-TP (Microhemaggltination Assay)

Term

This is the clinical picture for what:

 

o   Most common symptom is unpleasant, fishy or musty vaginal odor

o   Increased vaginal discharge is common and it is usually thin, gray or white and homogenous and it tends to adhere to the vaginal wall.

o   Vaginal itching and irritation may be present

In pregnant patients possibility of preterm labor, amniotic fluid infection and preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) is seen. 

Definition
PID
Term
What is the minimal criteria for PID? (2)
Definition

      Uterine/adnexal tenderness

Cervical motion tenderness

 

o   Oral temp > 101oF

o   Abnormal cervical or vaginal discharge

o   Presence of wbc on saline microscopy

o   Elevated sed rate or C-reactive protein

Documented GC or Chlamydia

 

Term
What is tx for PID?
Definition

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose

or

Cefoxitin 2 g IM in a single dose and Probenecid 1 g administered concurrently

PLUS

Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 14 days

WITH or WITHOUT

Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 14 days 

Term
What labs define anemia?
Definition

Anemia in women Hgb < 12

Anemia in men Hgb < 13

Term
What are two pathologies creating anemia?
Definition

Deficiency or defective RBC production

Nutritional deficiency: Fe, B12, folic acid

Bone marrow destruction, hypoproliferation

 

Increased destruction of RBC

Hemolysis: congenital, acquired

Term
What are tests to look for anemia?
Definition

Serum iron

Ferritin

Transferrin

TIBC (total iron binding capacity)

RBC indices: MCV, MCHC, MCH

Folic acid, vit B12

Hgb electrophoresis; haptoglobin

Blood smear: < number of other cells (thrombocytes), parasites (malaria), variation in RBC’s size (anysocytosis), in shape (poikylocytosis)

Term

What does this show:

CBC: low RBC count, low Hb, low Ht

Retic < 2/nl (depends on stage of anemia), MCV < 80, MCHC < 32 = microcytic, hypochromic

Blood smear: pale, small RBC, anisopoikilocytosis

Low ferritin, low Fe, TIBC high, later microcytosis and hypochromia 

Definition
iron def anemia
Term
What is management of iron def anemia?
Definition

IDENTIFY the cause of Fe deficiency

Replace iron: oral ferrous sulfate (empty stomach).  Frequent GI intolerance.  Add vit C, improves absorption

If malabsorption, use parenteral iron: IV, avoid IM

Improve diet

Severe cases: transfusion

F/U: in 3-4months (lifespan of RBC is 120 days), ck retic count.  If  tx is efficient, retic should increase in 10-14 days (towards normal values)

Term

What is diagnostic of anemia of chronic disease?

 

iron

ferritin

TIBC

Definition

–Lab: retic <2, MCV nl/low (advanced dis)

–Iron low, ferritin high/nl, TIBC low

Term
What is the major difference between anemia of chronic disease and iron def anemia?
Definition

lThe major differentiation criterion: ferritin is increased/nl in anemia of chr dis vs decreased in iron deficiency anemia    

Term

Pt presents with:

 

Neurological manifestation (dgn priority): disturbance in position and vibratory sense, incoordination, spasticity, positive Babinsky, can mimic Alzheimer with MS changes

 

What could it be?

Definition
megoblastic anemia
Term
What are causes of megoblastic anemia?
Definition

Causes:

folate deficiency in alcoholism, low intake (body stores last 3 months), malabsorption, drugs (phenytoin, methotrexate), high utilization – pregnancy, infants

B12 deficiency due to alcohol, extreme diet (body stores last up to year), or, true pernicious anemia = lack of IF (intrinsic factor) due to autoimmune disease. Lack of IF frequently assoc with achlorhydria (gastric cancer).

Term
What pts are susceptible to Thalaseemia?
Definition
 Asian, African, Mediterranean
Term
What are common hemolytic anemias?
Definition
sickle cell anemia and its variants, thalassemia,glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, and hereditary spherocytosis
Term

Whta could this be:

 

o   Symptoms: weakness, fatigue, lethargy, dyspnea with minimal exertion, palpitations, and orthostasis.

o   Signs:  orthostatic hypotension; tachycardia; skin, nail bed, and mucosal pallor; systolic ejection murmur; bounding pulse; and widened pulse pressure. 

Definition
anemia
Term
What causes folate deficiency anemia?
Definition

·      inadequate dietary intake (eg hemodialysis, elderly), malabsorption, alcoholism 

Term
What are etiologies of B12 deficiency anemia
Definition

·      Vitamin B12 deficiency may be caused by pernicious anemia, poor diet, malabsorption (eg, partial or total gastrectomy, ileal resection, tropical sprue, small bowel lymphoma, inflammatory bowel disease, pancreatic insufficiency), nitrous oxide (N2O) inhalation, small intestine parasite infestation (fish tapeworm), bacterial overgrowth of small intestine, drugs (eg, Metformin, cholestyramine, neomycin, colchicine), congenital disorders (eg, transcobalamin II deficiency).

·      Most common cause of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency is not inadequate intake, but inability to absorb

Term
What is the test to determine if etiolgoy of anemia is B12 deficiency?
Definition

·      Schilling test can be performed to determine if underlying cause of B12 deficiency is pernicious anemia: 

Term
What are top two causes of acute pancreatitis?
Definition
cholelithiasis or alcohol abuse
Term

What could this be:

 

midepigastric or left upper quadrant pain.

constant, boring pain that often radiates to the back as well as the flanks, chest, or lower abdomen.

 The pain is exacerbated in the supine position and can be relieved when sitting with the trunk and knees flexed.

Nausea and vomiting are common, and abdominal bloating from gastric and intestinal hypomotility is a frequent complaint.

Definition
Acute pancreatitis
Term
What are two signs of hemorrhagic pancreatitis?
Definition
Cullen sign, a bluish discoloration around the umbilicus, and Grey Turner sign, a bluish discoloration of the flanks, are characteristic but rare signs of hemorrhagic pancreatitis.
Term
What is treatment for acute pancreatits?
Definition

fluid resuscitiation with NS

parenteral narcotics and antiemetics

Empiric antibiotics are not indicated in mild to moderate pancreatitis but should be considered in severe disease

 

if severe: Intravenous imipenem or a quinolone (ofloxacin or ciprofloxacin) in combination with metronidazole are recommended and have demonstrated high tissue levels as well as bactericidal activity.

Term
What makes chronic pancreatitis dif from acute pancreatitis?
Definition
acute pancreatitis, patients with chronic pancreatitis appear chronically ill and may have signs and symptoms of pancreatic insufficiency, including weight loss, steatorrhea, clubbing, and polyuria. Stigmata of chronic liver disease may be present if the etiology is alcohol abus
Term
What is tx for chronic pancreatitis?
Definition
he management of chronic pancreatitis in the ED involves ruling out other diagnoses or complications and includes supportive care. Intravenous narcotic analgesics and antiemetics usually are required. Fluid and electrolyte abnormalities should be corrected. The long-term goals of treatment are pain control, relief of mechanical obstruction or complications, correction of malabsorption, and alteration of the disease course. Pancreatic extracts frequently are administered to improve absorption and reduce pain. Cessation of alcohol ingestion is essential because the 5-year mortality rate of chronic pancreatitis in patients who continue to abuse alcohol is 50 percent.
Term

Pt recently returns from traveling and complains of fever, flatulence, nausea, emesis and abdominal pain which is usually spasmodic and colicky.

 

What could it be?

 

How do u treat?

Definition

gastroenteritis

 

if vomiting: fluid resuscitation

 

if diarrhea for more than 10 to 14 days with fever, systemic symsptom or blood or pus in stool: empiric therapy with ampicillin OR bactrim

Term
what are complications of a strangulated hernia?
Definition

peritonitis

perforation

septic shock

Term
Incarcerated hernias do or do NOT transluminate?
Definition

DO NOT!

 

hydroceles DO TRANSLUMNINATE

Term
If strangulated hernia and evidence of perforation...what do u give?
Definition
piperacillin/tazobactam 3.375 g IV or double drug coverage with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone PLUS clindal or metronidazole
Term

Pt presents with right lower quad pain

pain before vomiting

absence of previous similar pain

 

abdominal rigidity

pain migration

positive psoas sign

 

What is it? what is diagnostic study of choice?How do u treat?

Definition

appendicitis

 

CT is image study of choice

 

sort acting opiod analgesics: fentanyl 1-2 micrograms/kg IV q 1-4 h are preferred bc you can reverse by naloxone if needed

 

abx treatment: piperacillin/tazobactam or ampicillin/sulbactam

Term
Tx of peritonisllar abscess
Definition

I&D by trained professional

 

Prior to aspiration, lidocaine spray or gel orbenzocaine-tetracaine spray (Cetacaine) is used to topically anesthetize the overlying mucosa. Then 1 to 2 mL of lidocaine withepinephrine is injected into the mucosa of the anterior tonsillar pillar using a 25-gauge needle. Once adequate anesthesia is achieved, an 18-gauge needle should be introduced just lateral to the tonsil, approximately halfway between the base of the uvula and the maxillary alveolar ridge, until the abscess cavity is encountered. The abscess then should be aspirated.The needle should penetrate no more than 1 cm because the internal carotid artery usually lies laterally and posterior to the posterior edge of the tonsil. 

Following needle aspiration, 10 days of high-dose penicillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients is the treatment of choice

Term
What are the top etiologies in neonate for meningitis?
Definition

Neonates: group B or D strep, nongroup B strep, E Coli, Listeria monocytogenes.


Term
What are the top etiologies for meningitis in infants and children?
Definition

Infants and Children: H influenzae, S pneumonia, N meningitidis


Term
What are the top etiologies for meningitis in adults?
Definition
Adults: S pneumoniae, H influenzae, H meningitidis, gram negative bacilli, staph, strep, listeria.
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